NCCT: Medical Assistant Practice Quiz! Test

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NCCT: Medical Assistant Practice Quiz! Test - Quiz


If you are preparing for the NCCT Medical Assistant exam, you have come to the right place for practice. A medical assistant is given the duty of ensuring all patient information is up to date by performing administrative and clinical tasks. As you sit for the exam, do you think you can accurately examine a patient if correctly prescribed medication refills? Do take up this quiz and see if you know enough about what is expected of you as a medical assistant.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) _________.

    • A.

      Reorder point

    • B.

      Inventory control log

    • C.

      Order quanity

    • D.

      All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    D. All answers are correct
    Explanation
    The medical assistant should establish all of the options provided in order to ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs. A reorder point is important to determine when to place an order for more supplies. An inventory control log helps to track the current inventory levels and monitor usage. The order quantity is necessary to determine how much of each supply should be ordered. Therefore, all of the answers are correct in establishing a system for maintaining the necessary supplies in the medical office.

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  • 2. 

    A(n)_________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the number of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

    • A.

      Inventory Control Log

    • B.

      Packing slip

    • C.

      Purchase order

    • D.

      Invoice

    Correct Answer
    C. Purchase order
    Explanation
    A purchase order is created to track the details of a transaction between a vendor and a medical practice. It includes the name, address, and phone number of both parties, as well as a pre-assigned order number. The purchase order also records the number of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date of purchase. This document helps maintain accurate records of purchases and facilitates effective inventory control.

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  • 3. 

    Periodically the medical assistant should check all equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) _________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

    • A.

      Inventory control log

    • B.

      Maintenance log

    • C.

      Quality control log

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance log
    Explanation
    A maintenance log will help the medical assistant track the routine inspection of the equipment in the office. This log will allow them to record and keep track of when the equipment was last checked, any repairs or maintenance that was done, and ensure that all cords are in good condition and do not present any hazards. It helps in maintaining the equipment and ensuring that it is in good working order, reducing the risk of any accidents or malfunctions.

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  • 4. 

    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a ________.

    • A.

      Transcriptionist

    • B.

      Stenographer

    • C.

      Decoder

    • D.

      Receptionist

    Correct Answer
    A. Transcriptionist
    Explanation
    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist. A transcriptionist is responsible for listening to recorded or dictated information and converting it into written form. In this scenario, the medical assistant is tasked with transcribing the physician's dictation into a typed operative report.

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  • 5. 

    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as _______ review.

    • A.

      Procedure

    • B.

      Admissions

    • C.

      Cost

    • D.

      Transfer

    Correct Answer
    B. Admissions
    Explanation
    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as admissions review. This process involves evaluating the patient's condition and determining if hospitalization is necessary and appropriate. Peer Review Organizations play a crucial role in ensuring that patients receive the appropriate level of care and that healthcare resources are used efficiently.

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  • 6. 

    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

    • A.

      Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • B.

      Treating a 16-year-old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • C.

      The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • D.

      Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

    Correct Answer
    C. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
    Explanation
    The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a decision based upon bioethics because it involves ethical considerations regarding the use of human fetal tissue for scientific purposes. Bioethics is a field that deals with ethical issues in healthcare, medicine, and biological research. The use of fetal tissue raises questions about the rights and dignity of the fetus, the potential benefits and risks of the research, and the ethical implications of using human tissue for experimentation.

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  • 7. 

    A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the following?

    • A.

      Gunshot wound

    • B.

      Anorexia

    • C.

      Drug addiction

    • D.

      Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunshot wound
    Explanation
    A physician is required to have a patient's written permission to disclose any confidential information, except in the case of a gunshot wound. This exception exists because gunshot wounds are considered a public health concern and reporting them is necessary for public safety reasons. The other options, such as anorexia, drug addiction, and pregnancy, are all confidential medical information that would require the patient's permission to disclose.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information?

    • A.

      OSHA

    • B.

      CLIA

    • C.

      CMS

    • D.

      HIPAA

    Correct Answer
    D. HIPAA
    Explanation
    HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a federal regulation that mandates health care professionals to safeguard the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It establishes guidelines and standards for the protection of sensitive medical data, ensuring that it is only accessed and disclosed by authorized individuals for legitimate purposes. HIPAA also grants patients certain rights regarding their health information, such as the right to access and request amendments to their records. This regulation plays a crucial role in maintaining patient confidentiality and promoting trust in the healthcare system.

