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  • Which activity will be inhibited when the following patient is given appropriate pharmacotherapy?A previously healthy 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a...
    Which activity will be inhibited when the following patient is given appropriate pharmacotherapy?A previously healthy 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a...
    The correct answer to this question is A. Alcohol dehydrogenase is a group of dehydrogenase enzymes, a class of zinc enzymes, that catalyze the oxidation of primary and secondary alcohols and facilitate the interconversion of alcohols and aldehydes with the reduction of hydride anion to NAD+ to NADH, the realease of a proton. Alcohol dehydrogenase will be inhibited because it is the first step in the metabolism of both methanol and ethylene glycol. The patient has tachypea which is abnormally rapid breathing. The patient also has anion gap metabolic acidosis which is the result of type I diabetes, chronic alcoholism, or undernutrition.

  • Which of the following labeled response has the highest amount of calcium sequestration in sarcoplasmic reticulum? The tracing shows contractile responses of a skeletal muscle preparation...
    Which of the following labeled response has the highest amount of calcium sequestration in sarcoplasmic reticulum? The tracing shows contractile responses of a skeletal muscle preparation...
    Amount of calcium sequestered in the sarcoplasmic reticulum is highestduring relaxation, i.e. when not contracting. Thus it is highest when the stimulus frequency is lowest -> Answer A.

  • A 36-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine examination. He has a 5-year history of recurrent episodes of genital herpes treated with acyclovir. He says, "I`ve been taking the...
    A 36-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine examination. He has a 5-year history of recurrent episodes of genital herpes treated with acyclovir. He says, "I`ve been taking the...
    Subani23 I picked C) Continual replication in sacral root ganglia; and it was wrong for sure! John has it right. Our mistake is to mis-read "Continual Replication" and think that explains longevity when it's the "Latent Infection" that more accurately explains longevity. It is true that both HSV and VZV reside in dorsal root ganglia, which are sensory neurons, but they do not replicate until reactivation.

  • Which of the following histologic changes would be expected in this patient's adrenal glands? A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 16-kg (35-lb)weight gain during the past 6...
    Which of the following histologic changes would be expected in this patient's adrenal glands? A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 16-kg (35-lb)weight gain during the past 6...
    1. cortical hypertrophy.-the pituitary glands anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) is a true gland which produces and secretes six different hormones: thyroid-stimulating hormone (tsh), adrenocorticotropic hormone (acth), follicle-stimulating hormone (fsh), luteinizing hormone (lh), growth hormone (gh), and prolactin (prl).cushings diseaseis a cause of cushings syndrome characterised by increased secretion of (acth) from the anterior pituitary (secondary hypercorticism). this is most often as a result of a pituitary adenoma or due to excess production of hypothalamus crh (corticotropin releasing hormone) (tertiary hypercortisolism/hypercorticism). pituitary adenomas are responsible for 70% of endogenous cushings syndrome, that is, when excluding cushings syndrome from exogenously administered corticosteroids, which is the major cause of cushings syndrome.the primary cause of adrenocortical hypertrophy is increased (acth) stimulation. in toxicology studies, such a condition can arise as a result of the stress response, but it may also occur due to deficient glucocorticoid feedback regulation of acth due to toxicity to the adrenal cortex. this latter condition is defined as adrenocortical insufficiency and represents a serious adverse toxic effect on the function of the adrenal cortex. adrenocortical hypertrophy may occur in the absence of other adrenocortical lesions such that a toxicopathological mechanism is not obvious, for example by pharmacological inhibition of steroidogenesis at the biochemical level.hyperplasia , means increase in number of cells/proliferation of cells. it may result in the gross enlargement of an organ and the term is sometimes mixed with benign neoplasia / benign tumor.hyperplasia is a common preneoplastic response to stimulus. microscopically cells resemble normal cells but are increased in numbers. sometimes cells may also be increased in size (hypertrophy) hyperplasia is different from hypertrophy in that the adaptive cell change in hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, whereas hyperplasia involves an increase in the number of cells.

  • Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy considering that the newborn can be carefully monitored for methemoglobinemia? A female newborn is delivered al 34 weeks gestation in an...
    Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy considering that the newborn can be carefully monitored for methemoglobinemia? A female newborn is delivered al 34 weeks gestation in an...
    The answer is C. The most appropriate therapy for a female newborn that has been delivered at 34 weeks into the gestation period in an advanced care setting where special delivery systems are available where the diagnosis of persistent pulmonary hypertension has been made is a treatment with nitric oxide. This is also under the circumstances where the newborn can be carefully monitored for methemoglobinemia. In this question, they were looking for the treatment for pulmonary hypertension and nitric oxide helps to reduce pulmonary hypertension by decreasing the vascular resistance. This is the only choice which fits the situation and provides the appropriate treatment.

