NCCT: Medical Assistant Practice Quiz! Test

58 Questions | Total Attempts: 6140

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NCCT Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) _________.
    • A. 

      Reorder point

    • B. 

      Inventory control log

    • C. 

      Order quanity

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 2. 
    A(n)_________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the number of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.
    • A. 

      Inventory Control Log

    • B. 

      Packing slip

    • C. 

      Purchase order

    • D. 

      Invoice

  • 3. 
    Periodically the medical assistant should check all equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) _________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.
    • A. 

      Inventory control log

    • B. 

      Maintenance log

    • C. 

      Quality control log

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 4. 
    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a ________.
    • A. 

      Transcriptionist

    • B. 

      Stenographer

    • C. 

      Decoder

    • D. 

      Receptionist

  • 5. 
    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as _______ review.
    • A. 

      Procedure

    • B. 

      Admissions

    • C. 

      Cost

    • D. 

      Transfer

  • 6. 
    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?
    • A. 

      Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • B. 

      Treating a 16-year-old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • C. 

      The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • D. 

      Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

  • 7. 
    A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Gunshot wound

    • B. 

      Anorexia

    • C. 

      Drug addiction

    • D. 

      Pregnancy

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information?
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      CLIA

    • C. 

      CMS

    • D. 

      HIPAA

  • 9. 
    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines _______.
    • A. 

      Right justified

    • B. 

      Indented 5 spaces

    • C. 

      Equally spaced vertically

    • D. 

      At the left hand margin

  • 10. 
    When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?
    • A. 

      Comma

    • B. 

      Semicolon

    • C. 

      Asterisk

    • D. 

      Colon

  • 11. 
    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?
    • A. 

      If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level, and she/he will calm down

    • B. 

      Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes

    • C. 

      Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 12. 
    Body language, body posture, space and distance are all examples of _______.
    • A. 

      Non-Verbal communication

    • B. 

      Verbal communication

    • C. 

      Written communcation

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 13. 
    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?
    • A. 

      Erase the entry and write in the new appointment

    • B. 

      Put "white-out" over the entry and write on top

    • C. 

      Scribble out the entry and indicate your initals

    • D. 

      Mark through the entry with a single red line

  • 14. 
    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the _________.
    • A. 

      Covered amount

    • B. 

      Deductible

    • C. 

      Explanation of benefits

    • D. 

      Co-pay

  • 15. 
    Instructions to an insurance company about where and to whom to make payment are called _________.
    • A. 

      Payment agreements

    • B. 

      Assignment of benefits

    • C. 

      Benefit accommodations

    • D. 

      Assignment of payments

  • 16. 
    The Internal Revenure Service issues a(n) ____________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.
    • A. 

      Social Security number

    • B. 

      Federal tax identification number

    • C. 

      State tax number

    • D. 

      Insurance ID number

  • 17. 
    An office appointment calender or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment but also indicate the __________.
    • A. 

      Duration of the appointment

    • B. 

      Relationship to the patient

    • C. 

      Social Security number of the patient

    • D. 

      Insurance provider's contact information

  • 18. 
    A twelve-month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) ______ year.
    • A. 

      Fiscal

    • B. 

      Financial

    • C. 

      Fiduciary

    • D. 

      Accounting

  • 19. 
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a(n) ________ registration number.
    • A. 

      DEA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      CDC

  • 20. 
    Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient's insurance policy contract involves a process known as ________.
    • A. 

      Pre-certification

    • B. 

      Pre-authorization

    • C. 

      Pre-determination

    • D. 

      Pre-existing

  • 21. 
    In the reception area of medical practice, the computer screen must never be ___________.
    • A. 

      Facing the filing cabinets

    • B. 

      Able to be viewed by patients

    • C. 

      Turned on

    • D. 

      Viewed by medical personnel

  • 22. 
    The temperature taken at the armpit is the ___________.
    • A. 

      Lymphatic

    • B. 

      Axillary

    • C. 

      Deltoid

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 23. 
    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?
    • A. 

      Open

    • B. 

      Spiral

    • C. 

      Greenstick

    • D. 

      Closed

  • 24. 
    The abbreviation for as needed is _________.
    • A. 

      Prn

    • B. 

      Ppn

    • C. 

      An

    • D. 

      Add

  • 25. 
    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is ________.
    • A. 

      NPO

    • B. 

      NBM

    • C. 

      NM

    • D. 

      Nom

  • 26. 
    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?
    • A. 

      Insulin syringe

    • B. 

      Tuberculin syringe

    • C. 

      Hypodermic syringe

    • D. 

      A closed injection system

  • 27. 
    When you have finished using a reagent, you should ________.
    • A. 

      Refrigerate it for furture use

    • B. 

      Pour it back in the bottle

    • C. 

      Discard it

    • D. 

      Incubte it

  • 28. 
    When you make a solution, be sure you label and _________.
    • A. 

      Date it

    • B. 

      Store it

    • C. 

      Freeze it

    • D. 

      Color it

  • 29. 
    A drug that causes urination is called a _______.
    • A. 

      Diuretic

    • B. 

