Mt Simulation Examination 3

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  • 1/312 Questions

    Which of the following agencies is involved in protecting the safety of employees in the workplace?

    • OSHA
    • CAP
    • NRA
    • CMS
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About This Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Medtech/Labtech Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Rtonline. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF RT EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD MT, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH. THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING THE SAID EXAMINATIONS

Mt Simulation Examination 3 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Bar code labels are generated when the patient's orders are manually entered into the LIS system. In an automated lab workstation with a bidirectional LIS interferance, the lab's bar-coded label on an individual specimen contains information regarding identification and the lab tests requested. The processor reads the barcode and the analyzer performs the analyses.  Which of the following may cause a preanalytical error in this automated system?

    • Unsuccessful calibration of the ion-selective electrodes

    • Manufacturer controls outside of the 95% confidence limits

    • Order entry error by a newly hired healthcare practitioner

    • Fibrinated serum sample that gives a flagged test result

    Correct Answer
    A. Order entry error by a newly hired healthcare practitioner
    Explanation
    In an automated lab workstation with a bidirectional LIS interference, the bar code labels are generated when the patient's orders are manually entered into the LIS system. Therefore, an order entry error by a newly hired healthcare practitioner can cause a preanalytical error in this automated system.

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  • 3. 

    Which one of the following enzymes is NOT a transferase?

    • ALT

    • AST

    • GGT

    • LDH

    Correct Answer
    A. LDH
    Explanation
    LDH, or lactate dehydrogenase, is not a transferase enzyme. Transferases are a group of enzymes that catalyze the transfer of functional groups, such as amino groups or phosphate groups, from one molecule to another. ALT (alanine transaminase), AST (aspartate transaminase), and GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) are all examples of transferase enzymes. However, LDH is an oxidoreductase enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of lactate to pyruvate. Therefore, LDH does not belong to the transferase enzyme group.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following proteins binds and transports iron in the blood?

    • Hemopexin

    • Transferrin

    • Ferritin

    • Hemosiderin

    Correct Answer
    A. Transferrin
    Explanation
    Transferrin is a protein that binds and transports iron in the blood. It is responsible for carrying iron from the intestines, where it is absorbed, to the cells that require it for various processes. Transferrin ensures that iron is delivered to the appropriate tissues and organs while also preventing its accumulation in harmful amounts. Other proteins listed, such as hemopexin, ferritin, and hemosiderin, have different functions in relation to iron metabolism but do not specifically bind and transport iron in the blood like transferrin does.

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  • 5. 

    ALP is elevated in the following disorder?

    • Addison's Disease

    • Paget's Disease

    • Diabetes Insipidus

    • Scleroderma

    Correct Answer
    A. Paget's Disease
    Explanation
    Paget's Disease is a bone disorder characterized by abnormal bone remodeling. ALP (alkaline phosphatase) is an enzyme that is involved in bone formation and is typically elevated in Paget's Disease. Therefore, the elevated ALP levels can be used as a diagnostic marker for this disorder. Addison's Disease is a hormonal disorder, Diabetes Insipidus is a condition that affects water balance in the body, and Scleroderma is a connective tissue disease. These conditions do not typically cause elevated ALP levels.

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  • 6. 

    According to the NFPA hazards identification system, what does the red quadrant indicate?

    • A health hazard

    • A flammable hazard

    • A reactivity hazard

    • Special instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. A flammable hazard
    Explanation
    The red quadrant in the NFPA hazards identification system indicates a flammable hazard. This means that the substance or material being labeled has the potential to ignite and burn easily. It is important to take necessary precautions when handling or storing materials with this hazard, as they can pose a fire risk.

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  • 7. 

    What is the mechanism of EDTA?

    • Chelates calcium

    • Binds antithrombin

    • Antagonizes vitamin K

    • Inhibits platelet aggregation

    Correct Answer
    A. Chelates calcium
    Explanation
    EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) acts as a chelating agent by binding to calcium ions. This mechanism is important in various applications, such as in medicine where EDTA is used to treat lead poisoning by chelating with lead ions and facilitating their excretion. In the context of the given options, the correct answer is that EDTA chelates calcium, which means it forms stable complexes with calcium ions, preventing them from participating in chemical reactions or biological processes.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is a condition of excessive fat in the feces?

