Mt Simulation Examination 3

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1. Which one of the following enzymes is NOT a transferase?

Explanation

LDH, or lactate dehydrogenase, is not a transferase enzyme. Transferases are a group of enzymes that catalyze the transfer of functional groups, such as amino groups or phosphate groups, from one molecule to another. ALT (alanine transaminase), AST (aspartate transaminase), and GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) are all examples of transferase enzymes. However, LDH is an oxidoreductase enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of lactate to pyruvate. Therefore, LDH does not belong to the transferase enzyme group.

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About This Quiz
Mt Simulation Examination 3 - Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf Medtech/Labtech Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi,... see moreKSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Rtonline. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF RT EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD MT, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH. THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING THE SAID EXAMINATIONS see less

2. Which of the following proteins binds and transports iron in the blood?

Explanation

Transferrin is a protein that binds and transports iron in the blood. It is responsible for carrying iron from the intestines, where it is absorbed, to the cells that require it for various processes. Transferrin ensures that iron is delivered to the appropriate tissues and organs while also preventing its accumulation in harmful amounts. Other proteins listed, such as hemopexin, ferritin, and hemosiderin, have different functions in relation to iron metabolism but do not specifically bind and transport iron in the blood like transferrin does.

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3. Which of the following agencies is involved in protecting the safety of employees in the workplace?

Explanation

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is the correct answer because it is an agency responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees. OSHA sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to protect workers from hazards in the workplace. The other options, CAP (Civil Air Patrol), NRA (National Rifle Association), and CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services), are not directly involved in protecting employee safety in the workplace.

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4. Bar code labels are generated when the patient's orders are manually entered into the LIS system. In an automated lab workstation with a bidirectional LIS interferance, the lab's bar-coded label on an individual specimen contains information regarding identification and the lab tests requested. The processor reads the barcode and the analyzer performs the analyses.  Which of the following may cause a preanalytical error in this automated system?

Explanation

In an automated lab workstation with a bidirectional LIS interference, the bar code labels are generated when the patient's orders are manually entered into the LIS system. Therefore, an order entry error by a newly hired healthcare practitioner can cause a preanalytical error in this automated system.

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5. What is the scientific measurement for volume?

Explanation

The scientific measurement for volume is liter. Volume is a measure of the amount of space occupied by an object or substance. The liter is a metric unit of volume commonly used in scientific measurements. It is equal to one cubic decimeter, or 1000 cubic centimeters. The liter is widely used in various fields of science, such as chemistry and physics, to measure the volume of liquids and gases.

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6. ALP is elevated in the following disorder?

Explanation

Paget's Disease is a bone disorder characterized by abnormal bone remodeling. ALP (alkaline phosphatase) is an enzyme that is involved in bone formation and is typically elevated in Paget's Disease. Therefore, the elevated ALP levels can be used as a diagnostic marker for this disorder. Addison's Disease is a hormonal disorder, Diabetes Insipidus is a condition that affects water balance in the body, and Scleroderma is a connective tissue disease. These conditions do not typically cause elevated ALP levels.

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7. According to the NFPA hazards identification system, what does the red quadrant indicate?

Explanation

The red quadrant in the NFPA hazards identification system indicates a flammable hazard. This means that the substance or material being labeled has the potential to ignite and burn easily. It is important to take necessary precautions when handling or storing materials with this hazard, as they can pose a fire risk.

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8. What is the mechanism of EDTA?

Explanation

EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) acts as a chelating agent by binding to calcium ions. This mechanism is important in various applications, such as in medicine where EDTA is used to treat lead poisoning by chelating with lead ions and facilitating their excretion. In the context of the given options, the correct answer is that EDTA chelates calcium, which means it forms stable complexes with calcium ions, preventing them from participating in chemical reactions or biological processes.

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9. What tumor marker is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate cancer??

Explanation

Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate cancer. PSA is a protein produced by the cells of the prostate gland and elevated levels of PSA in the blood can indicate the presence of prostate cancer. Monitoring PSA levels over time can help in assessing the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, PSA is an important tumor marker for monitoring patients with prostate cancer.

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10. A 46 year old male with pain in his feet and joints has just been diagnosed wtih gout, which of the following analytes were elevated on his lab report?

Explanation

In a patient diagnosed with gout, elevated levels of uric acid would be expected on the lab report. Gout is a form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to pain and inflammation. Uric acid is a waste product that is normally excreted by the kidneys, but in gout, there is an overproduction or decreased excretion of uric acid, resulting in its accumulation in the body. Therefore, elevated levels of uric acid in the lab report would support the diagnosis of gout in this patient.

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11. What type of sample can be used to test for protein?

Explanation

All of the provided samples (CSF, urine, serum/plasma) can be used to test for protein. CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) is a clear fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, and it can be used to detect protein abnormalities in the central nervous system. Urine can also be tested for protein levels, which can indicate kidney function and other health conditions. Serum/plasma, obtained from blood samples, can be used to measure protein levels and detect various diseases or disorders. Therefore, all three samples can be utilized for protein testing.

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12. Which of the following is NOT considered presonal protective equipment

Explanation

Eyeglasses are not considered personal protective equipment because they are primarily used for vision correction and do not provide any physical protection against hazards. Personal protective equipment is designed to protect the wearer from potential risks or dangers in the workplace, such as chemicals, flying particles, or infectious materials. While goggles, laboratory coats, and latex gloves are all examples of personal protective equipment that provide specific types of protection, eyeglasses do not fall into this category.

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13. Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against what airborne pathogen?

Explanation

Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is the correct answer. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, a highly contagious airborne disease that primarily affects the lungs. Respirator fittings ensure that the respirator masks fit properly on employees, preventing the inhalation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and reducing the risk of infection. Staphylococcus aureus, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and hepatitis B virus are not airborne pathogens that specifically require respirator fittings for protection.

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14. Which of the following represents the Henderson-Hasselbach equation?

Explanation

The Henderson-Hasselbach equation is used to calculate the pH of a solution containing a weak acid and its conjugate base. It states that the pH is equal to the pKa of the acid plus the logarithm of the ratio of the concentration of the conjugate base ([A-]) to the concentration of the acid ([HA]). Therefore, the correct answer is pH=pK+log[A-]/[HA].

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15. The following results are avilable from a patient seen in the ER. Amylase---elevated Lipase---elevated What is the most probably cause of these test results?

Explanation

The most probable cause of elevated amylase and lipase levels in the ER patient is acute pancreatitis. Amylase and lipase are digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas. In acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. This results in elevated levels of amylase and lipase in the blood. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a rare condition characterized by gastrin-secreting tumors, which can cause ulcers but not directly affect pancreatic enzymes. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that does not typically cause elevated pancreatic enzymes. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the pancreas, but it does not always cause elevated amylase and lipase levels.

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16. Which of the following lab results are most consistent with Hashimoto's thyroiditis?  (TSH, FT4, TPO Ab, respecitively)

Explanation

In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, there is an autoimmune attack on the thyroid gland, leading to its inflammation and destruction. This results in a decreased production of thyroid hormones (T4 and T3) by the thyroid gland, leading to a decreased level of free T4 (FT4) in the blood. However, due to the destruction of the thyroid gland, there is an increased release of stored thyroid hormones, causing an increased level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in an attempt to stimulate the thyroid gland. Additionally, Hashimoto's thyroiditis is characterized by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPO Ab) in the blood, indicating an autoimmune response against the thyroid gland. Therefore, the lab results most consistent with Hashimoto's thyroiditis are increased TSH, decreased FT4, and positive TPO Ab.

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17. What electrolyte is the major extracellular cation in plasma

Explanation

Sodium is the major extracellular cation in plasma because it plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. It is responsible for regulating blood pressure and volume, as well as assisting in the transmission of nerve impulses. Sodium is found in higher concentrations outside the cells, making it the major electrolyte in the extracellular fluid.

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18. What specimen is unacceptable for the analysis of carbon dioxide?

Explanation

Urine is the unacceptable specimen for the analysis of carbon dioxide because carbon dioxide is primarily measured in the blood, not in urine. Urine is a waste product that contains various metabolic byproducts and is not a reliable indicator of carbon dioxide levels in the body. Therefore, urine cannot be used for accurate analysis of carbon dioxide.

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19. Which of teh following refers to the way in which the twisted amino acid chain folds back on itself to form a 3-dimensional structure?

Explanation

The term "tertiary" refers to the way in which the twisted amino acid chain folds back on itself to form a 3-dimensional structure. This folding is crucial for the protein to achieve its functional shape and allows for interactions between different parts of the chain. The primary structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids, the secondary structure refers to local folding patterns like alpha helices and beta sheets, and the quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of multiple protein subunits.

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20. What is the optimal pH of most enzymatic reactions?

Explanation

The optimal pH of most enzymatic reactions is 7.4. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body and their activity is highly dependent on pH. Each enzyme has an optimal pH range in which it functions most efficiently. A pH of 7.4 is close to neutral, which is the pH of most cellular environments. Deviations from this optimal pH can disrupt the enzyme's structure and affect its ability to bind to substrates, leading to a decrease in enzymatic activity.

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21. Which of the following is a condition of excessive fat in the feces?

Explanation

Steatorrhea is a condition characterized by the presence of excessive fat in the feces. It occurs when the body is unable to properly digest and absorb fats from the diet. This can be caused by various underlying conditions such as celiac disease, Crohn's syndrome, or ulcerative colitis. In these conditions, the digestive system is compromised, leading to malabsorption of fats and resulting in steatorrhea. Therefore, steatorrhea is a symptom of these conditions rather than a separate condition itself.

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22. What is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry?

Explanation

Serum is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry because it is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after blood has clotted and the clot has been removed. It contains various proteins, electrolytes, hormones, and waste products that can provide valuable information about a person's health and any potential medical conditions. Serum is easily obtained through a simple blood draw, making it a convenient and widely used specimen for chemical analysis in clinical laboratories.

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23. Which of the following is a postanalytical error?

Explanation

A calculation error on a patient report is considered a postanalytical error because it occurs after the analysis of the specimen has been completed. This error refers to mistakes made during the calculation or interpretation of the test results, which can lead to incorrect information being reported to the healthcare provider or patient. It is important to ensure accuracy in the calculation of test results to avoid potential harm or misdiagnosis.

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24. Which of teh following enzymes is considered a sensative marker for chronic alcholism resulting in liver disease?

Explanation

GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) is considered a sensitive marker for chronic alcoholism resulting in liver disease. GGT levels in the blood are elevated in individuals who consume excessive amounts of alcohol over a prolonged period of time. This enzyme is primarily found in the liver and its levels increase as a result of liver damage caused by alcohol. Therefore, measuring GGT levels can be a useful diagnostic tool in identifying alcohol-related liver disease.

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25. When a myocardial infarction occurs, what enzyme becomes elevated first?

Explanation

When a myocardial infarction occurs, the enzyme CK (creatine kinase) becomes elevated first. CK is an enzyme found in the heart muscle, brain, and skeletal muscle. During a heart attack, the heart muscle is damaged, causing CK levels to rise in the bloodstream. Therefore, an elevated CK level is a useful marker for diagnosing a myocardial infarction. AST (aspartate aminotransferase), LD (lactate dehydrogenase), and ALP (alkaline phosphatase) are not specific to heart muscle damage and may be elevated in other conditions as well.

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26. Which of teh following is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia and deposition of bile prigment in the skin and sclera?

Explanation

Jaundice is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia, which is an excess of bilirubin in the blood, and the deposition of bile pigment in the skin and sclera. This condition causes a yellowing of the skin and eyes. Myxedema refers to severe hypothyroidism, cholestasis is the impairment of bile flow, and kernicterus is a type of brain damage caused by high levels of bilirubin.

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27. An elevated quantitative beta-hCG will be seen in which of the following conditions?

Explanation

An elevated quantitative beta-hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) is a hormone produced during pregnancy. It is used as a marker to confirm pregnancy and monitor its progression. Therefore, the correct answer is pregnancy.

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28. What is the most common method used in the clinical lab to measure electrolytes?

Explanation

Ion selective electrodes are the most common method used in the clinical lab to measure electrolytes. These electrodes are specifically designed to selectively measure the concentration of specific ions in a sample. They work by generating a potential difference between the sample and a reference electrode, which is proportional to the concentration of the specific ion being measured. This method is widely used due to its accuracy, ease of use, and ability to measure multiple electrolytes simultaneously.

