Preparation For NCCT Quiz

75 Questions
Preparation For NCCT Quiz

Here in this quiz, You have to identify all about the NCCT! Let's play this quiz and learn more about it.

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Reorder point

    • B. 

      Inventory control log

    • C. 

      Order quantity

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 2. 
    A(n) __________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.
    • A. 

      Inventory control tag

    • B. 

      Packing slip

    • C. 

      Purchase order

    • D. 

      Invoice

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Inventory log

    • B. 

      Maintenance log

    • C. 

      Quality control log

    • D. 

      No answers are correct

  • 4. 
    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.
    • A. 

      Transcriptionist

    • B. 

      Stenographer

    • C. 

      Decoder

    • D. 

      Receptionist

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Procedure review

    • B. 

      Admissions review

    • C. 

      Appropriateness review

    • D. 

      Transfer review

  • 6. 
    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?
    • A. 

      Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • B. 

      Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • C. 

      The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • D. 

      Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

  • 7. 
    A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Gunshot wound

    • B. 

      Anorexia

    • C. 

      Drug addiction

    • D. 

      Pregnancy

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      CLIA

    • C. 

      CMS

    • D. 

      HIPAA

  • 9. 
    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.
    • A. 

      Right justified

    • B. 

      Indented 5 spaces

    • C. 

      Equally spaced vertically

    • D. 

      At the left hand margin

  • 10. 
    When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?
    • A. 

      Comma

    • B. 

      Semicolon

    • C. 

      Asterisk

    • D. 

      Colon

  • 11. 
    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?
    • A. 

      If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level and s/he will calm down.

    • B. 

      Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.

    • C. 

      Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining; the doctor should handle them.

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 12. 
    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.
    • A. 

      Non-verbal communication

    • B. 

      Verbal communication

    • C. 

      Written communication

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 13. 
    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?
    • A. 

      Erase the entry and write in the new appointment.

    • B. 

      Put “white-out” over the entry and write on top.

    • C. 

      Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials.

    • D. 

      Mark through the entry with a single red line.

  • 14. 
    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.
    • A. 

      Covered amount

    • B. 

      Deductable

    • C. 

      Explanation of benefits

    • D. 

      Co-pay

  • 15. 
    Instructions to an insurance company about where to make payment and to whom are called __________.
    • A. 

      Payment agreements

    • B. 

      Assignment of benefits

    • C. 

      Benefit accommodations

    • D. 

      Assignment of payments

  • 16. 
    The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.
    • A. 

      Social Security number

    • B. 

      Federal tax identification number

    • C. 

      State tax number

    • D. 

      Insurance ID number

  • 17. 
    An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.
    • A. 

      Duration of the appointment

    • B. 

      Relationship to the patient

    • C. 

      Social Security number of the patient

    • D. 

      Insurance provider’s contact information

  • 18. 
    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.
    • A. 

      Fiscal

    • B. 

      Financial

    • C. 

      Fiduciary

    • D. 

      Accounting

  • 19. 
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.
    • A. 

      DEA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      CDC

  • 20. 
    Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e. surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient’s insurance policy contract involves a process known as __________.
    • A. 

      Pre-certification

    • B. 

      Pre-authorization

    • C. 

      Pre-determination

    • D. 

      Pre-existing

  • 21. 
    In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never __________.
    • A. 

      Be facing the file cabinets

    • B. 

      Be able to be viewed by patients

    • C. 

      Be turned on

    • D. 

      Be viewed by medical personnel

  • 22. 
    The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.
    • A. 

      Lymphatic temperature

    • B. 

      Axillary temperature

    • C. 

      Deltoid temperature

    • D. 

      Delta temperature

  • 23. 
    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?
    • A. 

      Open fracture

    • B. 

      Spiral fracture

    • C. 

      Greenstick fracture

    • D. 

      Closed fracture

  • 24. 
    The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.
    • A. 

      Tid

    • B. 

      Bid

    • C. 

      Qid

    • D. 

      Qh

  • 25. 
    The abbreviation for as needed is __________.
    • A. 

      Prn

    • B. 

      Ppn

    • C. 

      An

    • D. 

