National Council For Cooperative Training (NCCT) Practice Test
(182).jpg "National Council For Cooperative Training (NCCT) Practice Test - Quiz")
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
When the internal evironment of the body is functioning properly, a condition of ________ exits.
- A.
Hemorrhage
- B.
Dysfunction
- C.
Homeostasis
- D.
Euphoria
Correct Answer
C. HomeostasisExplanation
Homeostasis is the condition when the internal environment of the body is functioning properly. It refers to the body's ability to maintain a stable and balanced internal state despite external changes. This includes regulating temperature, pH levels, blood sugar levels, and other variables within a narrow range. Homeostasis is crucial for the body to perform its functions optimally and ensure overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Schedule V drugs include
- A.
Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
- B.
Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs
- C.
Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics tthat have a lesser potential for abuse
- D.
Various narcotics such as opium
Correct Answer
B. Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugsExplanation
Schedule V drugs include miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs. These mixtures have a lower potential for abuse compared to other narcotics. The inclusion of these mixtures in Schedule V allows for their medical use under strict regulations and supervision.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Digoxin is used for
- A.
Excretion of urine
- B.
Anxiety
- C.
Cardiac problems
- D.
Suppress swelling
Correct Answer
C. Cardiac problemsExplanation
Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat various cardiac problems. It is a cardiac glycoside that helps to strengthen the heart muscle and regulate the heartbeat. Digoxin is often prescribed for conditions such as heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and certain types of arrhythmias. It works by increasing the force of contraction of the heart, improving its pumping efficiency, and controlling the heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Escape of fluid into the pleural cavity is called
- A.
Pneumonia
- B.
Pulmonary edema
- C.
Plural effusion
- D.
Emphysema
Correct Answer
C. Plural effusionExplanation
A plural effusion refers to the escape of fluid into the pleural cavity. This condition occurs when excess fluid accumulates in the space between the lungs and the chest wall. It can be caused by various factors such as infections, congestive heart failure, lung cancer, or trauma to the chest. Symptoms may include chest pain, shortness of breath, coughing, and decreased breath sounds. Diagnosis is usually made through imaging tests such as chest X-rays or ultrasound. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve draining the fluid and addressing the underlying condition.Rate this question:
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- 5.
An injection where the skin is pulled laterally 1 1/2 inches away from the injection site, is called ______.
- A.
Intravenous
- B.
Z track
- C.
EZ track
- D.
Intramuscular
Correct Answer
B. Z trackExplanation
The correct answer is Z track. This technique involves pulling the skin laterally before administering the injection, which helps to prevent leakage of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. The Z track method is commonly used for intramuscular injections to ensure accurate dosage delivery and minimize discomfort or irritation at the injection site.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Conduct, cortesy, and manners; customary in the medical profession are called _______.
- A.
Ethics
- B.
Medical etiquette
- C.
Moral therapy
- D.
Precocity
Correct Answer
B. Medical etiquetteExplanation
Medical etiquette refers to the conduct, courtesy, and manners that are customary in the medical profession. It encompasses the ethical principles and professional standards that healthcare professionals adhere to when interacting with patients, colleagues, and the healthcare system. Medical etiquette ensures respectful and appropriate behavior, confidentiality, informed consent, and proper communication, among other things. It is an essential aspect of maintaining professionalism and trust in the healthcare field.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A kind of liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) ______.
- A.
Solution
- B.
Emulsion
- C.
Elixir
- D.
Tinctures
Correct Answer
B. EmulsionExplanation
An emulsion is a type of liquid preparation that consists of fine droplets of an oil dispersed in water. This mixture creates a stable and homogeneous solution. In the context of the question, the given description of a liquid preparation that mixes fine droplets of an oil in water perfectly matches the definition of an emulsion. Therefore, the correct answer is emulsion.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The insurance program that covers needy and low income people is ______.
- A.
Medicaid
- B.
Medicare
- C.
Tri-care
- D.
Blue cross/blue shield
Correct Answer
A. MedicaidExplanation
Medicaid is the correct answer because it is a government-funded insurance program that provides healthcare coverage for low-income individuals and families, as well as individuals with certain disabilities. Unlike Medicare, which primarily covers individuals aged 65 and older, Medicaid is specifically designed to assist those who are financially disadvantaged and cannot afford private health insurance. Tri-care is a healthcare program for military personnel and their families, and Blue Cross/Blue Shield is a private health insurance company.Rate this question:
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- 9.
failure to do something that a resonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a persons property is ___________ .