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29. What type of compensation is involved when the lungs compensate by hyperventilation in metabolic acidosis?

Explanation

In metabolic acidosis, the lungs compensate by hyperventilation, which means they increase the rate and depth of breathing to get rid of excess carbon dioxide and restore the pH balance in the blood. This is known as primary compensation because it is the initial response of the body to counteract the acidosis and restore normal physiological function. Secondary compensation refers to the body's other mechanisms, such as the kidneys, that work to further restore the acid-base balance. Unfinished and full compensation are not relevant in this context.

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30. A dialysis patient will most likely present with which of the following?

Explanation

A dialysis patient is likely to have increased levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. BUN is a waste product that is normally filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, but in dialysis patients, the kidneys are not functioning properly. This leads to an accumulation of BUN in the blood. Similarly, creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is normally excreted by the kidneys. In dialysis patients, the kidneys are unable to remove creatinine effectively, resulting in increased levels in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is increased BUN, increased creatinine.

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31. Which of the following is found in the highest concentration in bone?

Explanation

Calcium is found in the highest concentration in bone. Calcium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure and strength of bones. It is the main component of hydroxyapatite, which is a mineral complex that provides rigidity to the bone matrix. Calcium also regulates various cellular processes within bone cells, such as bone formation and resorption. Therefore, due to its vital role in bone health, calcium is present in the highest concentration in bone.

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32. Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens?

Explanation

The correct answer is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B virus (HBV). These are both bloodborne pathogens, meaning they can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or other bodily fluids. TB and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets and skin-to-skin contact. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) and vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) are also not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through contact with contaminated needles or sexual contact. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food or direct contact with infected individuals.

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33. What is the first test usually ordered in the evaluation of male fertility?

Explanation

This question was in a debate for a bit but the general classmate consensus was semen analysis, since this is a very easy test. Testosterone can be ordered not just for fertility, but also other testosterone complications.

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34. What is the principle estrogen produced in the ovary?

Explanation

Estradiol (E2) is the principle estrogen produced in the ovary. Estrogens are a group of hormones that play a crucial role in the development and regulation of the female reproductive system. Estradiol is the most potent and abundant form of estrogen in women of reproductive age. It is responsible for various physiological processes, including the development of secondary sexual characteristics, regulation of the menstrual cycle, and maintenance of pregnancy. Estrone (E1) and estriol (E3) are also forms of estrogen, but they are produced in smaller amounts compared to estradiol. Progesterone, on the other hand, is a hormone primarily involved in preparing and maintaining the uterus for pregnancy.

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35. What is the function of transferrin?

Explanation

Transferrin is a protein that plays a vital role in the transportation of iron in the plasma. Iron is an essential element required for various biological processes, including oxygen transport and energy production. Transferrin binds to iron and carries it through the bloodstream, delivering it to cells that need it for their functions. This transportation mechanism ensures that iron is efficiently distributed throughout the body and prevents its accumulation in unwanted areas, which could be harmful. Therefore, the correct answer is that transferrin transports iron in the plasma.

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36. The liver converts ammonia into which of the following non-protein nitrogen compounds?

Explanation

The liver converts ammonia into blood urea nitrogen. Ammonia is a toxic waste product that is produced during the breakdown of proteins. The liver plays a crucial role in converting ammonia into a less toxic compound called urea. Urea is then transported to the kidneys and excreted in the urine. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a measure of the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and is commonly used as an indicator of kidney function. Uric acid, creatinine, and bilirubin are also nitrogen compounds, but they are not directly involved in the conversion of ammonia in the liver.

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37. A STAT order was received from the emergency department.  The following patient results interface into the lab information system: Sodium 144 mEq/L Potassium 6.3 Eq/L Chloride 101 Eq/L Bicarbonate 25 Eq/L Magnesium 2.2 Eq/L Calcium 9.9 Eq/L Which of the following is the most probably explanation of these results?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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38. Bence Jones proteins are associated with what disease?

Explanation

Bence Jones proteins are abnormal proteins that are produced by plasma cells in multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. These proteins can accumulate in the urine and can be detected through laboratory tests. Therefore, Bence Jones proteins are specifically associated with multiple myeloma.

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39. Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus

Explanation

The fasting glucose of >126 mg/dL is a diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus, as it indicates high blood sugar levels after an overnight fast. Random glucose of >200 mg/dL and two hour PP glucose of >200 mg/dL are also diagnostic criteria for diabetes, as they indicate high blood sugar levels regardless of fasting status. However, the incomplete option "fasting glucose of" does not provide a specific value or threshold, making it impossible to determine if it meets the criteria for diabetes diagnosis.

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40. Which of the following provide information on how to clean up a chemical spill?

Explanation

The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) provides detailed information on the properties and hazards of a chemical, as well as safety precautions and procedures for handling and cleaning up spills. It includes information on the appropriate personal protective equipment to use, containment and cleanup measures, and disposal methods. Therefore, the MSDS is the most appropriate source of information for cleaning up a chemical spill.

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41. Which of the following hormones is a glucocorticoid?

Explanation

Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone produced by the adrenal glands. It plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, immune response, and stress response in the body. Glucocorticoids like cortisol are involved in glucose metabolism and help regulate the body's response to inflammation and stress. Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone that regulates electrolyte and water balance, while androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone are androgens, which are sex hormones.

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42. The most frequent "in born error of metabolism" found in newborns is

Explanation

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is the most common "inborn error of metabolism" found in newborns. It is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine. Without treatment, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the blood and cause intellectual disability and other health problems. PKU is typically diagnosed through newborn screening tests and can be managed through a special diet low in phenylalanine.

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43. The highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in which of the following conditions?

Explanation

In acute pancreatitis, the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of high levels of amylase and lipase into the bloodstream. Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas that helps break down carbohydrates, while lipase aids in the digestion of fats. Therefore, the highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in acute pancreatitis.

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44. What serum analyte is light sensitive?

Explanation

Bilirubin is a serum analyte that is light sensitive. This means that exposure to light can cause degradation or alteration of bilirubin levels, leading to inaccurate test results. Therefore, it is important to protect samples containing bilirubin from light during transportation and storage to ensure accurate measurements.

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45. Which of the following is NOT a SI unit of measurement?

Explanation

Celsius is not a SI unit of measurement because it is a unit of temperature measurement, while the SI system does not include a specific unit for temperature. The SI system includes units such as meter for length, moles for amount of substance, and liter for volume. Celsius is commonly used for temperature measurement, but it is not part of the SI system.

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46. EDTA-K3 is not an acceptable specimen for most chemistry tests.  What color tube would be recieved in the lab if it was drawn in error?

Explanation

EDTA-K3 is commonly used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes. However, it is not suitable for most chemistry tests because it can interfere with the accuracy of the results. The correct tube for chemistry tests is typically a red top tube, which contains no anticoagulant. Therefore, if EDTA-K3 is drawn in error, the lab would receive a purple top tube, which is used for hematology tests and contains EDTA as an anticoagulant.

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47. A 25 year old female took a home pregnancy test 2 weeks after she missed her period.  She made an appointment to see her physician 2 weeks after that.  The doctor ordered a quantitative serum HCG and it came back as 2678 IU/L.  The physician questioned the results and asked that it be repeated.  IT was repeated with the same results.  What could be the reason for this occurrence?

Explanation

The reason for the occurrence could be an ectopic pregnancy. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. This can result in a positive pregnancy test and elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), which is what the quantitative serum HCG test measures. The physician questioning the results and asking for a repeat suggests that they suspect an ectopic pregnancy, as it is a potentially dangerous condition that requires medical intervention.

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48. In bilirubin determinations, what is the purpose of caffeine-benzoate-acetate?

Explanation

Caffeine-benzoate-acetate is used in bilirubin determinations to accelerate the coupling of bilirubin with the color reagent. This means that it helps to speed up the reaction between bilirubin and the color reagent, which is important for accurate measurements of bilirubin levels. By accelerating the coupling process, caffeine-benzoate-acetate allows for a more efficient and reliable determination of bilirubin levels in the sample being tested.

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49. Which is the storage form of glucose in muscle and liver?

Explanation

Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in muscle and liver. It is a polysaccharide composed of glucose molecules and serves as a readily available source of energy. When glucose levels are high, excess glucose is converted into glycogen and stored in the liver and muscles. This stored glycogen can then be broken down into glucose when energy is needed, such as during exercise or fasting. Starch, pentose, and dextrose are not the storage forms of glucose in muscle and liver.

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50. What plasma protein is increased in spina bifida

Explanation

Alpha-fetoprotein is a plasma protein that is increased in spina bifida. Spina bifida is a birth defect that occurs when the spine and spinal cord do not form properly. Alpha-fetoprotein is produced by the developing fetus and is normally found in high levels in the fetal bloodstream. In cases of spina bifida, there is an abnormal opening in the spine, allowing alpha-fetoprotein to leak into the amniotic fluid and then into the mother's bloodstream. Therefore, an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein in the mother's blood is indicative of spina bifida in the fetus.

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51. The use of point of care testing devices for cardiac markers is not recommended because of which of the following?

Explanation

The use of point of care testing devices for cardiac markers is not recommended due to their lack of analytical sensitivity. These devices may not be able to accurately detect low levels of cardiac markers, which are important indicators of heart conditions. Therefore, relying on these devices may lead to false negative results and potentially delay appropriate medical interventions.

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52. What statement is true concerning the relationship between light absorbance and light transmittance?

Explanation

The statement that the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed means that as the concentration of a substance increases, more light will be absorbed. This is because a higher concentration of the substance provides more molecules or particles that can interact with the light and absorb it. Conversely, a lower concentration will result in less light being absorbed. This relationship is described by the direct proportionality, indicating that the two variables increase or decrease together.

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53. What type of analyzer allows a STAT to be loaded after several rack of routine samples but then aspirates the STAT specimen before completing the routine samples?

Explanation

A random access analyzer allows a STAT specimen to be loaded after several racks of routine samples. It can aspirate the STAT specimen before completing the routine samples, meaning it can prioritize and process urgent samples without interrupting the workflow of routine samples. This type of analyzer offers flexibility and efficiency in handling different types of samples in a non-sequential manner.

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54. An increase in CSF protein can be found in what disease state?

Explanation

Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. It is characterized by the destruction of the protective covering of nerve fibers, leading to communication problems between the brain and the rest of the body. An increase in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein can be found in multiple sclerosis due to the inflammation and damage caused to the nervous system. This increase in CSF protein is often detected through a lumbar puncture, which is a diagnostic procedure used to collect and analyze the CSF.

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55. A 28 year old diabetic female delivers a 9.5 pound infant.  The 1 hour old newborn has a STAT glucose test ordered.  The results of the neonate are given below.  Reflex testing by an alternate test method was performed before the results were reported. Glucose (glucose oxidase method)     12 mg/dL Glucose (hexokinase method)              13 mg/dL Which of the following is most likely the explanation for these results?

Explanation

The most likely explanation for the results of the neonate's glucose test is diabetes mellitus. This is because diabetes mellitus is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels, which can be passed from a diabetic mother to her newborn. The low glucose levels in the newborn indicate that the baby is not producing enough insulin to regulate their blood sugar levels, which is consistent with diabetes mellitus.

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56. Which of the following best describes universal precautions?

Explanation

Universal precautions refer to the practice of treating all specimens as potentially biohazardous. This means that healthcare professionals should take precautions and follow safety measures when handling any specimen, regardless of whether it is known to be infectious or not. This approach helps to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases and ensures the safety of both the healthcare workers and the patients.

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57. Which of the following defines anion gap?

Explanation

The anion gap is defined as the difference between the concentration of positively charged ions (Na+ and K+) and negatively charged ions (Cl- and CO2) in the blood. This is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride (Cl-) and bicarbonate (CO2) from the sum of sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+). Therefore, the correct answer is (Na+K)-(Cl+CO2).

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58. What hormone acts on the distal convoluted tubule to increase water reabsorption?

