Medical Assistant Certification Study

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Medical Assistant Certification Study - Quiz

Questions from the NHA CMA Study Guide


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which is not the role of a medical assistant?

    • A.

      Prepare room

    • B.

      Prepare patient

    • C.

      Patient physical exam

    • D.

      Take patient's vital signs

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient physical exam
    Explanation
    A medical assistant is responsible for various tasks in a healthcare setting, including preparing the room for patient visits, preparing the patient for examination, and taking the patient's vital signs. However, conducting a patient physical exam is not typically within the scope of a medical assistant's role. This task is usually performed by a physician or a nurse practitioner who has received specialized training in conducting physical examinations.

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  • 2. 

    When a patient is lying on her back with her arms above her and and her legs extended she is in what position?

    • A.

      Dorsal Recumbent

    • B.

      Horizontal Recumbent

    • C.

      Dorsal Lithotomy

    • D.

      Prone

    Correct Answer
    B. Horizontal Recumbent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Horizontal Recumbent. When a patient is lying on her back with her arms above her and her legs extended, she is in the horizontal recumbent position. This position is commonly used for physical examinations and procedures that require easy access to the patient's chest and abdomen.

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  • 3. 

    Which position is used for a rectal examination?

    • A.

      Sim's

    • B.

      Prone

    • C.

      Trenelenburg

    • D.

      Fowler's

    Correct Answer
    A. Sim's
    Explanation
    Sim's position is used for a rectal examination. In this position, the patient lies on their left side with the left leg extended and the right leg flexed. This position allows for easy access to the rectum and provides optimal visualization and access for the healthcare provider performing the examination. The other positions listed (prone, Trenelenburg, and Fowler's) are not typically used for rectal examinations.

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  • 4. 

    Who creates the rules and regulations to minimize workplace hazards?

    • A.

      CLSI

    • B.

      CLSI

    • C.

      FDA

    • D.

      OSHA

    Correct Answer
    D. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, creates the rules and regulations to minimize workplace hazards. OSHA is a government agency that sets and enforces standards to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees. They develop guidelines and regulations that employers must follow to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace. OSHA also conducts inspections and provides training and education to promote workplace safety.

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  • 5. 

    Failing to use a surge protector for sensitive electronic devices is what kind of hazard?

    • A.

      Physical

    • B.

      Chemical

    • C.

      Biological

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical
    Explanation
    Failing to use a surge protector for sensitive electronic devices is a physical hazard because it can result in damage to the devices due to power surges or electrical spikes. Without a surge protector, the devices are directly exposed to these electrical hazards, which can cause them to malfunction or even be completely destroyed. This hazard is related to the physical aspects of electricity and its potential to cause harm to electronic equipment.

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  • 6. 

    Which is not a common symptom of shock?

    • A.

      Clammy skin

    • B.

      Expressionless face

    • C.

      Rapid pulse

    • D.

      Excessive sweating

    Correct Answer
    D. Excessive sweating
    Explanation
    Excessive sweating is not a common symptom of shock. Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body is not getting enough blood flow. Common symptoms of shock include clammy skin, an expressionless face, and a rapid pulse. Excessive sweating, on the other hand, is not typically associated with shock. It is important to recognize the signs of shock and seek immediate medical attention if suspected.

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  • 7. 

    Why should a patient who is in shock be positioned with the head lower than the rest of the body?

    • A.

      To prevent vomiting

    • B.

      To encourage blood flow to the brain

    • C.

      To make the heart beat slower

    Correct Answer
    B. To encourage blood flow to the brain
    Explanation
    When a patient is in shock, their blood pressure drops significantly, leading to inadequate blood flow to the brain. By positioning the head lower than the rest of the body, gravity helps to increase blood flow to the brain. This allows for better oxygenation and perfusion of the brain, which is crucial for maintaining brain function and preventing further complications.

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  • 8. 

    Which is not a vital sign of bodily function?

    • A.

      Weight

    • B.

      Temperature

    • C.

      Pulse

    • D.

      Respiration

    Correct Answer
    A. Weight
    Explanation
    Weight is not considered a vital sign of bodily function. Vital signs are measurements that indicate the status of a person's essential body functions, such as heart rate (pulse), body temperature, and respiration rate. While weight can be an important indicator of overall health, it is not directly related to the immediate functioning of vital bodily systems. Therefore, weight is not considered a vital sign.

