Preparation For NCCT Quiz

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Gladys102103
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  • 1/75 Questions

    When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.

    • Date it
    • Store it
    • Freeze it
    • Color it
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About This Quiz

The national Centre for competency testing is perfect for testing health care professionals and their ability to perform the tasks they are charged with to their patients. If one gets this certificate they get the ability to compete for a job. Are you working on getting your certification? Take up the quiz below and see just how prepared you are for the final exam.

Preparation For NCCT Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A drug that causes urination is called a __________.

    • Diuretic

    • Hypertensive

    • Gestational drug

    • Narcotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretic
    Explanation
    A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that increase the production of urine and promote the excretion of excess fluid from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, edema, and certain kidney disorders. By increasing urine output, diuretics help to reduce fluid accumulation and relieve symptoms associated with fluid retention. Diuretics work by acting on the kidneys and altering the reabsorption of water and electrolytes, leading to increased urine production.

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  • 3. 

    The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.

    • Flatus

    • Diarrhea

    • Peristalsis

    • Blockage

    Correct Answer
    A. Diarrhea
    Explanation
    Diarrhea refers to the frequent passage of liquid stools. It is a condition characterized by loose, watery bowel movements that occur more frequently than usual. This can be caused by various factors such as infections, food intolerances, medication side effects, or underlying medical conditions. Diarrhea can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances if not managed properly.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?

    • OSHA

    • CLIA

    • CMS

    • HIPAA

    Correct Answer
    A. HIPAA
    Explanation
    HIPAA, which stands for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It sets standards for the electronic exchange, privacy, and security of health information to ensure that patient data is kept confidential and secure. HIPAA also gives patients certain rights regarding their health information, such as the right to access and control their own medical records.

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  • 5. 

    When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as a(n) __________.

    • Patent ductus arteriosus

    • Arrhythmia

    • Aneurysm

    • Embolism

    Correct Answer
    A. Arrhythmia
    Explanation
    An arrhythmia refers to an abnormal heart rhythm. This means that the heart is not beating in a regular, coordinated pattern. It can beat too fast, too slow, or irregularly. This can disrupt the normal flow of blood and oxygen to the body's organs and tissues. Arrhythmias can be caused by various factors, including heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications. Treatment options for arrhythmias may include medication, lifestyle changes, and medical procedures such as implanting a pacemaker or performing cardiac ablation.

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  • 6. 

    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

    • If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level and s/he will calm down.

    • Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.

    • Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining; the doctor should handle them.

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.
    Explanation
    When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This approach shows empathy and respect towards the patient's concerns, and allows for a comprehensive understanding of the issue at hand. By taking thorough notes, healthcare professionals can ensure that all relevant information is documented and can be referred back to if needed. This also helps in maintaining accurate records and aids in addressing the complaint effectively. Refusing to talk to complaining patients or matching their anger level are inappropriate responses that can escalate the situation and hinder effective communication.

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  • 7. 

    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.

    • Non-verbal communication

    • Verbal communication

    • Written communication

    • All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-verbal communication
    Explanation
    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of non-verbal communication. Non-verbal communication refers to the transmission of messages without the use of words. These examples involve the use of gestures, facial expressions, body movements, and the way individuals use personal space to convey meaning and emotions. Unlike verbal or written communication, non-verbal communication relies on visual cues and can often provide more accurate insights into a person's thoughts, feelings, and intentions. Therefore, the correct answer is non-verbal communication.

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  • 8. 

    The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.

    • Lymphatic temperature

    • Axillary temperature

    • Deltoid temperature

    • Delta temperature

    Correct Answer
    A. Axillary temperature
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "axillary temperature." Axillary temperature refers to the temperature taken in the armpit. This method is commonly used to measure body temperature, especially in infants and young children, as it is non-invasive and relatively accurate. The armpit is an area where the skin is thinner and more sensitive, making it an ideal spot to measure body temperature.

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  • 9. 

    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.

    • NPO

    • NBM

    • NM

    • Nom

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "nothing by mouth" is NPO. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally. It is important for healthcare providers to use this abbreviation to ensure clear communication and proper patient care.

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  • 10. 

    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should __________ the first drop.

    • Collect

    • Use

    • Wipe away

    • Wash off

    Correct Answer
    A. Wipe away
    Explanation
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is important to wipe away the first drop of blood. This is because the first drop may contain tissue fluids or contaminants from the puncture site, which can interfere with the accuracy of the blood smear. By wiping away the first drop, a cleaner and more representative sample of blood can be obtained for the smear.

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  • 11. 