Explanation

Antidiuretic hormone acts on the distal convoluted tubule to increase water reabsorption. This hormone is released by the posterior pituitary gland in response to low blood volume or high blood osmolality. It acts on the kidneys to increase the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts, allowing more water to be reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. This helps to conserve water and prevent dehydration.

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59. What serum protein electrophoresis fraction contains only one protein?

Explanation

Albumin is the correct answer because it is the only fraction in serum protein electrophoresis that contains only one protein. Alpha 1-globulins, beta-globulins, and gammaglobulins consist of multiple proteins.

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60. Which tissue has the highest distribution of CK-BB

Explanation

The correct answer is brain because CK-BB (creatine kinase-brain type) is predominantly found in the brain tissue. It is an isoenzyme of creatine kinase, which is responsible for energy metabolism in the brain. CK-BB is primarily produced by brain cells and is used as a marker for brain damage or injury, making it highly concentrated in the brain tissue.

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61. What type of diabetes is cuased by cell-mediated immune destruction of pancreatic B-cells?

Explanation

Diabetes mellitus, type 1 is caused by cell-mediated immune destruction of pancreatic B-cells. In this type of diabetes, the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. This immune destruction is thought to be triggered by genetic and environmental factors. Type 1 diabetes is usually diagnosed in childhood or adolescence and requires lifelong insulin therapy to manage blood sugar levels.

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62. What lipoprotein is also referred to as "pre-beta" lipoprotein?

Explanation

VLDL stands for Very Low-Density Lipoprotein and is often referred to as "pre-beta" lipoprotein. This is because VLDL is the precursor to LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein) and is converted to LDL in the bloodstream. VLDL carries triglycerides, cholesterol, and other lipids from the liver to the cells in the body. As VLDL particles lose triglycerides, they become smaller and denser, eventually transforming into LDL. Therefore, VLDL is commonly known as "pre-beta" lipoprotein.

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63. Due to the diurnal variation of cortisol, a patient that is being worked up for Adrenal insufficiency should have their blood drawn at what time of the day?

Explanation

Cortisol levels naturally fluctuate throughout the day, with the highest levels typically occurring in the morning around 8:00. This diurnal variation is important to consider when testing for adrenal insufficiency because cortisol levels may be lower in the afternoon or evening. By drawing blood in the morning, healthcare providers can obtain a more accurate assessment of cortisol levels and better diagnose adrenal insufficiency.

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64. What hormone synthesized by the pituitary gland promotes function of the thyroid gland?

Explanation

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is synthesized by the pituitary gland and promotes the function of the thyroid gland. TSH stimulates the production and release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which are the main hormones produced by the thyroid gland. These hormones play a crucial role in regulating metabolism, growth, and development in the body. Therefore, TSH is responsible for stimulating the thyroid gland to produce and release thyroxine, ultimately promoting its function.

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65. What optical technique measures metal ions in a solution based on ground state atoms absorbing light at defined wavelengths for the element being measured?

Explanation

Atomic absorption spectrophotometry is an optical technique that measures metal ions in a solution by using ground state atoms that absorb light at specific wavelengths for the element being measured. This technique involves passing light through the sample solution and measuring the amount of light absorbed by the atoms. The absorption of light is directly proportional to the concentration of the metal ions in the solution, allowing for quantitative analysis of metal ions. Nephelometry, chemiluminescence, and turbidimetry are not specific to measuring metal ions based on ground state atoms absorbing light at defined wavelengths.

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66. A physician's office tests pre-diabetic patients for a fasting blood glucose level using a glucometer when these pateints arrive for an office visit.  What type of testing is this referred to as?

Explanation

Point of care testing refers to the practice of conducting diagnostic tests at or near the location where the patient is receiving care. In this scenario, the physician's office is testing pre-diabetic patients for fasting blood glucose levels using a glucometer during their office visit. This type of testing allows for immediate results and enables healthcare providers to make timely decisions about patient care.

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67. The precipitin curve, where does the optimal ratio of antibody to antigen occur?

Explanation

The optimal ratio of antibody to antigen occurs in the zone of equivalence. In this zone, there is an equal amount of antibody and antigen present, resulting in the formation of immune complexes. This is the point where the maximum precipitation reaction occurs, indicating the highest level of binding between the antibody and antigen.

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68. In electrophoresis the anion always migrates

Explanation

In electrophoresis, the movement of charged particles is driven by an electric field. Anions are negatively charged particles, and they are attracted to the positively charged electrode, which is the anode. Therefore, anions always migrate towards the anode in electrophoresis.

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69. Urine, an ultrafiltrate of plasma, is formed by the kidneys and primarily consists of which of the following analytes?

Explanation

Urine is an ultrafiltrate of plasma, meaning it is a filtered version of plasma. It is primarily composed of water, salt, and urea. Water is the main component of urine, while salt (such as sodium and chloride ions) helps maintain the osmotic balance. Urea, a waste product formed from the breakdown of proteins, is also present in urine. Therefore, the correct answer is water, salt, and urea.

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70. What liver enzymes are most useful in the detection of hepatocelluar damage of the liver?

Explanation

ALT (alanine aminotransferase) and AST (aspartate aminotransferase) are liver enzymes that are most useful in the detection of hepatocellular damage of the liver. Elevated levels of these enzymes in the blood indicate liver cell injury or damage. ALT is primarily found in the liver and is more specific to liver damage, while AST is found in the liver as well as in other organs, so elevated AST levels may indicate damage to other organs as well. Therefore, measuring ALT and AST levels can help in diagnosing and monitoring liver diseases such as hepatitis, cirrhosis, or liver cancer.

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71. The basic unit of protein is called a/an_______________________.

Explanation

The basic unit of protein is called an amino acid. Proteins are made up of long chains of amino acids, which are linked together by peptide bonds. Each amino acid contains an amino group, a carboxyl group, a hydrogen atom, and a unique side chain. These side chains give each amino acid its specific properties and allow proteins to have a wide range of functions in the body. Therefore, amino acid is the correct answer as it accurately describes the fundamental building block of proteins.

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72. What condition causes females to develop excessive facial hair?

Explanation

Hirsutism is a condition that causes females to develop excessive facial hair. This condition is characterized by the growth of thick, dark hair in areas where men typically grow hair, such as the face, chest, and back. It is often caused by an increase in androgen levels, which can be due to hormonal imbalances, polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), certain medications, or underlying medical conditions. Treatment options for hirsutism may include medications to regulate hormone levels, hair removal methods, and addressing any underlying causes.

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73. Which of the following is used to measure the light transmitted by a solution to determine the concentration of the light-absorbing substance in the solution

Explanation

Spectrophotometry is used to measure the light transmitted by a solution to determine the concentration of the light-absorbing substance in the solution. This technique involves passing a beam of light through the solution and measuring the intensity of light that is absorbed by the substance. By comparing the intensity of absorbed light to a calibration curve, the concentration of the substance can be determined accurately. Fluorometry measures the fluorescence emitted by a substance, turbidometry measures the scattering of light by particles in a solution, and nephelometry measures the intensity of light scattered by suspended particles.

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74. At a physiological pH of 7.4, what is the bicarb-carbonic acid ratio?

Explanation

The bicarb-carbonic acid ratio at a physiological pH of 7.4 is 20:1. This means that there is a higher concentration of bicarbonate ions compared to carbonic acid ions in the body at this pH. The bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) acts as a buffer in the body, helping to maintain the pH balance. The ratio of 20:1 indicates that there is a higher amount of bicarbonate ions available to buffer any changes in pH, ensuring that the body remains within the normal physiological range.

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75. In a spectrophotometric analysis what is the purpose of the reagent blank?

Explanation

The purpose of the reagent blank in a spectrophotometric analysis is to correct for the color contribution of the reagents. Reagents used in the analysis may have their own color that can interfere with the measurement of the sample. By measuring the absorbance of the reagents alone, the color contribution can be determined and subtracted from the absorbance of the sample to obtain accurate results. This ensures that any color observed in the analysis is solely due to the analyte of interest and not the reagents used.

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76. What is the function of progesterone?

Explanation

Progesterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in preparing the uterus for pregnancy. It helps to thicken the lining of the uterus, known as the endometrium, making it more receptive to the implantation of a fertilized egg. Progesterone also helps to maintain the pregnancy by preventing the shedding of the uterine lining and supporting the development of the placenta. Additionally, progesterone helps to relax the muscles in the uterus, preventing contractions that could potentially lead to miscarriage. Therefore, the function of progesterone is to prepare the uterus for pregnancy.

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77. When doing electrophoresis the migration of the zwiterion depends on what?

Explanation

The migration of the zwiterion during electrophoresis depends on the pH of the buffer. The buffer solution used in electrophoresis helps to maintain a stable pH environment. The zwiterion, which is a molecule with both positive and negative charges, will migrate towards the electrode with the opposite charge. The pH of the buffer affects the charge on the zwiterion, thus influencing its migration. A higher pH will result in a more negatively charged zwiterion, causing it to migrate towards the positive electrode, while a lower pH will result in a more positively charged zwiterion, causing it to migrate towards the negative electrode.

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78. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a closed system?

Explanation

A disadvantage of a closed system is the inability to add reagents from other manufacturers. In a closed system, the analyzer is designed to only work with specific reagents provided by the manufacturer. This limits the flexibility to use reagents from other manufacturers, which may offer different options in terms of cost, availability, or performance. This can restrict the user's ability to customize or optimize their testing process based on their specific needs or preferences.

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79. Which of the following is a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease?

Explanation

Elevated HDL cholesterol is a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease because HDL cholesterol is commonly referred to as "good" cholesterol. Higher levels of HDL cholesterol are associated with a lower risk of developing coronary heart disease. HDL cholesterol helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and transports it to the liver for processing and elimination. This reduces the buildup of plaque in the arteries, which is a major contributor to coronary heart disease. Therefore, having elevated HDL cholesterol levels is beneficial and reduces the risk of developing coronary heart disease.

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80. Which of the following facilitates the absoprtion of vitamin B12 in the ileum?

Explanation

Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach lining that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. It binds to vitamin B12 and helps it to be absorbed into the bloodstream. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be properly absorbed and can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency. Secretin, pepsin, and gastrin are not directly involved in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum.

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81. The analytical process for the quantitative measurement of elements through the absorption of optical radiation by free atoms in the gas phase is called?

Explanation

Atomic absorption spectrophotometry is the correct answer because it involves the quantitative measurement of elements by analyzing the absorption of optical radiation by free atoms in the gas phase. This technique is commonly used in analytical chemistry to determine the concentration of specific elements in a sample. Atomic emission spectrophotometry, plasma mass spectrometry, and colormetric spectrophotometry are all different techniques that are not specifically related to the measurement of elements through absorption of optical radiation by free atoms in the gas phase.

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82. Corticotropin-releasing hormone is secreted from the hypothalamus causing release of what hormone from the pituitary gland?

Explanation

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) is secreted from the hypothalamus and stimulates the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. ACTH, in turn, stimulates the adrenal glands to produce and release cortisol. Therefore, the correct answer is adrenocorticotropic hormone.

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83. Which of the following is an example of a noncontrollable preanalytical error?

Explanation

Age is an example of a noncontrollable preanalytical error because it is a factor that cannot be controlled or manipulated by the individual or the healthcare provider. Age can have an impact on the accuracy and reliability of laboratory test results, as certain physiological changes occur with advancing age that can affect the interpretation of the results. Therefore, age is considered a noncontrollable variable that can introduce error in the preanalytical phase of laboratory testing.

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84. Carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated in which of the following diseases?

Explanation

Carcinoembryonic antigen is a protein that is commonly found in the cells of the gastrointestinal tract during fetal development. However, in adults, elevated levels of carcinoembryonic antigen are often associated with colorectal cancer. This is because colorectal cancer cells can produce and release carcinoembryonic antigen into the bloodstream. Therefore, an elevated level of carcinoembryonic antigen can be a useful marker for diagnosing and monitoring colorectal cancer. It is not typically elevated in liver cancer, breast cancer, or prostate cancer.

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85. AFter the fire works on July 4th, a male patient with angina was seen in the ER.  Lab tests were ordered on admission and again 8 hours later. Date                7/4                             7/5 Total CK         200                            175          (15-160 U/L) CKMB mass    7.5                              7.0        (<6%) Relative index 3.8                              4.0        (<3%) Troponin T      .19                              .15        (0-0.1 ug/mL) What is the most likely explanation for these results?    

