NCCT Medical Asst. 2016 Ful Pratice Test

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NCCT Medical Asst. 2016 Ful Pratice Test - Quiz

The National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT) is an accredited body that tests and certifies medical practitioners and health care professionals. The medical asst. 2016 full practice test helps you with this. Enjoy as you learn.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A patient presents to the medical office with nausea and vomiting. Which of the following types of medication is likely to be prescribed?

    • A.

      Antiarrhythmic

    • B.

      Antitussive

    • C.

      Antidiarrheal

    • D.

      Antiemetic

    Correct Answer
    D. Antiemetic
    Explanation
    An antiemetic medication is likely to be prescribed for a patient presenting with nausea and vomiting. Antiemetics are specifically designed to relieve symptoms of nausea and vomiting by blocking certain receptors in the brain and gastrointestinal tract. They can help reduce the urge to vomit and alleviate feelings of nausea, providing relief to the patient.

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  • 2. 

    An established patient who has Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease is evaluated in the medical office for hypertension.  What is the importance of identifying the reason for today’s visit related to billing?

    • A.

      To determine the primary diagnosis

    • B.

      To ensure a secondary diagnosis is not listed on the claim form

    • C.

      To assign a two-digit modifier

    • D.

      To assign a V code

    Correct Answer
    A. To determine the primary diagnosis
    Explanation
    Identifying the reason for today's visit is important for billing because it helps determine the primary diagnosis. The primary diagnosis is the main reason for the patient's visit and is used to determine the appropriate billing codes and reimbursement. By identifying the primary diagnosis, the medical office can accurately code and bill for the services provided, ensuring proper reimbursement for the care given to the patient.

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  • 3. 

    A 6-month-old child is at the clinic for their well-child visit and routine vaccines. Which of the following is the preferred site for an intramuscular injection on this patient?

    • A.

      Deltoid

    • B.

      Ventrogluteal

    • C.

      Dorsogluteal

    • D.

      Vastus lateralis

    Correct Answer
    D. Vastus lateralis
    Explanation
    The preferred site for an intramuscular injection on a 6-month-old child is the vastus lateralis. This is because the vastus lateralis muscle, located in the thigh, is well-developed and has a larger muscle mass compared to other sites such as the deltoid or gluteal muscles. The vastus lateralis also has fewer major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of injury during the injection. Additionally, the thigh is easily accessible and provides good stability for administering the injection.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following medical office software applications uses an electronic signature? 

    • A.

      Spreadsheets

    • B.

      EHR

    • C.

      Encoders

    • D.

      Scheduling

    Correct Answer
    B. EHR
    Explanation
    EHR (Electronic Health Record) is the correct answer because it is a medical office software application that uses an electronic signature. An EHR is a digital version of a patient's paper chart, and it allows healthcare providers to record, store, and share medical information. Electronic signatures are used in EHRs to authenticate and validate the identity of the person signing a document or approving a medical order. This ensures the security and integrity of the patient's electronic health information.

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  • 5. 

    The transfer of information such as patient eligibility, payment remittances, claims, claim status, authorizations and referrals are addressed under the HIPAA Administrative Simplification and Compliance Act as electronic

    • A.

      Report management.

    • B.

      Remittance advice.

    • C.

      Data interchange.

    • D.

      Clearinghouse.

    Correct Answer
    C. Data interchange.
    Explanation
    The transfer of information such as patient eligibility, payment remittances, claims, claim status, authorizations, and referrals is addressed under the HIPAA Administrative Simplification and Compliance Act as electronic data interchange. This refers to the electronic exchange of data between different healthcare entities, such as healthcare providers, insurance companies, and clearinghouses. It allows for the efficient and secure transfer of information, ensuring compliance with HIPAA regulations and streamlining administrative processes in the healthcare industry.

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  • 6. 

    The patient was seen in the office for follow up evaluation post CVA.  The doctor noticed significant weakness on the patient’s left side.  Which of the following should the medical assistant expect to perform?

    • A.

      Full weight bearing exercise assistance

    • B.