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  • 9. 

    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines _______.

    • A.

      Right justified

    • B.

      Indented 5 spaces

    • C.

      Equally spaced vertically

    • D.

      At the left hand margin

    Correct Answer
    D. At the left hand margin
    Explanation
    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines aligned at the left-hand margin. This means that each line of the letter will start at the same position on the left side of the page, creating a clean and professional appearance. This format is commonly used in business correspondence as it provides a clear and organized layout for the content of the letter.

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  • 10. 

    When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?

    • A.

      Comma

    • B.

      Semicolon

    • C.

      Asterisk

    • D.

      Colon

    Correct Answer
    D. Colon
    Explanation
    When writing a business letter, the salutation is followed by a colon. This is because a colon is used to introduce a formal statement or list, which is often the case in a business letter. The colon helps to indicate that the body of the letter is about to begin and sets a formal tone for the rest of the correspondence.

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  • 11. 

    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

    • A.

      If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level, and she/he will calm down

    • B.

      Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes

    • C.

      Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes
    Explanation
    When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This approach shows empathy and respect towards the patient, acknowledging their concerns and ensuring that their complaint is properly documented. It also helps in addressing the issue effectively, as the notes can be referred to later for appropriate actions or follow-ups. Refusing to talk to complaining patients or matching their anger level may escalate the situation and hinder effective resolution. Therefore, taking complaints seriously and maintaining detailed records is the most appropriate approach.

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  • 12. 

    Body language, body posture, space and distance are all examples of _______.

    • A.

      Non-Verbal communication

    • B.

      Verbal communication

    • C.

      Written communcation

    • D.

      All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-Verbal communication
    Explanation
    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of non-verbal communication. Non-verbal communication refers to the transmission of messages through non-verbal cues such as facial expressions, gestures, and body movements. These cues can convey emotions, attitudes, and intentions without the use of words. Therefore, non-verbal communication plays a crucial role in interpersonal interactions and can often convey more meaning than verbal communication alone.

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  • 13. 

    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

    • A.

      Erase the entry and write in the new appointment

    • B.

      Put "white-out" over the entry and write on top

    • C.

      Scribble out the entry and indicate your initals

    • D.

      Mark through the entry with a single red line

    Correct Answer
    D. Mark through the entry with a single red line
    Explanation
    When canceling an appointment in the appointment book, the suggested procedure is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This is a common practice to indicate that the appointment has been canceled. It helps to easily identify canceled appointments and keep the appointment book organized. Erasing the entry and writing in a new appointment, putting "white-out" over the entry, or scribbling out the entry and indicating initials are not recommended as they can create confusion and make the appointment book messy.

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  • 14. 

    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the _________.

    • A.

      Covered amount

    • B.

      Deductible

    • C.

      Explanation of benefits

    • D.

      Co-pay

    Correct Answer
    B. Deductible
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Deductible." In insurance terms, a deductible refers to the amount that an insured patient needs to pay out of pocket before their insurance company starts covering the costs of medical treatment. This amount is usually set annually and varies depending on the insurance plan. Once the deductible is met, the insurance company will then begin to pay for the covered medical expenses.

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  • 15. 

    Instructions to an insurance company about where and to whom to make payment are called _________.

    • A.

      Payment agreements

    • B.

      Assignment of benefits

    • C.

      Benefit accommodations

    • D.

      Assignment of payments

    Correct Answer
    B. Assignment of benefits
    Explanation
    Assignment of benefits refers to the instructions given to an insurance company regarding the recipient and location of payment. It is a legal arrangement where the policyholder transfers their right to receive insurance benefits to another party, such as a healthcare provider. This allows the provider to directly receive payment from the insurance company for services rendered.

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  • 16. 

    The Internal Revenure Service issues a(n) ____________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

    • A.

      Social Security number

    • B.

      Federal tax identification number

    • C.

      State tax number

    • D.

      Insurance ID number

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal tax identification number
    Explanation
    The Internal Revenue Service issues a federal tax identification number to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. This number is used to identify the business entity for tax reporting and filing. It is different from an individual's Social Security number and is specific to the business or organization. The federal tax identification number is necessary for medical groups or solo practices to accurately report their income and fulfill their tax obligations.