    In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never __________.

    • Be facing the file cabinets

    • Be able to be viewed by patients

    • Be turned on

    • Be viewed by medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Be able to be viewed by patients
    Explanation
    The computer screen in the reception area of a medical practice must never be able to be viewed by patients. This is important for maintaining patient privacy and confidentiality. Allowing patients to view the computer screen could potentially expose sensitive information, such as medical records or personal details, which is a violation of privacy regulations.

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  • 12. 

    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

    • Erase the entry and write in the new appointment.

    • Put “white-out” over the entry and write on top.

    • Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials.

    • Mark through the entry with a single red line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mark through the entry with a single red line.
    Explanation
    The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This ensures that the canceled appointment is clearly indicated and distinguishes it from other entries. It is a simple and effective way to communicate the cancellation to anyone reviewing the appointment book.

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  • 13. 

    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.

    • Fiscal

    • Financial

    • Fiduciary

    • Accounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal
    Explanation
    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a fiscal year. This term is commonly used in accounting and finance to refer to the period of time that a company or organization uses for financial reporting and budgeting. It is important to note that a fiscal year does not necessarily align with the calendar year and can begin and end at any time, depending on the organization's needs.

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  • 14. 

    The abbreviation for as needed is __________.

    • Prn

    • Ppn

    • An

    • Add

    Correct Answer
    A. Prn
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "as needed" is "prn". This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as necessary or when required by the patient's condition. "ppn", "an", and "add" are not correct abbreviations for "as needed".

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  • 15. 

    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.

    • Transcriptionist

    • Stenographer

    • Decoder

    • Receptionist

    Correct Answer
    A. Transcriptionist
    Explanation
    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist. A transcriptionist is responsible for listening to recorded or dictated information and typing it into a written document. In this scenario, the medical assistant is being asked to transcribe the physician's dictation into a typed operative report.

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  • 16. 

    A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?

    • Gunshot wound

    • Anorexia

    • Drug addiction

    • Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunshot wound
    Explanation
    A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for a gunshot wound. This exception is likely because gunshot wounds are considered a public safety concern and reporting them is necessary for legal and safety reasons. In such cases, the physician may have a duty to report the gunshot wound to the appropriate authorities. However, for conditions like anorexia, drug addiction, and pregnancy, the physician must obtain the patient's written consent before disclosing any confidential information.

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  • 17. 

    When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.

    • Refrigerate it for further use

    • Pour it back in the bottle

    • Discard it

    • Incubate it

    Correct Answer
    A. Discard it
    Explanation
    When you have finished using a reagent, you should discard it. This is because reagents are typically used in scientific experiments and they can become contaminated or degraded after use. It is important to dispose of them properly to avoid any potential hazards or inaccuracies in future experiments. Pouring it back in the bottle or refrigerating it for further use can lead to cross-contamination or using an ineffective reagent. Incubating it is not necessary as the reagent has already served its purpose.

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  • 18. 

    A centrifuge works by __________.

    • Freezing blood specimens

    • Heating blood specimens

    • Incubating blood at body temp

    • Separating cells and serum

    Correct Answer
    A. Separating cells and serum
    Explanation
    A centrifuge works by separating cells and serum. It uses centrifugal force to spin the blood specimens at high speeds, causing the denser components, such as cells, to settle at the bottom and the less dense components, such as serum, to rise to the top. This separation allows for further analysis and testing of the different components of the blood.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture?

    • Back of the throat and tonsillar area

    • Nasopharynx and epiglottis

    • Cheeks and tongue

    • Gums and tongue

    Correct Answer
    A. Back of the throat and tonsillar area
    Explanation
    When obtaining a specimen for a throat culture, the back of the throat and tonsillar area should be swabbed. This is because these areas are most likely to harbor the bacteria causing the infection. Swabbing the nasopharynx and epiglottis may not yield accurate results as they are not directly involved in the throat infection. Swabbing the cheeks and tongue or gums and tongue would not provide a suitable specimen for a throat culture as they do not directly represent the infected area.

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  • 20. 

    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.

    • Covered amount

    • Deductable

    • Explanation of benefits

    • Co-pay

    Correct Answer
    A. Deductable
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "deductible". A deductible is the amount that an insured patient must pay out of pocket for medical expenses before their insurance coverage begins. Once the deductible is met, the insurance company will then start covering a portion or all of the remaining expenses. The deductible amount varies depending on the insurance plan and can be an annual or per-incident basis.

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  • 21. 

    The most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw is __________.

