Preparation For NCCT Quiz

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Preparation For NCCT Quiz - Quiz

The national Centre for competency testing is perfect for testing health care professionals and their ability to perform the tasks they are charged with to their patients. If one gets this certificate they get the ability to compete for a job. Are you working on getting your certification? Take up the quiz below and see just how prepared you are for the final exam.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Reorder point

    • B.

      Inventory control log

    • C.

      Order quantity

    • D.

      All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    D. All answers are correct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all answers are correct" because establishing a reorder point ensures that supplies are reordered before they run out, an inventory control log helps keep track of supplies and their usage, and determining the order quantity ensures that enough supplies are ordered to meet the needs of the medical office. Therefore, all of these options are correct for ensuring that the medical office has the supplies it needs.

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  • 2. 

    A(n) __________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

    • A.

      Inventory control tag

    • B.

      Packing slip

    • C.

      Purchase order

    • D.

      Invoice

    Correct Answer
    C. Purchase order
    Explanation
    A purchase order is a document that includes the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It also contains a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased. This document is created to initiate the purchasing process and serves as a legal agreement between the buyer and the seller. It helps ensure that both parties are on the same page regarding the details of the order and provides a record for future reference and reconciliation.

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  • 3. 

    Periodically, the medical assistant should check all electrical equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) __________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

    • A.

      Inventory log

    • B.

      Maintenance log

    • C.

      Quality control log

    • D.

      No answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance log
    Explanation
    A maintenance log is a record that helps the medical assistant track routine inspections of electrical equipment in the office. It allows them to document when the equipment was checked, note any issues or hazards, and ensure that the equipment is in good working order. By regularly maintaining and inspecting the electrical equipment, the medical assistant can prevent accidents and ensure the safety of both patients and staff.

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  • 4. 

    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.

    • A.

      Transcriptionist

    • B.

      Stenographer

    • C.

      Decoder

    • D.

      Receptionist

    Correct Answer
    A. Transcriptionist
    Explanation
    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist. A transcriptionist is responsible for listening to recorded or dictated information and typing it into a written document. In this scenario, the medical assistant is being asked to transcribe the physician's dictation into a typed operative report.

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  • 5. 

    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient by a process known as __________.

    • A.

      Procedure review

    • B.

      Admissions review

    • C.

      Appropriateness review

    • D.

      Transfer review

    Correct Answer
    B. Admissions review
    Explanation
    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for reviewing the appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient. This process is known as admissions review, where the Peer Review Organizations assess whether the patient's admission to the hospital is justified based on their medical condition and the required level of care. This review helps ensure that hospital resources are used efficiently and that patients receive the appropriate level of care.

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  • 6. 

    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

    • A.

      Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • B.

      Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • C.

      The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • D.

      Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

    Correct Answer
    C. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
    Explanation
    The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a decision based upon bioethics because it involves ethical considerations related to the use of human fetal tissue for scientific purposes. This decision raises questions about the moral status of the fetus, the potential benefits and harms of the research, and the principles of autonomy, beneficence, and justice. Bioethics is a field that explores ethical issues arising from advances in biology and medicine, and the use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a topic that falls within this domain.

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  • 7. 

    A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?

    • A.

      Gunshot wound

    • B.

      Anorexia

    • C.

      Drug addiction

    • D.

      Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunshot wound
    Explanation
    A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for a gunshot wound. This exception is likely because gunshot wounds are considered a public safety concern and reporting them is necessary for legal and safety reasons. In such cases, the physician may have a duty to report the gunshot wound to the appropriate authorities. However, for conditions like anorexia, drug addiction, and pregnancy, the physician must obtain the patient's written consent before disclosing any confidential information.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?

    • A.

      OSHA

    • B.

      CLIA

    • C.

      CMS

    • D.

      HIPAA

    Correct Answer
    D. HIPAA
    Explanation
    HIPAA, which stands for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It sets standards for the electronic exchange, privacy, and security of health information to ensure that patient data is kept confidential and secure. HIPAA also gives patients certain rights regarding their health information, such as the right to access and control their own medical records.