Explanation

The lab results show elevated levels of Total CK, CKMB mass, Relative index, and Troponin T, which are all markers of myocardial damage. These findings suggest that the patient has experienced an acute myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack. Angina pectoris, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, would not typically result in such significant elevations in these markers. Congestive heart failure may cause some elevation in these markers, but the degree of elevation seen in this patient is more consistent with acute myocardial infarction. Therefore, the most likely explanation for these results is acute myocardial infarction.

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86. In a hemolytic crisis, bilirubin levels are________________.

Explanation

In a hemolytic crisis, there is an excessive breakdown of red blood cells, leading to an increased release of bilirubin into the bloodstream. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are broken down. Therefore, in a hemolytic crisis, the levels of bilirubin in the blood are increased.

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87. A fire that is cuased by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is an example of what type of fire?

Explanation

A fire that is caused by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is an example of a Class A fire. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth, and plastics. The lit cigarette ignites the combustible materials in the trash can, resulting in a fire that can spread rapidly if not extinguished properly. Class A fires are typically extinguished using water or other water-based extinguishing agents.

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88. A round bottomed glass tube with only 1 marking of 500 mL volume is called a 

Explanation

A round bottomed glass tube with only 1 marking of 500 mL volume is called a volumetric flask. Volumetric flasks are commonly used in laboratories for precise measurement of liquids. They have a single marking, indicating the exact volume they can hold when filled to the mark. This allows for accurate and precise measurements, making them ideal for preparing solutions with specific concentrations. The other options mentioned, such as Erylynmeyer beaker, graduated flask, and measuring beaker, are not accurate descriptions of the given glass tube.

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89. What percentage of body mass is attributed to water alone?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30%. This means that approximately 30% of a person's body mass is attributed to water alone. Water is essential for various bodily functions, including regulating body temperature, transporting nutrients, and removing waste. It is present in cells, blood, and other bodily fluids. Maintaining proper hydration is crucial for overall health and well-being.

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90. Which of the following is the most important buffer in the bloodstream that regulated pH?

Explanation

Bicarbonate-carbonic acid is the most important buffer in the bloodstream that regulates pH. This buffer system helps maintain the pH balance by accepting or donating hydrogen ions (H+) when the pH becomes too acidic or alkaline. Bicarbonate (HCO3-) acts as a base, accepting H+ ions to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which can then release H+ ions when needed. This buffering system is crucial in preventing drastic changes in blood pH, which is vital for proper bodily functions.

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91. Which of the following hormones are produced by the kidney?

Explanation

Erythropoietin and renin are hormones that are produced by the kidney. Erythropoietin is responsible for stimulating the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow, while renin plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance by initiating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. These hormones are essential for maintaining homeostasis in the body and are produced specifically by the kidney.

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92. A 4 year old girl with nephrotic syndrome has the following results: triglycerides 100 mg/dL cholesterol 350 mg/dL HDL cholesterol 75 mg/dL LDL cholesterol 140 mg/dL These findings are consistent with which of the following?

Explanation

The given results show elevated levels of cholesterol and LDL cholesterol, which are consistent with acquired hypercholesterolemia. Acquired hypercholesterolemia refers to high levels of cholesterol in the blood that are not due to an inherited condition. In this case, the 4-year-old girl with nephrotic syndrome may have developed acquired hypercholesterolemia as a result of her kidney disorder. Nephrotic syndrome can cause abnormal lipid metabolism and lead to increased cholesterol levels.

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93. Which of the following is the most common symptom of an individual having a heart attack?

Explanation

Chest pain is the most common symptom of an individual having a heart attack. This is because during a heart attack, the blood flow to the heart muscle is blocked, causing chest pain or discomfort. It is important to note that not all individuals may experience chest pain during a heart attack, and symptoms can vary from person to person. However, chest pain is widely recognized as a common symptom and should not be ignored.

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94. What hormone is regulated by the concentration of free, ionized calcium?

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone is regulated by the concentration of free, ionized calcium. Parathyroid hormone helps to regulate calcium levels in the body by increasing the release of calcium from bones, increasing calcium absorption in the intestines, and decreasing calcium excretion in the kidneys. When calcium levels are low, parathyroid hormone is released to increase calcium levels. Conversely, when calcium levels are high, parathyroid hormone secretion is decreased to maintain balance.

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95. Iron is the most important trace metal in human physiology.  What is the second most important?

Explanation

Zinc is the second most important trace metal in human physiology after iron. It plays a crucial role in various biological processes, including enzyme function, immune system function, DNA synthesis, and wound healing. Zinc deficiency can lead to impaired growth and development, weakened immune system, and increased susceptibility to infections. Therefore, ensuring an adequate intake of zinc is essential for maintaining overall health and well-being.

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96. Hyperkalemia can cause all of the following EXCEPT.

Explanation

Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. It can cause various symptoms and complications, including muscle weakness, heart arrhythmias, and neuromuscular symptoms. However, it does not directly cause decreased vitamin D absorption. Vitamin D absorption primarily occurs in the small intestine and is influenced by factors such as dietary intake and intestinal health. Hyperkalemia does not directly affect these processes, thus it does not cause decreased vitamin D absorption.

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97. Using expired reagents to assay patient samples will result in an error in what phase of lab testing?

Explanation

Using expired reagents during lab testing can lead to inaccurate results and errors in the analytical phase. This phase involves the actual testing and analysis of patient samples, where expired reagents may not perform as expected or produce reliable results. Therefore, using expired reagents during the analytical phase can introduce errors into the lab testing process.

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98. Which of the following is an example of an analytical error?

Explanation

Using an outdated calibration curve is an example of an analytical error because it can lead to inaccurate and unreliable results. Calibration curves are used to establish the relationship between the measured values and the true values of a substance. If the calibration curve is outdated, it may not accurately represent the current conditions or characteristics of the substance being measured. This can result in incorrect measurements and data interpretation, compromising the validity and reliability of the analysis.

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99. What is the single, most useful test for assessing thyroid function?

Explanation

TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is the most useful test for assessing thyroid function. TSH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. Elevated levels of TSH indicate an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism), while low levels indicate an overactive thyroid (hyperthyroidism). TSH is a sensitive marker for thyroid dysfunction and is commonly used as the initial screening test for thyroid disorders. Other tests such as FT4 (free thyroxine) and thyroid antibodies may be used to further evaluate thyroid function, but TSH is considered the most important and informative test.

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100. Feces gets its brown pigmentation from _________________.

Explanation

Feces gets its brown pigmentation from stercobilin. Stercobilin is a breakdown product of bilirubin, which is a yellow pigment formed from the breakdown of red blood cells in the liver. Bilirubin is further metabolized in the intestines, where it is converted into stercobilin. This stercobilin gives feces its characteristic brown color.

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101. To determine the concentration of an unknown using Beer's Law, which of the following formulas should be used?

Explanation

The correct formula to determine the concentration of an unknown using Beer's Law is Cu = Au/As x Cs. This formula involves the absorbance of the unknown (Au) divided by the absorbance of the standard (As), multiplied by the concentration of the standard (Cs). This formula allows for the determination of the unknown concentration based on the relationship between absorbance and concentration described by Beer's Law.

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102. The following results are from an outpatient who has scheduled for an intraoperative PTH procedure: PTH             82.9 pg/mL (15.0-65.0) Calcium       11.1 mg/dL (8.9-10.1) Phosphorous 2.0 mg/dL (2.5-4.5) BUN             12.0 mg/dL (8-23) Creatinine    1.0 mg/dL (0.8-1.3) LD               190 U/L     (180-360) What is the most likely cause of the lab findings?

Explanation

The lab findings indicate elevated levels of PTH (parathyroid hormone), calcium, and LD (lactate dehydrogenase), which are consistent with hyperparathyroidism. Hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce excessive amounts of PTH, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood. The low phosphorous level may also be a result of increased renal reabsorption of phosphorous due to elevated PTH. The BUN and creatinine levels are within normal range, indicating normal kidney function and ruling out renal failure as the cause. The lab findings are not indicative of cancer.

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103. The "MM" fraction of CK is most abundant in _____________________.

Explanation

The "MM" fraction of CK, which refers to the muscle-specific isoform of creatine kinase, is most abundant in skeletal muscle. Creatine kinase is an enzyme found in various tissues, but the MM fraction is predominantly found in skeletal muscle. This is because skeletal muscle requires a high amount of energy and relies heavily on the ATP-creatine phosphate system for rapid energy production. Therefore, the MM fraction of CK is most abundant in skeletal muscle to support its energy demands.

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104. What condition is defined as decreased blood pH caused by an excess of CO2?

Explanation

Respiratory acidosis is a condition characterized by a decreased blood pH caused by an excess of carbon dioxide (CO2). This occurs when the lungs are unable to remove enough CO2 from the body, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the bloodstream. As a result, the blood becomes more acidic. Respiratory acidosis can be caused by various factors such as lung diseases, impaired breathing, or certain medications. It can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath, confusion, and fatigue. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and improving ventilation to remove excess CO2.

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105. Posthepatic jaundice characterized by increased concentration of total and direct bilirubin may be caused by which of the following?

Explanation

Posthepatic jaundice is characterized by an increased concentration of total and direct bilirubin. Biliary obstruction refers to a blockage in the bile ducts, which can prevent the flow of bile from the liver to the intestines. This obstruction can lead to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, causing jaundice. Hemolytic anemia, Gilbert disease, and Crigler-Najjar syndrome are not typically associated with biliary obstruction and would not cause the same pattern of jaundice.

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106. Cortisol is transported through the blood bound to what protein?

Explanation

Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, is transported in the blood bound to corticosteroid-binding globulin (CBG). CBG is a specific protein that binds to cortisol and other corticosteroids, allowing for their transport and delivery to target tissues. This binding helps to regulate the levels of cortisol in the blood and ensures its availability when needed. Transferrin, ceruloplasmin, and alpha1-lipoprotein are not involved in the transport of cortisol.

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107. The level of bicarbonate is regulated by what organ?

Explanation

The kidney is responsible for regulating the level of bicarbonate in the body. Bicarbonate is an important electrolyte that helps maintain the acid-base balance in the blood. The kidney filters and reabsorbs bicarbonate, ensuring that its levels remain within a normal range. If bicarbonate levels are too high, the kidney excretes it in the urine, and if levels are too low, the kidney reabsorbs more bicarbonate to maintain balance. The liver, lung, and hypothalamus do not play a direct role in regulating bicarbonate levels.

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108. In what condition is a decrease in serum albumin and an increase in alpha2-macroglobin seen?

Explanation

A decrease in serum albumin and an increase in alpha2-macroglobin are commonly seen in nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to excessive loss of proteins, including albumin, in the urine. This loss of albumin results in decreased serum albumin levels. Additionally, the liver responds to the decreased albumin by increasing the production of alpha2-macroglobin, a protein involved in immune defense. Therefore, the combination of decreased serum albumin and increased alpha2-macroglobin is indicative of nephrotic syndrome.

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109. The heart is primarily composed of what type of muscle tissue?

Explanation

The correct answer is cardiac. The heart is primarily composed of cardiac muscle tissue. Cardiac muscle is a specialized type of muscle tissue that is found only in the heart. It is responsible for the contraction and pumping of blood throughout the body. Cardiac muscle is unique in its structure, with intercalated discs that allow for coordinated contractions and a continuous flow of electrical signals. This type of muscle tissue is involuntary, meaning it contracts without conscious control.

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110. Which of the following is in the metal component of ceruloplasium?

Explanation

Ceruloplasmin is a protein found in the blood that plays a role in copper transport and metabolism. Copper is an essential component of ceruloplasmin, making it the correct answer. Zinc, iron, and selenium are not typically found in the metal component of ceruloplasmin.

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111. What is the mean of the following BUN control values           19.9, 20.0, 20.2, 21.9

Explanation

The mean is calculated by adding up all the values and then dividing by the total number of values. In this case, the sum of the BUN control values is 19.9 + 20.0 + 20.2 + 21.9 = 82.0. Since there are 4 values, the mean is 82.0 divided by 4, which equals 20.5.

