Medical Microbiology Quiz Questions And Answers

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Medical Microbiology Quiz Questions And Answers - Quiz

Can you score high by attempting these medical microbiology quiz questions and answers? Check it out now. Medical microbiology, the large subset of microbiology applied to medicine, is a major branch of medical science that is concerned with the prevention, diagnosis, and with the treatment of infectious diseases. So, let's see how well you perform in this quiz. Best of luck to you, and have fun as you take this quiz! Let us go!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What word describes a mutually beneficial relationship?

    • A.

      Saprophytic

    • B.

      Commensal

    • C.

      Symbiotic

    • D.

      Pathogenic

    Correct Answer
    C. Symbiotic
    Explanation
    The word "symbiotic" describes a mutually beneficial relationship between two organisms. In a symbiotic relationship, both organisms benefit from each other's presence. This can be seen in various examples such as the relationship between bees and flowers, where bees obtain nectar for food while also pollinating the flowers. Similarly, some bacteria in our gut help with digestion and in return, they receive a suitable environment to thrive. Therefore, "symbiotic" is the correct answer as it accurately represents a mutually beneficial relationship.

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  • 2. 

    What does the protozoa plasmodia cause?

    • A.

      Ringworm

    • B.

      Malaria

    • C.

      Dysentry

    • D.

      Meningitis

    Correct Answer
    B. Malaria
    Explanation
    Plasmodia is a type of protozoa that causes malaria. Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease that affects humans and other animals. The plasmodia parasite is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Once inside the human body, the parasites multiply in the liver and then infect red blood cells, causing symptoms such as fever, chills, and flu-like illness. If left untreated, malaria can be life-threatening. Therefore, the correct answer is Malaria.

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  • 3. 

    What does Staphylococcus aureus cause?

    • A.

      Boils, septicaemia, food poisoning, wound infections

    • B.

      Tonsillitis, cellulitis, scarlet fever, septicaemia

    • C.

      Pneumonia., otitis media, meningitis

    • D.

      Endocarditis, dental caries

    Correct Answer
    A. Boils, septicaemia, food poisoning, wound infections
    Explanation
    Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium that can cause a range of infections in humans. It is known to cause boils, which are painful, pus-filled bumps on the skin. It can also cause septicaemia, which is a severe bloodstream infection. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of food poisoning, often from contaminated food. Additionally, it can cause wound infections, leading to delayed healing and potential complications. Therefore, the correct answer is that Staphylococcus aureus causes boils, septicaemia, food poisoning, and wound infections.

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  • 4. 

    What does Streptococcus pneumoniae cause?

    • A.

      Boils, septicaemia, food poisoning, wound infections

    • B.

      Tonsillitis, cellulitis, scarlet fever, septicaemia

    • C.

      Pneumonia., otitis media, meningitis

    • D.

      Endocarditis, dental caries

    Correct Answer
    C. Pneumonia., otitis media, meningitis
    Explanation
    Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that causes various infections, including pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and meningitis. These infections can affect different parts of the body and can lead to serious complications if not treated properly. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia, especially in children and the elderly. It can also cause otitis media, an infection of the middle ear, and meningitis, an infection of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

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  • 5. 

    Salmonella causes Enteric fever (typhoid) and food poisoning. Is it a...

    • A.

      Fungi

    • B.

      Gram-positive bacilli

    • C.

      Gram negative bacilli

    • D.

      Gram positive cocci

    Correct Answer
    C. Gram negative bacilli
    Explanation
    Salmonella is classified as a Gram-negative bacilli. Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain during the Gram staining process. Salmonella is known to cause enteric fever (typhoid) and food poisoning, and its classification as a Gram-negative bacilli is consistent with its characteristics and behavior.

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  • 6. 

    Hepatitis B is caused by the DNA virus hepadnavirus. How is it transmitted?

    • A.

      Blood and bodily fluids

    • B.

      Airborne

    • C.

      Waterborne

    • D.

      Foodborne

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood and bodily fluids
    Explanation
    Hepatitis B is caused by the DNA virus hepadnavirus, which is primarily transmitted through blood and bodily fluids. This includes activities such as unprotected sexual contact, sharing needles or other drug paraphernalia, and from an infected mother to her baby during childbirth. It is not transmitted through airborne, waterborne, or foodborne routes.

