NCCT Quiz: Patient care Technician Certification!

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  • 1/50 Questions

    Medical ethics and medical etiquette are

    • Different
    • Almost the same
    • The same
    • Opposite
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About This Quiz


This is an NCCT Patient Care Technician Certification exam practice test. A certified patient care technician is expected to have a good understanding of how to take care of a patient until they get better. Some of their duties involve ensuring a patient's room is sanitized and taking samples when needed and correctly. This quiz will help you see how See moreready you are for the certification exam and get that job. Give it a shot!

NCCT Quiz: Patient care Technician Certification! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    "Ghost Surgery" is a

    • Term that is no longer used

    • Nurse performing most of the work for physician

    • Two surgeons performing as a team

    • Situation where the patient has consented to surgery by one physician, but without the patients knowledge or approval, another surgeon perform the surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Situation where the patient has consented to surgery by one physician, but without the patients knowledge or approval, another surgeon perform the surgery
    Explanation
    "Ghost Surgery" refers to a situation where a patient has agreed to undergo surgery performed by one physician, but without their knowledge or approval, another surgeon ends up performing the surgery instead. This can occur when the patient is unaware that a different surgeon will be involved in their procedure, which goes against their consent and understanding of the surgery.

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  • 3. 

    The most commonly known code of ethics for medical profession, written about 400 BC, is the

    • Hippocratic Oath

    • Code of Hammurabi

    • Ten Commandments

    • Pervical's Code

    Correct Answer
    A. Hippocratic Oath
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Hippocratic Oath. The Hippocratic Oath is a code of ethics that originated in ancient Greece around 400 BC. It is one of the most well-known and influential codes of ethics for the medical profession. The oath outlines principles and guidelines for physicians, emphasizing the importance of patient care, confidentiality, and professional conduct. It has been a cornerstone of medical ethics and continues to be relevant in modern healthcare practices.

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  • 4. 

    Law requires that a physician's report.

    • Income tax evasion

    • Cigarette use

    • Unwise diet

    • Child abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Child abuse
    Explanation
    The given statement implies that the law requires a physician to report cases of child abuse. Child abuse is a serious offense and can have severe consequences for the child involved. Reporting cases of child abuse is crucial in order to protect the well-being and safety of the child.

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  • 5. 

    Genetic counseling and organ transplant decisions require consideration of

    • Color of eyes

    • Religious preference

    • Quality of life for patient

    • Ethnic medical practices

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality of life for patient
    Explanation
    Genetic counseling involves discussing and assessing the risk of inherited conditions or genetic disorders in individuals or families. Considering the quality of life for the patient is essential in this context as it helps determine the potential impact of the genetic condition on the individual's overall well-being and daily functioning. Similarly, in organ transplant decisions, the quality of life for the patient plays a crucial role in evaluating the potential benefits and risks associated with the procedure. It helps determine if the transplant will significantly improve the patient's quality of life and if they are likely to have a successful recovery post-transplant.

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  • 6. 

    ________________ laws allow physicians and Patient Care Technicians to render aid at the scene of an accident without fear of lawsuits.

    • Local

    • AMA

    • Statue

    • Good Samaritan

    Correct Answer
    A. Good Samaritan
    Explanation
    Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect individuals who provide assistance in emergency situations from being sued for any harm caused during the course of their aid. These laws encourage medical professionals, such as physicians and Patient Care Technicians, to provide immediate care at the scene of an accident without fear of legal repercussions. By granting immunity, Good Samaritan laws aim to ensure that individuals receive timely and potentially life-saving medical attention in emergency situations.

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  • 7. 

    The abbreviation for eye, ear, nose, and throat is

    • Endo

    • ED

    • EENT

    • OOB

    Correct Answer
    A. EENT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EENT because it stands for eye, ear, nose, and throat. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to refer to the collective specialties that deal with these areas of the body.

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  • 8. 