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112. A patient has an elevated serum TT4 and FT4 and a very low serum TSH.  What is the most likely cause of these results?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the elevated serum TT4 and FT4 and very low serum TSH is Grave's disease. In Grave's disease, the thyroid gland is overactive and produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones, leading to an increase in TT4 and FT4 levels. The low TSH level is a result of negative feedback on the pituitary gland due to the high levels of thyroid hormones. Hashimoto's disease, on the other hand, is characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, resulting in low levels of TT4 and FT4. T3 thyrotoxicosis refers to excessive production of T3 hormone, which is not the most likely cause based on the given information. Euthyroidism indicates normal thyroid function and would not explain the elevated TT4, FT4, and low TSH levels.

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113. Which one of the following analytes is NOT measured by electrochemical methods?

Explanation

Electrochemical methods are used to measure analytes that involve the transfer of electrons. pH, pCO2, and chloride can all be measured using electrochemical methods because they involve chemical reactions that produce or consume electrons. However, amylase is an enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of starch and does not involve electron transfer. Therefore, it is not measured using electrochemical methods.

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114. Results from which electrolyte panel are within normal range?  (Na+, K+, CL-, CO2, respectively)

Explanation

The electrolyte panel results that are within normal range are Na+ (140), K+ (4.4), CL- (101), and CO2 (24).

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115. Ammonia is produced from which of the following

Explanation

Ammonia is produced from the catabolism of proteins. During the breakdown of proteins, the amino group is removed from the amino acids. This amino group is then converted into ammonia through a process called deamination. Ammonia is a waste product that is toxic to the body, so it is further converted into urea in the liver and excreted in urine. Therefore, the catabolism of proteins is the correct process through which ammonia is produced.

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116. Which of the following causes lipemic serum?

Explanation

Increased triglycerides can cause lipemic serum. Triglycerides are a type of fat found in the blood. When the levels of triglycerides are high, they can cause the serum to appear turbid or milky in appearance, giving it a lipemic appearance. This can be seen in conditions such as hyperlipidemia, obesity, uncontrolled diabetes, and certain genetic disorders. Lipemic serum can interfere with laboratory tests and cause inaccurate results.

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117. A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irrability (tetany).  Which of the following tests should be ordered immediately?

Explanation

Increased neuromuscular irritability, or tetany, is often associated with low calcium levels in the blood. Calcium plays a crucial role in muscle contraction and nerve function, so a decrease in calcium can lead to muscle spasms and irritability. Therefore, ordering a calcium test immediately would help determine if the patient's tetany is due to low calcium levels and guide appropriate treatment.

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118. Which of the following concentrations is expressed in moles/liter?

Explanation

Molarity is the concentration of a solution expressed in moles of solute per liter of solution. It is a commonly used unit in chemistry to describe the amount of solute dissolved in a solvent. Molality, on the other hand, is the concentration of a solution expressed in moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. Normality is a unit of concentration that is based on the number of equivalents of a solute per liter of solution. Percent concentration is a unit that expresses the concentration as a percentage of the total solution. Therefore, the correct answer is molarity, as it is the concentration expressed in moles per liter.

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119. A patient had a specimen drawn for iron determination at 8 am and another one drawn for the same test at 4 pm. The results were higher in the am than the pm.  This is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Diurnal variation refers to the natural fluctuations in certain physiological parameters throughout the day. In this case, the iron levels in the patient's specimen were higher in the morning (8 am) compared to the afternoon (4 pm). This can be attributed to diurnal variation, as iron levels tend to be higher in the morning and gradually decrease as the day progresses. Therefore, the difference in iron levels between the two specimens can be explained by diurnal variation.

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120. Aspirating wash solution between samples is a means of preventing which of the following?

Explanation

Aspirating wash solution between samples helps in preventing carryover. Carryover refers to the contamination or transfer of substances from one sample to another, which can lead to inaccurate results. By aspirating wash solution, any residual sample or analyte from the previous sample is removed, reducing the chances of carryover and ensuring the integrity of subsequent samples.

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121. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

Explanation

Iron sequestration is not a function of the liver. The liver is responsible for various functions such as protein synthesis, ammonia detoxification, and bilirubin excretion. However, iron sequestration is primarily carried out by other organs such as the spleen and bone marrow. These organs play a crucial role in storing and recycling iron, while the liver mainly focuses on its other functions.

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122. Which of the following is NOT a source of error when measuring electrolytes by the use of ion-selective electrodes?

Explanation

Icteric specimens are not a source of error when measuring electrolytes by the use of ion-selective electrodes. Icteric specimens refer to samples that have a high concentration of bilirubin, which is a yellow pigment found in bile. While icteric specimens can affect other laboratory tests, they do not interfere with the measurement of electrolytes using ion-selective electrodes.

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123. A patient has the following electrolytes.  What is the calculated anion gap? Sodium = 165 mmoles/L Potassium 4.0 mmoles/L Chloride= 125 mmoles/L Carbon dioxide= 24 mmoles/L

Explanation

The anion gap is calculated by subtracting the sum of the measured cations (sodium and potassium) from the sum of the measured anions (chloride and carbon dioxide). In this case, the sum of the cations is 165 + 4 = 169 mmoles/L, and the sum of the anions is 125 + 24 = 149 mmoles/L. Subtracting the sum of the anions from the sum of the cations gives us an anion gap of 169 - 149 = 20 mmoles/L. Therefore, the correct answer is 19.

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124. What is the primary reagent in the Jaffe method for creatinine?

Explanation

The primary reagent in the Jaffe method for creatinine is alkaline picrate. In the Jaffe method, creatinine reacts with alkaline picrate to form a red-orange complex. This complex is then measured spectrophotometrically to determine the concentration of creatinine in a sample. The reaction between creatinine and alkaline picrate is specific and sensitive, making it a commonly used method for creatinine measurement in clinical laboratories.

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125. What is the best indicator for an acute myocardial infarction?

Explanation

Troponin I is the best indicator for an acute myocardial infarction. Troponin I is a protein found in cardiac muscle cells, and its levels increase in the blood when there is damage to the heart muscle. It is a highly specific marker for myocardial injury and is used to diagnose and monitor patients with acute myocardial infarction. Other markers like myoglobin, CKMB, and total CK may also be elevated in myocardial infarction, but troponin I is considered the most accurate and reliable indicator.

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126. Which of the following are used to assess the synthetic ability of the liver and therefore are included in a liver profile?

Explanation

Total protein and albumin are included in a liver profile because they are markers of liver function and synthetic ability. The liver is responsible for producing and regulating proteins, including albumin, which helps maintain fluid balance in the body. A decrease in total protein and albumin levels can indicate liver dysfunction or impaired synthetic ability. Therefore, these tests are commonly used to assess liver function and are included in a liver profile.

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127. What is the main gastric enzyme that breaks proteins into smaller peptide fragments?

Explanation

Pepsin is the main gastric enzyme that breaks proteins into smaller peptide fragments. It is produced in the stomach and works in an acidic environment. Pepsin breaks down proteins by cleaving the peptide bonds between amino acids, resulting in the formation of smaller peptide fragments that can be further digested and absorbed by the body. Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates, lipase breaks down fats, and gastrin is a hormone that stimulates the production of gastric acid.

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128. Smoking cigarettes or breathing second hand cigarette smoke can increase exposure to what toxic metal?

Explanation

Smoking cigarettes or breathing secondhand cigarette smoke can increase exposure to arsenic, a toxic metal. Arsenic is a naturally occurring element that can be found in tobacco plants, and it is released into the air when cigarettes are burned. Inhaling this toxic metal can have serious health effects, including an increased risk of various types of cancer, cardiovascular disease, and respiratory issues. Therefore, smoking or being exposed to secondhand smoke can significantly increase one's exposure to arsenic.

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129. How is 100 degrees F recorded in Celcius?

Explanation

To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, you can use the formula: Celsius = (Fahrenheit - 32) * 5/9. By substituting 100 degrees Fahrenheit into the formula, we get: Celsius = (100 - 32) * 5/9 = 68 * 5/9 = 340/9 = 37.78. Rounding this value to the nearest whole number gives us 38 degrees Celsius. Therefore, 100 degrees Fahrenheit is recorded as 38 degrees Celsius.

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130. What are the expected lab results for a female with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

Explanation

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is a condition characterized by decreased or absent production of sex hormones due to a problem with the pituitary gland or hypothalamus. In this condition, there is a decrease in the levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which are responsible for stimulating the production of estrogen and testosterone. Therefore, the expected lab results for a female with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism would show a decrease in FSH and LH levels.

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131. What is the principal androgen in the blood?

Explanation

Testosterone is the principal androgen in the blood. Androgens are male sex hormones, and testosterone is the primary hormone responsible for male sexual development and characteristics. It is produced primarily in the testes and plays a crucial role in sperm production, muscle mass development, bone density, and the regulation of sex drive. Testosterone levels can influence various aspects of male health, including mood, energy levels, and overall well-being.

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132. A molecule with both a positive and negative charge is a 

Explanation

A molecule with both a positive and negative charge is called a zwitterion. In a zwitterion, the positive and negative charges are present on different functional groups within the molecule. This results in an overall neutral charge for the molecule, despite the presence of both positive and negative charges. Zwitterions are commonly found in amino acids and play important roles in biological processes.

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133. What is serum?

Explanation

Serum is the liquid component of blood that does not contain fibrinogen. Fibrinogen is a protein involved in blood clotting. When blood clots, fibrinogen is converted into fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure to stop bleeding. Therefore, serum is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after blood has coagulated and the clotting factors have been removed. It contains various substances such as electrolytes, hormones, antibodies, and waste products.

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134. Hyperlipidemia and/or hyperporteinemia can cause which of these errors in indirect ISE measurement?

Explanation

Hyperlipidemia and/or hyperproteinemia can cause dilutional error in indirect ISE measurement. This is because the presence of high lipid or protein levels in the sample can alter the dilution factor, affecting the accuracy of the measurement. This can lead to incorrect results and misinterpretation of the patient's electrolyte levels.

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135. What term is used to describe when the reaction rate is directly proportional to the substrate concentration

Explanation

First-order kinetics is the term used to describe when the reaction rate is directly proportional to the substrate concentration. In this type of reaction, the rate of the reaction increases linearly with the increase in substrate concentration. This means that if the substrate concentration is doubled, the reaction rate will also double. It is important to note that in first-order kinetics, the reaction rate is independent of the enzyme concentration.

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136. Which of the following is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme responsible for conjugated bilirubin and is characterized by increased levels of total bilirubin, decreased levels of conjugated bilirubin, and increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin?

Explanation

Crigler-Najjar syndrome is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme responsible for conjugated bilirubin. This results in increased levels of total bilirubin, decreased levels of conjugated bilirubin, and increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin.

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137. Which of the following does NOT cause a chronic infection?

Explanation

Hepatitis A does not cause a chronic infection. Unlike Hepatitis B, C, and D, Hepatitis A typically does not lead to long-term liver damage or chronic liver disease. Hepatitis A is usually an acute infection that resolves on its own within a few weeks or months. It is primarily transmitted through contaminated food or water and does not result in a persistent infection.

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138. Hydrochloric acid secretion is regulated by what hormone?

Explanation

Gastrin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that regulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach. When food enters the stomach, gastrin is released and stimulates the production of hydrochloric acid by the gastric glands. This acid helps in the digestion of proteins and kills bacteria present in the stomach. Therefore, gastrin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of hydrochloric acid.

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139. The following results are from a patient seen in the ER: Glucose.....500 mg/dL BUN           12 mg/dL Creatinine   1.1 mg/dL Sodium       145 mmoles/L Potassium   6.0 mmoles/L Chloride      105 mmoles/L Carbon dioxide....10 mmoles/L These results are indicative of what disorder?

Explanation

The elevated glucose level of 500 mg/dL is indicative of diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels due to the body's inability to produce or properly use insulin. The other lab values, such as BUN, creatinine, sodium, potassium, chloride, and carbon dioxide, do not provide any specific information about the disorder and are within normal ranges. Therefore, the elevated glucose level is the key factor in determining that the patient has diabetes mellitus.

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140. What is the formula for relative centrifugal force?

Explanation

The formula for relative centrifugal force is 1.18 x 10^-5 (r)(rpm^2). This formula takes into account the radius (r) and the rotational speed (rpm) squared to calculate the relative centrifugal force. The smaller the radius or the slower the rotational speed, the smaller the relative centrifugal force.