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  • 7. 

    Which virus is known to cause cervical cancer?

    • A.

      Papillomavirus

    • B.

      Parvovirus

    • C.

      Poxvirus

    • D.

      Paramyxoviruses

    Correct Answer
    A. Papillomavirus
    Explanation
    Papillomavirus is known to cause cervical cancer. This virus is transmitted through sexual contact and can infect the cells of the cervix, leading to abnormal cell growth and potentially developing into cancer over time. It is important to note that not all strains of papillomavirus cause cancer, but certain high-risk strains, such as HPV 16 and HPV 18, are strongly associated with cervical cancer development. Regular screening and vaccination against these high-risk strains can help prevent cervical cancer.

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  • 8. 

    What do the RNA orthomyxoviruses cause?

    • A.

      Influenza

    • B.

      Yellow fever

    • C.

      Colds

    • D.

      Meningitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Influenza
    Explanation
    RNA orthomyxoviruses cause influenza, which is a viral infection that affects the respiratory system. Influenza is characterized by symptoms such as fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, and fatigue. It is a highly contagious illness that can spread rapidly, especially during flu seasons. The RNA orthomyxoviruses, including influenza A, B, and C viruses, are responsible for causing seasonal flu outbreaks and occasional pandemics. These viruses undergo frequent genetic changes, making it necessary to develop new vaccines each year to provide protection against the most prevalent strains.

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  • 9. 

    Which of these causes AIDs?

    • A.

      Rhabdoviruses

    • B.

      Retroviruses

    • C.

      Reoviruses

    • D.

      Orthomyxoviruses

    Correct Answer
    B. Retroviruses
    Explanation
    Retroviruses are known to cause AIDS. HIV, which is a type of retrovirus, attacks the immune system and weakens it, leading to the development of AIDS. Retroviruses have the ability to integrate their genetic material into the DNA of the host cells, allowing them to replicate and persist in the body. This integration process and the destruction of immune cells by HIV ultimately result in the progression of AIDS, a severe and life-threatening condition.

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  • 10. 

    Gram-positive cell walls are what percentage of peptidoglycan?

    • A.

      90-95%

    • B.

      50-60%

    • C.

      5-10%

    • D.

      25-30%

    Correct Answer
    A. 90-95%
    Explanation
    Gram-positive cell walls are composed of a thick layer of peptidoglycan, which makes up the majority of the cell wall. This layer is responsible for providing structural integrity to the cell and protecting it from osmotic stress. The correct answer, 90-95%, indicates that peptidoglycan makes up a significant proportion of the Gram-positive cell wall, highlighting its importance in the overall structure and function of these bacterial cells.

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  • 11. 

    For an anaerobic infection which drug is our first choice?

    • A.

      Metronidazole

    • B.

      Amoxycillin

    • C.

      Gentamicin

    • D.

      Vancomycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Metronidazole
    Explanation
    Metronidazole is the first choice for anaerobic infections because it is specifically effective against anaerobic bacteria. Anaerobic infections occur in environments without oxygen, such as deep wounds or the gastrointestinal tract. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA of anaerobic bacteria, leading to their death. Amoxycillin, Gentamicin, and Vancomycin are not as effective against anaerobic bacteria and are more commonly used for other types of infections. Therefore, Metronidazole is the preferred drug for treating anaerobic infections.

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  • 12. 

    Which of these is not a gram-negative bacteria?

    • A.

      Escherichia coli (E. coli)

    • B.

      Salmonella

    • C.

      Haemophilus influenzae

    • D.

      Streptococcus pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    D. Streptococcus pneumonia
    Explanation
    Streptococcus pneumoniae is not a gram-negative bacteria because it is a gram-positive bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, while gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer. Streptococcus pneumoniae is classified as gram-positive because it stains purple in the Gram staining process, indicating the presence of a thick peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall.

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  • 13. 

    Which of these gram-negative bacteria commonly cause a UTI?

    • A.

      Escherichia coli (E. coli)

    • B.

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    • C.

      Neisseria meningitis

    • D.