      Active assist range of motion

    • C.

      Crutch training

    • D.

      Cold chemical pack application

    Correct Answer
    B. Active assist range of motion
    Explanation
    Based on the information given, the patient has significant weakness on their left side. Active assist range of motion exercises involve the patient actively participating in moving their affected limb while the medical assistant provides assistance as needed. This type of exercise would be appropriate for a patient with weakness on one side, as it helps to maintain joint mobility and prevent contractures. Full weight bearing exercise assistance, crutch training, and cold chemical pack application are not mentioned in the scenario and are not relevant to addressing weakness on the left side.

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  • 7. 

    The medical assistant prepares a written prescription for the physician as follows.  What information did the medical assistant leave out? 

    • A.

      Quantity to dispense and directions for taking the medication

    • B.

      Quantity to dispense and EIN

    • C.

      Directions for taking the medication and superscription

    • D.

      Superscription and EIN

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantity to dispense and directions for taking the medication
    Explanation
    The medical assistant left out the quantity to dispense and directions for taking the medication. This information is crucial for the patient to know how much of the medication to take and how often to take it.

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  • 8. 

    A patient expresses cultural beliefs about an alternative method of pain management that differs from the medical assistant’s own view.  How should the medical assistant respond?

    • A.

      Perhaps you should see a neurologist."

    • B.

      "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you."

    • C.

      "The physician does not recommend that approach."

    • D.

      "Standard pharmaceutical methods of pain management are proven to be more effective."

    Correct Answer
    B. "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you."
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you." This response shows respect for the patient's cultural beliefs and allows the medical assistant to gather more information about the alternative method. It demonstrates empathy and open-mindedness, which are important in building a trusting relationship with the patient. It also provides an opportunity for the medical assistant to assess the effectiveness and safety of the alternative method before discussing it further with the physician.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following actions by the medical assistant demonstrates compliance with the ADA?

    • A.

      Ensure hallways to exam rooms remain free of obstructions

    • B.

      Wear personal protective equipment prior to irrigating a wound

    • C.

      Obtain hepatitis B vaccination series offered by employer

    • D.

      Maintain confidentiality of protected health information

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure hallways to exam rooms remain free of obstructions
    Explanation
    The action of ensuring hallways to exam rooms remain free of obstructions demonstrates compliance with the ADA because it promotes accessibility for individuals with disabilities. The ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act) requires that public spaces, including healthcare facilities, be accessible to people with disabilities. By keeping hallways clear, the medical assistant is ensuring that individuals with mobility aids or other disabilities can navigate the space safely and easily. This action aligns with the ADA's goal of equal access and non-discrimination for individuals with disabilities.

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  • 10. 

    The medical assistant performs a urine hCG on a patient whose results are inconclusive.  Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take next?

    • A.

      Ask the patient to clarify the date of her LMP.

    • B.

      Draw a blood specimen for hCG testing.

    • C.

      Collect another urine sample.

    • D.

      Ensure the daily quality control has been performed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ensure the daily quality control has been performed.
  • 11. 

    Flow charts, progress notes, and narrative notation are all examples of

    • A.

      Medical record charting styles.

    • B.

      Patient chart filing systems.

    • C.

      Recording patient information in a medical record.

    • D.

      Patient documentation in a SOAP format.

    Correct Answer
    C. Recording patient information in a medical record.
    Explanation
    Flow charts, progress notes, and narrative notation are all different methods of recording patient information in a medical record. These methods are used to document various aspects of a patient's condition, treatment, and progress. Flow charts are visual representations of information, progress notes are written summaries of patient encounters, and narrative notation is a detailed written account of events. All of these styles contribute to the comprehensive recording of patient information in a medical record.

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  • 12. 

    While emptying the autoclave, the medical assistant notices that the wrapped instruments are damp. The medical assistant should

    • A.

      Remove the instruments and set them on the counter to dry.

    • B.

      Remove the instruments and place them on the Mayo stand for surgery.

    • C.

      Leave the instruments in the autoclave with the door cracked to dry.