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141. The use of galvanic and electrolytic cells for chemical analysis is the prinicple of which of the following?

Explanation

The use of galvanic and electrolytic cells for chemical analysis is based on the principles of electrochemistry. Electrochemistry involves the study of the interconversion of electrical and chemical energy, and the use of electric current to drive non-spontaneous chemical reactions or to measure the extent of spontaneous reactions. Galvanic cells generate electrical energy from chemical reactions, while electrolytic cells use electrical energy to drive non-spontaneous reactions. Both types of cells are commonly used in chemical analysis to measure the concentration of various substances.

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142. Using thin layer chromatopgraphy, the distance of the drug divided by the distance of the solvent is used to calculate what value?

Explanation

In thin layer chromatography, the Rf value is calculated by dividing the distance traveled by the drug by the distance traveled by the solvent. The Rf value is a measure of how far the drug has moved relative to the solvent, and it is used to identify and compare different compounds in a mixture. Therefore, the correct answer is Rf.

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143. In an Enzyme-linked ImmunoSorbant Assay (ELISA) the wells of the plate are coated with which of the following?

Explanation

In an Enzyme-linked ImmunoSorbant Assay (ELISA), the wells of the plate are coated with the antigen. This is because ELISA is a test that detects and measures antibodies in the blood, and the antigen is the substance that the antibodies bind to. By coating the wells with the antigen, any antibodies present in the sample will bind to it, allowing for their detection and measurement. The other options, such as the enzyme, secondary antibody, and color producer, are not typically coated onto the wells but may be used in later steps of the ELISA process.

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144. Hyponatremia can be caused by which of the following

Explanation

Hyponatremia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. Water toxicity, also known as water intoxication, is a potential cause of hyponatremia. It occurs when an individual drinks excessive amounts of water, leading to a dilution of sodium in the blood. This can disrupt the balance of electrolytes in the body and result in hyponatremia. Dehydration, diarrhea, and low ADH (antidiuretic hormone) can also contribute to hyponatremia, but water toxicity specifically refers to the excessive consumption of water as a cause.

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145. A common cause of falsely elevated LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) is:

Explanation

A hemolyzed specimen can cause falsely elevated LDH levels. Hemolysis refers to the breakdown of red blood cells, which can release LDH into the bloodstream. This can result in higher LDH levels when testing the specimen, leading to a false elevation. It is important to ensure that the specimen is properly handled and processed to avoid hemolysis and obtain accurate LDH results.

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146. Which of the following lipoproteins is primary composed of exogenous triglycerides?

Explanation

Chylomicrons are primarily composed of exogenous triglycerides. Exogenous triglycerides are dietary fats that are absorbed from the intestines into the bloodstream. Chylomicrons are responsible for transporting these triglycerides from the intestines to various tissues in the body. They are the largest and least dense lipoproteins and are synthesized in the intestines before being released into the lymphatic system and eventually entering the bloodstream. Once in the bloodstream, chylomicrons deliver triglycerides to adipose tissue for storage or to muscle tissue for energy production.

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147. Which of the following is a biochemical marker of coronary heart disease?

Explanation

hsCRP is a biochemical marker of coronary heart disease. It stands for high-sensitivity C-reactive protein. This protein is produced by the liver in response to inflammation in the body. Elevated levels of hsCRP have been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including coronary heart disease. Measuring hsCRP levels can help in assessing the risk of developing coronary heart disease and monitoring the effectiveness of treatment.

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148. What end product of hemoglobin catabolism is excreted in the feces?

Explanation

Urobilinogen is the end product of hemoglobin catabolism that is excreted in the feces. It is formed in the intestines by the action of bacteria on bilirubin, which is released from the breakdown of hemoglobin. Urobilinogen is then converted into urobilin, which gives feces its characteristic brown color. Bilirubin, on the other hand, is further processed in the liver and excreted in the bile. Stercobilin is a breakdown product of urobilinogen that is responsible for the brown color of feces.

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149. Carotenoids are the chief precursor of what vitamin?

Explanation

Carotenoids are organic pigments found in plants that are responsible for their vibrant colors. They are converted into vitamin A in the body. Vitamin A is essential for maintaining good vision, supporting the immune system, and promoting healthy skin. Therefore, carotenoids are the chief precursor of vitamin A.

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150. What cancer antigen is used to monitor patients receiving treatment for breast cancer?

Explanation

CA 27-29/15-3 is used to monitor patients receiving treatment for breast cancer. This cancer antigen is a protein that is produced by breast cancer cells. Monitoring the levels of CA 27-29/15-3 in the blood can help track the progress of the treatment and detect any recurrence of the cancer. This antigen is particularly useful in monitoring patients with advanced or metastatic breast cancer. CA 125 is not specific to breast cancer and is more commonly used to monitor ovarian cancer. CA 19-9 is used to monitor pancreatic and gastrointestinal cancers, but not breast cancer.

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151. An important pre-analytical variable that needs to be considered in blood gas analysis is...

Explanation

FiO2 and patient body temp are important pre-analytical variables that need to be considered in blood gas analysis. FiO2 refers to the fraction of inspired oxygen, which can affect the oxygen saturation levels in the blood. Patient body temperature can also influence blood gas analysis results, as temperature affects the solubility of gases in the blood. Therefore, both FiO2 and patient body temperature should be taken into account to ensure accurate blood gas analysis.

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152. Hypoproteinemia can be found in which of these disease states?

Explanation

Hypoproteinemia refers to abnormally low levels of protein in the blood. Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by damage to the kidneys, leading to increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier and excessive loss of protein in the urine. This results in low levels of protein in the blood, including albumin. Therefore, nephrotic syndrome is a disease state that can cause hypoproteinemia. Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells, scaroidosis is a chronic inflammatory disease, and Addison's disease is a hormonal disorder; none of these conditions are directly associated with hypoproteinemia.

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153. Turbidity in the serum suggests elevation of?

Explanation

Turbidity in the serum suggests elevation of chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are large particles composed of triglycerides, cholesterol, and other lipids. When the concentration of chylomicrons in the serum is elevated, it can cause the serum to appear cloudy or turbid. This is because chylomicrons scatter light, leading to the turbidity. High levels of chylomicrons in the serum can be indicative of conditions such as familial hypertriglyceridemia or lipoprotein lipase deficiency.

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154. What is the reference range for total bilirubin in adults?

Explanation

The reference range for total bilirubin in adults is 0.1-1.2 mg/dL. This range represents the normal levels of bilirubin in the blood for adults. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. It is processed by the liver and excreted in the bile. Elevated levels of bilirubin can indicate liver disease or other conditions affecting the liver's ability to process bilirubin. Therefore, a range of 0.1-1.2 mg/dL is considered to be within the normal range for total bilirubin in adults.

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155. Cystic fibrosis is primarily a disease affecting which of the following?

Explanation

Cystic fibrosis is primarily a disease affecting the pancreas. This genetic disorder causes the production of thick, sticky mucus that clogs the pancreatic ducts, leading to impaired digestion and absorption of nutrients. This can result in malnutrition and other complications. While cystic fibrosis can also affect other organs, such as the lungs and gastrointestinal tract, the pancreas is primarily affected in this disease.

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156. The determination of what analyte is used to assess the difference between a patient's protein intake versus their nitrogen excretion?

Explanation

The analyte used to assess the difference between a patient's protein intake versus their nitrogen excretion is urinary urea nitrogen. Urea is a waste product formed in the liver from the breakdown of proteins. It is excreted in the urine, and the measurement of urinary urea nitrogen can provide an indication of protein intake and nitrogen excretion. Ammonia, uric acid, and creatinine are not specifically used for this purpose.

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157. Chemistry analytes such as glucose and cholesterol are an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Glucose and cholesterol are substances that are dissolved in a solvent to form a solution. In this case, the solvent is not mentioned, but it could be water or another liquid. Therefore, glucose and cholesterol are solutes in a solution.

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158. A patient has a low hsTSH, low TT4, and low TT3 result accompanied by low FT4 and FT3.  A TRH stimulation test was performed and expected test results wer achieved, indicating normal hypothalamus function.  THese results are characteristic of which of the following disorders?

Explanation

The patient's low levels of hsTSH, TT4, TT3, FT4, and FT3 indicate a decrease in thyroid hormone production. However, the normal results of the TRH stimulation test suggest that the hypothalamus is functioning properly and is able to release TRH to stimulate the pituitary gland. This indicates that the problem lies in the pituitary gland, which is not producing enough TSH to stimulate the thyroid gland. Therefore, the correct answer is secondary hypothyroidism.

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159. Which of the following is a limitation of Beer's Law?

Explanation

Beer's Law states that there is a linear relationship between the absorbance (Abs) of a substance and its concentration. This means that as the concentration of a substance increases, the absorbance also increases proportionally. Therefore, the correct answer is that Abs and concentration must have a linear relationship.

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160. What is the confirmatory method for measuring durgs of abuse?

Explanation

Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry (GC/MS) is a confirmatory method for measuring drugs of abuse. GC/MS is a powerful analytical technique that combines the separation capabilities of gas chromatography with the detection and identification capabilities of mass spectrometry. It is widely used in forensic and clinical toxicology laboratories to identify and quantify drugs and their metabolites in biological samples. GC/MS provides high sensitivity and specificity, allowing for accurate and reliable results in drug testing. It is considered the gold standard for confirmatory drug testing due to its ability to separate and detect a wide range of compounds.

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161. What type of sample is used most commonly for POC chemistry tests?

Explanation

Whole blood is the most commonly used sample for POC (Point-of-Care) chemistry tests. This is because whole blood contains all the components of blood, including red and white blood cells, platelets, and plasma. By using whole blood, POC tests can provide a comprehensive analysis of various parameters such as glucose levels, electrolytes, and lipid profiles. Additionally, collecting whole blood is relatively easy and convenient compared to other sample types such as plasma or serum, which require additional steps for separation.

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162. How does ISE methods differ from indirect ISE methods?

Explanation

Indirect ISE methods require a dilution because they involve measuring a sample's concentration indirectly, usually through a reaction or a change in property. Dilution is necessary to ensure that the sample is within the measurable range of the instrument. On the other hand, direct ISE methods also require a dilution, but they additionally involve a separation step, such as filtration or extraction, to isolate the analyte of interest before measurement. This separation step helps to remove interfering substances and improve the accuracy of the measurement.

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163. An example of an acquired porphyria would be which of the following?

Explanation

Lead poisoning is an example of an acquired porphyria because it can cause an increase in porphyrin levels in the body. Lead interferes with the enzymes involved in heme synthesis, leading to an accumulation of porphyrins. This can result in symptoms such as abdominal pain, neuropathy, and psychiatric disturbances. Cutanea tarda and variegate porphyria are examples of inherited porphyrias, while iron poisoning is not directly related to porphyria.

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164. Specimens for analysis of trace metals must be collected with scrupulous attention to detail for which of the following reasons?

Explanation

The reason why specimens for analysis of trace metals must be collected with scrupulous attention to detail is to prevent contamination from the environment. Trace metals analysis requires accurate and precise measurements, and any contamination from the environment can lead to inaccurate results. Therefore, it is crucial to collect specimens carefully to ensure that no external factors interfere with the analysis and to obtain reliable data.

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165. The pituitary gland has a close anatomical relationship to which of the following?

Explanation

The pituitary gland has a close anatomical relationship with the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is located just above the pituitary gland and is responsible for controlling the release of hormones from the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus produces hormones that travel to the pituitary gland through a network of blood vessels, allowing for communication and regulation between the two glands. This close relationship ensures that the pituitary gland can respond to signals from the hypothalamus and release the appropriate hormones to regulate various bodily functions.

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166. Which of the following is an immunometric test method that employs a capture antibody and a detection antibody?

Explanation

A sandwich assay is an immunometric test method that involves the use of a capture antibody and a detection antibody. In this assay, the capture antibody is immobilized on a solid surface and is capable of binding to the target analyte. The detection antibody, which is labeled with a detectable marker, is then added and binds to a different epitope on the target analyte, forming a "sandwich" complex. This allows for the quantification or detection of the target analyte based on the signal produced by the detectable marker.