    • Selecting the correct needle gauge

    • Using 70% alcohol prep pads

    • Identifying the patient

    • Using the correct tourniquet

    Correct Answer
    A. Identifying the patient
    Explanation
    Identifying the patient is the most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw because it ensures that the blood sample is collected from the correct person, reducing the risk of errors or complications. This step helps to prevent mislabeling or mix-ups of samples, which could lead to incorrect diagnosis or treatment. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately identify the patient by checking their identification bracelet or asking for their name and date of birth before proceeding with the blood draw procedure.

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  • 22. 

    The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

    • Social Security number

    • Federal tax identification number

    • State tax number

    • Insurance ID number

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal tax identification number
    Explanation
    The Internal Revenue Service issues a federal tax identification number to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. This number is used to identify the practice for tax filing and reporting. It is different from a Social Security number, which is an individual's unique identifier, and state tax number or insurance ID number, which are specific to state or insurance purposes respectively.

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  • 23. 

    The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.

    • Tid

    • Bid

    • Qid

    • Qh

    Correct Answer
    A. Tid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is tid. Tid is the abbreviation for "ter in die" which means three times a day in Latin. It is commonly used in medical prescriptions to indicate the frequency of medication dosage.

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  • 24. 

    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?

    • 0.5 cc

    • 1.0 cc

    • 1.5 cc

    • 0.25 cc

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5 cc
    Explanation
    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to the patient. The concentration of Demerol available is 100 mg/ml. To calculate the volume of Demerol to be injected, we divide the ordered dose (50 mg) by the concentration (100 mg/ml). This gives us 0.5 ml. Therefore, 0.5 cc of Demerol will be injected.

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  • 25. 

    To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and __________.

    • Work in a circle from the center to the periphery

    • Wipe carefully back and forth

    • Cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds

    • Use a lifting motion to move away from the skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Work in a circle from the center to the periphery
    Explanation
    To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, it is recommended to work in a circle from the center to the periphery. This technique ensures that the entire area is thoroughly cleansed and reduces the risk of contamination. By starting at the center and moving outward in a circular motion, any potential pathogens or bacteria are effectively removed from the site, promoting a clean and sterile environment for the venipuncture procedure.

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  • 26. 

    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.

    • DEA

    • EPA

    • FDA

    • CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA
    Explanation
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing controlled substance laws and regulations in the United States. The registration number ensures that the physician is authorized to prescribe controlled substances and helps track the distribution and use of these substances to prevent abuse and illegal activities. The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency), FDA (Food and Drug Administration), and CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) do not have the authority to issue registration numbers for controlled substances.

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  • 27. 

    A tourniquet should be on the patient’s arm no longer than __________.

    • 1 minute

    • 2 minutes

    • Three minutes

    • Four minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 minute
    Explanation
    A tourniquet should be on the patient's arm no longer than 1 minute to prevent potential damage to the underlying tissues. Prolonged use of a tourniquet can lead to ischemia, which is the restriction of blood supply to the tissues, causing tissue damage and potentially leading to complications such as nerve or muscle damage. Therefore, it is crucial to remove the tourniquet as soon as possible to restore normal blood flow and prevent any adverse effects.

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  • 28. 

    How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection?

    • At body temperature

    • In a refrigerator

    • At room temperature

    • In a freezer

    Correct Answer
    A. In a refrigerator
    Explanation
    A 24-hour urine specimen should be stored in a refrigerator during collection. This is because refrigeration helps to preserve the integrity of the urine sample by preventing the growth of bacteria and the degradation of certain substances in the urine. Storing the specimen at a cool temperature also helps to maintain the accuracy of any laboratory tests that may be performed on the sample.

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  • 29. 

    Periodically, the medical assistant should check all electrical equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) __________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

    • Inventory log

    • Maintenance log

    • Quality control log

    • No answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance log
    Explanation
    A maintenance log is a record that helps the medical assistant track routine inspections of electrical equipment in the office. It allows them to document when the equipment was checked, note any issues or hazards, and ensure that the equipment is in good working order. By regularly maintaining and inspecting the electrical equipment, the medical assistant can prevent accidents and ensure the safety of both patients and staff.

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  • 30. 

    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

    • Open fracture

    • Spiral fracture

    • Greenstick fracture

    • Closed fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Closed fracture
    Explanation
    A closed fracture is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site. In this type of fracture, the bone remains intact and does not protrude through the skin. This is in contrast to an open fracture, where the bone breaks through the skin. A closed fracture can occur due to trauma or injury, and it may cause pain, swelling, and limited mobility in the affected area. Treatment for a closed fracture usually involves immobilization of the bone with a cast or splint to allow for proper healing.