    • D.

      Leave the instruments in the autoclave and run the cycle again.

    Correct Answer
    C. Leave the instruments in the autoclave with the door cracked to dry.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to leave the instruments in the autoclave with the door cracked to dry. This is because opening the autoclave door allows air to circulate and helps the instruments dry more quickly. Removing the instruments and setting them on the counter or placing them on the Mayo stand for surgery may lead to contamination. Running the cycle again is not necessary and may waste time and resources.

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  • 13. 

    Forced Vital Capacity is measured by instructing the patient to

    • A.

      Forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds.

    • B.

      Complete a minimum of eight acceptable efforts to validate the test.

    • C.

      Move the one way valve to a minimum of 4000 ml capacity.

    • D.

      Blow out as fast and hard as possible and document the highest reading.

    Correct Answer
    A. Forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds." This is because Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) is a measure of the maximum amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and completely after taking a deep breath. By instructing the patient to forcefully breathe air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds, it ensures that the test accurately measures the patient's maximum exhalation capacity.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following forms must be signed by the patient and kept on file, allowing physicians to be paid directly from the insurance carrier?

    • A.

      HIPAA waiver

    • B.

      CMS-1500

    • C.

      Assignment of benefits

    • D.

      Living will

    Correct Answer
    C. Assignment of benefits
    Explanation
    The assignment of benefits form must be signed by the patient and kept on file, allowing physicians to be paid directly from the insurance carrier. This form authorizes the insurance company to pay the healthcare provider directly for the services rendered to the patient. It ensures that the healthcare provider receives payment for their services without the patient having to be involved in the payment process.

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  • 15. 

    A patient complains of nausea and vomiting, and has been unable to keep fluids down over the course of two days.  A suppository has been ordered.  Which of the following abbreviations is the correct route of administration?

    • A.

      IM

    • B.

      PR

    • C.

      SC

    • D.

      INH

    Correct Answer
    B. PR
    Explanation
    The correct route of administration for a suppository is rectal (PR). This means that the medication is inserted into the rectum, where it will be absorbed into the bloodstream. This route is often used when a patient is unable to take medication orally due to nausea and vomiting, as in this case. IM stands for intramuscular, which involves injecting the medication into a muscle. SC stands for subcutaneous, which involves injecting the medication into the fatty tissue just below the skin. INH stands for inhaled, which involves breathing in the medication.

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  • 16. 

    For which of the following incidents is employer provided post-exposure follow-up indicated?

    • A.

      An employee fall from a step stool while obtaining medical records

    • B.

      A polycup containing urine splashed into the eye of an employee

    • C.

      Loss of power during an ECG procedure

    • D.

      An employee fall in the parking lot, resulting in a hand laceration

    Correct Answer
    B. A polycup containing urine splashed into the eye of an employee
    Explanation
    An employer provided post-exposure follow-up is indicated for incidents involving potential exposure to infectious materials, such as blood or bodily fluids. In this case, a polycup containing urine splashed into the eye of an employee, which could potentially contain pathogens. Therefore, post-exposure follow-up is necessary to assess the risk of infection and provide appropriate medical treatment if needed.

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  • 17. 

    A patient with dyspnea comes in for an ECG. In which of the following positions should the patient be placed for the procedure?

    • A.

      Supine

    • B.

      Trendelenburg

    • C.

      Semi Fowlers

    • D.

      Sims

    Correct Answer
    C. Semi Fowlers
    Explanation
    The patient should be placed in the semi Fowlers position for the ECG procedure. This position involves the patient sitting at a 45-degree angle with their knees bent. It is commonly used for patients with dyspnea as it helps to improve breathing by allowing the diaphragm to move more freely. This position also helps to reduce strain on the heart and improve blood flow.

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  • 18. 

    The medical assistant documented an IM injection as follows:  10/12/XX @ 1030, Rocephin 1 gram IM patient tolerated procedure well. Amy Ray, medical assistant.  Which of the following necessary pieces of documentation is missing?

    • A.