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  • 9. 

    The portal of exit in the chain of infection is the method that an agent leaves its reservoir.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the portal of exit is the route through which an infectious agent leaves its reservoir or host. This can occur through various means such as respiratory droplets, bodily fluids, or direct contact. Identifying and understanding the portal of exit is crucial in preventing the spread of infections and implementing appropriate control measures.

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  • 10. 

    Which is not a link in the chain of infection?

    • A.

      Host

    • B.

      Agent

    • C.

      Mode of transportation

    • D.

      Portal of exit

    Correct Answer
    C. Mode of transportation
    Explanation
    The mode of transportation is not a link in the chain of infection because it refers to the method by which the infectious agent is transmitted from the source to the susceptible host. It is not a specific component or factor that contributes to the transmission of the infection itself. The chain of infection consists of a sequence of events that includes the host (the individual who can get infected), the agent (the microorganism causing the infection), and the portal of exit (the route through which the microorganism leaves the host).

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  • 11. 

    Viruses, bacteria, fungi and parasites are all agents in the chain of infection.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites are all types of microorganisms that can cause infections in humans and animals. These agents are capable of entering the body, multiplying, and causing harm or disease. They can be transmitted from one person to another through various routes such as direct contact, airborne droplets, contaminated food or water, or through vectors like mosquitoes or ticks. Therefore, it is correct to say that viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites are all agents in the chain of infection.

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  • 12. 

    Medical asepsis is ________________________.

    • A.

      Destruction of pathogens on the skin before a venipuncture procedure.

    • B.

      Destruction of pathogens on medical equipment

    • C.

      The prevention of germs on the hands of healthcare workers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Destruction of pathogens on medical equipment
    Explanation
    Medical asepsis refers to the process of eliminating or destroying pathogens on medical equipment. This is done to prevent the transmission of infections and ensure a safe and sterile environment for patients. By thoroughly cleaning and disinfecting medical equipment, healthcare professionals can effectively remove any harmful microorganisms that may be present, reducing the risk of infection during medical procedures.

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  • 13. 

    What is the ratio of bleach to water recommended fro disinfection?

    • A.

      1:1

    • B.

      1:5

    • C.

      1:10

    • D.

      3:5

    Correct Answer
    C. 1:10
    Explanation
    The recommended ratio of bleach to water for disinfection is 1:10. This means that for every part of bleach, you should use 10 parts of water. This ratio is commonly used to ensure effective disinfection and kill bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens. Using too much bleach can be harmful, while using too little may not effectively kill germs. Therefore, it is important to follow the recommended ratio of 1:10 for disinfection purposes.

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  • 14. 

    What is the most important means of preventing the spread of infection?

    • A.

      Dry heat sterilization

    • B.

      Bleach/water sanitation

    • C.

      Handwashing

    Correct Answer
    C. Handwashing
    Explanation
    Handwashing is the most important means of preventing the spread of infection because it helps to remove and kill germs that can cause illness. Regular handwashing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds can effectively remove dirt, bacteria, and viruses from the hands. It is especially important to wash hands before eating, after using the restroom, after coughing or sneezing, and after touching surfaces that may be contaminated. Handwashing is a simple and effective way to protect oneself and others from getting sick and is recommended by health experts worldwide.

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  • 15. 

    Wh omakes the guidelines for isolation precautions?

    • A.

      CLSI

    • B.

      OSHA

    • C.

      CDC

    • D.

      FDA

    Correct Answer
    C. CDC
    Explanation
    The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is responsible for making the guidelines for isolation precautions. The CDC is a federal agency under the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and is dedicated to protecting public health and safety through the control and prevention of disease, injury, and disability. They provide evidence-based guidelines and recommendations for healthcare professionals to follow in order to prevent the spread of infectious diseases and protect both patients and healthcare workers.

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  • 16. 

    A fluctuating fever that remains elevated; it does not return to baseline temperature.

    • A.

      Constant

    • B.

      Remittent

    • C.