  • What does Drug X most closely resemble? During an experiment, Drug X is administered to treat trematode and cestode infestations. Results show that Drug X increases the permeability of the cell...
    What does Drug X most closely resemble? During an experiment, Drug X is administered to treat trematode and cestode infestations. Results show that Drug X increases the permeability of the cell...
    The correct answer to this question is E, Praziquantel. This medication is sold under other brand names, such as Biltricide. It is used to treat many parasitic worm infections, including tapeworm infections, schistosomiasis, opisthorchiasis, and fluke infections. The medication is taken orally and is not recommended for use for worm infections in the eye. Like all medications, there are side effects that can occur, including headaches, vomiting, and pain in the abdomen. In 1982 was when Praziquantel was first approved for use in the United States and it is regarded as one of the safest and most effective medicines. An average cost of treatment can range from $100 to $200

  • Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s symptoms? A 12-year-old African American girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother because of a...
    Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s symptoms? A 12-year-old African American girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother because of a...
    The answer to this is letter E. The fact that there is a mutation involved means that this is Sickle Cell Disease. This is a type of anaemia wherein the hemoglobin which is usually round and donut-shaped is changed to a crescent shape. This means that there is not enough oxygen available. The case mentioned above that this has also been experienced by other family members in the past. This disease can be hereditary and is also more common for those of African descent. The only cure that is available for this type of diseases at present time is bone-marrow transplant which is not often easy and is expensive.

  • Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's seizure disorder? A 40-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after sustaining severe chest injuries in a...
    Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's seizure disorder? A 40-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after sustaining severe chest injuries in a...
    Correct answer is option E – Vascular malformation Arteriovenous malformation (AVM) is rare and is usually diagnosed at the time of first seizure. It is an abnormal tangle of the blood vessels of the brain or spine. Arteries shunt directly into the veins with no intervening capillary beds. As there is a fast flow of blood from arteries to veins, there is reduced flow of blood to the surrounding tissue and there is a reduced supply of oxygen and nutrient to these tissues. Seizures and headaches are the most common symptoms. In the case of this woman, blood flow to the brain is lost, and the area with arteriovenous malformation will receive lesser oxygen and nutrients. That.]’s why the section of the brain shown in the brain appear necrotic.

  • Which of the following genetic principles best explains the findings in this family? A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for genetic counseling because of a family history of muscle...
    Which of the following genetic principles best explains the findings in this family? A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for genetic counseling because of a family history of muscle...
    This is heteroplasmy, which means that C is the answer to this question. This is the process wherein there is more than one type of organelle genome that is available within the cell. This can sometimes determine how severe certain mitochondrial diseases are. Different tests are available to assess the presence of DNA heteroplasmy. Different approaches are possible, depending on what exactly the patient would need to find. Does the patient need to know if heteroplasmy is present or what type of proportion of the variant is available? These are things that the patient needs to discuss with the doctor to determine the proper test to take.

  • Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's seizure disorder? A 40-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after sustaining severe chest injuries in a...
    Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's seizure disorder? A 40-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after sustaining severe chest injuries in a...
    The answer to this question is E. Vascular Malformation is a congenital vascular anomaly that usually affects the veins. This can affect the lymph vessels, vessels, and even the arteries. Since the veins will be dilated, this can make it harder for the blood to pass through the different veins of the body. This may sound dangerous, but it will only become dangerous when a blood clot forms in some parts of the body like the brain and the blood clot bursts. The patient’s seizure disorder has affected her ability to recover from the severe chest injuries that she has sustained. The patient may have also acquired some brain injury that is related to her seizures that caused the problem to worsen.

  • Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the cardiac arrest? A healthy 21-year-old man dies suddenly of cardiac arrest after snorting cocaine.
    Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the cardiac arrest? A healthy 21-year-old man dies suddenly of cardiac arrest after snorting cocaine.
    1. norepinephrine reuptake-cardiovascular effects the major cardiovascular effects of cocaine appear to be caused by the inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake into the synaptic cleft by sympathetic neurons [2]. since reuptake is the major mechanism by which neurotransmitters are removed from active receptor sites, this inhibition results in potentiation of the response to sympathetic stimulation of innervated organs and to infused catecholamine. cocaine may also enhance the release of catecholamines from central and peripheral stores [4]. the ensuing sympathomimetic actions (increased myocardial inotropy, heart rate, systemic blood pressure, and coronary artery constriction) are mediated by stimulation of the alpha- and beta adrenergic receptors and result in increased myocardial oxygen demand. (uptodate.com)

  • Which of the following personality styles best explains the husband’s behavior? A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician for a health maintenance examination. During the interview, she...
    Which of the following personality styles best explains the husband’s behavior? A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician for a health maintenance examination. During the interview, she...
    1. Schizoid SCHIZOID describes people who are uninterested in social attachment. SCHIZOTYPAL people have both diminished capacity for relationships and peculiar patterns of thought, including magical thinking, odd beliefs, odd perceptual experiences, and subtle, low grade abnormalities of thought form. Mistrust, projection, and the attribution of malevolence are all elements of PARANOIA, which may be either psychotic, implying a break from reality, or nonpsychotic, as in personalty disorder.

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