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  • 17. 

    An office appointment calender or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment but also indicate the __________.

    • A.

      Duration of the appointment

    • B.

      Relationship to the patient

    • C.

      Social Security number of the patient

    • D.

      Insurance provider's contact information

    Correct Answer
    A. Duration of the appointment
    Explanation
    When managing an office appointment calendar or book, it is essential to record the duration of each appointment. This information helps in scheduling appointments efficiently and effectively, ensuring that enough time is allocated for each patient. It also allows the staff to plan their workflow and manage the overall schedule of the office. By including the duration of the appointment, the office can provide better service to patients and avoid any scheduling conflicts or delays.

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  • 18. 

    A twelve-month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) ______ year.

    • A.

      Fiscal

    • B.

      Financial

    • C.

      Fiduciary

    • D.

      Accounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal
    Explanation
    A twelve-month period selected for financial purposes is called a fiscal year. This term is commonly used in accounting and finance to refer to the annual period that a company or organization uses for financial reporting and budgeting. It is important to note that a fiscal year does not necessarily align with the calendar year and can begin on any date.

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  • 19. 

    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a(n) ________ registration number.

    • A.

      DEA

    • B.

      EPA

    • C.

      FDA

    • D.

      CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA
    Explanation
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is a federal agency responsible for enforcing controlled substances laws and regulations. The DEA registration number is a unique identifier assigned to healthcare providers who are authorized to prescribe controlled substances. This number ensures accountability and helps prevent the misuse and diversion of controlled substances.

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  • 20. 

    Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient's insurance policy contract involves a process known as ________.

    • A.

      Pre-certification

    • B.

      Pre-authorization

    • C.

      Pre-determination

    • D.

      Pre-existing

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-certification
    Explanation
    Determining whether a particular medical treatment will be covered under a patient's insurance policy contract involves a process known as pre-certification. This process involves contacting the insurance company before the treatment to verify coverage and ensure that the treatment is medically necessary. It helps both the patient and the healthcare provider to understand what will be covered by the insurance and what costs the patient may be responsible for. Pre-certification is an important step in the healthcare process to avoid unexpected expenses and ensure that the patient receives the necessary treatment without financial burden.

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  • 21. 

    In the reception area of medical practice, the computer screen must never be ___________.

    • A.

      Facing the filing cabinets

    • B.

      Able to be viewed by patients

    • C.

      Turned on

    • D.

      Viewed by medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    B. Able to be viewed by patients
    Explanation
    The computer screen in the reception area of a medical practice should never be able to be viewed by patients. This is important for maintaining patient privacy and confidentiality. Allowing patients to view the computer screen could potentially expose sensitive information, such as medical records or personal details, which should only be accessible to authorized medical personnel.

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  • 22. 

    The temperature taken at the armpit is the ___________.

    • A.

      Lymphatic

    • B.

      Axillary

    • C.

      Deltoid

    • D.

      Delta

    Correct Answer
    B. Axillary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Axillary. The temperature taken at the armpit is known as axillary temperature. This method is commonly used in clinics and hospitals to measure body temperature. The axillary temperature is considered less accurate than oral or rectal temperature measurements, but it is a convenient and non-invasive method, especially for infants and young children.

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  • 23. 

    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

    • A.

      Open

    • B.

      Spiral

    • C.

      Greenstick

    • D.

      Closed

    Correct Answer
    D. Closed
    Explanation
    A break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site is called a closed fracture. In this type of fracture, the bone breaks but remains within the skin, without any visible wound or opening. The term "closed" refers to the fact that the fracture does not expose the bone to the external environment. Closed fractures are typically caused by direct trauma or excessive force applied to the bone, resulting in a break without any associated skin injury.

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  • 24. 

    The abbreviation for as needed is _________.

    • A.

      Prn

    • B.

      Ppn

    • C.

      An

    • D.

      Add

    Correct Answer
    A. Prn
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "prn" because it is the commonly used abbreviation for "as needed." This abbreviation is often used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken only when necessary, rather than on a regular schedule.

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  • 25. 

    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is ________.

    • A.

      NPO

    • B.