    "Heme" stands for

    • Hemisphere

    • History of

    • History and physical

    • Hematology

    Correct Answer
    A. Hematology
    Explanation
    "Heme" is a shortened form of the word "hematology". Hematology is the branch of medicine that deals with the study of blood, blood-forming organs, and blood diseases. Therefore, "Heme" is an abbreviation commonly used to refer to the field of hematology.

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  • 9. 

    CBC stand for

    • Chest, back and chest

    • Complete blood count

    • Blood sugar

    • Continuity of care

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete blood count
    Explanation
    CBC stands for complete blood count, which is a common blood test that provides information about the cells in a person's blood. This test measures various components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, and provides valuable information about a person's overall health. It is often used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as anemia, infections, and blood disorders. Therefore, the correct answer is complete blood count.

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  • 10. 

    "HGB" stands for

    • An elevated temperature

    • Hemoglobin

    • Elevated blood pressure

    • Hours of sleep

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemoglobin
    Explanation
    HGB stands for hemoglobin, which is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. It is responsible for binding to oxygen in the lungs and releasing it to the tissues. Hemoglobin levels are often measured in blood tests to assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and to diagnose conditions such as anemia or polycythemia.

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  • 11. 

    AAS is the abbreviation for

    • Acute abdominal series

    • Acute respiratory failure

    • Anticonvulsant

    • Cardiac atria

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute abdominal series
    Explanation
    AAS is the abbreviation for "acute abdominal series." This refers to a series of diagnostic imaging tests, such as X-rays or CT scans, that are used to evaluate and diagnose acute abdominal conditions. These tests help to identify any abnormalities or injuries in the abdominal region, such as bowel obstructions, perforations, or organ damage. By performing an acute abdominal series, healthcare professionals can gather important information to guide further treatment and management of the patient's condition.

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  • 12. 

    "Meg" is the abbreviation for

    • Magnetic resonance imaging

    • Iron supplements

    • Microgram

    • Mastectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Microgram
    Explanation
    "Meg" is the abbreviation for microgram. A microgram is a unit of measurement in the metric system, representing one millionth of a gram. It is commonly used to measure very small amounts of substances, such as medications or nutrients.

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  • 13. 

    The cephalic vein is located in the

    • Ankle

    • Back

    • Arm

    • Neck

    Correct Answer
    A. Arm
    Explanation
    The cephalic vein is located in the arm. This vein is one of the major superficial veins in the upper limb, running along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous network of the hand, ascends along the forearm, and then passes through the deltopectoral triangle to join the axillary vein. It is commonly used for venipuncture and for creating arteriovenous fistulas in patients undergoing hemodialysis.

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  • 14. 

    The subclavian vein is located in the

    • Chest

    • Hand

    • Leg

    • Abdomen

    Correct Answer
    A. Chest
    Explanation
    The subclavian vein is located in the chest. It is a large vein that runs beneath the collarbone and is responsible for draining blood from the upper extremities, including the arms and shoulders, back to the heart. The chest is the correct location for the subclavian vein as it is in close proximity to the heart and provides an efficient route for blood return from the upper body. The veins in the hand, leg, and abdomen are not typically referred to as subclavian veins.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a chest location?

    • Intercoastal space

    • Midaxillary line

    • Anterior axillary line

    • Duodenum

    Correct Answer
    A. Duodenum
    Explanation
    The duodenum is not a chest location. The intercoastal space refers to the spaces between the ribs, the midaxillary line is an imaginary line that runs vertically down the side of the body, and the anterior axillary line is another imaginary line that runs vertically down the front of the body. However, the duodenum is a part of the small intestine and is located in the abdomen, not the chest.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is not a part of the heart?

    • Endocrine

    • Superior vena cova

    • Inferior vena cova

    • Myocardium

    Correct Answer
    A. Endocrine
    Explanation
    The endocrine system is not a part of the heart. The heart is a muscular organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body, while the endocrine system is a collection of glands that produce and secrete hormones. The superior vena cava and inferior vena cava are large veins that carry deoxygenated blood from the body back to the heart. The myocardium is the muscular tissue of the heart that contracts to pump blood.

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  • 17. 

    Oil glands are called __________ glands.