    • Celiac disease

    • Crohn's syndrome

    • Ulcerative colitis

    • Steatorrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Steatorrhea
    Explanation
    Steatorrhea is a condition characterized by the presence of excessive fat in the feces. It occurs when the body is unable to properly digest and absorb fats from the diet. This can be caused by various underlying conditions such as celiac disease, Crohn's syndrome, or ulcerative colitis. In these conditions, the digestive system is compromised, leading to malabsorption of fats and resulting in steatorrhea. Therefore, steatorrhea is a symptom of these conditions rather than a separate condition itself.

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  • 9. 

    What tumor marker is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate cancer??

    • Prostate-specific antigen

    • Acid phosphatase

    • Alkaline phosphatase

    • Human chorionic gonadotropin

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostate-specific antigen
    Explanation
    Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate cancer. PSA is a protein produced by the cells of the prostate gland and elevated levels of PSA in the blood can indicate the presence of prostate cancer. Monitoring PSA levels over time can help in assessing the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, PSA is an important tumor marker for monitoring patients with prostate cancer.

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  • 10. 

    What is the scientific measurement for volume?

    • Liter

    • Gram

    • Mole

    • Meter

    Correct Answer
    A. Liter
    Explanation
    The scientific measurement for volume is liter. Volume is a measure of the amount of space occupied by an object or substance. The liter is a metric unit of volume commonly used in scientific measurements. It is equal to one cubic decimeter, or 1000 cubic centimeters. The liter is widely used in various fields of science, such as chemistry and physics, to measure the volume of liquids and gases.

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  • 11. 

    What type of sample can be used to test for protein?

    • CSF

    • Urine

    • Serum/plasma

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the provided samples (CSF, urine, serum/plasma) can be used to test for protein. CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) is a clear fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, and it can be used to detect protein abnormalities in the central nervous system. Urine can also be tested for protein levels, which can indicate kidney function and other health conditions. Serum/plasma, obtained from blood samples, can be used to measure protein levels and detect various diseases or disorders. Therefore, all three samples can be utilized for protein testing.

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  • 12. 

    Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against what airborne pathogen?

    • Staph auereus

    • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • Human immunodeficiency virus

    • Hepatitis B virus

    Correct Answer
    A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is the correct answer. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, a highly contagious airborne disease that primarily affects the lungs. Respirator fittings ensure that the respirator masks fit properly on employees, preventing the inhalation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and reducing the risk of infection. Staphylococcus aureus, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and hepatitis B virus are not airborne pathogens that specifically require respirator fittings for protection.

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  • 13. 

    A 46 year old male with pain in his feet and joints has just been diagnosed wtih gout, which of the following analytes were elevated on his lab report?

    • Uric acid

    • Creatinine

    • Ammonia

    • BUN

    Correct Answer
    A. Uric acid
    Explanation
    In a patient diagnosed with gout, elevated levels of uric acid would be expected on the lab report. Gout is a form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to pain and inflammation. Uric acid is a waste product that is normally excreted by the kidneys, but in gout, there is an overproduction or decreased excretion of uric acid, resulting in its accumulation in the body. Therefore, elevated levels of uric acid in the lab report would support the diagnosis of gout in this patient.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is NOT considered presonal protective equipment

    • Latex gloves

    • Goggles

    • Laboratory coat

    • Eyeglasses

    Correct Answer
    A. Eyeglasses
    Explanation
    Eyeglasses are not considered personal protective equipment because they are primarily used for vision correction and do not provide any physical protection against hazards. Personal protective equipment is designed to protect the wearer from potential risks or dangers in the workplace, such as chemicals, flying particles, or infectious materials. While goggles, laboratory coats, and latex gloves are all examples of personal protective equipment that provide specific types of protection, eyeglasses do not fall into this category.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following represents the Henderson-Hasselbach equation?