- A.
Malpractice
- B.
Defamation
- C.
Slander
- D.
Negligence
Correct Answer
D. NegligenceExplanation
Negligence refers to the failure of a person to perform an action that a reasonable individual would do in ordinary circumstances, resulting in harm to another person or their property. It implies a lack of care or attention, leading to unintended consequences. Negligence does not involve intentional harm, but rather the failure to exercise the level of caution and responsibility that a reasonable person would demonstrate.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The _______ name of a drug is its official name
- A.
Trade or brand
- B.
Chemical
- C.
Generic
- D.
Organic
Correct Answer
C. GenericExplanation
The generic name of a drug is its official name, which is used to identify the active ingredient of the drug. It is a non-proprietary name that is not associated with any specific company or brand. Unlike trade or brand names, which are created by pharmaceutical companies for marketing purposes, the generic name remains the same regardless of the manufacturer. This allows for easier identification and communication between healthcare professionals and patients.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Inflammation of the peritoneal cavity is
- A.
Peritoneal cavitis
- B.
Hernia
- C.
Peritonitis
- D.
Colitis
Correct Answer
C. PeritonitisExplanation
Peritonitis is the inflammation of the peritoneal cavity, which is the space between the abdominal organs and the abdominal wall. This inflammation can be caused by various factors such as infection, injury, or a ruptured organ. Symptoms of peritonitis include abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and vomiting. Prompt medical attention and treatment are necessary to prevent complications and restore the normal functioning of the peritoneal cavity.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is used to aminister an intradermal injection ?
- A.
Insulin syringe
- B.
Tuberculin syringe
- C.
Hypodermic syrince
- D.
Tubex closed injection system
Correct Answer
B. Tuberculin syringeExplanation
A tuberculin syringe is used to administer an intradermal injection. This type of syringe is specifically designed for injecting small amounts of medication into the dermis layer of the skin. It has a small, fine needle and a capacity of 1 mL or less, making it ideal for delivering precise and accurate doses of medication for intradermal injections. The other options listed, such as the insulin syringe, hypodermic syringe, and tubex closed injection system, are not typically used for intradermal injections.Rate this question:
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- 13.
ECG term vector refers to _____.
- A.
Space
- B.
Stillness
- C.
Flatness
- D.
Force
Correct Answer
D. ForceExplanation
The term "ECG term vector" refers to the force exerted by the electrical activity of the heart during an electrocardiogram (ECG). It represents the direction and magnitude of the electrical signals generated by the heart, which are recorded and displayed as a vector on the ECG graph. This vector provides valuable information about the electrical conduction system of the heart and can help diagnose various cardiac conditions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The Tri-care fiscal year is from
- A.
October 1 - september 30
- B.
Jan. 1 - dec. 31
- C.
July 1 - june 31
- D.
Oct 1 - sep 1
Correct Answer
A. October 1 - september 30Explanation
The Tri-care fiscal year is from October 1 - September 30. This means that the financial year for Tri-care, a healthcare program for military personnel and their families, starts on October 1st and ends on September 30th of the following year. This fiscal year period allows for effective budgeting and financial planning for the program.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A glass continer holding mdication in either loquid of powder form is called a(n) ____________.
- A.
Multi-dose vial
- B.
Capsule
- C.
Prefilled syringe
- D.
Ampule
Correct Answer
D. AmpuleExplanation
An ampule is a glass container that holds medication in either liquid or powder form. It is designed to be single-use and is sealed with a breakable neck. Ampules are commonly used in healthcare settings to store and administer medications, particularly those that are sensitive to air or light. Unlike multi-dose vials, ampules are not meant to be used multiple times and are typically discarded after a single use. Capsules and pre-filled syringes are different types of medication packaging, but they do not specifically refer to glass containers.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The medical term for turning downward is
- A.
Adduction
- B.
External rotation
- C.
Supination
- D.
Pronation
Correct Answer
D. PronationExplanation
Pronation is the medical term for turning downward. It refers to the movement of rotating the forearm and hand in such a way that the palm faces downwards or posteriorly. This movement is commonly observed when the hand is rotated to place the palm facing downwards, as in the anatomical position. Therefore, pronation is the correct answer for the given question.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Fluid may be held in the body tissus and make them swell, this is called ____.