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  • 9. 

    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.

    • A.

      Right justified

    • B.

      Indented 5 spaces

    • C.

      Equally spaced vertically

    • D.

      At the left hand margin

    Correct Answer
    D. At the left hand margin
    Explanation
    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines aligned at the left-hand margin. In full block style, the entire letter is left-aligned, meaning that all lines, including the date, recipient's address, salutation, body paragraphs, closing, and signature, start at the left-hand margin. This creates a clean and professional appearance for the letter.

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  • 10. 

    When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?

    • A.

      Comma

    • B.

      Semicolon

    • C.

      Asterisk

    • D.

      Colon

    Correct Answer
    D. Colon
    Explanation
    In a business letter, the salutation is followed by a colon. This is because a colon is used to introduce a list, an explanation, or a statement. In this case, the salutation introduces the body of the letter, which is a statement or an explanation of the purpose of the letter. Therefore, using a colon after the salutation is the correct punctuation mark to use in a business letter.

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  • 11. 

    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

    • A.

      If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level and s/he will calm down.

    • B.

      Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.

    • C.

      Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining; the doctor should handle them.

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.
    Explanation
    When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This approach shows empathy and respect towards the patient's concerns, and allows for a comprehensive understanding of the issue at hand. By taking thorough notes, healthcare professionals can ensure that all relevant information is documented and can be referred back to if needed. This also helps in maintaining accurate records and aids in addressing the complaint effectively. Refusing to talk to complaining patients or matching their anger level are inappropriate responses that can escalate the situation and hinder effective communication.

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  • 12. 

    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.

    • A.

      Non-verbal communication

    • B.

      Verbal communication

    • C.

      Written communication

    • D.

      All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-verbal communication
    Explanation
    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of non-verbal communication. Non-verbal communication refers to the transmission of messages without the use of words. These examples involve the use of gestures, facial expressions, body movements, and the way individuals use personal space to convey meaning and emotions. Unlike verbal or written communication, non-verbal communication relies on visual cues and can often provide more accurate insights into a person's thoughts, feelings, and intentions. Therefore, the correct answer is non-verbal communication.

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  • 13. 

    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

    • A.

      Erase the entry and write in the new appointment.

    • B.

      Put “white-out” over the entry and write on top.

    • C.

      Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials.

    • D.

      Mark through the entry with a single red line.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mark through the entry with a single red line.
    Explanation
    The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This ensures that the canceled appointment is clearly indicated and distinguishes it from other entries. It is a simple and effective way to communicate the cancellation to anyone reviewing the appointment book.

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  • 14. 

    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.

    • A.

      Covered amount

    • B.

      Deductable

    • C.

      Explanation of benefits

    • D.

      Co-pay

    Correct Answer
    B. Deductable
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "deductible". A deductible is the amount that an insured patient must pay out of pocket for medical expenses before their insurance coverage begins. Once the deductible is met, the insurance company will then start covering a portion or all of the remaining expenses. The deductible amount varies depending on the insurance plan and can be an annual or per-incident basis.

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  • 15. 

    Instructions to an insurance company about where to make payment and to whom are called __________.

    • A.

      Payment agreements

    • B.

      Assignment of benefits

    • C.

      Benefit accommodations

    • D.

      Assignment of payments

    Correct Answer
    B. Assignment of benefits
    Explanation
    The question asks for the term used to describe instructions given to an insurance company regarding payment and recipient. The correct answer is "assignment of benefits." This term refers to the process of authorizing the insurance company to make payment to a designated party, such as a healthcare provider, for services rendered. It is a common practice in the insurance industry to ensure that payments are made to the appropriate recipient.

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  • 16. 

    The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

    • A.

      Social Security number

    • B.

      Federal tax identification number

    • C.

      State tax number

    • D.

      Insurance ID number

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal tax identification number
    Explanation
    The Internal Revenue Service issues a federal tax identification number to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. This number is used to identify the practice for tax filing and reporting. It is different from a Social Security number, which is an individual's unique identifier, and state tax number or insurance ID number, which are specific to state or insurance purposes respectively.

