Mt Simulation Examination 3
This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Medtech/Labtech Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
What lipoprotein is also referred to as "pre-beta" lipoprotein?
- A.
HDL
- B.
VLDL
- C.
LDL
- D.
Lipo B
Correct Answer
B. VLDLExplanation
VLDL stands for Very Low-Density Lipoprotein and is often referred to as "pre-beta" lipoprotein. This is because VLDL is the precursor to LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein) and is converted to LDL in the bloodstream. VLDL carries triglycerides, cholesterol, and other lipids from the liver to the cells in the body. As VLDL particles lose triglycerides, they become smaller and denser, eventually transforming into LDL. Therefore, VLDL is commonly known as "pre-beta" lipoprotein.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the scientific measurement for volume?
- A.
Liter
- B.
Gram
- C.
Mole
- D.
Meter
Correct Answer
A. LiterExplanation
The scientific measurement for volume is liter. Volume is a measure of the amount of space occupied by an object or substance. The liter is a metric unit of volume commonly used in scientific measurements. It is equal to one cubic decimeter, or 1000 cubic centimeters. The liter is widely used in various fields of science, such as chemistry and physics, to measure the volume of liquids and gases.Rate this question:
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- 3.
ALP is elevated in the following disorder?
- A.
Addison's Disease
- B.
Paget's Disease
- C.
Diabetes Insipidus
- D.
Scleroderma
Correct Answer
B. Paget's DiseaseExplanation
Paget's Disease is a bone disorder characterized by abnormal bone remodeling. ALP (alkaline phosphatase) is an enzyme that is involved in bone formation and is typically elevated in Paget's Disease. Therefore, the elevated ALP levels can be used as a diagnostic marker for this disorder. Addison's Disease is a hormonal disorder, Diabetes Insipidus is a condition that affects water balance in the body, and Scleroderma is a connective tissue disease. These conditions do not typically cause elevated ALP levels.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The renal threshold for glucose is__________________.
- A.
180 mg/dl
- B.
160 mg/dl
- C.
140mg/dl
- D.
120 mg/dl
Correct Answer
A. 180 mg/dlExplanation
The renal threshold for glucose refers to the concentration of glucose in the blood at which the kidneys start to excrete glucose into the urine. In healthy individuals, this threshold is typically around 180 mg/dl. Once the blood glucose level exceeds this threshold, the kidneys cannot reabsorb all the glucose and it is excreted in the urine. This is an important mechanism to prevent excessive glucose buildup in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Feces gets its brown pigmentation from _________________.
- A.
Stecobilirubin
- B.
Stercobilin
- C.
Stercobilinogen
- D.
Stecobilin
Correct Answer
B. StercobilinExplanation
Feces gets its brown pigmentation from stercobilin. Stercobilin is a breakdown product of bilirubin, which is a yellow pigment formed from the breakdown of red blood cells in the liver. Bilirubin is further metabolized in the intestines, where it is converted into stercobilin. This stercobilin gives feces its characteristic brown color.Rate this question:
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- 6.
In a hemolytic crisis, bilirubin levels are________________.
- A.
Normal
- B.
Increased
- C.
Decreased
- D.
Unchanged
Correct Answer
B. IncreasedExplanation
In a hemolytic crisis, there is an excessive breakdown of red blood cells, leading to an increased release of bilirubin into the bloodstream. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are broken down. Therefore, in a hemolytic crisis, the levels of bilirubin in the blood are increased.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Hyperkalemia can cause all of the following EXCEPT.
- A.
Decreased Vitamin D absorption
- B.
Muscle weakness
- C.
Heart arrhythmias
- D.
Neuromuscular symptoms
Correct Answer
A. Decreased Vitamin D absorptionExplanation
Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. It can cause various symptoms and complications, including muscle weakness, heart arrhythmias, and neuromuscular symptoms. However, it does not directly cause decreased vitamin D absorption. Vitamin D absorption primarily occurs in the small intestine and is influenced by factors such as dietary intake and intestinal health. Hyperkalemia does not directly affect these processes, thus it does not cause decreased vitamin D absorption.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Tetany is caused primarily by__________________,
- A.