      Salmonella

    Correct Answer
    A. Escherichia coli (E. coli)
    Explanation
    Escherichia coli (E. coli) is a gram-negative bacteria that commonly causes urinary tract infections (UTIs). UTIs occur when E. coli bacteria enter the urethra and travel up to the bladder or kidneys. E. coli is found in the intestines and is a normal part of the gut flora, but when it enters the urinary tract, it can cause infection and inflammation. It is the most common cause of UTIs, accounting for about 80-90% of cases. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis are gram-negative bacteria that can cause other types of infections, while Salmonella is primarily associated with foodborne illnesses.

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  • 14. 

    What disease/condition does salmonella cause?

    • A.

      Hepatobiliary tract infection

    • B.

      Enteric fever and Gastroenteritis in the elderly

    • C.

      Respiratory and CNS infection, especially in infants

    • D.

      CNS infection

    Correct Answer
    B. Enteric fever and Gastroenteritis in the elderly
    Explanation
    Salmonella is a type of bacteria that can cause enteric fever and gastroenteritis in the elderly. Enteric fever is a systemic infection characterized by high fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Gastroenteritis, on the other hand, is an inflammation of the stomach and intestines that leads to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Both conditions can be caused by the ingestion of food or water contaminated with Salmonella bacteria.

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  • 15. 

    What disease/condition does Haemophilus influenza cause?

    • A.

      Respiratory and CNS infection, especially in infants

    • B.

      Enteric fever

    • C.

      Cellulitis/skin infection

    • D.

      Endocarditis

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory and CNS infection, especially in infants
    Explanation
    Haemophilus influenza is a bacterium that causes respiratory and central nervous system (CNS) infections, particularly in infants. It is known to cause conditions such as pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media. This bacterium can be transmitted through respiratory droplets and can lead to severe illness in young children, making it important to vaccinate against it.

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  • 16. 

    What type of antibiotics works by affecting cell wall synthesis?

    • A.

      BETA-LACTAM ANTIBIOTICS

    • B.

      TETRACYCLINES

    • C.

      AMINOGLYCOSIDES

    • D.

      MACROLIDES

    Correct Answer
    A. BETA-LACTAM ANTIBIOTICS
    Explanation
    Beta-lactam antibiotics work by affecting cell wall synthesis. These antibiotics inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan, a major component of bacterial cell walls, leading to weakened cell walls and ultimately bacterial cell death. This mechanism of action is specific to beta-lactam antibiotics, making them effective against a wide range of bacterial infections. Examples of beta-lactam antibiotics include penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems.

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  • 17. 

    Aminoglycosides work by Interaction with the 30S subunit of ribosomes. Which of these are examples of aminoglycosides?

    • A.

      Streptomycin, gentamycin

    • B.

      Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

    • C.

      Vancomycin

    • D.

      Penicillin

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptomycin, gentamycin
    Explanation
    Aminoglycosides such as streptomycin and gentamycin interact with the 30S subunit of ribosomes. These antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the ribosomes and causing misreading of the genetic code, ultimately leading to bacterial cell death. Erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin are examples of macrolide antibiotics, not aminoglycosides. Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic, and penicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic. Therefore, the correct examples of aminoglycosides are streptomycin and gentamycin.

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  • 18. 

    Macrolides bind to the 50S subunit of the ribosome: inhibiting translocation of the growing peptide chain. Which of these are examples of macrolides?

    • A.

      Streptomycin, gentamycin

    • B.

      Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

    • C.

      Vancomycin

    • D.

      Amoxicillin

    Correct Answer
    B. Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin
    Explanation
    Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that work by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, which is responsible for protein synthesis. This binding inhibits the translocation of the growing peptide chain, effectively stopping the synthesis of proteins in bacteria. Streptomycin and gentamycin are not macrolides, so they are not examples of this class of antibiotics. On the other hand, erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin are all macrolides, making them the correct answer to the question. Vancomycin and amoxicillin are not macrolides and are therefore not examples of this class of antibiotics.

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  • 19. 

    Which of these groups of antibiotics work by affecting nucleic acid function or synthesis?

    • A.

      MACROLIDES

    • B.

      QUINOLONES AND FLUOROQUINOLONES

    • C.