    • PH=pK+log[A-]/[HA]

    • PH=pK+log[HA]/[A-]

    • PH=pK-log[A-]/[HA]

    Correct Answer
    A. pH=pK+log[A-]/[HA]
    Explanation
    The Henderson-Hasselbach equation is used to calculate the pH of a solution containing a weak acid and its conjugate base. It states that the pH is equal to the pKa of the acid plus the logarithm of the ratio of the concentration of the conjugate base ([A-]) to the concentration of the acid ([HA]). Therefore, the correct answer is pH=pK+log[A-]/[HA].

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  • 16. 

    The following results are avilable from a patient seen in the ER. Amylase---elevated Lipase---elevated What is the most probably cause of these test results?

    • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

    • Crohn's disease

    • Acute pancreatitis

    • Cystic fibrosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute pancreatitis
    Explanation
    The most probable cause of elevated amylase and lipase levels in the ER patient is acute pancreatitis. Amylase and lipase are digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas. In acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. This results in elevated levels of amylase and lipase in the blood. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a rare condition characterized by gastrin-secreting tumors, which can cause ulcers but not directly affect pancreatic enzymes. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that does not typically cause elevated pancreatic enzymes. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the pancreas, but it does not always cause elevated amylase and lipase levels.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following lab results are most consistent with Hashimoto's thyroiditis?  (TSH, FT4, TPO Ab, respecitively)

    • Increased, decreased, positive

    • Decreased, increased, positive

    • Increased, decreased, negative

    • Decreased, increased, negative

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased, decreased, positive
    Explanation
    In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, there is an autoimmune attack on the thyroid gland, leading to its inflammation and destruction. This results in a decreased production of thyroid hormones (T4 and T3) by the thyroid gland, leading to a decreased level of free T4 (FT4) in the blood. However, due to the destruction of the thyroid gland, there is an increased release of stored thyroid hormones, causing an increased level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in an attempt to stimulate the thyroid gland. Additionally, Hashimoto's thyroiditis is characterized by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPO Ab) in the blood, indicating an autoimmune response against the thyroid gland. Therefore, the lab results most consistent with Hashimoto's thyroiditis are increased TSH, decreased FT4, and positive TPO Ab.

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  • 18. 

    What electrolyte is the major extracellular cation in plasma

    • Sodium

    • Potassium

    • Chloride

    • Bicarbonate

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium
    Explanation
    Sodium is the major extracellular cation in plasma because it plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. It is responsible for regulating blood pressure and volume, as well as assisting in the transmission of nerve impulses. Sodium is found in higher concentrations outside the cells, making it the major electrolyte in the extracellular fluid.

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  • 19. 

    What is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry?

    • Plasma

    • Serum

    • Whole blood

    • 24 hour urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Serum
    Explanation
    Serum is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry because it is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after blood has clotted and the clot has been removed. It contains various proteins, electrolytes, hormones, and waste products that can provide valuable information about a person's health and any potential medical conditions. Serum is easily obtained through a simple blood draw, making it a convenient and widely used specimen for chemical analysis in clinical laboratories.

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  • 20. 

    What specimen is unacceptable for the analysis of carbon dioxide?

    • Serum

    • Plasma

    • Urine

    • Whole blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine
    Explanation
    Urine is the unacceptable specimen for the analysis of carbon dioxide because carbon dioxide is primarily measured in the blood, not in urine. Urine is a waste product that contains various metabolic byproducts and is not a reliable indicator of carbon dioxide levels in the body. Therefore, urine cannot be used for accurate analysis of carbon dioxide.

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  • 21. 

    What is the optimal pH of most enzymatic reactions?

    • 10.2

    • 8.6

    • 7.4

    • 5.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.4
    Explanation
    The optimal pH of most enzymatic reactions is 7.4. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body and their activity is highly dependent on pH. Each enzyme has an optimal pH range in which it functions most efficiently. A pH of 7.4 is close to neutral, which is the pH of most cellular environments. Deviations from this optimal pH can disrupt the enzyme's structure and affect its ability to bind to substrates, leading to a decrease in enzymatic activity.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is a postanalytical error?