Hypokalemia
- B.
Hyperkalemia
- C.
Hypercalcemia
- D.
Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer
D. HypocalcemiaExplanation
Tetany is caused primarily by hypocalcemia, which refers to low levels of calcium in the blood. Calcium plays a crucial role in muscle function and nerve transmission. When calcium levels are low, it can lead to increased excitability of nerves and muscles, resulting in symptoms like muscle cramps, spasms, and twitching. Hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, and hypercalcemia are conditions related to potassium and calcium levels, but they are not the primary cause of tetany.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The basic unit of protein is called a/an_______________________.
- A.
Peptide
- B.
Amino acid
- C.
Alpha-protein
- D.
Peptone
Correct Answer
B. Amino acidExplanation
The basic unit of protein is called an amino acid. Proteins are made up of long chains of amino acids, which are linked together by peptide bonds. Each amino acid contains an amino group, a carboxyl group, a hydrogen atom, and a unique side chain. These side chains give each amino acid its specific properties and allow proteins to have a wide range of functions in the body. Therefore, amino acid is the correct answer as it accurately describes the fundamental building block of proteins.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The "MM" fraction of CK is most abundant in _____________________.
- A.
Skeletal muscle
- B.
Cardiac muscle
- C.
Brain tissue
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Skeletal muscleExplanation
The "MM" fraction of CK, which refers to the muscle-specific isoform of creatine kinase, is most abundant in skeletal muscle. Creatine kinase is an enzyme found in various tissues, but the MM fraction is predominantly found in skeletal muscle. This is because skeletal muscle requires a high amount of energy and relies heavily on the ATP-creatine phosphate system for rapid energy production. Therefore, the MM fraction of CK is most abundant in skeletal muscle to support its energy demands.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is enzyme is more specific for acute pancreatitis?
- A.
AST
- B.
Amylase
- C.
GGT
- D.
Lipase
Correct Answer
D. LipaseExplanation
Lipase is more specific for acute pancreatitis because it is an enzyme that is primarily produced by the pancreas. Elevated levels of lipase in the blood indicate pancreatic inflammation or injury, which is a characteristic feature of acute pancreatitis. On the other hand, AST (aspartate aminotransferase), amylase, and GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) are also enzymes that can be elevated in acute pancreatitis, but they are not as specific to the pancreas as lipase. Therefore, lipase is the most reliable enzyme for diagnosing acute pancreatitis.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What type of sample can be used to test for protein?
- A.
CSF
- B.
Urine
- C.
Serum/plasma
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the provided samples (CSF, urine, serum/plasma) can be used to test for protein. CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) is a clear fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, and it can be used to detect protein abnormalities in the central nervous system. Urine can also be tested for protein levels, which can indicate kidney function and other health conditions. Serum/plasma, obtained from blood samples, can be used to measure protein levels and detect various diseases or disorders. Therefore, all three samples can be utilized for protein testing.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following agencies is involved in protecting the safety of employees in the workplace?
- A.
OSHA
- B.
CAP
- C.
NRA
- D.
CMS
Correct Answer
A. OSHAExplanation
OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is the correct answer because it is an agency responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees. OSHA sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to protect workers from hazards in the workplace. The other options, CAP (Civil Air Patrol), NRA (National Rifle Association), and CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services), are not directly involved in protecting employee safety in the workplace.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following best describes universal precautions?
- A.
Wearing personal protective equipment in the lab
- B.
Testing all patient specimens for anti-HIV-1/2
- C.
Treating all specimens as potentially bioharzardous
- D.
Washing hands immediately after removing gloves
Correct Answer
C. Treating all specimens as potentially bioharzardousExplanation
Universal precautions refer to the practice of treating all specimens as potentially biohazardous. This means that healthcare professionals should take precautions and follow safety measures when handling any specimen, regardless of whether it is known to be infectious or not. This approach helps to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases and ensures the safety of both the healthcare workers and the patients.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following provide information on how to clean up a chemical spill?
- A.
Material Safety Data Sheet
- B.
Package insert
- C.
Standard operating procedure
- D.