    • Perineum

    • Subaceous

    • Thyroid

    • Progesterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Subaceous
    Explanation
    Oil glands are called sebaceous glands.

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  • 18. 

    Inflammation of the stomach and intestines causing discomfort is called

    • Gastroenteritis

    • Upper GI

    • Barium flow

    • Transverse colon

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastroenteritis
    Explanation
    Gastroenteritis refers to the inflammation of the stomach and intestines, which leads to discomfort. This condition is commonly caused by viral or bacterial infections, and it typically presents with symptoms such as diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Gastroenteritis can be easily transmitted through contaminated food or water, and it is often referred to as the stomach flu or food poisoning. Treatment usually involves rest, hydration, and symptomatic relief, and most cases resolve within a few days.

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  • 19. 

    Inflammation of the large intestine is termed

    • Mellitus

    • Diabetes

    • Colitis

    • Contracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Colitis
    Explanation
    Colitis refers to the inflammation of the large intestine. It is a condition that can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. This inflammation can be caused by various factors including infections, autoimmune diseases, and inflammatory bowel diseases. Treatment for colitis depends on the underlying cause and can involve medication, dietary changes, and sometimes surgery.

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  • 20. 

    Inflammation of the nerves that cause numbness and tingling in the extremities is called

    • Neuropathy

    • Tomogaphy

    • Cyanosis

    • Dorsiflexion

    Correct Answer
    A. Neuropathy
    Explanation
    Neuropathy refers to the inflammation of the nerves that leads to numbness and tingling in the extremities. This condition can be caused by various factors such as diabetes, infections, autoimmune disorders, or exposure to toxins. The inflammation affects the normal functioning of the nerves, resulting in abnormal sensations in the affected areas. Therefore, neuropathy is the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 21. 

    Protrusion of the eyes, typically seen in persons with hyperthyroidism, is termed

    • Opathalmia

    • Exophthalmos

    • Mellitus

    • Tetany

    Correct Answer
    A. Exophthalmos
    Explanation
    Exophthalmos is the correct answer because it refers to the protrusion of the eyes, which is commonly seen in individuals with hyperthyroidism. This condition is caused by an autoimmune disorder known as Graves' disease, where the immune system mistakenly attacks the tissues surrounding the eyes. As a result, the eye muscles and fatty tissues behind the eyes become inflamed and swollen, causing the eyes to bulge forward. Exophthalmos can lead to various symptoms such as dryness, irritation, double vision, and difficulty closing the eyes completely.

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  • 22. 

    The jejunum is located in the

    • Trachea

    • Rectum

    • Intestines

    • Shoulder

    Correct Answer
    A. Intestines
    Explanation
    The jejunum is a part of the small intestine, which is responsible for the absorption of nutrients from the food we eat. It is located between the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine) and the ileum (the last part of the small intestine). The trachea is part of the respiratory system, the rectum is part of the digestive system but not where the jejunum is located, and the shoulder is a part of the musculoskeletal system. Therefore, the correct answer is intestines.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not a part of the male renal system?

    • Testis

    • Cervix

    • Urethra

    • Adrenal gland

    Correct Answer
    A. Cervix
    Explanation
    The cervix is not a part of the male renal system. The male renal system includes the testis, urethra, and adrenal gland. The cervix is a part of the female reproductive system, not the male renal system.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not a part of the female renal system?

    • Seminal vesicle

    • Ureters

    • Fallopian tube

    • Kidney

    Correct Answer
    A. Seminal vesicle
    Explanation
    The seminal vesicle is not a part of the female renal system. The female renal system includes the ureters, fallopian tubes, and kidneys. The seminal vesicle is a part of the male reproductive system and is responsible for producing and storing semen.

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  • 25. 

    Absence of urine production for a 24-hour period is called

    • Glomeruli

    • Anuria

    • Hilus

    • Micturition

    Correct Answer
    A. Anuria
    Explanation
    Anuria is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of urine production for a 24-hour period. This condition can be caused by various factors such as kidney damage, urinary tract obstruction, or dehydration. It is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of anuria as it can indicate a serious medical condition and may require immediate medical attention.