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  • 17. 

    An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.

    • A.

      Duration of the appointment

    • B.

      Relationship to the patient

    • C.

      Social Security number of the patient

    • D.

      Insurance provider’s contact information

    Correct Answer
    A. Duration of the appointment
    Explanation
    An office appointment calendar or book must record the duration of the appointment in order to effectively manage and schedule appointments. This information allows the office staff to allocate the appropriate amount of time for each patient, ensuring that appointments do not overlap and that sufficient time is allotted for each patient's needs. It also helps in managing the overall schedule and making adjustments if needed.

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  • 18. 

    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.

    • A.

      Fiscal

    • B.

      Financial

    • C.

      Fiduciary

    • D.

      Accounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal
    Explanation
    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a fiscal year. This term is commonly used in accounting and finance to refer to the period of time that a company or organization uses for financial reporting and budgeting. It is important to note that a fiscal year does not necessarily align with the calendar year and can begin and end at any time, depending on the organization's needs.

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  • 19. 

    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.

    • A.

      DEA

    • B.

      EPA

    • C.

      FDA

    • D.

      CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA
    Explanation
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing controlled substance laws and regulations in the United States. The registration number ensures that the physician is authorized to prescribe controlled substances and helps track the distribution and use of these substances to prevent abuse and illegal activities. The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency), FDA (Food and Drug Administration), and CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) do not have the authority to issue registration numbers for controlled substances.

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  • 20. 

    Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e. surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient’s insurance policy contract involves a process known as __________.

    • A.

      Pre-certification

    • B.

      Pre-authorization

    • C.

      Pre-determination

    • D.

      Pre-existing

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-certification
    Explanation
    Pre-certification is the process of obtaining approval from an insurance company before a medical treatment is performed. It involves verifying that the treatment is medically necessary and meets the requirements outlined in the patient's insurance policy. This process helps determine whether the treatment will be covered by the insurance policy and ensures that the patient does not face unexpected costs.

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  • 21. 

    In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never __________.

    • A.

      Be facing the file cabinets

    • B.

      Be able to be viewed by patients

    • C.

      Be turned on

    • D.

      Be viewed by medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    B. Be able to be viewed by patients
    Explanation
    The computer screen in the reception area of a medical practice must never be able to be viewed by patients. This is important for maintaining patient privacy and confidentiality. Allowing patients to view the computer screen could potentially expose sensitive information, such as medical records or personal details, which is a violation of privacy regulations.

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  • 22. 

    The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.

    • A.

      Lymphatic temperature

    • B.

      Axillary temperature

    • C.

      Deltoid temperature

    • D.

      Delta temperature

    Correct Answer
    B. Axillary temperature
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "axillary temperature." Axillary temperature refers to the temperature taken in the armpit. This method is commonly used to measure body temperature, especially in infants and young children, as it is non-invasive and relatively accurate. The armpit is an area where the skin is thinner and more sensitive, making it an ideal spot to measure body temperature.

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  • 23. 

    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

    • A.

      Open fracture

    • B.

      Spiral fracture

    • C.

      Greenstick fracture

    • D.

      Closed fracture

    Correct Answer
    D. Closed fracture
    Explanation
    A closed fracture is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site. In this type of fracture, the bone remains intact and does not protrude through the skin. This is in contrast to an open fracture, where the bone breaks through the skin. A closed fracture can occur due to trauma or injury, and it may cause pain, swelling, and limited mobility in the affected area. Treatment for a closed fracture usually involves immobilization of the bone with a cast or splint to allow for proper healing.

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  • 24. 

    The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.

    • A.

      Tid

    • B.

      Bid

    • C.

      Qid

    • D.

      Qh

    Correct Answer
    A. Tid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is tid. Tid is the abbreviation for "ter in die" which means three times a day in Latin. It is commonly used in medical prescriptions to indicate the frequency of medication dosage.

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  • 25. 

    The abbreviation for as needed is __________.

    • A.

      Prn

    • B.