      Physician signature

    • B.

      Use of the medication

    • C.

      Site of administration

    • D.

      Frequency of administration

    Correct Answer
    C. Site of administration
    Explanation
    The necessary piece of documentation that is missing is the site of administration. The given documentation mentions the date and time of the injection, the medication used, and the fact that the patient tolerated the procedure well. However, it does not specify where the injection was administered, which is an important piece of information for proper medical record keeping.

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  • 19. 

    When managing multiple incoming calls, the medical assistant should handle which of the following calls first?

    • A.

      A patient calling to schedule a follow-up visit for uncontrolled pain after hip surgery.

    • B.

      A patient calling to cancel today’s appointment for a needle biopsy of a breast mass.

    • C.

      A lawyer with a subpoena asking for patient information.

    • D.

      A neurologist seeing a patient on consult.

    Correct Answer
    D. A neurologist seeing a patient on consult.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a neurologist seeing a patient on consult. When managing multiple incoming calls, the medical assistant should prioritize urgent matters first. In this case, the neurologist seeing a patient on consult is likely to require immediate attention as it involves patient care. The other calls can be addressed after attending to the urgent consult.

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  • 20. 

    The patient is referred to a neurosurgeon. Entering the specialist’s NPI number and number of visits requested into the patient’s insurance carrier’s website is part of which of the following processes?

    • A.

      Precertification

    • B.

      Compensation

    • C.

      Electronic claims submission

    • D.

      Assignment of benefits

    Correct Answer
    A. Precertification
    Explanation
    The patient is referred to a neurosurgeon, and the next step is to enter the specialist's NPI number and the number of visits requested into the patient's insurance carrier's website. This process is known as precertification. Precertification is the process of obtaining approval from the insurance company before receiving certain medical services or procedures. It ensures that the services are medically necessary and covered by the patient's insurance plan.

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  • 21. 

    When measuring oxygen saturation on a child breathing room air, with normal color, and no signs of respiratory distress, the medical assistant obtains a reading of 79%.  Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take next?

    • A.

      Notify the physician

    • B.

      Supplement the child with oxygen per protocol

    • C.

      Reposition the finger probe

    • D.

      Take a full set of vital signs

    Correct Answer
    C. Reposition the finger probe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to reposition the finger probe. Oxygen saturation readings are obtained by placing a finger probe on the patient's finger, and if the probe is not positioned correctly, it can lead to inaccurate readings. In this case, the reading of 79% may be incorrect due to a faulty probe placement. Therefore, the medical assistant should reposition the finger probe to ensure accurate oxygen saturation measurement.

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  • 22. 

    The medical assistant is caring for an adult patient with a history of coronary artery disease.  Which of the following BP measurements should prompt the medical assistant to notify the health care provider?   (Select the three (3) correct answers.) 

    • A.

      162/96 mmHg,138/98 mmHg,162/96 mmHg

    • B.

      162/96 mmHg,98/88 mmHg,138/98 mm Hg

    • C.

      129/88 mmHg,162/96 mmHg,92/44 mmHg

    • D.

      92/44 mmHg,138/98 mmHg,162/96 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    D. 92/44 mmHg,138/98 mmHg,162/96 mmHg
  • 23. 

    When preparing liquid medications for administration, the medical assistant should check the medication and expiration date, then place the cap with attached dropper face

    • A.

      Up and read the volume at the bottom of the meniscus.

    • B.

      Up and read the volume at the top of the meniscus.

    • C.

      Down and read the volume at the bottom of the meniscus.

    • D.

      Down and read the volume at the top of the meniscus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Up and read the volume at the bottom of the meniscus.
    Explanation
    When preparing liquid medications for administration, the medical assistant should place the cap with attached dropper face up and read the volume at the bottom of the meniscus. This is because the meniscus is the curved surface of the liquid in the dropper, and the bottom of the meniscus represents the true volume of the liquid. By reading the volume at the bottom of the meniscus, the medical assistant ensures accurate measurement of the medication.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is necessary before ordering or paying for medical office supplies?