Policy manual
Correct Answer
A. Material Safety Data SheetExplanation
The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) provides detailed information on the properties and hazards of a chemical, as well as safety precautions and procedures for handling and cleaning up spills. It includes information on the appropriate personal protective equipment to use, containment and cleanup measures, and disposal methods. Therefore, the MSDS is the most appropriate source of information for cleaning up a chemical spill.Rate this question:
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- 16.
According to the NFPA hazards identification system, what does the red quadrant indicate?
- A.
A health hazard
- B.
A flammable hazard
- C.
A reactivity hazard
- D.
Special instructions
Correct Answer
B. A flammable hazardExplanation
The red quadrant in the NFPA hazards identification system indicates a flammable hazard. This means that the substance or material being labeled has the potential to ignite and burn easily. It is important to take necessary precautions when handling or storing materials with this hazard, as they can pose a fire risk.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens?
- A.
TB and methiciliin resistant Staph auereus
- B.
Hep C and vancomyocin resistant enterococci
- C.
Human immunodeficiency virum and hep B
- D.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and hep A
Correct Answer
C. Human immunodeficiency virum and hep BExplanation
The correct answer is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B virus (HBV). These are both bloodborne pathogens, meaning they can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or other bodily fluids. TB and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets and skin-to-skin contact. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) and vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) are also not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through contact with contaminated needles or sexual contact. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food or direct contact with infected individuals.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A fire that is cuased by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is an example of what type of fire?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
Correct Answer
A. Class AExplanation
A fire that is caused by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is an example of a Class A fire. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth, and plastics. The lit cigarette ignites the combustible materials in the trash can, resulting in a fire that can spread rapidly if not extinguished properly. Class A fires are typically extinguished using water or other water-based extinguishing agents.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is NOT considered presonal protective equipment
- A.
Latex gloves
- B.
Goggles
- C.
Laboratory coat
- D.
Eyeglasses
Correct Answer
D. EyeglassesExplanation
Eyeglasses are not considered personal protective equipment because they are primarily used for vision correction and do not provide any physical protection against hazards. Personal protective equipment is designed to protect the wearer from potential risks or dangers in the workplace, such as chemicals, flying particles, or infectious materials. While goggles, laboratory coats, and latex gloves are all examples of personal protective equipment that provide specific types of protection, eyeglasses do not fall into this category.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against what airborne pathogen?
- A.
Staph auereus
- B.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- C.
Human immunodeficiency virus
- D.
Hepatitis B virus
Correct Answer
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosisExplanation
Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is the correct answer. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, a highly contagious airborne disease that primarily affects the lungs. Respirator fittings ensure that the respirator masks fit properly on employees, preventing the inhalation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and reducing the risk of infection. Staphylococcus aureus, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and hepatitis B virus are not airborne pathogens that specifically require respirator fittings for protection.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A round bottomed glass tube with only 1 marking of 500 mL volume is called a
- A.
Erylynmeyer beaker
- B.
Volumetric flask
- C.
Graduated flask
- D.
Measuring beaker
Correct Answer
B. Volumetric flaskExplanation
A round bottomed glass tube with only 1 marking of 500 mL volume is called a volumetric flask. Volumetric flasks are commonly used in laboratories for precise measurement of liquids. They have a single marking, indicating the exact volume they can hold when filled to the mark. This allows for accurate and precise measurements, making them ideal for preparing solutions with specific concentrations. The other options mentioned, such as Erylynmeyer beaker, graduated flask, and measuring beaker, are not accurate descriptions of the given glass tube.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How is a TD pipet drained?
- A.
Drain by gravity; do not touch tip of pipet to receiving vessel
- B.
Drain by gravity; tip agaimst inside of receiving vessel surface
- C.
Drain by gravity; rinse out with the diluting fluid
- D.
Drain by gravity; expel last drop of diluent using bulb
Correct Answer
B. Drain by gravity; tip agaimst inside of receiving vessel surfaceExplanation
When draining a TD pipet, it should be done by gravity. The tip of the pipet should be held against the inside surface of the receiving vessel. This ensures that the liquid flows smoothly and does not touch the outside of the pipet or the tip of the receiving vessel, preventing any contamination.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following pipets is the most accurate and is used to reconstitute controls and calibratons?