      Add

  • 26. 
    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.
    • A. 

      NPO

    • B. 

      NBM

    • C. 

      NM

    • D. 

      Nom

  • 27. 
    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?
    • A. 

      Insulin syringe

    • B. 

      Tuberculin syringe

    • C. 

      Hypodermic syringes

    • D. 

      A closed injection system

  • 28. 
    When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.
    • A. 

      Refrigerate it for further use

    • B. 

      Pour it back in the bottle

    • C. 

      Discard it

    • D. 

      Incubate it

  • 29. 
    When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.
    • A. 

      Date it

    • B. 

      Store it

    • C. 

      Freeze it

    • D. 

      Color it

  • 30. 
    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?
    • A. 

      0.5 cc

    • B. 

      1.0 cc

    • C. 

      1.5 cc

    • D. 

      0.25 cc

  • 31. 
    A drug that causes urination is called a __________.
    • A. 

      Diuretic

    • B. 

      Hypertensive

    • C. 

      Gestational drug

    • D. 

      Narcotic

  • 32. 
    A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.
    • A. 

      Antitussive

    • B. 

      Antiemetic

    • C. 

      Antiseptic

    • D. 

      Antitoxin

  • 33. 
    A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.
    • A. 

      Antipyretic

    • B. 

      Antidote

    • C. 

      Antiemetic

    • D. 

      Analgesic

  • 34. 
    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.
    • A. 

      Vasodilator

    • B. 

      Vasoconstrictor

    • C. 

      Bronchodilator

    • D. 

      Dilatemetic

  • 35. 
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Suppressant

    • B. 

      Decongestant

    • C. 

      Antihistamine

    • D. 

      Inebronchodilator

  • 36. 
    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Miotic

    • B. 

      Diuretic

    • C. 

      Cytotoxin

    • D. 

      Expectorant

  • 37. 
    A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Solution

    • B. 

      Emulsion

    • C. 

      Elixir

    • D. 

      Tincture

  • 38. 
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Narcotic overdose

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Angina pectoris

    • D. 

      Anxiety

  • 39. 
    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Appetite

    • C. 

      Swelling

    • D. 

      Excretion of urine

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • B. 

      Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • C. 

      Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 41. 
    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Transdermal system

    • B. 

      Reservoir system

    • C. 

      Ointment system

    • D. 

      Epidermis system

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Superior Vena Cava

    • B. 

      Aorta

    • C. 

      Right atrium

    • D. 

      Pulmonary vein

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • B. 

      Superior vena cava

    • C. 

      Right atrium

    • D. 

      Right ventricle

  • 44. 
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.
    • A. 

      Cystitis

    • B. 

      Urethral stricture

    • C. 

      Chronic renal failure

    • D. 

      Pyelonephritis

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      High blood pressure

    • B. 

      Type 1 diabetes

    • C. 

      Pancreatitis

    • D. 

      Type 2 diabetes

  • 46. 
    The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called __________.
    • A. 

      Enema

    • B. 

      Colostomy

    • C. 

      Constipation

    • D. 

      Peristalsis

  • 47. 
    The prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum is called __________.
    • A. 

      Peristalsis

    • B. 

      Anal incontinence

    • C. 

      Fecal impaction

    • D. 

      Feces

  • 48. 
    The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.
    • A. 

      Flatus

    • B. 

      Diarrhea

    • C. 

      Peristalsis

    • D. 

      Blockage

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Nasal

    • B. 

      Zygomatic

    • C. 

      Temporal

    • D. 

      Radius

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      Clavicle

    • B. 

      Sternum

    • C. 

      Scapula

    • D. 

      Ilium

  • 51. 
    A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a __________.
    • A. 

      Non-pathogen

    • B. 

      Spore

    • C. 

      Flora

    • D. 

      Pathogen

  • 52. 
    The most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw is __________.
    • A. 

      Selecting the correct needle gauge

    • B. 

      Using 70% alcohol prep pads

    • C. 

      Identifying the patient

    • D. 

      Using the correct tourniquet

  • 53. 
    Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing?
    • A. 

      Both venipuncture and microsampling involve skill.