    • A.

      Purchase order

    • B.

      Inventory list

    • C.

      Packing slip

    • D.

      Order number

    Correct Answer
    A. Purchase order
    Explanation
    Before ordering or paying for medical office supplies, a purchase order is necessary. A purchase order is a document that is issued by the buyer to the seller, specifying the details of the items to be purchased, quantities, prices, and terms of payment. It serves as a formal agreement between the buyer and seller, ensuring that the correct items are ordered and delivered, and also helps in tracking and managing inventory. Without a purchase order, there is a risk of confusion, incorrect orders, or payment disputes. Therefore, a purchase order is essential in the procurement process for medical office supplies.

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  • 25. 

    A patient’s encounter form contributes to the efficiency and flow of information in the medical office at check-out in which of the following ways?

    • A.

      Provides written documentation about medications prescribed during the visit.

    • B.

      Outlines discharge instructions related to the patient’s condition.

    • C.

      Lists codes for services and procedures performed during the visit.

    • D.

      Summarizes limitations and exclusions in the patient’s insurance policy.

    Correct Answer
    C. Lists codes for services and procedures performed during the visit.
    Explanation
    The patient's encounter form contributes to the efficiency and flow of information in the medical office at check-out by listing codes for services and procedures performed during the visit. This allows for accurate and organized documentation of the medical services provided, which is essential for billing and reimbursement purposes. It also helps in maintaining a record of the patient's medical history and aids in future reference or follow-up visits. By having these codes listed on the encounter form, it streamlines the administrative process and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and communicated effectively.

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  • 26. 

    A medical assistant is hired at a Family Medical Practice. According to OSHA requirements the medical assistant must be offered a vaccine within 10 days of hire, free of charge. The medical assistant knows that this vaccination is to protect him from which of the following?

    • A.

      Tetanus

    • B.

      Varicella

    • C.

      Hepatitis B

    • D.

      Haemophilus influenza

    Correct Answer
    C. Hepatitis B
    Explanation
    According to OSHA requirements, a medical assistant must be offered a vaccine within 10 days of hire, free of charge. This vaccination is to protect the medical assistant from Hepatitis B.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following needle gauges is most commonly used for venipuncture?

    • A.

      21-23

    • B.

      24-25

    • C.

      18-20

    • D.

      16-17

    Correct Answer
    A. 21-23
    Explanation
    The most commonly used needle gauges for venipuncture are 21-23. These gauges are preferred because they are large enough to allow for the smooth flow of blood but not too large to cause excessive pain or damage to the vein. They strike a balance between being able to effectively draw blood and minimizing discomfort for the patient.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following insurance programs covers active duty military personnel?

    • A.

      CHAMPVA

    • B.

      TRICARE

    • C.

      BCBS

    • D.

      Medicare

    Correct Answer
    B. TRICARE
    Explanation
    TRICARE is the correct answer because it is an insurance program specifically designed to provide coverage for active duty military personnel, as well as their dependents and retirees. TRICARE offers comprehensive health care services and benefits to ensure that military personnel and their families have access to the medical care they need. CHAMPVA is a separate insurance program that covers the spouses and dependents of veterans with permanent and total service-connected disabilities, while BCBS and Medicare are not specifically tailored for active duty military personnel.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following acts involves the termination of a patient from the care of a physician without reasonable, written notice of withdrawal from the case?

    • A.

      Slander

    • B.

      Discrimination

    • C.

      Battery

    • D.

      Abandonment

    Correct Answer
    D. Abandonment
    Explanation
    Abandonment involves the termination of a patient from the care of a physician without reasonable, written notice of withdrawal from the case. This means that the physician abruptly ends the patient's treatment without providing proper notification or making alternative arrangements for their care. Abandonment is considered unethical and can have serious consequences for the patient's health and well-being. It is different from other options such as slander, discrimination, and battery, which do not directly involve the termination of a patient's care by a physician.

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  • 30. 

    The physician believes a patient might have problems with her spleen. Where would the doctor palpate to feel for the spleen?