      NBM

    • C.

      NM

    • D.

      Nom

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "nothing by mouth" is NPO. This term is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink. It is important to follow this instruction in certain situations, such as before surgery or certain medical procedures, to ensure the patient's safety and avoid complications.

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  • 26. 

    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

    • A.

      Insulin syringe

    • B.

      Tuberculin syringe

    • C.

      Hypodermic syringe

    • D.

      A closed injection system

    Correct Answer
    B. Tuberculin syringe
    Explanation
    A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection. This is because a tuberculin syringe is specifically designed for delivering small volumes of medication into the dermis layer of the skin. It has a small, fine needle and a calibrated barrel that allows for precise measurement of the medication. Insulin syringes are designed for subcutaneous injections, hypodermic syringes are used for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections, and a closed injection system is not specifically designed for intradermal injections. Therefore, the tuberculin syringe is the most appropriate choice for this type of injection.

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  • 27. 

    When you have finished using a reagent, you should ________.

    • A.

      Refrigerate it for furture use

    • B.

      Pour it back in the bottle

    • C.

      Discard it

    • D.

      Incubte it

    Correct Answer
    C. Discard it
    Explanation
    When you have finished using a reagent, it is important to discard it. This is because reagents can become contaminated or degraded after use, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of future experiments. Additionally, some reagents may have specific disposal requirements due to their potentially hazardous nature. Therefore, it is best practice to properly dispose of used reagents to ensure the safety and integrity of future experiments.

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  • 28. 

    When you make a solution, be sure you label and _________.

    • A.

      Date it

    • B.

      Store it

    • C.

      Freeze it

    • D.

      Color it

    Correct Answer
    A. Date it
    Explanation
    The correct answer for this question is "Date it". When making a solution, it is important to label and date it so that it can be easily identified and tracked. This helps in ensuring the solution's freshness and allows for easy reference in case any issues arise.

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  • 29. 

    A drug that causes urination is called a _______.

    • A.

      Diuretic

    • B.

      Hypertensive

    • C.

      Gestational Drug

    • D.

      Narcotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretic
    Explanation
    A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics work by increasing the production of urine, which helps to remove excess fluid and salt from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, heart failure, and kidney disorders. By increasing urine output, diuretics help to reduce fluid buildup in the body and promote the elimination of waste products.

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  • 30. 

    A drug used to control temperature is called an _______.

    • A.

      Antipyretic

    • B.

      Antidote

    • C.

      Antiemetic

    • D.

      Analgesic

    Correct Answer
    A. Antipyretic
    Explanation
    An antipyretic is a drug used to control or reduce fever. It works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are chemicals in the body that cause fever and inflammation. By reducing fever, antipyretics help to alleviate symptoms associated with high body temperature, such as discomfort and headaches. They are commonly used to treat fevers caused by infections or other medical conditions. Therefore, the correct answer for the given question is antipyretic.

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  • 31. 

    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Suppressant

    • B.

      Decongestant

    • C.

      Antihistamine

    • D.

      Bronchodilator

    Correct Answer
    B. Decongestant
    Explanation
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by narrowing the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. They help to relieve symptoms of a blocked or stuffy nose, allowing for easier breathing. This type of medication is commonly used to treat nasal congestion caused by allergies, colds, or sinus infections.

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  • 32. 

    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n)__________.

    • A.

      Miotic

    • B.

      Diuretic

    • C.

      Cytotoxin

    • D.

      Expectorant

    Correct Answer
    D. Expectorant
    Explanation
    An expectorant is a drug that helps to increase cough output. It works by loosening and thinning mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up and clear the lungs. This can be beneficial for individuals who have excessive mucus production or are experiencing congestion due to respiratory conditions such as bronchitis or the common cold. By promoting coughing, expectorants help to remove mucus and irritants from the respiratory system, providing relief and facilitating better breathing.

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  • 33. 

    A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n)________.

    • A.

      Solution

    • B.

      Emulsion

    • C.

      Elixir

    • D.

      Tincture

    Correct Answer
    B. Emulsion
    Explanation
    An emulsion is a liquid preparation that consists of fine droplets of one immiscible liquid (in this case, oil) dispersed in another liquid (in this case, water). Castor oil, being an oil that can mix with water to form small droplets, fits the description of an emulsion. Therefore, the correct answer is Emulsion.