    • Drawing above an IV site

    • Improper centrifugation of a specimen

    • Expired reagent used for the assay

    • A calculation error on a patient report

    Correct Answer
    A. A calculation error on a patient report
    Explanation
    A calculation error on a patient report is considered a postanalytical error because it occurs after the analysis of the specimen has been completed. This error refers to mistakes made during the calculation or interpretation of the test results, which can lead to incorrect information being reported to the healthcare provider or patient. It is important to ensure accuracy in the calculation of test results to avoid potential harm or misdiagnosis.

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  • 23. 

    Which of teh following refers to the way in which the twisted amino acid chain folds back on itself to form a 3-dimensional structure?

    • Primary

    • Secondary

    • Tertiary

    • Quaternary

    Correct Answer
    A. Tertiary
    Explanation
    The term "tertiary" refers to the way in which the twisted amino acid chain folds back on itself to form a 3-dimensional structure. This folding is crucial for the protein to achieve its functional shape and allows for interactions between different parts of the chain. The primary structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids, the secondary structure refers to local folding patterns like alpha helices and beta sheets, and the quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of multiple protein subunits.

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  • 24. 

    When a myocardial infarction occurs, what enzyme becomes elevated first?

    • CK

    • AST

    • LD

    • ALP

    Correct Answer
    A. CK
    Explanation
    When a myocardial infarction occurs, the enzyme CK (creatine kinase) becomes elevated first. CK is an enzyme found in the heart muscle, brain, and skeletal muscle. During a heart attack, the heart muscle is damaged, causing CK levels to rise in the bloodstream. Therefore, an elevated CK level is a useful marker for diagnosing a myocardial infarction. AST (aspartate aminotransferase), LD (lactate dehydrogenase), and ALP (alkaline phosphatase) are not specific to heart muscle damage and may be elevated in other conditions as well.

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  • 25. 

    Which of teh following is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia and deposition of bile prigment in the skin and sclera?

    • Myxedema

    • Cholestasis

    • Jaundice

    • Kernicterus

    Correct Answer
    A. Jaundice
    Explanation
    Jaundice is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia, which is an excess of bilirubin in the blood, and the deposition of bile pigment in the skin and sclera. This condition causes a yellowing of the skin and eyes. Myxedema refers to severe hypothyroidism, cholestasis is the impairment of bile flow, and kernicterus is a type of brain damage caused by high levels of bilirubin.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following hormones is a glucocorticoid?

    • Cortisol

    • Aldosterone

    • Androstenedione

    • Dehydroepiandrosterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Cortisol
    Explanation
    Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone produced by the adrenal glands. It plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, immune response, and stress response in the body. Glucocorticoids like cortisol are involved in glucose metabolism and help regulate the body's response to inflammation and stress. Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone that regulates electrolyte and water balance, while androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone are androgens, which are sex hormones.

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  • 27. 

    An elevated quantitative beta-hCG will be seen in which of the following conditions?

    • Menopause

    • Pregnancy

    • Hirutism

    • Spontaneous miscarriage

    Correct Answer
    A. Pregnancy
    Explanation
    An elevated quantitative beta-hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) is a hormone produced during pregnancy. It is used as a marker to confirm pregnancy and monitor its progression. Therefore, the correct answer is pregnancy.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens?

    • TB and methiciliin resistant Staph auereus

    • Hep C and vancomyocin resistant enterococci

    • Human immunodeficiency virum and hep B

    • Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and hep A

    Correct Answer
    A. Human immunodeficiency virum and hep B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B virus (HBV). These are both bloodborne pathogens, meaning they can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or other bodily fluids. TB and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets and skin-to-skin contact. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) and vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) are also not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through contact with contaminated needles or sexual contact. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food or direct contact with infected individuals.

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  • 29. 

    Which of teh following enzymes is considered a sensative marker for chronic alcholism resulting in liver disease?