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167. What lab test is used to screen for neural tube defects during pregnancy?

Explanation

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is a lab test used to screen for neural tube defects during pregnancy. Neural tube defects are birth defects that affect the brain, spine, or spinal cord of the developing fetus. AFP is a protein produced by the fetus, and its levels can be measured in the mother's blood. Elevated levels of AFP may indicate the presence of a neural tube defect. This test is commonly performed between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy to assess the risk of these defects.

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168. What part of the nephron is relatively impermeable to water?

Explanation

The ascending loop of Henle is relatively impermeable to water. This is because it contains thick, impermeable walls that do not allow water to pass through. Instead, it actively transports ions such as sodium and chloride out of the tubule, creating a concentration gradient that allows for the reabsorption of water in the collecting duct.

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169. Which of the following patients has normal results? (total protein, albumin, respecitively)

Explanation

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170. Acute phase reactants are elevated in which of the following disorders?

Explanation

Acute phase reactants are proteins that increase in response to inflammation. Inflammation is a natural response of the body to tissue damage or infection, and it triggers the release of various substances, including acute phase reactants. These reactants help to regulate the inflammatory process and promote tissue repair. Therefore, in disorders characterized by inflammation, such as infections or autoimmune diseases, the levels of acute phase reactants are elevated. Cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, and alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency may have their own specific biomarkers or indicators, but they are not primarily associated with elevated acute phase reactants.

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171. Which of the following is a protein molecule that catalyzes chemical reactions without itself being destroyed or altered?

Explanation

Enzymes are protein molecules that act as catalysts in chemical reactions, meaning they speed up the reaction without being consumed or altered in the process. They achieve this by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur. Activators, coenzymes, and proenzymes are not capable of catalyzing reactions without being destroyed or altered.

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172. The renal threshold for glucose is__________________.

Explanation

The renal threshold for glucose refers to the concentration of glucose in the blood at which the kidneys start to excrete glucose into the urine. In healthy individuals, this threshold is typically around 180 mg/dl. Once the blood glucose level exceeds this threshold, the kidneys cannot reabsorb all the glucose and it is excreted in the urine. This is an important mechanism to prevent excessive glucose buildup in the blood.

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173. What is enzyme is more specific for acute pancreatitis?

Explanation

Lipase is more specific for acute pancreatitis because it is an enzyme that is primarily produced by the pancreas. Elevated levels of lipase in the blood indicate pancreatic inflammation or injury, which is a characteristic feature of acute pancreatitis. On the other hand, AST (aspartate aminotransferase), amylase, and GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) are also enzymes that can be elevated in acute pancreatitis, but they are not as specific to the pancreas as lipase. Therefore, lipase is the most reliable enzyme for diagnosing acute pancreatitis.

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174. The detection of elevated levels of urinary catecholamines is the screening test for what disorder?

Explanation

Elevated levels of urinary catecholamines are indicative of Pheochromocytoma, a rare tumor that develops in the adrenal glands. Pheochromocytoma causes excessive production of adrenaline and noradrenaline, leading to symptoms such as high blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and sweating. The detection of elevated levels of urinary catecholamines through a screening test helps in diagnosing this disorder. Hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive production of aldosterone, argentaffinoma refers to a tumor of the neuroendocrine cells, and Cushing's syndrome is caused by high levels of cortisol. None of these conditions are directly associated with elevated urinary catecholamines.

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175. You have 100 helathy normal individuals.  Creatinine is measured on each on all 100 individuals.  How many of the results would you expect to be within the referecnce interval for creatinine?

Explanation

In a healthy population, the majority of individuals should have creatinine levels within the reference interval. Therefore, it is expected that a large proportion of the 100 healthy normal individuals would have creatinine results within the reference interval. The correct answer is 95, which suggests that 95 out of the 100 individuals would be expected to have creatinine levels within the reference interval.

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176. What is the most common method for measuring total protein in which cupric ions complex with peptide bonds?

Explanation

The most common method for measuring total protein is the Biuret method. In this method, cupric ions complex with peptide bonds present in proteins, forming a purple-colored complex. The intensity of the color is directly proportional to the concentration of proteins in the sample. Therefore, by measuring the absorbance of the complex at a specific wavelength, the total protein concentration can be determined. The Biuret method is widely used due to its simplicity, accuracy, and ability to measure a wide range of protein concentrations.

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177. Which of teh following lab results increases a patient's risk of coronary heart disease?

Explanation

A high level of total cholesterol increases a patient's risk of coronary heart disease. Total cholesterol includes both HDL (good) cholesterol and LDL (bad) cholesterol. In this case, the total cholesterol level is 250 mg/dL, which is considered high. High levels of LDL cholesterol and triglycerides can also contribute to an increased risk of coronary heart disease, but they are not the correct answer in this case. HDL cholesterol, on the other hand, is considered beneficial and helps to lower the risk of coronary heart disease.

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178. What is the source of CKMB?

Explanation

This question was debated in class. If we put cardiac only she let it slide. Apparently cardiac and brain got points as well. According to the book (I looked it up) CKMB is cardiac and skeletal, with cardiac being the PRIMARY source. If this is on the test tomorrow we can justify this answer with a chart in the book...

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179. What category of sugars is composed of polymers of pentoses or hexoses?

Explanation

Polysaccharides are a category of sugars that are composed of polymers of pentoses or hexoses. They are complex carbohydrates made up of many monosaccharide units bonded together. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, glycogen, and cellulose. Unlike monosaccharides and disaccharides, which are simple sugars, polysaccharides are larger molecules with more complex structures. They serve as energy storage molecules in plants and animals and also play structural roles in cell walls and tissues.

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180. What method used to measure glucose catalyzof glucose catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose by ATP?

Explanation

Hexokinase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose by ATP. This process is the first step in glucose metabolism and is essential for the cell to utilize glucose as an energy source. Hexokinase adds a phosphate group to glucose, forming glucose-6-phosphate, which can then enter glycolysis or other metabolic pathways. Clinitest, glucose oxidase, and glucose dehydrogenase are not involved in the phosphorylation of glucose by ATP.

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181. Which of the following pipets is the most accurate and is used to reconstitute controls and calibratons?

Explanation

Volumetric pipets are the most accurate and precise type of pipets. They are designed to deliver a specific volume of liquid with high accuracy. Volumetric pipets have a single graduation mark and a narrow, tapered tip that ensures precise and controlled dispensing of the liquid. They are commonly used in laboratories for preparing solutions, reconstituting controls, and calibrating instruments due to their high accuracy and reliability.

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182. The solvent is what part of a thin layer chromatography system?

Explanation

In thin layer chromatography, the solvent is referred to as the mobile phase. The mobile phase is responsible for carrying the sample components along the stationary phase, which is typically a solid or a liquid coated on a solid support. As the mobile phase moves, it separates the different components of the sample based on their affinity for the stationary phase. Therefore, the correct answer is the mobile phase.

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183. What is the primary compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis?

Explanation

The primary compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis is hyperventilation. When the body is in a state of metabolic acidosis, there is an excess of acid in the blood. Hyperventilation helps to decrease the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, which in turn reduces the concentration of acid. By increasing the rate and depth of breathing, the body can eliminate carbon dioxide more efficiently, helping to restore the acid-base balance. This compensatory mechanism aims to increase the pH of the blood and counteract the effects of metabolic acidosis.

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184. Which of the following is not a source of preanalytical error in the determination of bilirubin?

Explanation

Refrigerated specimen storage is not a source of preanalytical error in the determination of bilirubin because it does not affect the accuracy or reliability of the test results. Preanalytical errors refer to errors that occur before the actual analysis of the specimen, such as improper collection, handling, or transportation. Lipemia, hemolysis, and exposure to light can all cause errors in bilirubin determination by interfering with the chemical reactions or measurements involved in the test. However, refrigerated specimen storage does not have any significant impact on bilirubin levels.

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185. What organ is responsible for the secretion of HCl, enzymes, mucus, and intrinsic factor?

Explanation

The stomach is responsible for the secretion of HCl, enzymes, mucus, and intrinsic factor. HCl helps in the digestion of food, enzymes break down proteins, mucus protects the stomach lining from acid, and intrinsic factor helps in the absorption of vitamin B12. The small intestine is responsible for absorbing nutrients, the large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes, and the pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is the stomach.

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186. Which of the following lab tests is elevated in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

Explanation

Serum gastrin levels are elevated in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a rare condition characterized by the presence of gastrin-secreting tumors called gastrinomas, usually found in the pancreas or duodenum. These tumors cause excessive production of gastrin, a hormone that stimulates the stomach to produce acid. As a result, individuals with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome have abnormally high levels of serum gastrin. This test is used to diagnose and monitor the condition. The other options listed are not associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

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187. What hormone increases lipogenesis and decreases glycogenlolysis?

Explanation

Insulin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that promotes lipogenesis, which is the process of converting glucose into fatty acids for storage as fat. Insulin also inhibits glycogenolysis, which is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose. Therefore, insulin increases fat storage and decreases the release of glucose from glycogen stores.

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188. What endocrine gland is involved in the regulation of serum phosphate levels?

Explanation

The parathyroid gland is involved in the regulation of serum phosphate levels. It secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH), which helps to regulate calcium and phosphate levels in the blood. PTH acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of calcium and decrease the reabsorption of phosphate, thus increasing serum calcium levels and decreasing serum phosphate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is the parathyroid gland.

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189. Osteomalacia in post-menopausal females is characteristic of a deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

Explanation

Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones, which can lead to fractures and deformities. It is commonly caused by a deficiency of vitamin D. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for maintaining strong and healthy bones. Post-menopausal females are particularly susceptible to vitamin D deficiency due to hormonal changes and decreased sun exposure. Therefore, a deficiency of vitamin D is the most likely cause of osteomalacia in post-menopausal females.

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190. What electrochemical technique measures the voltage difference between two half-cells immersed in solution?

Explanation

Potentiometry is an electrochemical technique that measures the voltage difference between two half-cells immersed in a solution. It is based on the principle that the potential difference between two electrodes is directly proportional to the concentration of the analyte in the solution. By measuring this voltage difference, potentiometry allows for the determination of the concentration of an analyte in a solution. Coulometry, turbidimetry, and amperometry are also electrochemical techniques, but they measure different parameters and are not specifically related to measuring voltage difference between half-cells.

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191. Increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein are characteristically seen in what cancer?

Explanation

Increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein are characteristically seen in liver cancer. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein produced by the liver during fetal development and is usually present in low levels in adults. However, elevated levels of AFP in the blood can indicate the presence of liver cancer. This biomarker is commonly used in the diagnosis and monitoring of hepatocellular carcinoma, the most common type of liver cancer. AFP levels can also be elevated in other conditions such as certain germ cell tumors and liver cirrhosis, but liver cancer is the most characteristic association.

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192. Antihuman globulin that is used in indirect immunoassays is an example of which of the following

Explanation

Antihuman globulin is a type of antibody that is used in indirect immunoassays. Antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system in response to the presence of foreign substances, known as antigens. Antigens can be proteins, carbohydrates, or other molecules that can trigger an immune response. In this case, antihuman globulin specifically targets and binds to human antigens, allowing for the detection and identification of these antigens in the immunoassay.

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193. A scintillation detector is required to quantitate patient results using what type of immunoassay?

Explanation

A scintillation detector is required to quantitate patient results using radioimmunoassay. Radioimmunoassay is a type of immunoassay that utilizes radioactive isotopes to measure the concentration of specific substances in a patient's sample. The scintillation detector is used to detect and measure the radiation emitted by the radioactive isotopes, allowing for quantitation of the analyte of interest. This technique is commonly used in medical and research laboratories for the measurement of hormones, drugs, and other biological substances.

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194. What are the normal ranges for arterial blood gases at 37 C?  (pH, pO2, and pCO2, respectively).

Explanation

The normal ranges for arterial blood gases at 37 C are a pH level between 7.35-7.45, a pO2 level between 80-110%, and a pCO2 level between 35-45.

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195. The following results are consistant with what condition? BUN 15 mg/dL Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL Uric acid 5.0 mg/dL Ammonia  5 mg/dL

Explanation

The given results of BUN, creatinine, uric acid, and ammonia levels fall within the normal range. In a healthy individual, these values indicate normal kidney function and metabolism. Therefore, the correct answer is "normal."