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  • 34. 

    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

    • A.

      Narcotic overdose

    • B.

      Inflammation

    • C.

      Angina Pectoris

    • D.

      Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    C. Angina Pectoris
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of Angina Pectoris. Angina Pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscles. Nitroglycerine works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, thereby increasing blood flow to the heart and relieving the symptoms of angina. It is commonly used as a medication to provide immediate relief during angina attacks.

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  • 35. 

    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress_________.

    • A.

      Inflammation

    • B.

      Appetite

    • C.

      Swelling

    • D.

      Excretion of urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Hydrocortisone is a drug known as a corticosteroid, which is commonly used to suppress inflammation in the body. Inflammation is a natural response of the immune system to injury or infection, characterized by redness, swelling, pain, and heat in the affected area. By suppressing inflammation, hydrocortisone can help reduce these symptoms and provide relief. It does not directly affect appetite, swelling, or the excretion of urine.

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  • 36. 

    Schedule I drugs include __________.

    • A.

      Micellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • B.

      Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • C.

      Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
    Explanation
    Schedule I drugs are substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have severe restrictions on their production, distribution, and use. They are classified as Schedule I to indicate that they are not approved for medical use and are highly prone to abuse and addiction. This classification helps to regulate and control these substances to protect public health and safety.

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  • 37. 

    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called _________.

    • A.

      Cystitis

    • B.

      Urethral Stricture

    • C.

      Chronic Renal Failure

    • D.

      Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    B. Urethral Stricture
    Explanation
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called urethral stricture. This condition occurs when scar tissue forms in the urethra, leading to a decrease in the diameter of the urethral opening. This can result in difficulty urinating, a weak urine stream, frequent urination, and urinary tract infections. Treatment options for urethral stricture may include medication, dilation, or surgery to remove or repair the scar tissue.

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  • 38. 

    A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called ________.

    • A.

      High Blood Pressure

    • B.

      Type 1 diabetes

    • C.

      Pancreatitis

    • D.

      Type 2 diabetes

    Correct Answer
    B. Type 1 diabetes
    Explanation
    Type 1 diabetes is a chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. In type 1 diabetes, the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. This leads to a lack of insulin in the body, causing high blood sugar levels. Unlike type 2 diabetes, which is often associated with lifestyle factors, type 1 diabetes is typically diagnosed in childhood or adolescence and is not preventable. Treatment for type 1 diabetes involves regular insulin injections or the use of an insulin pump.

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  • 39. 

    The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called _________.

    • A.

      Enema

    • B.

      Colostomy

    • C.

      Constipation

    • D.

      Peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    D. Peristalsis
    Explanation
    Peristalsis refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the intestines, which helps to move food and waste through the digestive system. This process allows for the efficient absorption of nutrients and elimination of waste. Enema, colostomy, and constipation are not terms that specifically describe the alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles.

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  • 40. 

    Where is the Temporal part of the body?

    • A.

      Hips

    • B.

      Head

    • C.

      Arm

    • D.

      Back

    Correct Answer
    B. Head
    Explanation
    The temporal part of the body refers to the region of the head where the temples are located. The temples are the flat, tender areas on the sides of the head, just above the ears. They are located in close proximity to the eyes and the ears. The temporal part of the body is important as it contains various structures such as the temporal bone, the temporal muscle, and the temporal artery.

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  • 41. 

    Where is the Scapula part of the body?

    • A.

      Wrist

    • B.

      Shoulder Blade

    • C.

      Knee

    • D.

      Hips

    Correct Answer
    B. Shoulder Blade
    Explanation
    The scapula is a large triangular bone located on the upper back, commonly known as the shoulder blade. It connects the upper arm bone (humerus) with the collarbone (clavicle) and forms part of the shoulder joint. The scapula plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder, allowing for the attachment of various muscles that control arm movement.

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  • 42. 

    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ________.

    • A.

      R wave

    • B.

      T wave

    • C.

      Q wave

    • D.

      S wave

    Correct Answer
    C. Q wave
    Explanation
    A downward or negative wave following the P wave in an electrocardiogram is known as the Q wave. The Q wave represents the initial depolarization of the ventricles in the heart. It is typically small and narrow in healthy individuals, but can be enlarged or widened in certain heart conditions.