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  • 31. 

    To determine the size of the needle, remember that the higher the gauge number the __________ needle bore.

    • Longer

    • Smaller

    • Larger

    • Shorter

    Correct Answer
    A. Smaller
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "smaller" because in the context of needle size, the gauge number refers to the diameter of the needle. A higher gauge number indicates a smaller diameter, while a lower gauge number indicates a larger diameter. So, the higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle bore.

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  • 32. 

    An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.

    • Duration of the appointment

    • Relationship to the patient

    • Social Security number of the patient

    • Insurance provider’s contact information

    Correct Answer
    A. Duration of the appointment
    Explanation
    An office appointment calendar or book must record the duration of the appointment in order to effectively manage and schedule appointments. This information allows the office staff to allocate the appropriate amount of time for each patient, ensuring that appointments do not overlap and that sufficient time is allotted for each patient's needs. It also helps in managing the overall schedule and making adjustments if needed.

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  • 33. 

    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

    • Suppressant

    • Decongestant

    • Antihistamine

    • Inebronchodilator

    Correct Answer
    A. Decongestant
    Explanation
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve nasal congestion and improve breathing. Unlike antihistamines, which primarily target allergies, decongestants specifically target nasal congestion. Suppressants and bronchodilators are not specifically designed to decrease mucus in the nasal passages, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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  • 34. 

    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.

    • Cystitis

    • Urethral stricture

    • Chronic renal failure

    • Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethral stricture
    Explanation
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called a urethral stricture. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as trauma, infection, or inflammation. It can lead to difficulty in urination, urinary retention, and other urinary symptoms. Treatment options for urethral strictures may include medication, dilation, or surgical procedures to widen the urethra and relieve the obstruction. Cystitis refers to inflammation of the bladder, chronic renal failure is a condition where the kidneys gradually lose their function, and pyelonephritis is a kidney infection.

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  • 35. 

    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient by a process known as __________.

    • Procedure review

    • Admissions review

    • Appropriateness review

    • Transfer review

    Correct Answer
    A. Admissions review
    Explanation
    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for reviewing the appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient. This process is known as admissions review, where the Peer Review Organizations assess whether the patient's admission to the hospital is justified based on their medical condition and the required level of care. This review helps ensure that hospital resources are used efficiently and that patients receive the appropriate level of care.

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  • 36. 

    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.

    • Right justified

    • Indented 5 spaces

    • Equally spaced vertically

    • At the left hand margin

    Correct Answer
    A. At the left hand margin
    Explanation
    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines aligned at the left-hand margin. In full block style, the entire letter is left-aligned, meaning that all lines, including the date, recipient's address, salutation, body paragraphs, closing, and signature, start at the left-hand margin. This creates a clean and professional appearance for the letter.

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  • 37. 

    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.

    • Miotic

    • Diuretic

    • Cytotoxin

    • Expectorant

    Correct Answer
    A. Expectorant
    Explanation
    An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output by promoting the clearance of mucus and phlegm from the respiratory tract. It helps to thin and loosen the mucus, making it easier to cough up and expel. This can be beneficial in conditions such as bronchitis, where excessive mucus production can lead to coughing and difficulty breathing. Expectorants work by stimulating the production of respiratory tract secretions, which in turn helps to clear the airways and improve breathing.

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  • 38. 

    Conversion of dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called __________.

    • Defribrillation

    • Shock treatment

    • V tach

    • Scintillation

    Correct Answer
    A. Defribrillation
    Explanation
    Defibrillation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of restoring a normal heart rhythm by delivering an electric shock to the chest. This procedure is commonly used in emergency situations to treat life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. By delivering a controlled electrical current to the heart, defibrillation aims to reset the heart's electrical activity and allow it to resume its normal rhythm.

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  • 39. 

    A drug that helps to decrease appetite is called an __________.

    • Appetite modifier

    • Appetite stimulant

    • Anitspasmodic

    • Appetite suppressant

    Correct Answer
    A. Appetite suppressant
    Explanation
    An appetite suppressant is a drug that helps to decrease appetite. It works by reducing feelings of hunger, making it easier for individuals to control their food intake and lose weight. This type of medication can be helpful for those who struggle with overeating or have difficulty managing their appetite. By suppressing the appetite, these drugs can aid in weight loss efforts and promote healthier eating habits.

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  • 40. 