      Intermittent

    Correct Answer
    B. Remittent
    Explanation
    Remittent fever is characterized by a fluctuating temperature that remains elevated and does not return to a baseline temperature. Unlike intermittent fever, where the temperature returns to normal between episodes, remittent fever maintains a consistently high temperature. This term is used to describe a fever pattern commonly seen in certain infections, such as typhoid fever or infectious mononucleosis.

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  • 17. 

    The normal range for an axillary temperature is:

    • A.

      98.6-99.6

    • B.

      97.6-99.6

    • C.

      96.6-98.6

    Correct Answer
    C. 96.6-98.6
    Explanation
    The normal range for an axillary temperature is 96.6-98.6. This range is considered normal because it falls within the average body temperature range of 97.7-99.5 degrees Fahrenheit. Axillary temperature is taken by placing the thermometer in the armpit, and it is generally slightly lower than oral or rectal temperature. Therefore, the range of 96.6-98.6 is considered normal for axillary temperature measurement.

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  • 18. 

    Taking the patient's temperature with an ear thermomator is know as the _____________.

    • A.

      Tympanic

    • B.

      Axillary

    • C.

      Rectal

    • D.

      Oral

    Correct Answer
    A. Tympanic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is tympanic because taking a patient's temperature with an ear thermometer is known as tympanic measurement. Tympanic thermometers use infrared technology to measure the temperature inside the ear canal, providing a quick and accurate reading. This method is commonly used in medical settings and is especially useful for young children who may be uncomfortable with other methods of temperature measurement.

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  • 19. 

    The radial artery is located:

    • A.

      On the pinky side of the wrist

    • B.

      On the thumb side of the wrist

    • C.

      On the right side of the neck

    • D.

      On the left side of the neck

    Correct Answer
    B. On the thumb side of the wrist
    Explanation
    The radial artery is located on the thumb side of the wrist. This artery is one of the major arteries in the forearm and is responsible for supplying blood to the hand and fingers. It is commonly used to check the pulse and is also a common site for arterial blood gas sampling.

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  • 20. 

    The normal adult heart rate is 60-100 bpm.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The normal adult heart rate is typically between 60 and 100 beats per minute (bpm). This means that a healthy adult's heart will usually beat within this range. Heart rate can vary depending on factors such as age, fitness level, and overall health. However, a heart rate below 60 or above 100 bpm may indicate an abnormality or a potential health issue. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct as it accurately reflects the normal range for an adult's heart rate.

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  • 21. 

    The temporary complete absence of breathing which may be a result of a reduction in the stimuli to the respiratory centers of the brain.

    • A.

      Apnea

    • B.

      Tachypnea

    • C.

      Brachypnea

    Correct Answer
    A. Apnea
    Explanation
    Apnea refers to the temporary complete absence of breathing. It occurs when there is a reduction in the stimuli to the respiratory centers of the brain. This can be caused by various factors such as an obstruction in the airway, a neurological condition, or a medication side effect. During an episode of apnea, the individual stops breathing for a period of time, which can lead to a decrease in oxygen levels in the body. Prompt medical attention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure proper breathing is restored.

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  • 22. 

    A respiration rate of greater than 40/min. It is transient in the newborn and maybe caused by the hysteria in the adult.

    • A.

      Bradypnea

    • B.

      Tachypenea

    • C.

      Apnea

    Correct Answer
    B. Tachypenea
    Explanation
    Tachypnea is the correct answer because it refers to a rapid respiratory rate of greater than 40 breaths per minute. It is mentioned that this condition is transient in newborns, meaning it is temporary and not a cause for concern. In adults, tachypnea can be caused by hysteria, which is an excessive or uncontrollable emotional reaction. Therefore, tachypnea fits the given description and is the most appropriate answer.

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  • 23. 

    A decrease in numbers of respirations. This occurs during sleep. It may also be due to certain diseases.

    • A.

      Tachypnea

    • B.

      Apnea

    • C.

      Bradypnea

    Correct Answer
    A. Tachypnea
    Explanation
    Tachypnea refers to an increased rate of breathing. The given explanation states that there is a decrease in the number of respirations during sleep or due to certain diseases. Therefore, tachypnea, which is characterized by rapid breathing, is not the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    The pattern of breathing. It can vary with age: infants have an irregular rhythm while adults have regular.

    • A.

      Pulse rate

    • B.

      Respiratory Rhythm

    • C.