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Dysmorphia
- C.
Edema
- D.
Hydromorphia
Correct Answer
C. EdemaExplanation
Edema refers to the accumulation of fluid in body tissues, causing them to swell. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as injury, inflammation, or underlying medical conditions like heart or kidney problems. The excess fluid causes the affected area to become swollen, leading to discomfort and restricted movement. Edema can affect different parts of the body, including the legs, ankles, hands, and face. Treatment for edema typically involves addressing the underlying cause, managing symptoms, and reducing fluid retention through medication, lifestyle changes, or medical interventions like compression stockings.Rate this question:
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- 18.
An organization that offers insurance against losses in exchange for a premium is called ___.
- A.
Health maintenence organization
- B.
Rider
- C.
Member physician
- D.
Bank
Correct Answer
A. Health maintenence organizationExplanation
A health maintenance organization (HMO) is an organization that provides insurance coverage for losses in exchange for a premium. HMOs typically have a network of healthcare providers that members must use in order to receive coverage. This type of organization focuses on preventive care and emphasizes the importance of regular check-ups and screenings to maintain good health. HMOs often require members to select a primary care physician who coordinates their healthcare and refers them to specialists when needed.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A date on a obttle of medication that assures its potency is _____.
- A.
Ingredient date
- B.
Sale date
- C.
Expiration date
- D.
Manufactures date
Correct Answer
C. Expiration dateExplanation
The expiration date on a bottle of medication assures its potency. This date indicates the point at which the medication may no longer be effective or safe to use. It is important to adhere to this date and not use the medication beyond it to ensure its effectiveness and avoid any potential harm.Rate this question:
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- 20.
When the patient kneels, and places his/her head and chest on the table,with the top elevated, it is called _______.
- A.
Lithotomy position
- B.
Knee-chest position
- C.
Proctal position
- D.
Prone position
Correct Answer
B. Knee-chest positionExplanation
When the patient kneels and places his/her head and chest on the table with the top elevated, it is called the knee-chest position. This position is often used in medical examinations or procedures involving the rectal or pelvic area. It allows for better access and visualization of the area while providing comfort and stability for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 21.
the american medical association developed a refernce procedural code book using a numerical system for procedures, and this is called _______.
- A.
Incurance claim manual
- B.
Refernce manual
- C.
Manual for current procedures
- D.
Current procedural terminology
Correct Answer
D. Current procedural terminologyExplanation
The correct answer is "current procedural terminology." The American Medical Association developed a reference procedural code book using a numerical system for procedures, which is known as current procedural terminology.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A predetermined amount that the insured must pay each year before the insurance company will pay for an illness of injury is called__________.
- A.
Deductable
- B.
Co-payment fee
- C.
Extended benefits
- D.
Application fee
Correct Answer
A. DeductableExplanation
A predetermined amount that the insured must pay each year before the insurance company will pay for an illness or injury is called a deductible. This means that the insured is responsible for covering a certain portion of the medical expenses before the insurance coverage kicks in.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The medical term for tube feeding is _______.
- A.
IV
- B.
Esophageal introduction
- C.
Gavage
- D.
IVN
Correct Answer
C. GavageExplanation
The correct answer is gavage. Gavage is the medical term for tube feeding, which involves the administration of liquid nutrition directly into the stomach through a tube. This method is commonly used when a patient is unable to consume food orally or is unable to absorb nutrients properly through the gastrointestinal tract. Gavage allows for the delivery of essential nutrients and hydration directly into the stomach, ensuring that the patient receives the necessary nourishment.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A clean smooth cut cause by a sharp cutting instrument is called ___________.
- A.
Laceration
- B.
Puncture
- C.
Incision
- D.
Abrasion
Correct Answer
C. IncisionExplanation
An incision refers to a clean and smooth cut caused by a sharp cutting instrument. It is different from a laceration, which is a jagged and irregular tear in the skin. A puncture is a small hole made by a sharp object penetrating the skin. An abrasion is a superficial scrape or graze on the skin's surface. Therefore, the correct answer is incision.Rate this question:
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- 25.
To determine if the heart rhythm is regular or irregular, the distance between each P wave and then each _________ is measured
- A.
T
- B.
Q
- C.
R
- D.