    • B. 

      It doesn’t really matter which direction you lancet a finger.

    • C. 

      Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect.

    • D. 

      “Getting blood” is not the only goal of good blood drawing.

  • 54. 
    To determine the size of the needle, remember that the higher the gauge number the __________ needle bore.
    • A. 

      Longer

    • B. 

      Smaller

    • C. 

      Larger

    • D. 

      Shorter

  • 55. 
    A centrifuge works by __________.
    • A. 

      Freezing blood specimens

    • B. 

      Heating blood specimens

    • C. 

      Incubating blood at body temp

    • D. 

      Separating cells and serum

  • 56. 
    A tourniquet should be on the patient’s arm no longer than __________.
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      2 minutes

    • C. 

      Three minutes

    • D. 

      Four minutes

  • 57. 
    To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and __________.
    • A. 

      Work in a circle from the center to the periphery

    • B. 

      Wipe carefully back and forth

    • C. 

      Cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds

    • D. 

      Use a lifting motion to move away from the skin

  • 58. 
    On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the __________.
    • A. 

      Start

    • B. 

      Amplitude

    • C. 

      Gain

    • D. 

      B and c

  • 59. 
    Conversion of dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called __________.
    • A. 

      Defribrillation

    • B. 

      Shock treatment

    • C. 

      V tach

    • D. 

      Scintillation

  • 60. 
    The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is __________.
    • A. 

      Amplitude

    • B. 

      Ground electrode

    • C. 

      Direction or shape

    • D. 

      Polarization

  • 61. 
    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the __________.
    • A. 

      R wave

    • B. 

      T wave

    • C. 

      Q wave

    • D. 

      S wave

  • 62. 
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called __________.
    • A. 

      Uniform

    • B. 

      Malignant

    • C. 

      Fused

    • D. 

      Bigeminy

  • 63. 
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should __________ the first drop.
    • A. 

      Collect

    • B. 

      Use

    • C. 

      Wipe away

    • D. 

      Wash off

  • 64. 
    When performing any CLIA waived test it is important to do which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Keep all CLIA waived tests refrigerated.

    • B. 

      Discard quality control kits immediately upon opening the box.

    • C. 

      Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter.

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 65. 
    An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the __________ required for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Route

    • C. 

      Muscles

    • D. 

      Heart structures

  • 66. 
    When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading, it is called __________.
    • A. 

      Irregular with a pattern

    • B. 

      Absolutely regular

    • C. 

      Essentially regular

    • D. 

      Totally irregular

  • 67. 
    When applying leads, apply the V1 lead __________.
    • A. 

      Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

    • B. 

      On the fourth intercostal space right sternal border

    • C. 

      Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

    • D. 

      On the fifth intercostal space midclavicular line

  • 68. 
    When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • B. 

      Arrhythmia

    • C. 

      Aneurysm

    • D. 

      Embolism

  • 69. 
    Oxygen can be administered to the patient by way of a __________.
    • A. 

      Catheter

    • B. 

      Cannula

    • C. 

      Tent

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 70. 
    How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection?
    • A. 

      At body temperature

    • B. 

      In a refrigerator

    • C. 

      At room temperature

    • D. 

      In a freezer

  • 71. 
    A positive urine dipstick test for albumin indicates the patient has __________ in his/her urine.
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Protein

    • D. 

      Ketones

  • 72. 
    Which urine dipstick test detects acetone in the urine?
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      Ketones

    • C. 

      Protein

    • D. 

      PH

  • 73. 
    Which of the following stains classify bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative?
    • A. 

      PAP

    • B. 

      Gram

    • C. 

      Hematoxylin

    • D. 

      Wright’s

  • 74. 
    Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture?
    • A. 

      Back of the throat and tonsillar area

    • B. 

      Nasopharynx and epiglottis

    • C. 

      Cheeks and tongue

    • D. 

      Gums and tongue

  • 75. 
    A drug that helps to decrease appetite is called an __________.
    • A. 

      Appetite modifier

    • B. 

      Appetite stimulant

    • C. 

      Anitspasmodic

    • D. 

      Appetite suppressant