      Breathing Rhythm

    Correct Answer
    B. Respiratory Rhythm
    Explanation
    The explanation for the correct answer, Respiratory Rhythm, is that the pattern of breathing can vary with age. Infants typically have an irregular rhythm, while adults have a more regular pattern of breathing. This means that the rate and depth of breaths taken by infants may be inconsistent and unpredictable, while adults tend to have a more consistent and predictable pattern of breaths. Therefore, the term "Respiratory Rhythm" accurately describes this variation in breathing patterns based on age.

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  • 25. 

    A regular pattern of irregular breathing rate.

    • A.

      Cheyne-Stokes

    • B.

      Orthopnea

    • C.

      Alopnea

    Correct Answer
    A. Cheyne-Stokes
    Explanation
    Cheyne-Stokes is a breathing pattern characterized by a regular cycle of gradually increasing and then decreasing breathing followed by a period of no breathing (apnea). This pattern repeats itself and is often seen in individuals with certain medical conditions, such as heart failure or brain damage. Orthopnea refers to difficulty breathing while lying flat, and alopnea is not a recognized medical term. Therefore, the correct answer is Cheyne-Stokes.

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  • 26. 

    A difficulty or inability to breath unless in an upright position.

    • A.

      Cheyne-Stokes

    • B.

      Orthopnea

    • C.

      Alopnea

    Correct Answer
    B. Orthopnea
    Explanation
    Orthopnea is a medical condition characterized by difficulty or inability to breathe unless in an upright position. This means that individuals with orthopnea experience shortness of breath or respiratory distress when lying flat and find relief when sitting or standing upright. This condition is often associated with heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs, making it harder to breathe in a horizontal position. Orthopnea can also be caused by other respiratory and cardiac conditions. Cheyne-Stokes refers to an abnormal breathing pattern, while alopnea is not a recognized medical term.

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  • 27. 

    When taking blood pressure you should decrease the pressure in the cuff at a rate of:

    • A.

      1-2 mmHg per second

    • B.

      2-3 mmHg per second

    • C.

      3-4 mmHG per second

    Correct Answer
    B. 2-3 mmHg per second
    Explanation
    When taking blood pressure, it is important to decrease the pressure in the cuff at a controlled rate to ensure accurate readings. Decreasing the pressure too quickly can result in an inaccurate reading, while decreasing it too slowly can cause discomfort to the patient. The recommended rate of decreasing the pressure in the cuff is 2-3 mmHg per second. This allows for a gradual release of pressure and helps to obtain an accurate measurement of the patient's blood pressure.

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  • 28. 

    If the brachial artery is positioned much above the heart while taking blood pressure reading it will cause the bllod pressure to appear falsely______.

    • A.

      High

    • B.

      Low

    Correct Answer
    B. Low
    Explanation
    If the brachial artery is positioned much above the heart while taking a blood pressure reading, it will cause the blood pressure to appear falsely low. This is because the height difference between the heart and the brachial artery affects the pressure of the blood flow. When the brachial artery is positioned above the heart, gravity causes the blood pressure to decrease, leading to a lower reading.

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  • 29. 

    Standard precautions assumes all patients are:

    • A.

      Sick

    • B.

      Infected for blood borne pathogens

    • C.

      Viral infected

    Correct Answer
    B. Infected for blood borne pathogens
    Explanation
    Standard precautions are a set of infection control practices used in healthcare settings to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases. These precautions are based on the assumption that all patients may be infected with bloodborne pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. By treating every patient as if they are infected, healthcare workers can minimize the risk of transmission and protect themselves and other patients from potential harm. This includes using personal protective equipment, practicing proper hand hygiene, and following safe injection practices.

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  • 30. 

    Which is NOT a standard precaution?

    • A.

      Disposing of needles in a bio hazard waste can

    • B.

      Wearing gloves when handling all body fluids

    • C.

      Wearing a face shield when danger of splash

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    Standard precautions include disposing of needles in a biohazard waste can, wearing gloves when handling all body fluids, and wearing a face shield when there is a risk of splash.

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  • 31. 

    Sig: ii tablets sl qid 

    • A.

      Take 2 under the tongue 4 times daily

    • B.

      Take 1 tablet before sleeping at night

    • C.