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  • 26. 

    Used needles should be placed in the

    • Trash can

    • Paper bag taped to the patient's bed

    • Sharps container

    • Dumpster

    Correct Answer
    A. Sharps container
    Explanation
    Sharps containers are specifically designed to safely dispose of used needles. They are puncture-resistant and have a secure lid to prevent accidental needle sticks. Placing used needles in a sharps container ensures proper containment and reduces the risk of injury or infection for healthcare workers, waste handlers, and the general public. Trash cans, paper bags, and dumpsters are not appropriate for disposing of used needles as they do not provide the necessary safety measures.

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  • 27. 

    When contact with bodily fluid is possible, the Patient Care Technician should wear

    • A gown

    • Gloves

    • A mask

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The Patient Care Technician should wear a gown, gloves, and a mask when there is a possibility of contact with bodily fluids. Wearing a gown helps protect the technician's clothing from getting contaminated. Gloves create a barrier between the technician's hands and the bodily fluids, reducing the risk of infection. Wearing a mask helps prevent the inhalation of any airborne particles or droplets that may be present in the environment. Therefore, wearing all of these protective measures is necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the Patient Care Technician.

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  • 28. 

    Inactive bacteria with hard shells are called

    • Carriers

    • Spores

    • Seeds

    • Burrs

    Correct Answer
    A. Spores
    Explanation
    Inactive bacteria with hard shells are called spores. Spores are a dormant form of bacteria that have a protective outer covering, allowing them to survive in harsh conditions such as extreme temperatures or lack of nutrients. These spores can remain inactive for long periods until conditions become favorable for their growth and reproduction.

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  • 29. 

    Any microbes that causes disease is a(an)

    • Antacid

    • Pathogen

    • Nonpathogenic

    • Dirge

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen refers to any microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, or fungi, that can cause disease in a host organism. These pathogens have the ability to invade and multiply within the host, leading to various illnesses and infections. Therefore, the correct answer is "pathogen" because it accurately describes any microbes that can cause disease.

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  • 30. 

    Who is known as the pioneer of medical asepsis?

    • Albert Scweiter

    • Salk

    • Nightingale

    • Mother Teresa

    Correct Answer
    A. Nightingale
    Explanation
    Florence Nightingale is known as the pioneer of medical asepsis. She revolutionized the field of nursing during the Crimean War by implementing strict hygiene practices and emphasizing the importance of cleanliness to prevent the spread of infections. Nightingale's work laid the foundation for modern infection control measures and established the concept of aseptic technique, which is crucial in preventing healthcare-associated infections. Her contributions to healthcare and nursing have made her a renowned figure in the field and earned her the title of the pioneer of medical asepsis.

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  • 31. 

    Removing germs by physical or chemical means is termed

    • Heating

    • Sterilization

    • Disinfection

    • Housecleaning

    Correct Answer
    A. Disinfection
    Explanation
    Disinfection refers to the process of removing germs from surfaces or objects by using physical or chemical means. It is different from sterilization, which completely eliminates all forms of microbial life. Disinfection is commonly used in healthcare settings, as well as in households, to reduce the risk of infection and the spread of diseases. Heating and housecleaning may help in reducing the number of germs, but they do not necessarily eliminate all pathogens. Sterilization, on the other hand, goes beyond disinfection by achieving a complete eradication of all microorganisms.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is not a method of infection transmission?

    • Vector

    • Vehicle

    • Airborne

    • Universal

    Correct Answer
    A. Universal
    Explanation
    The term "universal" does not refer to a method of infection transmission. "Vector" refers to the transmission of infection through organisms like mosquitoes or ticks. "Vehicle" refers to the transmission through inanimate objects like food or water. "Airborne" refers to the transmission through droplets or particles in the air. However, "universal" does not describe a specific method of transmission.

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  • 33. 

    Sterile liquids are used in which of the following?