- A.
Volumetric
- B.
Serological
- C.
Measuring
- D.
Graduated
Correct Answer
A. VolumetricExplanation
Volumetric pipets are the most accurate and precise type of pipets. They are designed to deliver a specific volume of liquid with high accuracy. Volumetric pipets have a single graduation mark and a narrow, tapered tip that ensures precise and controlled dispensing of the liquid. They are commonly used in laboratories for preparing solutions, reconstituting controls, and calibrating instruments due to their high accuracy and reliability.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Chemistry analytes such as glucose and cholesterol are an example of which of the following?
- A.
Solvent
- B.
Solute
- C.
Solution
- D.
Buffer
Correct Answer
B. SoluteExplanation
Glucose and cholesterol are substances that are dissolved in a solvent to form a solution. In this case, the solvent is not mentioned, but it could be water or another liquid. Therefore, glucose and cholesterol are solutes in a solution.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following concentrations is expressed in moles/liter?
- A.
Molality
- B.
Normality
- C.
Molarity
- D.
Percent concentration
Correct Answer
C. MolarityExplanation
Molarity is the concentration of a solution expressed in moles of solute per liter of solution. It is a commonly used unit in chemistry to describe the amount of solute dissolved in a solvent. Molality, on the other hand, is the concentration of a solution expressed in moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. Normality is a unit of concentration that is based on the number of equivalents of a solute per liter of solution. Percent concentration is a unit that expresses the concentration as a percentage of the total solution. Therefore, the correct answer is molarity, as it is the concentration expressed in moles per liter.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The CLS student lab swinging bucket centrifuge is an example of which of the following?
- A.
Horizontal centrifuge
- B.
Fixed angle centrifuge
- C.
Angle-head centrifuge
- D.
Ultracentrifuge
Correct Answer
A. Horizontal centrifugeExplanation
The CLS student lab swinging bucket centrifuge is an example of a horizontal centrifuge. This type of centrifuge has buckets that swing out horizontally when in use, allowing for efficient separation of substances. It is commonly used in laboratories for various applications such as separating blood components or isolating DNA.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is the formula for relative centrifugal force?
- A.
1.18 x 10^-5 (r)(rpm^2)
- B.
1.18 x 10^5 (r)(rmp^2)
- C.
1.18 x 10^-5 (r^2)(rpm)
- D.
1.18 x 10^5 (r^2)(rpm)
Correct Answer
A. 1.18 x 10^-5 (r)(rpm^2)Explanation
The formula for relative centrifugal force is 1.18 x 10^-5 (r)(rpm^2). This formula takes into account the radius (r) and the rotational speed (rpm) squared to calculate the relative centrifugal force. The smaller the radius or the slower the rotational speed, the smaller the relative centrifugal force.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A solution contains 300 g/L of NaCl (GMW=58.5). What is the molarity of the solution?
- A.
1.9 M
- B.
2.0 M
- C.
3.0 M
- D.
5.1 M
Correct Answer
D. 5.1 M -
- 29.
An enzyme result is 1530 U/L but is flagged out of instrument linearity. Using 0.1 mL of patient sample and 0.2 mL of dilutent, the laboratorian makes a dilution and repeats the analysis. What dilution factor should the diluted result be multiplied by?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The dilution factor should be multiplied by 3. The laboratorian made a dilution by using 0.1 mL of patient sample and 0.2 mL of dilutent, resulting in a total volume of 0.3 mL. Since the original enzyme result was flagged out of instrument linearity, it means that the concentration of the enzyme in the sample was too high for the instrument to accurately measure. By diluting the sample, the concentration of the enzyme is reduced, allowing the instrument to measure it accurately. The dilution factor is calculated by dividing the total volume of the diluted sample (0.3 mL) by the volume of the original sample (0.1 mL), which gives a dilution factor of 3.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In a serial dilution, if tube 1 is undiluted and twofold dilutions are used thereafter, what is the titer in tube #10?
- A.
128
- B.