      Take 2 tablets with food 4 times daily

    Correct Answer
    A. Take 2 under the tongue 4 times daily
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "take 2 under the tongue 4 times daily". This answer is correct because the given sig (abbreviation for "signetur," meaning "let it be labeled") instructs the patient to take 2 tablets under the tongue four times a day. The other options provided do not match the given sig instructions.

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  • 32. 

    Sig:  i tablet po bid pc

    • A.

      1 tablet by mouth twice a day with a meal

    • B.

      1 tablet rectally twice a day on empty stomach

    • C.

      1 tablet by mouth twice a day without food

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 tablet by mouth twice a day with a meal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "1 tablet by mouth twice a day with a meal." This means that the tablet should be taken orally, not rectally. It should be taken twice a day, and it is recommended to take it with a meal to minimize any potential stomach discomfort or side effects. Taking it without food may increase the risk of gastrointestinal issues.

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  • 33. 

    Po means:

    • A.

      By mouth

    • B.

      Rectally

    • C.

      Sublingual

    • D.

      Intravenous

    Correct Answer
    A. By mouth
    Explanation
    The term "po" is an abbreviation for the Latin phrase "per os," which means "by mouth." This term is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a medication or treatment should be taken orally, typically in the form of swallowing a pill or liquid. By choosing this option, it suggests that the correct way to administer the medication is through the mouth rather than through other routes such as rectally, sublingually, or intravenously.

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  • 34. 

    Means by way of the rectum

    • A.

      Pr

    • B.

      Sl

    • C.

      Po

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Pr
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "pr" stands for "per rectum", which means by way of the rectum. This is a medical term commonly used to describe the administration of medication or treatment through the rectum. It is often used when oral administration is not possible or not effective.

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  • 35. 

    Tid means how many times daily?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 because "tid" is a medical abbreviation that stands for "ter in die," which means "three times a day" in Latin. This abbreviation is commonly used in prescriptions to indicate the frequency at which a medication should be taken. Therefore, when "tid" is mentioned, it means that the medication should be taken three times daily.

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  • 36. 

    Bid means how many times daily?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the meaning of "bid" in terms of frequency. The correct answer is "2," meaning that "bid" refers to something happening twice daily.

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  • 37. 

    Pc on a prescription means_____.

    • A.

      Before meals

    • B.

      After meals

    • C.

      Before bed

    • D.

      As needed

    Correct Answer
    B. After meals
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "pc" on a prescription stands for "post cibum," which means "after meals." This indicates that the medication should be taken after eating food. Taking medication after meals helps to prevent stomach irritation and ensures better absorption of the drug into the body.

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  • 38. 

    Qhs on a prescription means _______.

    • A.

      Before a meal

    • B.

      After a meal

    • C.

      At bedtime

    • D.

      Upon waking

    Correct Answer
    C. At bedtime
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "qhs" on a prescription stands for "at bedtime." It indicates that the medication should be taken before going to sleep. This timing allows the medication to be absorbed and take effect during the night, when the patient is resting. Taking the medication at bedtime can help manage symptoms or conditions that may affect sleep or require overnight relief.

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  • 39. 

    Prn means

    • A.

      As needed

    • B.

      Twice a day

    • C.

      Once a day

    Correct Answer
    A. As needed
    Explanation
    "prn" is an abbreviation derived from the Latin phrase "pro re nata," which translates to "as needed" in English. It is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken only when necessary, rather than on a fixed schedule. Therefore, the correct answer is "as needed."

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  • 40. 

    The base of the heart is located at the _____ intercostal.

    • A.

      1st

    • B.

      2nd

    • C.

      5th

    • D.

      4th

    Correct Answer
    B. 2nd
    Explanation
    The base of the heart is located at the 2nd intercostal. This is because the base of the heart is formed mainly by the left atrium and a small part of the right atrium, which are located behind the sternum (breastbone) and between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces. The base of the heart is where the major blood vessels, such as the aorta and pulmonary trunk, enter and exit the heart.

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  • 41. 

    The endocardium is the ______layer of the heart.

    • A.

      Inner

    • B.

      Outer

    • C.

      Muscular

    Correct Answer
    A. Inner
    Explanation
    The endocardium is the innermost layer of the heart. It is a smooth, thin layer of tissue that lines the chambers of the heart and covers the heart valves. This layer is responsible for preventing blood clotting and providing a smooth surface for blood flow within the heart. It is composed of endothelial cells and connective tissue.