    • Cleaning surgical wounds

    • Cleaning fingernails

    • Astringents

    • Facials

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleaning surgical wounds
    Explanation
    Sterile liquids are used in cleaning surgical wounds to prevent infection and promote healing. Surgical wounds are prone to bacterial contamination, and using sterile liquids helps to minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. These sterile liquids are specifically designed to be free from any bacteria or other contaminants, ensuring a safe and clean environment for wound healing.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following would indicate an immediate report to the RN?

    • Healing skin

    • Dry skin

    • Bleeding

    • Gradual changes

    Correct Answer
    A. Bleeding
    Explanation
    Bleeding would indicate an immediate report to the RN because it is a sign of an active injury or trauma that requires immediate attention. Bleeding can be a serious medical issue that may require intervention to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications. It is important to report any instances of bleeding to the registered nurse so that appropriate action can be taken to address the situation promptly.

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  • 35. 

    The temporal artery is located in the

    • Wrist

    • Head

    • Ankle

    • Leg

    Correct Answer
    A. Head
    Explanation
    The temporal artery is located in the head. This artery is a major blood vessel that is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the head and brain. It is located on the side of the head, just above the ear. The temporal artery is commonly used to measure a person's pulse and is also a common site for taking a person's temperature using a temporal artery thermometer.

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  • 36. 

    The carotid artery is located in the

    • Back

    • Heart

    • Neck

    • Face

    Correct Answer
    A. Neck
    Explanation
    The carotid artery is located in the neck. This artery is one of the major blood vessels in the body and is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the brain. It runs along the side of the neck, on either side, and can be felt pulsating when touched. The carotid artery is important for maintaining proper blood flow to the brain, and any blockage or damage to this artery can have serious consequences, such as stroke or brain damage.

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  • 37. 

    The common lay for the clavicle is the

    • Collarbone

    • Shin bone

    • Achilles heel

    • Elbow

    Correct Answer
    A. Collarbone
    Explanation
    The clavicle is commonly known as the collarbone. It is a long bone that connects the shoulder blade to the breastbone. It is easily visible and palpable on the front of the body, forming a prominent ridge. The clavicle is an important bone as it helps to support the shoulder and allows for the movement of the upper limb. Therefore, the correct answer is collarbone.

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  • 38. 

    Which term is not an aspect of the spine?

    • Flexor pollicis

    • Cervical curve

    • Thoracic curve

    • Lumbar curve

    Correct Answer
    A. Flexor pollicis
    Explanation
    The term "flexor pollicis" is not an aspect of the spine. The other options, cervical curve, thoracic curve, and lumbar curve, all refer to different natural curves of the spine. The cervical curve is the curve in the neck region, the thoracic curve is the curve in the upper back region, and the lumbar curve is the curve in the lower back region. However, the flexor pollicis is a muscle in the hand that is responsible for flexing the thumb, and it is not directly related to the spine.

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  • 39. 

    The zygomatic and sternocleidomastoid muscle are located at the

    • Lower back

    • Abdomen

    • Appendix

    • Head

    Correct Answer
    A. Head
    Explanation
    The zygomatic and sternocleidomastoid muscles are located in the head. The zygomatic muscle is responsible for controlling facial expressions, particularly the movement of the cheeks and lips. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is a large muscle in the neck that allows for rotation and flexion of the head. Both muscles play important roles in the movement and function of the head and face.

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  • 40. 

    The deltoid muscle is at the

    • Shoulder

    • Base of the spine

    • Sternum

    • Elbow

    Correct Answer
    A. Shoulder
    Explanation
    The deltoid muscle is located at the shoulder. It is a large, triangular muscle that covers the shoulder joint and is responsible for the abduction, flexion, and extension of the arm. It gives the shoulder its rounded appearance and is important for shoulder stability and movement.

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  • 41. 

    The masseter muscle is located at the

    • Gluteus maximus

    • Cheek

    • Back of the leg

    • Underarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Cheek
    Explanation
    The masseter muscle is located at the cheek. This muscle is one of the main muscles responsible for chewing and is situated on each side of the face, connecting the lower jawbone to the cheekbone. It is the strongest muscle in the human body and plays a crucial role in the process of mastication.

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  • 42. 