    • ALP

    • GGT

    • ALT

    • AST

    Correct Answer
    A. GGT
    Explanation
    GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) is considered a sensitive marker for chronic alcoholism resulting in liver disease. GGT levels in the blood are elevated in individuals who consume excessive amounts of alcohol over a prolonged period of time. This enzyme is primarily found in the liver and its levels increase as a result of liver damage caused by alcohol. Therefore, measuring GGT levels can be a useful diagnostic tool in identifying alcohol-related liver disease.

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  • 30. 

    In bilirubin determinations, what is the purpose of caffeine-benzoate-acetate?

    • Accelerates the coupling of bilirubin with the color reagent

    • Destroys the excess diazo reagent

    • Precipitates interfering proteins, including albumin

    • Buffers the pH of the enzymatic reaction

    Correct Answer
    A. Accelerates the coupling of bilirubin with the color reagent
    Explanation
    Caffeine-benzoate-acetate is used in bilirubin determinations to accelerate the coupling of bilirubin with the color reagent. This means that it helps to speed up the reaction between bilirubin and the color reagent, which is important for accurate measurements of bilirubin levels. By accelerating the coupling process, caffeine-benzoate-acetate allows for a more efficient and reliable determination of bilirubin levels in the sample being tested.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is found in the highest concentration in bone?

    • Calcium

    • Magnesium

    • Phosphorous

    • Iron

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Calcium is found in the highest concentration in bone. Calcium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure and strength of bones. It is the main component of hydroxyapatite, which is a mineral complex that provides rigidity to the bone matrix. Calcium also regulates various cellular processes within bone cells, such as bone formation and resorption. Therefore, due to its vital role in bone health, calcium is present in the highest concentration in bone.

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  • 32. 

    What is the first test usually ordered in the evaluation of male fertility?

    • Semen analysis

    • Testosterone

    • Prostate specific antigen

    • Anti-sperm antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Semen analysis
    Explanation
    This question was in a debate for a bit but the general classmate consensus was semen analysis, since this is a very easy test. Testosterone can be ordered not just for fertility, but also other testosterone complications.

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  • 33. 

    What is the principle estrogen produced in the ovary?

    • Estrone (E1)

    • Estradiol (E2)

    • Estriol (E3)

    • Progesterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Estradiol (E2)
    Explanation
    Estradiol (E2) is the principle estrogen produced in the ovary. Estrogens are a group of hormones that play a crucial role in the development and regulation of the female reproductive system. Estradiol is the most potent and abundant form of estrogen in women of reproductive age. It is responsible for various physiological processes, including the development of secondary sexual characteristics, regulation of the menstrual cycle, and maintenance of pregnancy. Estrone (E1) and estriol (E3) are also forms of estrogen, but they are produced in smaller amounts compared to estradiol. Progesterone, on the other hand, is a hormone primarily involved in preparing and maintaining the uterus for pregnancy.

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  • 34. 

    What is the most common method used in the clinical lab to measure electrolytes?

    • Flame photometry

    • Enzymatically

    • Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

    • Ion selective electrodes

    Correct Answer
    A. Ion selective electrodes
    Explanation
    Ion selective electrodes are the most common method used in the clinical lab to measure electrolytes. These electrodes are specifically designed to selectively measure the concentration of specific ions in a sample. They work by generating a potential difference between the sample and a reference electrode, which is proportional to the concentration of the specific ion being measured. This method is widely used due to its accuracy, ease of use, and ability to measure multiple electrolytes simultaneously.

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  • 35. 

    What type of compensation is involved when the lungs compensate by hyperventilation in metabolic acidosis?

    • Primary compensation

    • Secondary compensation

    • Unfinished compensation

    • Full compensation

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary compensation
    Explanation
    In metabolic acidosis, the lungs compensate by hyperventilation, which means they increase the rate and depth of breathing to get rid of excess carbon dioxide and restore the pH balance in the blood. This is known as primary compensation because it is the initial response of the body to counteract the acidosis and restore normal physiological function. Secondary compensation refers to the body's other mechanisms, such as the kidneys, that work to further restore the acid-base balance. Unfinished and full compensation are not relevant in this context.

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  • 36. 

    A dialysis patient will most likely present with which of the following?