U
Correct Answer
C. RExplanation
To determine if the heart rhythm is regular or irregular, the distance between each P wave and then each R wave is measured. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the R wave represents ventricular depolarization. By measuring the distance between these waves, healthcare professionals can assess the regularity of the heart rhythm.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A drug that produces sleep is called a(n)
- A.
Hypnotic
- B.
Placebo
- C.
Diaphoretic
- D.
Antispasmodic
Correct Answer
A. HypnoticExplanation
A drug that produces sleep is called a hypnotic. This type of drug is commonly used to treat insomnia or other sleep disorders. It works by slowing down brain activity and inducing a state of relaxation, which helps the person fall asleep and stay asleep throughout the night. Hypnotics can be prescribed by a doctor and should be used under their guidance to ensure safe and effective use.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A drug used to increase the secretions and mucus from the bronchial tubes is called ____.
- A.
Antitussive
- B.
Decongestant
- C.
Vasodilator
- D.
Expectorant
Correct Answer
D. ExpectorantExplanation
An expectorant is a drug that helps to increase the production and secretion of mucus from the bronchial tubes. This helps to loosen and expel mucus, making it easier to clear the airways and relieve congestion. Expectorants are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as coughs, bronchitis, and chest congestion.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Schedule IV drugs include
- A.
Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
- B.
Includes various narcotics such as opium
- C.
Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
- D.
None of the answers
Correct Answer
C. Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuseExplanation
Schedule IV drugs include minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse. This means that these substances have a lower risk of addiction and dependence compared to other drugs. They are commonly prescribed for medical purposes such as treating anxiety or sleep disorders. While they still have the potential for abuse, it is considered to be lower than substances in higher schedules.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A check written to the doctor by someone other than the patient, is called a _________.
- A.
Third party check
- B.
Delayed check
- C.
Referred check
- D.
Cashiers
Correct Answer
A. Third party checkExplanation
A check written to the doctor by someone other than the patient is called a third party check. This means that the payment is being made by someone other than the person who received the medical services. It could be an insurance company, a family member, or any other party responsible for covering the cost of the medical expenses.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The lateral movement of the limbs away from the median plane of the body is called
- A.
Extension
- B.
Supination
- C.
Internal rotation
- D.
Abduction
Correct Answer
D. AbductionExplanation
Abduction refers to the movement of limbs away from the median plane of the body. It involves moving a body part, such as an arm or leg, away from the midline of the body. This movement can occur in various joints, allowing for a wider range of motion. For example, raising an arm sideways away from the body is an example of abduction.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Thorazine is used to __________.
- A.
Cause excretion of urine
- B.
Enduce vomiting
- C.
Reduce mental tension anxiety
- D.
Supress swelling and shock
Correct Answer
C. Reduce mental tension anxietyExplanation
Thorazine is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs known as antipsychotics. It is primarily used to treat various mental health conditions such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and severe behavioral problems. One of the main effects of Thorazine is its ability to reduce mental tension and anxiety by affecting certain chemicals in the brain. It helps to calm and stabilize individuals who may be experiencing high levels of stress, agitation, or anxiety. Therefore, the correct answer is that Thorazine is used to reduce mental tension and anxiety.Rate this question:
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- 32.
the first loop of the small inestine is called the _______.
- A.
Jejenum
- B.
Duodenum
- C.
Transverse colon
- D.
Deuterium
Correct Answer
B. DuodenumExplanation
The first loop of the small intestine is called the duodenum.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the proper placement of an agar plate in the incubator
- A.
Right side up
- B.
Inverted
- C.
Inside out
- D.
On the side
Correct Answer
B. InvertedExplanation
Agar plates should be placed in the incubator in an inverted position. This is done to prevent condensation from accumulating on the agar surface, which could potentially interfere with the growth of microorganisms. Inverting the plates also helps to prevent contamination from airborne particles settling on the agar surface. Additionally, placing the plates upside down helps to minimize the risk of accidental contamination when accessing the incubator or moving the plates.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Insulin syringes are collaborated in
- A.
Cubic centimeters
- B.
Minums
- C.
Mm
- D.
Units
Correct Answer
D. Units -
- 35.
The tube used to collect a blood sample for a complete blood count (CBC) is ____________.
- A.
Green top, lithium heparin additive
- B.
Blue top, sodium citrate additive
- C.
Lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive
- D.