      AMINOGLYCOSIDES

    • D.

      SULFONAMIDES

    Correct Answer
    B. QUINOLONES AND FLUOROQUINOLONES
    Explanation
    Quinolones and fluoroquinolones are groups of antibiotics that work by affecting nucleic acid function or synthesis. These antibiotics inhibit the activity of bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV enzymes, which are essential for DNA replication, transcription, and repair. By targeting these enzymes, quinolones and fluoroquinolones disrupt the bacterial DNA synthesis process, leading to inhibition of bacterial growth and ultimately killing the bacteria. This mechanism of action makes them effective against a wide range of bacterial infections.

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  • 20. 

    Which of these antibiotics works by inhibiting the folic acid converting enzyme?

    • A.

      Trimetroprim

    • B.

      Amoxicillin

    • C.

      Metronidazole

    • D.

      Rifampicin

    Correct Answer
    A. Trimetroprim
    Explanation
    Trimetroprim works by inhibiting the folic acid converting enzyme. Folic acid is essential for the synthesis of DNA, RNA, and proteins in bacteria. By inhibiting the enzyme responsible for converting folic acid, Trimetroprim disrupts these processes, leading to the inhibition of bacterial growth and the eventual death of the bacteria. Amoxicillin, Metronidazole, and Rifampicin have different mechanisms of action and do not directly inhibit the folic acid converting enzyme.

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  • 21. 

    What is the clinical manifestation of poliovirus?

    • A.

      Gastroenteritis

    • B.

      Myocarditis

    • C.

      Spinal paralysis

    • D.

      Conjunctivitis

    Correct Answer
    C. Spinal paralysis
    Explanation
    The clinical manifestation of poliovirus is spinal paralysis. Poliovirus primarily affects the nervous system, specifically the motor neurons in the spinal cord. This can result in muscle weakness, loss of reflexes, and ultimately paralysis. Other symptoms may include fever, headache, and sore throat, but the most significant manifestation is the paralysis.

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  • 22. 

    Spring fatigue, Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharynxcarconoma can all be caused by which virus?

    • A.

      Orthopoxviruses

    • B.

      EBV

    • C.

      Caliciviruses

    • D.

      Hepatitis

    Correct Answer
    B. EBV
    Explanation
    Spring fatigue, Burkitt lymphoma, and nasopharynx carcinoma are all conditions that can be caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). EBV is a common virus that is transmitted through saliva and can cause various illnesses, including infectious mononucleosis (also known as "mono") and certain types of cancer, such as Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharynx carcinoma. Therefore, EBV is the virus that can cause these conditions.

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  • 23. 

    Which of these is not a bloodborne virus?

    • A.

      HIV

    • B.

      Hepatitis A

    • C.

      Hepatitis B

    • D.

      Hepatitis D

    Correct Answer
    B. Hepatitis A
    Explanation
    Hepatitis A is not a bloodborne virus. It is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, usually by consuming contaminated food or water. In contrast, HIV, Hepatitis B, and Hepatitis D are all bloodborne viruses, meaning they are transmitted through contact with infected blood or other body fluids.

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  • 24. 

    Which vector(s) carry rabies?

    • A.

      Mosquito

    • B.

      Mice, rats

    • C.

      Rodents, monkeys, cows, sheep

    • D.

      Dogs, foxes, bats

    Correct Answer
    D. Dogs, foxes, bats
    Explanation
    Dogs, foxes, and bats are vectors that can carry rabies. Rabies is a viral disease that affects the nervous system and can be transmitted to humans through the saliva of infected animals. Dogs are one of the most common carriers of rabies, especially in regions where vaccination programs are not well-established. Foxes can also carry and transmit the virus, particularly in rural areas. Bats are natural reservoirs for the rabies virus and can transmit it through bites or scratches. It is important to be cautious around these animals to prevent the spread of rabies.

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  • 25. 

    Which of these is carried by mosquitos?

    • A.

      Influenza

    • B.

      Ebola type hemorrhagic fevers

    • C.

      Dengue hemorrhagic fever

    • D.