    • Decreased creatinine, increased ammonia

    • Increased ammonia, decreased uric acid

    • Decreased uric acid, increased BUN

    • Increased BUN, increased creatinine

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased BUN, increased creatinine
    Explanation
    A dialysis patient is likely to have increased levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. BUN is a waste product that is normally filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, but in dialysis patients, the kidneys are not functioning properly. This leads to an accumulation of BUN in the blood. Similarly, creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is normally excreted by the kidneys. In dialysis patients, the kidneys are unable to remove creatinine effectively, resulting in increased levels in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is increased BUN, increased creatinine.

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  • 37. 

    What is the function of transferrin?

    • Transports hemoglobin in the plasma

    • Transports copper in the plamsa

    • Transports iron in the plasma

    • Helps bind free hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. Transports iron in the plasma
    Explanation
    Transferrin is a protein that plays a vital role in the transportation of iron in the plasma. Iron is an essential element required for various biological processes, including oxygen transport and energy production. Transferrin binds to iron and carries it through the bloodstream, delivering it to cells that need it for their functions. This transportation mechanism ensures that iron is efficiently distributed throughout the body and prevents its accumulation in unwanted areas, which could be harmful. Therefore, the correct answer is that transferrin transports iron in the plasma.

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  • 38. 

    The liver converts ammonia into which of the following non-protein nitrogen compounds?

    • Uric acid

    • Creatinine

    • Blood urea nitrogen

    • Bilirubin

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood urea nitrogen
    Explanation
    The liver converts ammonia into blood urea nitrogen. Ammonia is a toxic waste product that is produced during the breakdown of proteins. The liver plays a crucial role in converting ammonia into a less toxic compound called urea. Urea is then transported to the kidneys and excreted in the urine. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a measure of the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and is commonly used as an indicator of kidney function. Uric acid, creatinine, and bilirubin are also nitrogen compounds, but they are not directly involved in the conversion of ammonia in the liver.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following provide information on how to clean up a chemical spill?

    • Material Safety Data Sheet

    • Package insert

    • Standard operating procedure

    • Policy manual

    Correct Answer
    A. Material Safety Data Sheet
    Explanation
    The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) provides detailed information on the properties and hazards of a chemical, as well as safety precautions and procedures for handling and cleaning up spills. It includes information on the appropriate personal protective equipment to use, containment and cleanup measures, and disposal methods. Therefore, the MSDS is the most appropriate source of information for cleaning up a chemical spill.

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  • 40. 

    What optical technique measures metal ions in a solution based on ground state atoms absorbing light at defined wavelengths for the element being measured?

    • Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

    • Nephelometry

    • Chemiluminescence

    • Trubidimetry

    Correct Answer
    A. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
    Explanation
    Atomic absorption spectrophotometry is an optical technique that measures metal ions in a solution by using ground state atoms that absorb light at specific wavelengths for the element being measured. This technique involves passing light through the sample solution and measuring the amount of light absorbed by the atoms. The absorption of light is directly proportional to the concentration of the metal ions in the solution, allowing for quantitative analysis of metal ions. Nephelometry, chemiluminescence, and turbidimetry are not specific to measuring metal ions based on ground state atoms absorbing light at defined wavelengths.

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  • 41. 

    A STAT order was received from the emergency department.  The following patient results interface into the lab information system: Sodium 144 mEq/L Potassium 6.3 Eq/L Chloride 101 Eq/L Bicarbonate 25 Eq/L Magnesium 2.2 Eq/L Calcium 9.9 Eq/L Which of the following is the most probably explanation of these results?

    • The sample was hemolyzed causing a false elevated potassium result

    • The sample was improperly collected in EDTA anticoagulated tube

    • The patient is dehydrated causing an increased sodium result

    • The patient is hyperventilating causing a decreased bicarbonate result

    Correct Answer
    A. The sample was hemolyzed causing a false elevated potassium result
  • 42. 

    Bence Jones proteins are associated with what disease?