      Ppn

    • C.

      An

    • D.

      Add

    Correct Answer
    A. Prn
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "as needed" is "prn". This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as necessary or when required by the patient's condition. "ppn", "an", and "add" are not correct abbreviations for "as needed".

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  • 26. 

    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.

    • A.

      NPO

    • B.

      NBM

    • C.

      NM

    • D.

      Nom

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "nothing by mouth" is NPO. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally. It is important for healthcare providers to use this abbreviation to ensure clear communication and proper patient care.

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  • 27. 

    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

    • A.

      Insulin syringe

    • B.

      Tuberculin syringe

    • C.

      Hypodermic syringes

    • D.

      A closed injection system

    Correct Answer
    B. Tuberculin syringe
    Explanation
    A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection. This type of syringe is specifically designed for administering small amounts of medication into the dermis, which is the layer of skin just below the epidermis. Tuberculin syringes have a small, fine needle and a capacity of 1 mL or less, making them ideal for accurately delivering small volumes of medication into the skin. Insulin syringes are typically used for subcutaneous injections, hypodermic syringes are used for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections, and a closed injection system is not specifically designed for intradermal injections.

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  • 28. 

    When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.

    • A.

      Refrigerate it for further use

    • B.

      Pour it back in the bottle

    • C.

      Discard it

    • D.

      Incubate it

    Correct Answer
    C. Discard it
    Explanation
    When you have finished using a reagent, you should discard it. This is because reagents are typically used in scientific experiments and they can become contaminated or degraded after use. It is important to dispose of them properly to avoid any potential hazards or inaccuracies in future experiments. Pouring it back in the bottle or refrigerating it for further use can lead to cross-contamination or using an ineffective reagent. Incubating it is not necessary as the reagent has already served its purpose.

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  • 29. 

    When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.

    • A.

      Date it

    • B.

      Store it

    • C.

      Freeze it

    • D.

      Color it

    Correct Answer
    A. Date it
    Explanation
    Labeling and dating a solution is important because it helps to keep track of when the solution was created or implemented. This is especially crucial in situations where multiple solutions are being developed or tested over a period of time. By labeling and dating the solution, it becomes easier to identify and refer back to specific versions or iterations. It also provides a clear timeline of the solution's development, allowing for better analysis and evaluation of its effectiveness.

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  • 30. 

    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?

    • A.

      0.5 cc

    • B.

      1.0 cc

    • C.

      1.5 cc

    • D.

      0.25 cc

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5 cc
    Explanation
    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to the patient. The concentration of Demerol available is 100 mg/ml. To calculate the volume of Demerol to be injected, we divide the ordered dose (50 mg) by the concentration (100 mg/ml). This gives us 0.5 ml. Therefore, 0.5 cc of Demerol will be injected.

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  • 31. 

    A drug that causes urination is called a __________.

    • A.

      Diuretic

    • B.

      Hypertensive

    • C.

      Gestational drug

    • D.

      Narcotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretic
    Explanation
    A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that increase the production of urine and promote the excretion of excess fluid from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, edema, and certain kidney disorders. By increasing urine output, diuretics help to reduce fluid accumulation and relieve symptoms associated with fluid retention. Diuretics work by acting on the kidneys and altering the reabsorption of water and electrolytes, leading to increased urine production.

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  • 32. 

    A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.

    • A.

      Antitussive

    • B.

      Antiemetic

    • C.

      Antiseptic

    • D.

      Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antitussive
    Explanation
    An antitussive is a type of drug that is specifically used to relieve coughing. It works by suppressing the cough reflex in the brain, reducing the urge to cough. This medication is commonly used to treat conditions such as bronchitis, the common cold, and other respiratory infections where coughing is a symptom. The other options listed, antiemetic, antiseptic, and antitoxin, are not specifically used for cough relief and have different purposes in the medical field.

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  • 33. 

    A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.

    • A.

      Antipyretic

    • B.

      Antidote

    • C.

      Antiemetic

    • D.