      Hypertensive

    • C. 

      Gestational Drug

    • D. 

      Narcotic

  • 30. 
    A drug used to control temperature is called an _______.
    • A. 

      Antipyretic

    • B. 

      Antidote

    • C. 

      Antiemetic

    • D. 

      Analgesic

  • 31. 
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Suppressant

    • B. 

      Decongestant

    • C. 

      Antihistamine

    • D. 

      Bronchodilator

  • 32. 
    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n)__________.
    • A. 

      Miotic

    • B. 

      Diuretic

    • C. 

      Cytotoxin

    • D. 

      Expectorant

  • 33. 
    A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n)________.
    • A. 

      Solution

    • B. 

      Emulsion

    • C. 

      Elixir

    • D. 

      Tincture

  • 34. 
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Narcotic overdose

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Angina Pectoris

    • D. 

      Anxiety

  • 35. 
    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress_________.
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Appetite

    • C. 

      Swelling

    • D. 

      Excretion of urine

  • 36. 
    Schedule I drugs include __________.
    • A. 

      Micellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • B. 

      Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • C. 

      Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 37. 
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called _________.
    • A. 

      Cystitis

    • B. 

      Urethral Stricture

    • C. 

      Chronic Renal Failure

    • D. 

      Pyelonephritis

  • 38. 
    A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called ________.
    • A. 

      High Blood Pressure

    • B. 

      Type 1 diabetes

    • C. 

      Pancreatitis

    • D. 

      Type 2 diabetes

  • 39. 
    The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called _________.
    • A. 

      Enema

    • B. 

      Colostomy

    • C. 

      Constipation

    • D. 

      Peristalsis

  • 40. 
    Where is the Temporal part of the body?
    • A. 

      Hips

    • B. 

      Head

    • C. 

      Arm

    • D. 

      Back

  • 41. 
    Where is the Scapula part of the body?
    • A. 

      Wrist

    • B. 

      Shoulder Blade

    • C. 

      Knee

    • D. 

      Hips

  • 42. 
    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ________.
    • A. 

      R wave

    • B. 

      T wave

    • C. 

      Q wave

    • D. 

      S wave

  • 43. 
    A microorganism that rarely causes the disease is called a ________.
    • A. 

      Non-pathogen

    • B. 

      Spore

    • C. 

      Flora

    • D. 

      Pathogen

  • 44. 
    Which of the following statements is false about blood draw?
    • A. 

      Both venipuncture and microsampling invovle skill

    • B. 

      It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger

    • C. 

      Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect

    • D. 

      "Getting Blood" is not the only goal of good blood drawing

  • 45. 
    A centrifuge works by _________.
    • A. 

      Freezing blood specimens

    • B. 

      Heating blood specimens

    • C. 

      Incubating blood at body temp

    • D. 

      Separating cells and serum

  • 46. 
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS has the same configuration each time they appear is called _______.
    • A. 

      Uniform

    • B. 

      Malignant

    • C. 

      Fused

    • D. 

      Bigeminy

  • 47. 
    On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the ________.
    • A. 

      Start

    • B. 

      Amplitude

    • C. 

      Gain

    • D. 

      B or C

  • 48. 
    The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude of the force, and the other is ____________.
    • A. 

      Defibrillation

    • B. 

      Shock Treatment

    • C. 

      V Tach

    • D. 

      Scintillation

  • 49. 
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____ the first drop.
    • A. 

      Collect

    • B. 

      Use

    • C. 

      Wipe away

    • D. 

      Wash off

  • 50. 
    When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading it is called ________.
    • A. 

      Irregular with a pattern

    • B. 

      Absolutely regular

    • C. 

      Essentially regular

    • D. 

      Totally irregular

  • 51. 
    When applying leads, apple V1 lead ________.
    • A. 

      Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

    • B. 

      On the fourth intercoastal space right sternal border

    • C. 

      Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

    • D. 

      On the fifth intercoastal space midclavicular line

  • 52. 
    When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ________.
    • A. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • B. 

      An arrhythmia

    • C. 

      An aneurysm

    • D. 

      An embolism

  • 53. 
    Oxygen can be administered to the patient by way of a _______.
    • A. 

      Catheter

    • B. 

      Cannula

    • C. 

      Tent

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 54. 
    How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection?
    • A. 

      At body temp

    • B. 

      Refrigerator

    • C. 

      At room temp

    • D. 

      In a freezer

  • 55. 
    A positive urine dipstick for albumin in the patient has ______ in his/her urine.
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Proteins

    • D. 

      PH

  • 56. 
    Which urine dipstick test detects acetone in the urine?
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      Ketones

    • C. 

      Proteins

    • D. 

      PH

  • 57. 
    Which of the following stains classify bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative?
    • A. 

      PAP

    • B. 

      Gram

    • C. 

      Hematoxylin

    • D. 

      Wright's

  • 58. 
    Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture?
    • A. 

      Back of the throat and tonsillar area

    • B. 

      Nasopharynx and epiglottis

    • C. 

      Cheeks and tongue

    • D. 

      Gums and uvula