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196. What enzyme is responsible for the digestion of starch into maltose?

Explanation

Amylase is the correct answer because it is the enzyme responsible for breaking down starch into maltose. Amylase is produced in the salivary glands and pancreas and is released into the digestive system to help break down complex carbohydrates like starch into smaller, more easily absorbed molecules like maltose. Maltase, on the other hand, is responsible for further breaking down maltose into glucose. Glucose-6-phosphatase and glucose oxidase are not involved in the digestion of starch into maltose.

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197. Hereditary hemochromatosis results in iron overload due to which of the following?

Explanation

Hereditary hemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to absorb too much iron from the diet. This excessive iron absorption leads to iron overload in the body. As a result, high iron levels can accumulate in various organs and tissues, leading to potential damage and complications. Therefore, the correct answer is high iron absorption.

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198. Bowman's capsule is located in what portion of the kidney?

Explanation

Bowman's capsule is located in the cortex of the kidney. The cortex is the outermost layer of the kidney and contains various structures involved in filtration and reabsorption of substances from the blood. Bowman's capsule is a cup-shaped structure within the cortex that surrounds the glomerulus, which is responsible for filtering blood and forming urine.

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199. Most pancreatic tumors are which of the following?

Explanation

Pancreatic tumors are most commonly adenocarcinomas. Adenocarcinoma is a type of cancer that originates in the glandular cells, which are present in the lining of the pancreas. This type of tumor accounts for the majority of pancreatic cancers. Lymphomas, melanomas, and hepatomas are less common types of tumors that can occur in the pancreas, but they are not the most prevalent. Therefore, the correct answer is adenocarcinomas.

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200. A 30 year old woman with hypoglycemia is evaluated for an endocrine disorder: Serum cortisol (a.m.)-----decreased Serum cortisol (p.m.)-----decreased Plasma ACTH-----Increased What is the significance of these results?

Explanation

The given results indicate a decrease in serum cortisol levels, both in the morning and evening, along with an increase in plasma ACTH levels. These findings are consistent with Addison's disease, which is characterized by adrenal insufficiency. In this condition, the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate amounts of cortisol, resulting in low cortisol levels. The increased ACTH levels are a compensatory response by the pituitary gland to stimulate the adrenal glands to produce more cortisol. Therefore, the combination of decreased cortisol and increased ACTH is indicative of Addison's disease.

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Which one of the following enzymes is NOT a transferase?
Which of the following proteins binds and transports iron in the...
Which of the following agencies is involved in protecting the safety...
Bar code labels are generated when the patient's orders are...
What is the scientific measurement for volume?
ALP is elevated in the following disorder?
According to the NFPA hazards identification system, what does the red...
What is the mechanism of EDTA?
What tumor marker is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate...
A 46 year old male with pain in his feet and joints has just been...
What type of sample can be used to test for protein?
Which of the following is NOT considered presonal protective equipment
Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against what...
Which of the following represents the Henderson-Hasselbach equation?
The following results are avilable from a patient seen in the ER....
Which of the following lab results are most consistent with...
What electrolyte is the major extracellular cation in plasma
What specimen is unacceptable for the analysis of carbon dioxide?
Which of teh following refers to the way in which the twisted amino...
What is the optimal pH of most enzymatic reactions?
Which of the following is a condition of excessive fat in the feces?
What is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry?
Which of the following is a postanalytical error?
Which of teh following enzymes is considered a sensative marker for...
When a myocardial infarction occurs, what enzyme becomes elevated...
Which of teh following is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia and...
An elevated quantitative beta-hCG will be seen in which of the...
What is the most common method used in the clinical lab to measure...
What type of compensation is involved when the lungs compensate by...
A dialysis patient will most likely present with which of the...
Which of the following is found in the highest concentration in bone?
Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens?
What is the first test usually ordered in the evaluation of male...
What is the principle estrogen produced in the ovary?
What is the function of transferrin?
The liver converts ammonia into which of the following non-protein...
A STAT order was received from the emergency department.  The...
Bence Jones proteins are associated with what disease?
Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criteria for diabetes...
Which of the following provide information on how to clean up a...
Which of the following hormones is a glucocorticoid?
The most frequent "in born error of metabolism" found in...
The highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in...
What serum analyte is light sensitive?
Which of the following is NOT a SI unit of measurement?
EDTA-K3 is not an acceptable specimen for most chemistry tests....
A 25 year old female took a home pregnancy test 2 weeks after she...
In bilirubin determinations, what is the purpose of...
Which is the storage form of glucose in muscle and liver?
What plasma protein is increased in spina bifida
The use of point of care testing devices for cardiac markers is not...
What statement is true concerning the relationship between light...
What type of analyzer allows a STAT to be loaded after several rack of...
An increase in CSF protein can be found in what disease state?
A 28 year old diabetic female delivers a 9.5 pound infant.  The 1...
Which of the following best describes universal precautions?
Which of the following defines anion gap?
What hormone acts on the distal convoluted tubule to increase water...
What serum protein electrophoresis fraction contains only one protein?
Which tissue has the highest distribution of CK-BB
What type of diabetes is cuased by cell-mediated immune destruction of...
What lipoprotein is also referred to as "pre-beta" lipoprotein?
Due to the diurnal variation of cortisol, a patient that is being...
What hormone synthesized by the pituitary gland promotes function of...
What optical technique measures metal ions in a solution based on...
A physician's office tests pre-diabetic patients for a fasting...
The precipitin curve, where does the optimal ratio of antibody to...
In electrophoresis the anion always migrates
Urine, an ultrafiltrate of plasma, is formed by the kidneys and...
What liver enzymes are most useful in the detection of hepatocelluar...
The basic unit of protein is called a/an_______________________.
What condition causes females to develop excessive facial hair?
Which of the following is used to measure the light transmitted by a...
At a physiological pH of 7.4, what is the bicarb-carbonic acid ratio?
In a spectrophotometric analysis what is the purpose of the reagent...
What is the function of progesterone?
When doing electrophoresis the migration of the zwiterion depends on...
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a closed system?
Which of the following is a negative risk factor for coronary heart...
Which of the following facilitates the absoprtion of vitamin B12 in...
The analytical process for the quantitative measurement of elements...
Corticotropin-releasing hormone is secreted from the hypothalamus...
Which of the following is an example of a noncontrollable...
Carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated in which of the following...
AFter the fire works on July 4th, a male patient with angina was seen...
In a hemolytic crisis, bilirubin levels are________________.
A fire that is cuased by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is...
A round bottomed glass tube with only 1 marking of 500 mL volume is...
What percentage of body mass is attributed to water alone?
Which of the following is the most important buffer in the bloodstream...
Which of the following hormones are produced by the kidney?
A 4 year old girl with nephrotic syndrome has the following results:...
Which of the following is the most common symptom of an individual...
What hormone is regulated by the concentration of free, ionized...
Iron is the most important trace metal in human physiology.  What...
Hyperkalemia can cause all of the following EXCEPT.
Using expired reagents to assay patient samples will result in an...
Which of the following is an example of an analytical error?
What is the single, most useful test for assessing thyroid function?
Feces gets its brown pigmentation from _________________.
To determine the concentration of an unknown using Beer's Law,...
The following results are from an outpatient who has scheduled for an...
The "MM" fraction of CK is most abundant in _____________________.
What condition is defined as decreased blood pH caused by an excess of...
Posthepatic jaundice characterized by increased concentration of total...
Cortisol is transported through the blood bound to what protein?
The level of bicarbonate is regulated by what organ?
In what condition is a decrease in serum albumin and an increase in...
The heart is primarily composed of what type of muscle tissue?
Which of the following is in the metal component of ceruloplasium?
What is the mean of the following BUN control values...
A patient has an elevated serum TT4 and FT4 and a very low serum TSH....
Which one of the following analytes is NOT measured by electrochemical...
Results from which electrolyte panel are within normal range?...
Ammonia is produced from which of the following
Which of the following causes lipemic serum?
A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular...
Which of the following concentrations is expressed in moles/liter?
A patient had a specimen drawn for iron determination at 8 am and...
Aspirating wash solution between samples is a means of preventing...
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
Which of the following is NOT a source of error when measuring...
A patient has the following electrolytes.  What is the calculated...
What is the primary reagent in the Jaffe method for creatinine?
What is the best indicator for an acute myocardial infarction?
Which of the following are used to assess the synthetic ability of the...
What is the main gastric enzyme that breaks proteins into smaller...
Smoking cigarettes or breathing second hand cigarette smoke can...
How is 100 degrees F recorded in Celcius?
What are the expected lab results for a female with hypogonadotropic...
What is the principal androgen in the blood?
A molecule with both a positive and negative charge is a 
What is serum?
Hyperlipidemia and/or hyperporteinemia can cause which of these errors...
What term is used to describe when the reaction rate is directly...
Which of the following is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme...
Which of the following does NOT cause a chronic infection?
Hydrochloric acid secretion is regulated by what hormone?
The following results are from a patient seen in the ER:...
What is the formula for relative centrifugal force?
The use of galvanic and electrolytic cells for chemical analysis is...
Using thin layer chromatopgraphy, the distance of the drug divided by...
In an Enzyme-linked ImmunoSorbant Assay (ELISA) the wells of the plate...
Hyponatremia can be caused by which of the following
A common cause of falsely elevated LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) is:
Which of the following lipoproteins is primary composed of exogenous...
Which of the following is a biochemical marker of coronary heart...
What end product of hemoglobin catabolism is excreted in the feces?
Carotenoids are the chief precursor of what vitamin?
What cancer antigen is used to monitor patients receiving treatment...
An important pre-analytical variable that needs to be considered in...
Hypoproteinemia can be found in which of these disease states?
Turbidity in the serum suggests elevation of?
What is the reference range for total bilirubin in adults?
Cystic fibrosis is primarily a disease affecting which of the...
The determination of what analyte is used to assess the difference...
Chemistry analytes such as glucose and cholesterol are an example of...
A patient has a low hsTSH, low TT4, and low TT3 result accompanied by...
Which of the following is a limitation of Beer's Law?
What is the confirmatory method for measuring durgs of abuse?
What type of sample is used most commonly for POC chemistry tests?
How does ISE methods differ from indirect ISE methods?
An example of an acquired porphyria would be which of the following?
Specimens for analysis of trace metals must be collected with...
The pituitary gland has a close anatomical relationship to which of...
Which of the following is an immunometric test method that employs a...
What lab test is used to screen for neural tube defects during...
What part of the nephron is relatively impermeable to water?
Which of the following patients has normal results? (total protein,...
Acute phase reactants are elevated in which of the following...
Which of the following is a protein molecule that catalyzes chemical...
The renal threshold for glucose is__________________.
What is enzyme is more specific for acute pancreatitis?
The detection of elevated levels of urinary catecholamines is the...
You have 100 helathy normal individuals.  Creatinine is measured...
What is the most common method for measuring total protein in which...
Which of teh following lab results increases a patient's risk of...
What is the source of CKMB?
What category of sugars is composed of polymers of pentoses or...
What method used to measure glucose catalyzof glucose catalyzes the...
Which of the following pipets is the most accurate and is used to...
The solvent is what part of a thin layer chromatography system?
What is the primary compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis?
Which of the following is not a source of preanalytical error in the...
What organ is responsible for the secretion of HCl, enzymes, mucus,...
Which of the following lab tests is elevated in Zollinger-Ellison...
What hormone increases lipogenesis and decreases glycogenlolysis?
What endocrine gland is involved in the regulation of serum phosphate...
Osteomalacia in post-menopausal females is characteristic of a...
What electrochemical technique measures the voltage difference between...
Increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein are characteristically seen in...
Antihuman globulin that is used in indirect immunoassays is an example...
A scintillation detector is required to quantitate patient results...
What are the normal ranges for arterial blood gases at 37 C?...
The following results are consistant with what condition?...
What enzyme is responsible for the digestion of starch into maltose?
Hereditary hemochromatosis results in iron overload due to which of...
Bowman's capsule is located in what portion of the kidney?
Most pancreatic tumors are which of the following?
A 30 year old woman with hypoglycemia is evaluated for an endocrine...
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