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  • 42. 

    The "heart skeleton" is made up of how many rings?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    The "heart skeleton" refers to the fibrous rings that surround the heart valves. These rings provide support and structure to the heart valves, ensuring proper functioning. The correct answer, 4, indicates that the heart skeleton is made up of four rings.

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  • 43. 

    Which layer of the heart is attached to the diaphragm and spinal column?

    • A.

      Pericardium

    • B.

      Epicardium

    • C.

      Endocardium

    • D.

      Myocardium

    Correct Answer
    A. Pericardium
    Explanation
    The pericardium is the correct answer because it is the outermost layer of the heart and it is attached to both the diaphragm and the spinal column. The pericardium is a protective sac that surrounds the heart and helps to keep it in place within the chest cavity. It is made up of two layers, the fibrous pericardium which is attached to the diaphragm and the spinal column, and the serous pericardium which is a double-layered membrane that encloses the heart.

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  • 44. 

    The right side of the heart pumps _____blood.

    • A.

      Oxygenated

    • B.

      Deoxygenated

    Correct Answer
    B. Deoxygenated
    Explanation
    The right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood.

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  • 45. 

    What part of the heart receives the deoxygenated blood from the body?

    • A.

      Rt. atrium

    • B.

      Lt. atrium

    • C.

      Rt. ventricle

    • D.

      Lt ventrical

    Correct Answer
    A. Rt. atrium
    Explanation
    The right atrium is the part of the heart that receives deoxygenated blood from the body. It is one of the four chambers of the heart and is located on the right side. When blood returns to the heart from the body, it enters the right atrium through the superior and inferior vena cava, which are large veins. From the right atrium, the deoxygenated blood is then pumped into the right ventricle and then to the lungs for oxygenation.

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  • 46. 

    The period of contractions of both Atrial and Ventricles is______.

    • A.

      Systole

    • B.

      Diastole

    Correct Answer
    A. Systole
    Explanation
    The period of contractions of both the atria and ventricles is known as systole. During systole, the heart muscles contract, pumping blood out of the chambers and into the arteries. This phase is responsible for the active phase of the cardiac cycle and is followed by diastole, the relaxation phase where the heart muscles refill with blood.

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  • 47. 

    What is the relaxation period of the heart called?

    • A.

      Systole

    • B.

      Diastole

    Correct Answer
    B. Diastole
    Explanation
    Diastole refers to the relaxation period of the heart. During diastole, the heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers to fill with blood. This phase is crucial for the heart to rest and replenish oxygen and nutrients. It is followed by systole, which is the contraction phase when the heart pumps out the blood.

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  • 48. 

    Parasympathetic (vagus nerve) has and inhibitory effect via the neurotransmitter _______.

    • A.

      Acetylchlorine

    • B.

      Norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylchlorine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Acetylcholine. The parasympathetic nervous system, specifically the vagus nerve, has an inhibitory effect on various bodily functions. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter responsible for transmitting signals in the parasympathetic nervous system. It acts on target organs and tissues to slow down heart rate, decrease blood pressure, stimulate digestion, and promote relaxation. Norepinephrine, on the other hand, is a neurotransmitter primarily associated with the sympathetic nervous system, which has an excitatory effect on the body.

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  • 49. 

    Norepinephrine is a  neurotransmitter in the ____________ heart rate.

    • A.

      Parasympathetic

    • B.

      Sympathetic

    Correct Answer
    B. Sympathetic
    Explanation
    Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is involved in the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response. This response increases heart rate, among other physiological changes, to prepare the body for action. Therefore, the correct answer is sympathetic.

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  • 50. 

    Slows SA pacemaker and HR.

    • A.

      Acetycholine

    • B.

      Norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetycholine
    Explanation
    Acetylcholine slows the sinoatrial (SA) pacemaker and heart rate. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is released by the parasympathetic nervous system. When acetylcholine binds to receptors in the heart, it decreases the activity of the SA pacemaker, which is responsible for setting the heart rate. This leads to a decrease in heart rate. Norepinephrine, on the other hand, increases heart rate by binding to receptors in the heart and increasing the activity of the SA pacemaker. Therefore, the correct answer is acetylcholine.

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