Red top, no additive
Correct Answer
C. Lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additiveExplanation
The tube used to collect a blood sample for a complete blood count (CBC) is a lavender top tube with ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) additive. EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting by binding to calcium, which is necessary for the clotting process. The lavender top tube is specifically used for CBC because EDTA preserves the morphology of blood cells, allowing for accurate analysis of the different types and numbers of blood cells present.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Why are culture test used in autoclaving?
- A.
To determine if the autoclave has too much pressure
- B.
To determine if any bacteria is developing in the procedure
- C.
To determine if the autoclave has any leakage
- D.
To determine the effectiveness of the steralization procedure
Correct Answer
B. To determine if any bacteria is developing in the procedureExplanation
Culture tests are used in autoclaving to determine if any bacteria is developing in the procedure. Autoclaving is a sterilization process that uses high pressure and temperature to eliminate microorganisms. However, there is a possibility that some bacteria may survive or contaminate the equipment during the process. By conducting culture tests, any bacterial growth can be identified and further measures can be taken to ensure the effectiveness of the sterilization procedure.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A person not infected by but unconsciously transporting harmful bacteria is called ______.
- A.
Carrier
- B.
Infectious
- C.
Immune
- D.
Pre-infected
Correct Answer
A. CarrierExplanation
A person who is not infected by harmful bacteria but unknowingly carries and spreads them to others is called a carrier. This individual acts as a reservoir for the bacteria, facilitating their transmission to susceptible individuals. Carriers may not exhibit any symptoms of the infection themselves but can still pose a significant risk to public health by inadvertently transmitting the bacteria to others.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A 12-month period that begins with the same pre-determined date each year and is selected for financial purposes is call a(n)__________.
- A.
Financial year
- B.
Fiduciary year
- C.
Accounting year
- D.
Fiscal year
Correct Answer
D. Fiscal yearExplanation
A fiscal year is a 12-month period that starts on a specific date and is chosen for financial purposes. It is commonly used for budgeting, financial reporting, and tax calculations. This term is often used by businesses, governments, and organizations to align their financial activities with the calendar year or any other predetermined date.Rate this question:
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- 39.
the position of a patient for a gynecological examination is ______.
- A.
Lithotomy
- B.
Horizontal recumbent
- C.
Prone
- D.
Sims
Correct Answer
A. LithotomyExplanation
The correct answer is lithotomy. This position is commonly used for gynecological examinations as it allows for easy access to the pelvic area. In the lithotomy position, the patient lies on their back with their legs elevated and bent at the knees, often supported by stirrups. This position provides optimal visibility and accessibility for the healthcare provider during the examination.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Removal of synovial fluid is called
- A.
Paracentesis
- B.
Arthrography
- C.
Arthrocentesis
- D.
Myelocyte
Correct Answer
C. ArthrocentesisExplanation
Arthrocentesis is the correct answer because it refers to the removal of synovial fluid from a joint using a needle and syringe. This procedure is commonly performed to diagnose and treat conditions such as joint inflammation, infection, or to relieve pain and swelling. Paracentesis is the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, arthrography is a diagnostic imaging technique using contrast dye, and myelocyte refers to a specific type of white blood cell found in bone marrow.Rate this question:
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- 41.
An internal software language used to control computer hardware is called ______.
- A.
Shareware
- B.
K2y
- C.
Operating system
- D.
OS2
Correct Answer
C. Operating systemExplanation
An operating system is an internal software language that is used to control computer hardware. It acts as an intermediary between the hardware and the software, providing a platform for applications to run and managing system resources. It enables users to interact with the computer and coordinates various tasks, such as memory management, file management, and device control.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The study of the function of cells is called _____.
- A.
Anatomy
- B.
Cytology
- C.
Histology
- D.
Physiology
Correct Answer
D. PhysiologyExplanation
Physiology is the study of the function of cells, which involves understanding how cells perform their specific tasks and processes. This field focuses on the mechanisms and processes that allow cells to carry out their functions within living organisms. Anatomy, on the other hand, is the study of the structure of cells, tissues, and organs. Cytology is the study of cells, while histology is the study of tissues. Therefore, physiology is the correct answer as it specifically deals with the function of cells.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Amoniocentesis allows physicians to ______.
- A.
Monitor irregularities of the heart
- B.
Remove duodenal ulcers
- C.
Perform genetic tests before birth
- D.