    • Multiple myeloma

    • Wilson's disease

    • Inflammation

    • Down's syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple myeloma
    Explanation
    Bence Jones proteins are abnormal proteins that are produced by plasma cells in multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. These proteins can accumulate in the urine and can be detected through laboratory tests. Therefore, Bence Jones proteins are specifically associated with multiple myeloma.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus

    • Fasting glucose of >126 mg/dL

    • Random glucose of >200 mg/dL

    • Fasting glucose of

    • Two hour PP glucose of >200 mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. Fasting glucose of
    Explanation
    The fasting glucose of >126 mg/dL is a diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus, as it indicates high blood sugar levels after an overnight fast. Random glucose of >200 mg/dL and two hour PP glucose of >200 mg/dL are also diagnostic criteria for diabetes, as they indicate high blood sugar levels regardless of fasting status. However, the incomplete option "fasting glucose of" does not provide a specific value or threshold, making it impossible to determine if it meets the criteria for diabetes diagnosis.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is NOT a SI unit of measurement?

    • Meter

    • Moles

    • Liter

    • Celsius

    Correct Answer
    A. Celsius
    Explanation
    Celsius is not a SI unit of measurement because it is a unit of temperature measurement, while the SI system does not include a specific unit for temperature. The SI system includes units such as meter for length, moles for amount of substance, and liter for volume. Celsius is commonly used for temperature measurement, but it is not part of the SI system.

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  • 45. 

    What serum analyte is light sensitive?

    • Ammonia

    • Bilirubin

    • Triglycerides

    • Potassium

    Correct Answer
    A. Bilirubin
    Explanation
    Bilirubin is a serum analyte that is light sensitive. This means that exposure to light can cause degradation or alteration of bilirubin levels, leading to inaccurate test results. Therefore, it is important to protect samples containing bilirubin from light during transportation and storage to ensure accurate measurements.

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  • 46. 

    A 25 year old female took a home pregnancy test 2 weeks after she missed her period.  She made an appointment to see her physician 2 weeks after that.  The doctor ordered a quantitative serum HCG and it came back as 2678 IU/L.  The physician questioned the results and asked that it be repeated.  IT was repeated with the same results.  What could be the reason for this occurrence?

    • Ectopic pregnancy

    • Heterophile antibodies

    • Instrument calibration failure

    • Specimen deterioration

    Correct Answer
    A. Ectopic pregnancy
    Explanation
    The reason for the occurrence could be an ectopic pregnancy. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. This can result in a positive pregnancy test and elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), which is what the quantitative serum HCG test measures. The physician questioning the results and asking for a repeat suggests that they suspect an ectopic pregnancy, as it is a potentially dangerous condition that requires medical intervention.

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  • 47. 

    EDTA-K3 is not an acceptable specimen for most chemistry tests.  What color tube would be recieved in the lab if it was drawn in error?

    • Red

    • Purple

    • Blue

    • Green

    Correct Answer
    A. Purple
    Explanation
    EDTA-K3 is commonly used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes. However, it is not suitable for most chemistry tests because it can interfere with the accuracy of the results. The correct tube for chemistry tests is typically a red top tube, which contains no anticoagulant. Therefore, if EDTA-K3 is drawn in error, the lab would receive a purple top tube, which is used for hematology tests and contains EDTA as an anticoagulant.

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  • 48. 

    The most frequent "in born error of metabolism" found in newborns is

    • Maple syrup disease

    • Tyrosinemia

    • Cystinuria

    • Phenylketonuria

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenylketonuria
    Explanation
    Phenylketonuria (PKU) is the most common "inborn error of metabolism" found in newborns. It is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine. Without treatment, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the blood and cause intellectual disability and other health problems. PKU is typically diagnosed through newborn screening tests and can be managed through a special diet low in phenylalanine.

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  • 49. 

    The highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in which of the following conditions?

    • Acute viral hep

    • Acute pancreatitis

    • Acute myocardial infarction

    • Alcoholic cirrhosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute pancreatitis
    Explanation
    In acute pancreatitis, the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of high levels of amylase and lipase into the bloodstream. Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas that helps break down carbohydrates, while lipase aids in the digestion of fats. Therefore, the highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in acute pancreatitis.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jul 22, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Wantunine

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