    The liver lies above the

    • Pulmonary artery

    • Renal vein

    • Femoral artery

    • Subclavian vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal vein
    Explanation
    The liver lies above the renal vein. The renal vein is a blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the kidneys back to the heart. The liver is located in the upper right side of the abdomen and is positioned above the renal veins. This anatomical arrangement allows the liver to receive blood from the kidneys and process it before it is returned to the heart.

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  • 43. 

    The epiglottis lies at the rear of the

    • Clavicle

    • Mouth

    • Thalamus

    • Deltoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Mouth
    Explanation
    The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that is located at the rear of the mouth. Its main function is to prevent food or liquid from entering the windpipe during swallowing. When we swallow, the epiglottis closes over the opening of the windpipe, directing the food or liquid down the esophagus and into the stomach. Therefore, the correct answer is "mouth" because the epiglottis is found in this anatomical structure.

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  • 44. 

    Sensors and electrodes are

    • Identical

    • Similar

    • Different

    • Dissimiliar

    Correct Answer
    A. Identical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "identical" because sensors and electrodes refer to the same thing. They are both used to detect and measure electrical signals or physical phenomena. Therefore, they are not similar, different, or dissimilar, but rather the same or identical.

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  • 45. 

    Lead placement includes

    • Ankle placement

    • Shin placement

    • Limbs and chest leads

    • Head leads

    Correct Answer
    A. Limbs and chest leads
    Explanation
    Lead placement refers to the positioning of electrodes or sensors on the body to record electrical activity. In this case, the correct answer is limbs and chest leads. Limbs leads are placed on the arms and legs to measure the electrical signals of the heart from different angles. Chest leads, on the other hand, are placed on the chest to provide a more comprehensive view of the heart's electrical activity. By using both limbs and chest leads, healthcare professionals can obtain a more accurate and complete picture of the heart's functioning.

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  • 46. 

    When working with color-coded vacuum tubes, ____________ is important.

    • Temperature

    • Mixing

    • Sequence

    • Manner

    Correct Answer
    A. Sequence
    Explanation
    When working with color-coded vacuum tubes, sequence is important. This means that the order in which the tubes are used or arranged is significant. The color coding of the tubes may indicate specific functions or characteristics, and following a specific sequence ensures that the tubes are used correctly and in the desired order. This helps to ensure proper functioning and accuracy in whatever process or system the vacuum tubes are being used for.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is not a type of venipuncture?

    • Vacuum tube method

    • Butterfly needle method

    • Needle-syringe method

    • Sheild method

    Correct Answer
    A. Sheild method
    Explanation
    The shield method is not a type of venipuncture. Venipuncture refers to the process of puncturing a vein to draw blood or administer medication. The vacuum tube method, butterfly needle method, and needle-syringe method are all commonly used techniques in venipuncture. However, the shield method is not a recognized or commonly used method in venipuncture procedures.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is usually the first choice for a blood draw?

    • Median cubital and cephalic vein

    • Dorsal metacarpal veins

    • Dorsal plexus

    • Subclavian vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Median cubital and cephalic vein
    Explanation
    The median cubital and cephalic veins are usually the first choice for a blood draw because they are large, easily accessible, and located close to the surface of the skin. These veins are commonly used for venipuncture procedures as they provide a good flow of blood and minimize the risk of complications such as nerve damage or hematoma formation. The dorsal metacarpal veins, dorsal plexus, and subclavian vein are not typically preferred for blood draws due to their smaller size, deeper location, or increased risk of complications.

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  • 49. 

    Another term for venipuncture is

    • Hematology

    • Phlebotomy

    • Labotomy

    • Blood glucose monitoring

    Correct Answer
    A. Phlebotomy
    Explanation
    Phlebotomy is the correct answer because it refers to the procedure of puncturing a vein to draw blood for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. It is commonly known as venipuncture in medical terminology. Hematology is the study of blood and its disorders, not the procedure of drawing blood. Labotomy is not a medical term and blood glucose monitoring specifically refers to the measurement of blood sugar levels, not the procedure of drawing blood.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 09, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Kkrystll2006

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