      Analgesic

    Correct Answer
    A. Antipyretic
    Explanation
    An antipyretic is a drug used to control temperature. It helps reduce fever by lowering body temperature. This medication is commonly used to provide relief from symptoms such as headache, muscle aches, and chills associated with fever. Unlike an antidote, which is used to counteract the effects of a poison or toxic substance, an antipyretic specifically targets fever reduction. It is different from an antiemetic, which is used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting, and an analgesic, which is used to relieve pain.

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  • 34. 

    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.

    • A.

      Vasodilator

    • B.

      Vasoconstrictor

    • C.

      Bronchodilator

    • D.

      Dilatemetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasodilator
    Explanation
    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a vasodilator. This means that it widens the blood vessels, allowing for increased blood flow and lower blood pressure. This can be beneficial in treating conditions such as hypertension or angina, as it helps to improve blood circulation. Vasodilators work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, allowing them to expand and accommodate more blood. Examples of vasodilators include nitroglycerin and calcium channel blockers.

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  • 35. 

    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Suppressant

    • B.

      Decongestant

    • C.

      Antihistamine

    • D.

      Inebronchodilator

    Correct Answer
    B. Decongestant
    Explanation
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve nasal congestion and improve breathing. Unlike antihistamines, which primarily target allergies, decongestants specifically target nasal congestion. Suppressants and bronchodilators are not specifically designed to decrease mucus in the nasal passages, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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  • 36. 

    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Miotic

    • B.

      Diuretic

    • C.

      Cytotoxin

    • D.

      Expectorant

    Correct Answer
    D. Expectorant
    Explanation
    An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output by promoting the clearance of mucus and phlegm from the respiratory tract. It helps to thin and loosen the mucus, making it easier to cough up and expel. This can be beneficial in conditions such as bronchitis, where excessive mucus production can lead to coughing and difficulty breathing. Expectorants work by stimulating the production of respiratory tract secretions, which in turn helps to clear the airways and improve breathing.

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  • 37. 

    A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Solution

    • B.

      Emulsion

    • C.

      Elixir

    • D.

      Tincture

    Correct Answer
    B. Emulsion
    Explanation
    An emulsion is a liquid preparation that consists of fine droplets of oil dispersed in water. This type of mixture is commonly used in various products such as creams, lotions, and salad dressings. Castor oil, being an oil that can mix with water to form small droplets, fits the description of an emulsion. Therefore, the correct answer is emulsion.

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  • 38. 

    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

    • A.

      Narcotic overdose

    • B.

      Inflammation

    • C.

      Angina pectoris

    • D.

      Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    C. Angina pectoris
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of angina pectoris. Angina pectoris is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Nitroglycerine works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood to flow to the heart and relieving the symptoms of angina. It is commonly used as a medication to provide immediate relief during angina attacks.

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  • 39. 

    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.

    • A.

      Inflammation

    • B.

      Appetite

    • C.

      Swelling

    • D.

      Excretion of urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the body's immune response and reducing the production of inflammatory substances. Therefore, hydrocortisone is used to suppress inflammation, making it the correct answer.

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  • 40. 

    Schedule I drugs include __________.

    • A.

      Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • B.

      Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • C.

      Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
    Explanation
    Schedule I drugs include substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have severe restrictions on their production, distribution, and use. They are classified as such due to their potential for addiction and the lack of recognized medical benefits. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, ecstasy, and marijuana (in some jurisdictions). These substances are deemed to pose significant risks to public health and safety, leading to their categorization as Schedule I drugs.

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  • 41. 

    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Transdermal system

    • B.

      Reservoir system

    • C.

      Ointment system

    • D.

      Epidermis system

    Correct Answer
    A. Transdermal system
    Explanation
    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a transdermal system because it is designed to deliver medication through the skin and into the bloodstream. This method allows for controlled and continuous release of the drug over a period of time, providing a convenient and non-invasive way of drug administration. The term "transdermal" refers to the ability of the medication to pass through the layers of the skin and reach the underlying tissues and blood vessels.

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  • 42. 

    Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 17.

    • A.

      Superior Vena Cava

    • B.