      Milkers nodule

    Correct Answer
    C. Dengue hemorrhagic fever
    Explanation
    Mosquitos can carry and transmit the dengue virus, which causes dengue fever. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is a severe form of dengue fever that can lead to bleeding, organ damage, and even death. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitos, primarily the Aedes aegypti mosquito. Symptoms of dengue hemorrhagic fever include high fever, severe headache, joint and muscle pain, rash, and bleeding. It is important to prevent mosquito bites and control mosquito breeding sites to reduce the risk of dengue hemorrhagic fever.

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  • 26. 

    Clostridia spp eg Cl. tetani, Cl. perfringens, Cl. botulinum are anaerobic gram positive bacilli, what do they cause?

    • A.

      Diphtheria

    • B.

      Endocarditis

    • C.

      Tonsillitis, cellulitis, scarlet fever, septicaemia

    • D.

      Tetanus, gas gangrene, botulism

    Correct Answer
    D. Tetanus, gas gangrene, botulism
    Explanation
    Clostridia spp, including Cl. tetani, Cl. perfringens, and Cl. botulinum, are anaerobic gram-positive bacilli. They are known to cause tetanus, gas gangrene, and botulism. Tetanus is a condition characterized by muscle stiffness and spasms, usually caused by the toxin produced by Cl. tetani. Gas gangrene is a severe infection that leads to tissue death and is caused by Cl. perfringens. Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the toxin produced by Cl. botulinum, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis.

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  • 27. 

    Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhoea. Is it a...

    • A.

      Gram-negative cocci

    • B.

      Gram-negative bacilli

    • C.

      Gram-positive bacilli

    • D.

      Gram-positive cocci

    Correct Answer
    A. Gram-negative cocci
    Explanation
    Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacterium that causes the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhoea. It is classified as Gram-negative cocci based on its shape and the color it retains after a Gram staining procedure. Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram staining process. Instead, they appear pink or red when counterstained with safranin. This classification is important for identifying and treating the infection, as it helps determine the appropriate antibiotics to use.

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  • 28. 

    Which gram negative bacilli causes dysentery?

    • A.

      Proteus spp

    • B.

      Shigella spp

    • C.

      Klebsiella spp

    • D.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    Correct Answer
    B. Shigella spp
    Explanation
    Shigella spp is the correct answer because it is a gram-negative bacilli that is known to cause dysentery. Shigella bacteria are responsible for Shigellosis, a highly contagious infection that affects the intestines and causes symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Other options such as Proteus spp, Klebsiella spp, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are not typically associated with causing dysentery.

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  • 29. 

    Thrush and mucocutaneous infection is caused by which commensal yeast of skin and mucous membranes?

    • A.

      Candida albicans

    • B.

      E coli

    • C.

      Aspergillus spp

    • D.

      Treponema pallidum

    Correct Answer
    A. Candida albicans
    Explanation
    Candida albicans is a commensal yeast that commonly resides on the skin and mucous membranes of humans. It can cause thrush, which is an infection characterized by white patches on the tongue and inside the mouth. It can also cause mucocutaneous infections, which affect the skin and mucous membranes. This yeast is opportunistic and can cause infections when the immune system is weakened or when there is an imbalance in the normal microbial flora.

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  • 30. 

    Herpes viruses are important opportunists which remain latent after infection and can reactivate. Which of these diseases do herpes viruses NOT cause?

    • A.

      Chickenpox

    • B.

      Shingles

    • C.

      Glandular fever

    • D.

      Warts

    • E.

      Roseola Infantum

    Correct Answer
    D. Warts
    Explanation
    Herpes viruses are known to cause various diseases, including chickenpox, shingles, glandular fever, and roseola infantum. However, warts are not caused by herpes viruses. Warts are typically caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a different type of virus. While both herpes viruses and HPV are common and can cause different types of infections, warts specifically are not associated with herpes viruses.

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  • 31. 

    Which RNA viruses cause yellow fever and chronic hepatits?

    • A.

      Flaviviruses

    • B.

      Orthomyxoviruses

    • C.

      Paramyxoviruses

    • D.