256
- C.
512
- D.
1024
Correct Answer
C. 512Explanation
In a serial dilution, each subsequent tube is diluted by a factor of 2. Since tube 1 is undiluted, tube 2 will have a 2-fold dilution, tube 3 will have a 4-fold dilution, and so on. Therefore, tube #10 will have a 2^9-fold dilution, which is equal to 512.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is NOT a SI unit of measurement?
- A.
Meter
- B.
Moles
- C.
Liter
- D.
Celsius
Correct Answer
D. CelsiusExplanation
Celsius is not a SI unit of measurement because it is a unit of temperature measurement, while the SI system does not include a specific unit for temperature. The SI system includes units such as meter for length, moles for amount of substance, and liter for volume. Celsius is commonly used for temperature measurement, but it is not part of the SI system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
How is 100 degrees F recorded in Celcius?
- A.
22
- B.
35
- C.
38
- D.
42
Correct Answer
C. 38Explanation
To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, you can use the formula: Celsius = (Fahrenheit - 32) * 5/9. By substituting 100 degrees Fahrenheit into the formula, we get: Celsius = (100 - 32) * 5/9 = 68 * 5/9 = 340/9 = 37.78. Rounding this value to the nearest whole number gives us 38 degrees Celsius. Therefore, 100 degrees Fahrenheit is recorded as 38 degrees Celsius.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the mean of the following BUN control values 19.9, 20.0, 20.2, 21.9
- A.
20
- B.
20.1
- C.
20.5
- D.
21.0
Correct Answer
C. 20.5Explanation
The mean is calculated by adding up all the values and then dividing by the total number of values. In this case, the sum of the BUN control values is 19.9 + 20.0 + 20.2 + 21.9 = 82.0. Since there are 4 values, the mean is 82.0 divided by 4, which equals 20.5.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Using expired reagents to assay patient samples will result in an error in what phase of lab testing?
- A.
Preanalytical
- B.
Analytical
- C.
Postanalytical
- D.
Will not cause an error
Correct Answer
B. AnalyticalExplanation
Using expired reagents during lab testing can lead to inaccurate results and errors in the analytical phase. This phase involves the actual testing and analysis of patient samples, where expired reagents may not perform as expected or produce reliable results. Therefore, using expired reagents during the analytical phase can introduce errors into the lab testing process.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry?
- A.
Plasma
- B.
Serum
- C.
Whole blood
- D.
24 hour urine
Correct Answer
B. SerumExplanation
Serum is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry because it is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after blood has clotted and the clot has been removed. It contains various proteins, electrolytes, hormones, and waste products that can provide valuable information about a person's health and any potential medical conditions. Serum is easily obtained through a simple blood draw, making it a convenient and widely used specimen for chemical analysis in clinical laboratories.Rate this question:
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- 36.
EDTA-K3 is not an acceptable specimen for most chemistry tests. What color tube would be recieved in the lab if it was drawn in error?
- A.
Red
- B.
Purple
- C.
Blue
- D.
Green
Correct Answer
B. PurpleExplanation
EDTA-K3 is commonly used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes. However, it is not suitable for most chemistry tests because it can interfere with the accuracy of the results. The correct tube for chemistry tests is typically a red top tube, which contains no anticoagulant. Therefore, if EDTA-K3 is drawn in error, the lab would receive a purple top tube, which is used for hematology tests and contains EDTA as an anticoagulant.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What is serum?
- A.
Liquid component of blood including all coagulation factors
- B.
Liquid component of blood synonymous with absorbed proteins
- C.
Cellular component of blood above the red cells
- D.
Liquid component of blood without presence of fibrinogen
Correct Answer
D. Liquid component of blood without presence of fibrinogenExplanation
Serum is the liquid component of blood that does not contain fibrinogen. Fibrinogen is a protein involved in blood clotting. When blood clots, fibrinogen is converted into fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure to stop bleeding. Therefore, serum is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after blood has coagulated and the clotting factors have been removed. It contains various substances such as electrolytes, hormones, antibodies, and waste products.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is the mechanism of EDTA?
- A.
Chelates calcium
- B.