      Aorta

    • C.

      Right atrium

    • D.

      Pulmonary vein

    Correct Answer
    B. Aorta
    Explanation
    In the given illustration, the number 17 corresponds to the Aorta. The Aorta is the largest artery in the body that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 18.

    • A.

      Inferior vena cava

    • B.

      Superior vena cava

    • C.

      Right atrium

    • D.

      Right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    B. Superior vena cava
    Explanation
    In the given illustration, number 18 refers to the Superior vena cava.

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  • 44. 

    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.

    • A.

      Cystitis

    • B.

      Urethral stricture

    • C.

      Chronic renal failure

    • D.

      Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    B. Urethral stricture
    Explanation
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called a urethral stricture. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as trauma, infection, or inflammation. It can lead to difficulty in urination, urinary retention, and other urinary symptoms. Treatment options for urethral strictures may include medication, dilation, or surgical procedures to widen the urethra and relieve the obstruction. Cystitis refers to inflammation of the bladder, chronic renal failure is a condition where the kidneys gradually lose their function, and pyelonephritis is a kidney infection.

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  • 45. 

    A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called __________.

    • A.

      High blood pressure

    • B.

      Type 1 diabetes

    • C.

      Pancreatitis

    • D.

      Type 2 diabetes

    Correct Answer
    B. Type 1 diabetes
    Explanation
    Type 1 diabetes is a chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. Without enough insulin, the body is unable to properly convert glucose into energy, leading to high blood sugar levels. Type 1 diabetes is typically diagnosed in childhood or adolescence and requires lifelong insulin therapy to manage blood sugar levels.

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  • 46. 

    The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called __________.

    • A.

      Enema

    • B.

      Colostomy

    • C.

      Constipation

    • D.

      Peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    D. Peristalsis
    Explanation
    Peristalsis refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the intestines. This movement helps to propel food and waste materials through the digestive system. It is responsible for the wave-like motion that pushes the contents of the intestines forward, allowing for proper digestion and absorption of nutrients. Enema, colostomy, and constipation are not related to the alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles.

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  • 47. 

    The prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum is called __________.

    • A.

      Peristalsis

    • B.

      Anal incontinence

    • C.

      Fecal impaction

    • D.

      Feces

    Correct Answer
    C. Fecal impaction
    Explanation
    Fecal impaction refers to the prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum. This condition occurs when stool becomes hardened and difficult to pass, causing a blockage in the rectum. It can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, difficulty passing stool, and sometimes even leakage of liquid stool around the hardened mass. Treatment usually involves the use of laxatives, enemas, or manual disimpaction to remove the impacted stool.

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  • 48. 

    The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.

    • A.

      Flatus

    • B.

      Diarrhea

    • C.

      Peristalsis

    • D.

      Blockage

    Correct Answer
    B. Diarrhea
    Explanation
    Diarrhea refers to the frequent passage of liquid stools. It is a condition characterized by loose, watery bowel movements that occur more frequently than usual. This can be caused by various factors such as infections, food intolerances, medication side effects, or underlying medical conditions. Diarrhea can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances if not managed properly.

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  • 49. 

    Refer to Illustration #1 and identify the number 69.

    • A.

      Nasal

    • B.

      Zygomatic

    • C.

      Temporal

    • D.

      Radius

    Correct Answer
    C. Temporal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Temporal" because in the given options, "Temporal" is the only term related to bones. The other options, "Nasal," "Zygomatic," and "Radius," are not related to bones but rather refer to other parts of the body. Therefore, "Temporal" is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 50. 

    Refer to Illustration #1 and identify the number 70.

    • A.

      Clavicle

    • B.

      Sternum

    • C.

      Scapula

    • D.

      Ilium

    Correct Answer
    C. Scapula
    Explanation
    In the given illustration, the number 70 corresponds to the bone labeled as "Scapula". The scapula is commonly known as the shoulder blade and is a flat, triangular bone that connects the upper arm bone (humerus) to the collarbone (clavicle). It is located on the back of the shoulder and plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 25, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Gladys102103
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