      Picornaviruses

    Correct Answer
    A. Flaviviruses
    Explanation
    Flaviviruses cause yellow fever and chronic hepatitis. Yellow fever is a viral infection transmitted by mosquitoes, and it can cause symptoms such as fever, headache, jaundice, and organ failure. Chronic hepatitis, on the other hand, is a long-term inflammation of the liver caused by viral infection. Flaviviruses are a family of RNA viruses that include several well-known viruses such as dengue fever, Zika virus, West Nile virus, and Japanese encephalitis virus. Therefore, the correct answer is Flaviviruses.

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  • 32. 

    Which of these is not an airborne virus?

    • A.

      Respiratory syncytial virus

    • B.

      Parainfluenza virus

    • C.

      Measlesvirus

    • D.

      Poliovirus

    Correct Answer
    D. Poliovirus
    Explanation
    Poliovirus is not an airborne virus because it is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, meaning it spreads through contaminated food or water. It does not spread through respiratory droplets like airborne viruses such as respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, and measles virus, which can be transmitted through coughing, sneezing, or close contact with an infected person.

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  • 33. 

    Rhinitis is associated with viruses transmitted mainly via the respiratory route. Which of these viruses cause it?

    • A.

      Coronavirus, Parainfluenza virus, Respiratory syncytial virus

    • B.

      Influenza virus, Adenovirus

    • C.

      Epstein-Barr virus

    • D.

      Measlesvirus

    Correct Answer
    A. Coronavirus, Parainfluenza virus, Respiratory syncytial virus
    Explanation
    Rhinitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages, leading to symptoms such as a runny or stuffy nose, sneezing, and nasal congestion. It is commonly caused by viruses that are transmitted through respiratory droplets. The viruses listed in the answer choices - Coronavirus, Parainfluenza virus, and Respiratory syncytial virus - are all known to cause respiratory infections and can lead to the development of rhinitis. Influenza virus and Adenovirus can also cause respiratory symptoms, but they are not specifically mentioned in relation to rhinitis. Epstein-Barr virus and Measles virus are not typically associated with rhinitis.

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  • 34. 

    When EBV is contracted via the respiratory route, how does it clinically manifest?

    • A.

      Rhinitis

    • B.

      Laryngitis

    • C.

      Pharyngitis

    • D.

      Tracheitis

    Correct Answer
    B. Laryngitis
    Explanation
    When EBV is contracted via the respiratory route, it clinically manifests as laryngitis. Laryngitis is the inflammation of the larynx, causing hoarseness or loss of voice. This is one of the common symptoms of EBV infection, along with other respiratory symptoms such as sore throat and cough.

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  • 35. 

    How is measlesvirus contracted?

    • A.

      Direct contact/ingestion

    • B.

      Bloodborne

    • C.

      Respiratory route

    • D.

      Vector

    Correct Answer
    C. Respiratory route
    Explanation
    Measles virus is contracted through the respiratory route, meaning it can be transmitted through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. These droplets can then be inhaled by others, leading to infection. This is a common mode of transmission for many respiratory viruses, including measles.

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  • 36. 

    Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis is a late complication of which disease?

    • A.

      Measlesvirus

    • B.

      EBV

    • C.

      HIV

    • D.

      Glandular fever

    Correct Answer
    A. Measlesvirus
    Explanation
    Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare and progressive neurological disorder that occurs as a late complication of measles infection. It is caused by a persistent infection of the measles virus in the brain. SSPE typically develops several years after the initial measles infection, and it is characterized by a gradual deterioration of mental and motor functions. The measles virus is known to persist in the body, particularly in the brain, and can lead to SSPE in some individuals. Other viruses, such as EBV (Epstein-Barr virus) and HIV, do not cause SSPE. Glandular fever is another term for infectious mononucleosis, which is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is not associated with SSPE.

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  • 37. 

    By what route is poliovirus contracted?

    • A.

      Respiratory

    • B.

      Bloodborne

    • C.

      Direct contact/ingestion

    • D.

      Vector

    Correct Answer
    C. Direct contact/ingestion
    Explanation
    Poliovirus is contracted through direct contact or ingestion. This means that the virus can be spread by coming into contact with the feces or respiratory secretions of an infected person, or by consuming contaminated food or water. This mode of transmission highlights the importance of practicing good hygiene, such as washing hands thoroughly and ensuring proper sanitation, to prevent the spread of the virus.

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  • 38. 