    • A.

      Right side of the patient's abdomen beneath the diaphragm

    • B.

      Middle of the patient's abdomen beneath the diaphragm

    • C.

      Left lower portion of the patient's abdomen

    • D.

      Left side of the patient's abdomen beneath the diaphragm

    Correct Answer
    D. Left side of the patient's abdomen beneath the diaphragm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the left side of the patient's abdomen beneath the diaphragm. The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, beneath the diaphragm. Palpation in this area allows the physician to feel for any enlargement or tenderness of the spleen, which may indicate a problem.

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  • 31. 

    The medical assistant should access which of the following sections of the electronic health record or paper chart to retrieve patient contact information?

    • A.

      Consultations

    • B.

      Laboratory orders

    • C.

      Progress notes

    • D.

      Billing

    Correct Answer
    D. Billing
    Explanation
    The medical assistant should access the billing section of the electronic health record or paper chart to retrieve patient contact information. This section typically contains the patient's billing address, phone number, and insurance information, which are necessary for contacting the patient regarding billing-related matters.

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  • 32. 

    Placement of the ground lead on an ECG is on the

    • A.

      RL on the muscular portion of the leg.

    • B.

      LL on the soft tissue of the leg.

    • C.

      RL on the soft tissue of the leg.

    • D.

      LL on the muscular portion of the leg.

    Correct Answer
    C. RL on the soft tissue of the leg.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RL on the soft tissue of the leg. In an ECG, the ground lead is placed on the soft tissue of the leg to provide a reference point for the electrical activity of the heart. This helps in accurately measuring the electrical signals produced by the heart during each heartbeat. Placing the ground lead on the soft tissue ensures a stable and consistent reference point, allowing for accurate interpretation of the ECG readings.

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  • 33. 

    The medical assistant should administer nitroglycerin by which of the following methods?

    • A.

      Buccal

    • B.

      Sublingual

    • C.

      Intramuscular

    • D.

      Intradermal

    Correct Answer
    B. Sublingual
    Explanation
    The medical assistant should administer nitroglycerin sublingually. This method involves placing the medication under the tongue, where it quickly dissolves and is absorbed into the bloodstream. Sublingual administration allows for rapid onset of action, making it an effective route for treating acute conditions such as angina. Buccal administration involves placing the medication between the cheek and gum, while intramuscular and intradermal routes involve injecting the medication into the muscle or skin, respectively. However, these routes are not appropriate for administering nitroglycerin.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following organizations makes on-site visits to inspect medical office laboratories?

    • A.

      WHO

    • B.

      DEA

    • C.

      CLIA

    • D.

      FDA

    Correct Answer
    C. CLIA
    Explanation
    CLIA, or the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, is the organization that makes on-site visits to inspect medical office laboratories. CLIA is a federal program that regulates laboratory testing and ensures the quality and accuracy of laboratory results. They conduct inspections to assess compliance with their standards and guidelines, including personnel qualifications, quality control, and proficiency testing. These on-site visits help to ensure that medical office laboratories meet the necessary standards to provide accurate and reliable testing for patient care.

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  • 35. 

    A patient presents to the clinic with a paper towel wrapped around a deep laceration to his hand.  The medical assistant removes the paper towel and finds it is heavily saturated with blood.  The paper towel should be disposed of in a

    • A.

      Biohazard sharps container.

    • B.

      Yellow trash bin.

    • C.

      Biohazard waste bin.

    • D.

      Medical waste recycling container.

    Correct Answer
    C. Biohazard waste bin.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is biohazard waste bin. The paper towel is heavily saturated with blood, which makes it a potential biohazardous material. Biohazard waste bins are specifically designed to safely dispose of biohazardous materials, such as blood-soaked items, to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Yellow trash bins and medical waste recycling containers are not specifically designed for biohazardous materials, and sharps containers are used for the disposal of sharp objects like needles and blades. Therefore, the best option for disposing of the blood-soaked paper towel is the biohazard waste bin.

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  • 36. 