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  • 43. 

    A microorganism that rarely causes the disease is called a ________.

    • A.

      Non-pathogen

    • B.

      Spore

    • C.

      Flora

    • D.

      Pathogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-pathogen
    Explanation
    A microorganism that rarely causes the disease is called a non-pathogen. This term refers to a microorganism that does not typically cause harm or illness in humans or other organisms. Non-pathogens are often found in the environment and can even be beneficial, such as the normal flora that naturally inhabit our bodies and help protect against harmful pathogens.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following statements is false about blood draw?

    • A.

      Both venipuncture and microsampling invovle skill

    • B.

      It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger

    • C.

      Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect

    • D.

      "Getting Blood" is not the only goal of good blood drawing

    Correct Answer
    B. It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger
    Explanation
    The statement "It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger" is false because the direction in which a finger is lanced can affect the blood flow and the success of the blood draw. It is important to lance the finger in the correct direction to ensure an adequate sample is obtained.

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  • 45. 

    A centrifuge works by _________.

    • A.

      Freezing blood specimens

    • B.

      Heating blood specimens

    • C.

      Incubating blood at body temp

    • D.

      Separating cells and serum

    Correct Answer
    D. Separating cells and serum
    Explanation
    A centrifuge works by separating cells and serum. This is achieved by spinning the blood specimens at high speeds, causing the denser cells to settle at the bottom of the tube while the less dense serum rises to the top. This process is known as centrifugation and is commonly used in medical and scientific laboratories to separate different components of a sample for further analysis or testing.

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  • 46. 

    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS has the same configuration each time they appear is called _______.

    • A.

      Uniform

    • B.

      Malignant

    • C.

      Fused

    • D.

      Bigeminy

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform
    Explanation
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) is an abnormal heart rhythm that occurs when the ventricles contract earlier than expected. In a uniform PVC, the QRS complex (a measurement on an electrocardiogram) has the same configuration each time it appears. This indicates that the abnormal contraction originates from the same location in the ventricles.

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  • 47. 

    On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the ________.

    • A.

      Start

    • B.

      Amplitude

    • C.

      Gain

    • D.

      B or C

    Correct Answer
    D. B or C
    Explanation
    The sensitivity switch on an ECG machine controls either the amplitude or the gain. The amplitude refers to the height of the ECG waveform, while the gain determines the sensitivity of the machine to detect and display small changes in the electrical activity of the heart. Adjusting the sensitivity switch allows the user to either amplify or attenuate the ECG signal, making it easier to analyze and interpret the data.

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  • 48. 

    The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude of the force, and the other is ____________.

    • A.

      Defibrillation

    • B.

      Shock Treatment

    • C.

      V Tach

    • D.

      Scintillation

    Correct Answer
    A. Defibrillation
    Explanation
    The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude of the force, and the other is defibrillation. Defibrillation is a medical procedure used to restore the normal rhythm of the heart by delivering an electrical shock to the heart. It is used to treat life-threatening conditions such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, in the context of the given question, defibrillation is the correct answer as it represents the second component of the electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization.

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  • 49. 

    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____ the first drop.

    • A.

      Collect

    • B.

      Use

    • C.

      Wipe away

    • D.

      Wash off

    Correct Answer
    C. Wipe away
    Explanation
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is recommended to wipe away the first drop of blood. This is because the first drop may contain tissue fluid or contaminants from the skin's surface, which can interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample. By wiping away the first drop, a cleaner and more representative sample can be obtained for the blood smear.

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  • 50. 

    When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading it is called ________.

    • A.

      Irregular with a pattern

    • B.

      Absolutely regular

    • C.

      Essentially regular

    • D.

      Totally irregular

    Correct Answer
    B. Absolutely regular
    Explanation
    When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading, it is called "absolutely regular" because the R-R intervals refer to the time between consecutive R waves, which represent the ventricular depolarization. In a normal ECG reading, there should be slight variations in these intervals, indicating a regular but not completely constant rhythm. However, when there is no variation, it suggests that the heart is beating with a constant and predictable pattern, hence the term "absolutely regular."

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 24, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Nikkiloo11
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