    How are enteroviruses contracted?

    • A.

      Foodborne

    • B.

      Airborne

    • C.

      Vector

    • D.

      Bloodborne

    Correct Answer
    A. Foodborne
    Explanation
    Enteroviruses are contracted through the consumption of contaminated food. This can occur when food is prepared or handled by individuals who are infected with the virus and fail to practice proper hygiene. Ingesting contaminated food allows the virus to enter the digestive system and cause infection. Therefore, the correct answer is "Foodborne."

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  • 39. 

    Gastroenteritis is contracted by ingestion. By which viruses is it caused?

    • A.

      Hepatitis A

    • B.

      Poliovirus

    • C.

      Caliciviruses, Adenovirus 40 and 41, Rotavirus

    • D.

      HSV, CMV, JC-virus

    Correct Answer
    C. Caliciviruses, Adenovirus 40 and 41, Rotavirus
    Explanation
    Gastroenteritis is caused by the ingestion of Caliciviruses, Adenovirus 40 and 41, and Rotavirus. These viruses can be transmitted through contaminated food or water, leading to inflammation of the stomach and intestines. Hepatitis A is a separate viral infection that affects the liver, while Poliovirus, HSV, CMV, and JC-virus do not typically cause gastroenteritis.

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  • 40. 

    Which of these viruses can cause hepatitis? (by ingestion or direct contact)

    • A.

      Adenoviruses, herpesviruses

    • B.

      Coxsackievirus B

    • C.

      Rotavirus, Caliciviruses

    • D.

      HSV, enteroviruses

    Correct Answer
    A. Adenoviruses, herpesviruses
    Explanation
    Adenoviruses and herpesviruses are both capable of causing hepatitis when they are ingested or come into direct contact with the body. Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver, and these viruses can infect liver cells and cause damage to the organ. Adenoviruses are a group of viruses that can cause a wide range of illnesses, including respiratory and gastrointestinal infections. Herpesviruses, on the other hand, are a family of viruses that can cause various diseases, including oral and genital herpes. Both types of viruses have been associated with cases of hepatitis.

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  • 41. 

    Warts are caused by which viruses?

    • A.

      Parapoxviruses, EBV

    • B.

      MCV, papillomavirus

    • C.

      Papovavirus

    • D.

      HSV, CMV

    Correct Answer
    B. MCV, papillomavirus
    Explanation
    Warts are caused by the viruses MCV (Molluscum contagiosum virus) and papillomavirus. MCV is a poxvirus that causes small, raised, flesh-colored bumps on the skin. Papillomavirus, on the other hand, is a DNA virus that infects the skin and mucous membranes, causing various types of warts, such as common warts, plantar warts, and genital warts. These viruses are transmitted through direct contact with an infected person or by touching surfaces that have the virus on them.

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  • 42. 

    Myocarditis can be caused by Coxsackievirus B. By what route is it contracted?

    • A.

      Direct contact/ingestion

    • B.

      Bloodborne

    • C.

      Respiratory

    • D.

      Vector

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct contact/ingestion
    Explanation
    Myocarditis is an inflammation of the heart muscle, and it can be caused by Coxsackievirus B. Direct contact/ingestion is the route through which it is contracted. This means that the virus can be transmitted from person to person through close contact or by ingesting contaminated food or water.

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  • 43. 

    Which of these is not a herpesvirus?

    • A.

      Varicella zoster virus

    • B.

      EBV

    • C.

      Cytomegalovirus

    • D.

      Variola

    Correct Answer
    D. Variola
    Explanation
    Variola is not a herpesvirus. Variola virus is the causative agent of smallpox, which is a highly contagious and deadly disease. It belongs to the family Poxviridae, not Herpesviridae. The other options, Varicella zoster virus (causes chickenpox and shingles), Epstein-Barr virus (causes infectious mononucleosis), and Cytomegalovirus (causes a variety of infections), are all herpesviruses.

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  • 44. 

    The ebola and marburg viruses are carried by which vector?

    • A.

      Mosquito

    • B.

      Monkey

    • C.

      Rat

    • D.