Binds antithrombin
- C.
Antagonizes vitamin K
- D.
Inhibits platelet aggregation
Correct Answer
A. Chelates calciumExplanation
EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) acts as a chelating agent by binding to calcium ions. This mechanism is important in various applications, such as in medicine where EDTA is used to treat lead poisoning by chelating with lead ions and facilitating their excretion. In the context of the given options, the correct answer is that EDTA chelates calcium, which means it forms stable complexes with calcium ions, preventing them from participating in chemical reactions or biological processes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following is an example of a noncontrollable preanalytical error?
- A.
Fasting
- B.
Posture
- C.
Prolonged bed rest
- D.
Age
Correct Answer
D. AgeExplanation
Age is an example of a noncontrollable preanalytical error because it is a factor that cannot be controlled or manipulated by the individual or the healthcare provider. Age can have an impact on the accuracy and reliability of laboratory test results, as certain physiological changes occur with advancing age that can affect the interpretation of the results. Therefore, age is considered a noncontrollable variable that can introduce error in the preanalytical phase of laboratory testing.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is an example of an analytical error?
- A.
Storing samples at an improper temperature
- B.
Using an outdated calibration curve
- C.
Inappropriate specimen type received
- D.
Intravenous saline contamination from an IV
Correct Answer
B. Using an outdated calibration curveExplanation
Using an outdated calibration curve is an example of an analytical error because it can lead to inaccurate and unreliable results. Calibration curves are used to establish the relationship between the measured values and the true values of a substance. If the calibration curve is outdated, it may not accurately represent the current conditions or characteristics of the substance being measured. This can result in incorrect measurements and data interpretation, compromising the validity and reliability of the analysis.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is a postanalytical error?
- A.
Drawing above an IV site
- B.
Improper centrifugation of a specimen
- C.
Expired reagent used for the assay
- D.
A calculation error on a patient report
Correct Answer
D. A calculation error on a patient reportExplanation
A calculation error on a patient report is considered a postanalytical error because it occurs after the analysis of the specimen has been completed. This error refers to mistakes made during the calculation or interpretation of the test results, which can lead to incorrect information being reported to the healthcare provider or patient. It is important to ensure accuracy in the calculation of test results to avoid potential harm or misdiagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A patient had a specimen drawn for iron determination at 8 am and another one drawn for the same test at 4 pm. The results were higher in the am than the pm. This is an example of which of the following?
- A.
Delta check
- B.
Physiological variation
- C.
Diurnal variation
- D.
Critical value alert
Correct Answer
C. Diurnal variationExplanation
Diurnal variation refers to the natural fluctuations in certain physiological parameters throughout the day. In this case, the iron levels in the patient's specimen were higher in the morning (8 am) compared to the afternoon (4 pm). This can be attributed to diurnal variation, as iron levels tend to be higher in the morning and gradually decrease as the day progresses. Therefore, the difference in iron levels between the two specimens can be explained by diurnal variation.Rate this question:
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- 43.
You have 100 helathy normal individuals. Creatinine is measured on each on all 100 individuals. How many of the results would you expect to be within the referecnce interval for creatinine?
- A.
100
- B.
99
- C.
95
- D.
90
Correct Answer
C. 95Explanation
In a healthy population, the majority of individuals should have creatinine levels within the reference interval. Therefore, it is expected that a large proportion of the 100 healthy normal individuals would have creatinine results within the reference interval. The correct answer is 95, which suggests that 95 out of the 100 individuals would be expected to have creatinine levels within the reference interval.Rate this question:
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- 44.
According to CLSI recommendations what is the minimum number of subjects required, to establish a reference range?
- A.
80
- B.
100
- C.
120
- D.
150
Correct Answer
C. 120Explanation
According to CLSI recommendations, the minimum number of subjects required to establish a reference range is 120. This means that a sample size of at least 120 individuals is needed in order to accurately determine the range of values that is considered normal for a particular parameter or test. Having a larger sample size helps to ensure that the reference range is representative of the population and reduces the likelihood of bias or variability.Rate this question:
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- 45.
When is it appropriate to use medical decision limits instead of reference ranges?