    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

    • Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
    Explanation
    The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a decision based upon bioethics because it involves ethical considerations related to the use of human fetal tissue for scientific purposes. This decision raises questions about the moral status of the fetus, the potential benefits and harms of the research, and the principles of autonomy, beneficence, and justice. Bioethics is a field that explores ethical issues arising from advances in biology and medicine, and the use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a topic that falls within this domain.

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  • 41. 

    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.

    • Vasodilator

    • Vasoconstrictor

    • Bronchodilator

    • Dilatemetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasodilator
    Explanation
    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a vasodilator. This means that it widens the blood vessels, allowing for increased blood flow and lower blood pressure. This can be beneficial in treating conditions such as hypertension or angina, as it helps to improve blood circulation. Vasodilators work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, allowing them to expand and accommodate more blood. Examples of vasodilators include nitroglycerin and calcium channel blockers.

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  • 42. 

    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.

    • Inflammation

    • Appetite

    • Swelling

    • Excretion of urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the body's immune response and reducing the production of inflammatory substances. Therefore, hydrocortisone is used to suppress inflammation, making it the correct answer.

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  • 43. 

    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.

    • Transdermal system

    • Reservoir system

    • Ointment system

    • Epidermis system

    Correct Answer
    A. Transdermal system
    Explanation
    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a transdermal system because it is designed to deliver medication through the skin and into the bloodstream. This method allows for controlled and continuous release of the drug over a period of time, providing a convenient and non-invasive way of drug administration. The term "transdermal" refers to the ability of the medication to pass through the layers of the skin and reach the underlying tissues and blood vessels.

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  • 44. 

    A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.

    • Antitussive

    • Antiemetic

    • Antiseptic

    • Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antitussive
    Explanation
    An antitussive is a type of drug that is specifically used to relieve coughing. It works by suppressing the cough reflex in the brain, reducing the urge to cough. This medication is commonly used to treat conditions such as bronchitis, the common cold, and other respiratory infections where coughing is a symptom. The other options listed, antiemetic, antiseptic, and antitoxin, are not specifically used for cough relief and have different purposes in the medical field.

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  • 45. 

    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

    • Insulin syringe

    • Tuberculin syringe

    • Hypodermic syringes

    • A closed injection system

    Correct Answer
    A. Tuberculin syringe
    Explanation
    A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection. This type of syringe is specifically designed for administering small amounts of medication into the dermis, which is the layer of skin just below the epidermis. Tuberculin syringes have a small, fine needle and a capacity of 1 mL or less, making them ideal for accurately delivering small volumes of medication into the skin. Insulin syringes are typically used for subcutaneous injections, hypodermic syringes are used for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections, and a closed injection system is not specifically designed for intradermal injections.

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  • 46. 

    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

    • Narcotic overdose

    • Inflammation

    • Angina pectoris

    • Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    A. Angina pectoris
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of angina pectoris. Angina pectoris is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Nitroglycerine works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood to flow to the heart and relieving the symptoms of angina. It is commonly used as a medication to provide immediate relief during angina attacks.

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  • 47. 

    A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a __________.

    • Non-pathogen

    • Spore

    • Flora

    • Pathogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-pathogen
    Explanation
    A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a non-pathogen. This term refers to microorganisms that do not typically cause harm or illness in humans or other organisms. They may exist in the environment or even in the human body without causing any noticeable symptoms or infections. Non-pathogens play important roles in various ecological processes and can be beneficial to their hosts by competing with harmful pathogens or aiding in digestion, for example.

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  • 48. 

    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called __________.

    • Uniform

    • Malignant

    • Fused

    • Bigeminy

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform
    Explanation
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) is an abnormal heart rhythm where the ventricles contract earlier than expected. In a uniform PVC, the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity of the ventricles, has the same configuration each time it appears. This means that the abnormal contraction is consistently occurring in the same way. This is in contrast to a fused PVC, where the QRS complex is a combination of the normal and abnormal electrical activity, or bigeminy, where every other heartbeat is a PVC. Therefore, the correct answer is uniform.

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  • 49. 

    A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.

    • Antipyretic

    • Antidote

    • Antiemetic

    • Analgesic

    Correct Answer
    A. Antipyretic
    Explanation
    An antipyretic is a drug used to control temperature. It helps reduce fever by lowering body temperature. This medication is commonly used to provide relief from symptoms such as headache, muscle aches, and chills associated with fever. Unlike an antidote, which is used to counteract the effects of a poison or toxic substance, an antipyretic specifically targets fever reduction. It is different from an antiemetic, which is used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting, and an analgesic, which is used to relieve pain.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 25, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Gladys102103
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