      Dogs and foxes

    Correct Answer
    B. Monkey
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Monkey. Ebola and Marburg viruses are primarily carried by non-human primates, particularly monkeys. These viruses can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected monkeys or their bodily fluids. Monkeys serve as a reservoir for these viruses, allowing them to persist and potentially spread to other animals or humans. It is important to understand the role of vectors in the transmission of diseases in order to implement effective control and prevention measures.

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  • 45. 

    Hantaviruses cause haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome, pneumonia, nephritis, encephalitis. What vector carries them?

    • A.

      Mosquito

    • B.

      Dogs, foxes, bats

    • C.

      Mice, rats

    • D.

      Cows, sheep

    Correct Answer
    C. Mice, rats
    Explanation
    Hantaviruses are primarily carried by mice and rats. These rodents act as the reservoir hosts for the virus, meaning that they can carry and transmit it to humans. When infected rodents shed the virus in their urine, droppings, or saliva, humans can become infected through direct contact or inhalation of contaminated materials. Therefore, mice and rats are the vectors that carry hantaviruses and can cause various illnesses such as haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome, pneumonia, nephritis, and encephalitis.

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  • 46. 

    How are dengue viruses 1-4 transmitted?

    • A.

      Bloodborne

    • B.

      Vector

    • C.

      Respiratory

    • D.

      Direct contact

    Correct Answer
    B. Vector
    Explanation
    Dengue viruses 1-4 are transmitted through a vector. This means that they are spread by the bite of infected mosquitoes, specifically the Aedes species. These mosquitoes become infected when they bite a person who already has the virus in their bloodstream. The virus then replicates within the mosquito and can be transmitted to other individuals when the infected mosquito bites them. This is the primary mode of transmission for dengue viruses 1-4.

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  • 47. 

    Which of these is commonly found on the skin?

    • A.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • B.

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • C.

      Viridans streptococci

    • D.

      Clostridia spp

    Correct Answer
    B. Staphylococcus aureus
    Explanation
    Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found on the skin. It is a bacteria that can cause various infections, including skin infections such as boils, impetigo, and cellulitis. It is part of the normal flora of the skin and can be found in the nose and throat as well. Staphylococcus aureus can also cause more serious infections if it enters the bloodstream or other parts of the body.

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  • 48. 

    Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diptheria. Is it a...

    • A.

      Gram-positive cocci

    • B.

      Gram-positive bacilli

    • C.

      Gram-negative cocci

    • D.

      Acid-fast Bacilli

    Correct Answer
    B. Gram-positive bacilli
    Explanation
    Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a bacterium that causes diphtheria, which is a respiratory infection. It is classified as a Gram-positive bacilli. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which retains the crystal violet stain during the Gram staining process, causing them to appear purple under a microscope. Bacilli refers to the shape of the bacteria, which are rod-shaped. This classification helps in identifying and treating the infection caused by this specific bacterium.

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  • 49. 

    Which of these causes tonsillitis, cellulitis, scarlet fever, septicaemia?

    • A.

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B.

      Clostridia spp

    • C.

      Beta-haemolytic streptococci

    • D.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    Correct Answer
    C. Beta-haemolytic streptococci
    Explanation
    Beta-haemolytic streptococci cause tonsillitis, cellulitis, scarlet fever, and septicaemia. These bacteria are known to be pathogenic and can cause a range of infections in humans. Tonsillitis is an infection of the tonsils, cellulitis is a skin infection, scarlet fever is a bacterial infection that causes a red rash and high fever, and septicaemia is a severe bloodstream infection. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridia spp, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are also pathogenic bacteria, but they are not specifically associated with causing these particular infections.

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  • 50. 

    Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis which is the commonest cause of infectious death world-wide. Is it a...

    • A.

      Acid-fast Bacilli

    • B.

      Protozoa

    • C.

      Gram-postitive cocci

    • D.

      Gram-positive bacilla

    Correct Answer
    A. Acid-fast Bacilli
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis is classified as Acid-fast Bacilli because it is a type of bacteria that retains a stain even after being washed with acid-alcohol. This staining characteristic is due to the presence of a waxy substance called mycolic acid in their cell walls. Acid-fast Bacilli are commonly associated with diseases such as tuberculosis, which is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 03, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 21, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Abigail Tullett
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