- A.
When a lab cannot get enough samples to establish reference intervals
- B.
When being used as a predictive value
- C.
When the reference ranges have not been established
- D.
When the value of a sample is higher than the linear limits for that assay
Correct Answer
B. When being used as a predictive valueExplanation
Medical decision limits are used when a specific value is used to make a clinical decision, such as diagnosing a disease or determining the effectiveness of a treatment. In contrast, reference ranges are used to establish a normal range of values for a particular test in a healthy population. Therefore, when using a test result as a predictive value, medical decision limits are more appropriate as they help in making decisions based on specific thresholds rather than comparing to a reference range.Rate this question:
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- 46.
To determine the concentration of an unknown using Beer's Law, which of the following formulas should be used?
- A.
C u = A u/ A s x C s
- B.
C=abc
- C.
A s/ A u X C s = C u
- D.
T/ I x 100= C
Correct Answer
A. C u = A u/ A s x C sExplanation
The correct formula to determine the concentration of an unknown using Beer's Law is Cu = Au/As x Cs. This formula involves the absorbance of the unknown (Au) divided by the absorbance of the standard (As), multiplied by the concentration of the standard (Cs). This formula allows for the determination of the unknown concentration based on the relationship between absorbance and concentration described by Beer's Law.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following is a limitation of Beer's Law?
- A.
Abs and concentration must have a log relationship
- B.
Abs and transmittance must have a log relationship
- C.
Abs and concentration must have a linear relationship
- D.
Abs and transmittance must have a linear relationship
Correct Answer
C. Abs and concentration must have a linear relationshipExplanation
Beer's Law states that there is a linear relationship between the absorbance (Abs) of a substance and its concentration. This means that as the concentration of a substance increases, the absorbance also increases proportionally. Therefore, the correct answer is that Abs and concentration must have a linear relationship.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The absorbance of the patient's unknown sample is 0.360nm. The absorbance of the 10 mg/dL standard is 400. What is the concentration of the unknown using a standard curve?
- A.
4 mg/dL
- B.
9 mg/dL
- C.
10 mg/dL
- D.
12 mg/dL
Correct Answer
B. 9 mg/dLExplanation
The absorbance of a substance is directly proportional to its concentration. In this case, the absorbance of the unknown sample is given as 0.360nm, and the absorbance of the 10 mg/dL standard is given as 400. Since the absorbance of the unknown sample is lower than that of the standard, it indicates that the concentration of the unknown is lower than 10 mg/dL. Based on the standard curve, the closest concentration that matches the absorbance of the unknown is 9 mg/dL. Therefore, the concentration of the unknown sample is 9 mg/dL.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What statement is true concerning the relationship between light absorbance and light transmittance?
- A.
The concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed
- B.
The concentration of a substance is inversely proportional to the logarithm of light absorbed
- C.
The concentration of a substance is indirectly proportional to the amount of light absorbed
- D.
The concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the logarithm of the light transmitted
Correct Answer
A. The concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbedExplanation
The statement that the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed means that as the concentration of a substance increases, more light will be absorbed. This is because a higher concentration of the substance provides more molecules or particles that can interact with the light and absorb it. Conversely, a lower concentration will result in less light being absorbed. This relationship is described by the direct proportionality, indicating that the two variables increase or decrease together.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which of the following is used to measure the light transmitted by a solution to determine the concentration of the light-absorbing substance in the solution
- A.
Fluorometry
- B.
Turbidometry
- C.
Spectrophotometry
- D.
Nephelometry
Correct Answer
C. SpectrophotometryExplanation
Spectrophotometry is used to measure the light transmitted by a solution to determine the concentration of the light-absorbing substance in the solution. This technique involves passing a beam of light through the solution and measuring the intensity of light that is absorbed by the substance. By comparing the intensity of absorbed light to a calibration curve, the concentration of the substance can be determined accurately. Fluorometry measures the fluorescence emitted by a substance, turbidometry measures the scattering of light by particles in a solution, and nephelometry measures the intensity of light scattered by suspended particles.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 22, 2016Quiz Created by
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