Check for gall stones
Correct Answer
C. Perform genetic tests before birthExplanation
Amniocentesis is a medical procedure that involves the removal of a small amount of amniotic fluid from the womb during pregnancy. This fluid contains fetal cells and genetic material, allowing physicians to perform genetic tests before birth. These tests can help identify any genetic abnormalities or disorders in the fetus, providing valuable information to parents and healthcare providers for appropriate medical management and counseling.Rate this question:
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- 44.
a wound in which the outer layers of the skin are scraped off is called ______.
- A.
Abrasion
- B.
Laceration
- C.
Puncture
- D.
Incision
Correct Answer
A. AbrasionExplanation
An abrasion is a type of wound where the outer layers of the skin are scraped off. It is usually caused by friction or rubbing against a rough surface. Unlike a laceration, which is a deep cut, or a puncture, which is a small hole in the skin, an abrasion is characterized by the removal of the superficial layers of the skin. An incision, on the other hand, is a deliberate cut made with a sharp object. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "abrasion".Rate this question:
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- 45.
An X-ray examination of the gall bladder following oral administration of a contrast medium is called __________.
- A.
Gastroscopy
- B.
Ultrasound
- C.
Cholecystography
- D.
Photocopy
Correct Answer
C. CholecystographyExplanation
An X-ray examination of the gall bladder following oral administration of a contrast medium is called cholecystography. This procedure involves the use of a contrast dye that is ingested orally and then absorbed by the gall bladder. The dye helps to highlight the gall bladder and any abnormalities or blockages that may be present. This technique allows for the visualization and assessment of the gall bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions such as gallstones or inflammation. Gastroscopy involves the examination of the stomach and upper digestive tract using a flexible tube with a camera, while ultrasound uses sound waves to produce images of the internal organs. Photocopy is unrelated to medical imaging procedures.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Inflammation of th eyelid is called
- A.
Diplopia
- B.
Dysmetropsia
- C.
Myopiatits
- D.
Blepharitis
Correct Answer
D. BlepharitisExplanation
Blepharitis is the inflammation of the eyelid. It is a common condition that can cause redness, itching, and swelling of the eyelids. It can also lead to crusting and flaking of the eyelashes. Diplopia refers to double vision, dysmetropsia is a visual distortion, and myopiatitis is not a recognized medical term. Therefore, the correct answer is blepharitis.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A test for non-invasive cardiac evaluation undertaken with an ECG, undercontrolled exercise stress condition is called
- A.
Cardiac cycle test
- B.
Sedentary test
- C.
Tredmill test
- D.
Holter-monitor test
Correct Answer
C. Tredmill testExplanation
The correct answer is treadmill test. A treadmill test, also known as an exercise stress test, is a non-invasive cardiac evaluation that involves monitoring the heart's activity using an ECG while the patient exercises on a treadmill. This test is performed under controlled exercise stress conditions to assess the heart's response to physical activity and detect any abnormalities or signs of heart disease.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Concerning computers, a duplicate file to protect information is called a ___________.
- A.
Back up
- B.
Default
- C.
Matrix
- D.
Batch
Correct Answer
A. Back upExplanation
A duplicate file created to protect information is commonly referred to as a "back up". Backing up files helps to ensure that important data is not lost in the event of a computer malfunction, accidental deletion, or other unforeseen circumstances. By creating a duplicate copy of the original file, users can restore their data to its previous state or retrieve specific information as needed. Backing up files is a crucial practice to prevent data loss and maintain the security and integrity of computer systems.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A number issued by the internal revenue service to medical groups or solo practice for income tax is called ____________.
- A.
Federal tax identification number
- B.
Insurance id number
- C.
Social security number
- D.
State tax number
Correct Answer
A. Federal tax identification numberExplanation
A federal tax identification number is issued by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. This number is used to identify the healthcare provider for tax reporting and filing. It is different from an insurance ID number, social security number, or state tax number, as those are used for different purposes.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The period of time after the begging of an insurance policy for which no beneifts are payable, is called ________.
- A.
Extension period
- B.
Elimination period
- C.
Time limit
- D.
Grace period
Correct Answer
D. Grace periodExplanation
A grace period is the period of time after the beginning of an insurance policy for which no benefits are payable. During this period, the policyholder is given some extra time to pay the premium without any penalty. It is a provision that allows the policyholder to maintain coverage even if the premium payment is delayed.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 29, 2011Quiz Created by
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