    The medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for a patient following surgical removal of their uterus.  The medical term for this procedure is

    • A.

      Oophorectomy

    • B.

      Hysterectomy.

    • C.

      Uteroscopy.

    • D.

      Amniocentesis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Hysterectomy.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is hysterectomy. This procedure involves the surgical removal of the uterus. The medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for the patient after this procedure, indicating that the patient had a hysterectomy. Oophorectomy refers to the removal of the ovaries, uteroscopy is a procedure to examine the uterus using a scope, and amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test.

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  • 37. 

    The post office returns a patient’s bill to the clinic with the notation “address unknown.”  Which of the following steps are appropriate in handling this situation? (Select THE 3 that apply)

    • A.

      Resend the bill to the same address requesting return receipt,Call the patient's primary phone number,Document the postmark date.

    • B.

      Verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database., Document the postmark date., Prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage.

    Correct Answer
    B. Verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database., Document the postmark date., Prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage.
    Explanation
    The appropriate steps in handling this situation are to verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database, document the postmark date, and prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage. Resending the bill to the same address requesting return receipt may not be necessary if the address is unknown. Calling the patient's primary phone number is not mentioned as a necessary step in resolving the issue.

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  • 38. 

    Older adult patients are the population most at risk for which of the following medication complications due to a declining liver function?

    • A.

      Anaphylaxis

    • B.

      Toxicity

    • C.

      Tinnitus

    • D.

      Polyuria

    Correct Answer
    B. Toxicity
    Explanation
    Older adult patients are at a higher risk for medication toxicity due to their declining liver function. The liver is responsible for metabolizing and eliminating drugs from the body. As liver function declines with age, the ability to metabolize medications may be impaired, leading to higher levels of drugs in the bloodstream and an increased risk of toxicity. This can result in adverse effects and complications from medications.

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  • 39. 

    A parent calls the pediatrician’s office very upset because her child is vomiting and has a temperature of 103.3 F.  The medical assistant should

    • A.

      Schedule a same day work-in appointment.

    • B.

      Place the parent on hold and transfer the call to the physician.

    • C.

      Instruct the parent to take the child to the emergency room immediately.

    • D.

      Suggest an over the counter anti-pyretic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Schedule a same day work-in appointment.
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, the child is experiencing vomiting and has a high temperature of 103.3 F. These symptoms may indicate an illness that requires medical attention. Therefore, scheduling a same day work-in appointment would be the most appropriate action for the medical assistant to take. This would allow the child to be evaluated by a healthcare professional and receive appropriate treatment if necessary.

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  • 40. 

    When preparing to assist the physician with collection of a deep wound culture, the medical assistant should have which of the following available?

    • A.

      Blood culture media

    • B.

      Viral transport media

    • C.

      Bacterial culture swabs

    • D.

      Cotton tipped swabs

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacterial culture swabs
    Explanation
    When preparing to assist the physician with collection of a deep wound culture, the medical assistant should have bacterial culture swabs available. This is because bacterial culture swabs are specifically designed to collect samples from wounds for further analysis. Blood culture media is used to collect and culture blood samples, viral transport media is used to transport viral samples, and cotton tipped swabs are not specifically designed for wound culture collection.

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  • 41. 

    Prior to purging and destroying paper medical charts, a medical office assistant should consult which of following guidelines?

    • A.

      Municipal

    • B.

      AMA

    • C.

      OSHA

    • D.

      State and Federal

    Correct Answer
    D. State and Federal
    Explanation
    A medical office assistant should consult state and federal guidelines prior to purging and destroying paper medical charts. These guidelines are crucial as they outline the specific regulations and requirements that must be followed to ensure the proper handling and disposal of sensitive medical information. Municipal guidelines may vary from one locality to another, while the American Medical Association (AMA) and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) provide general guidelines but may not cover all the specific legal requirements. Therefore, it is essential to refer to state and federal guidelines for accurate and comprehensive instructions.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following types of scheduling provides built in flexibility to accommodate unforeseen situations, such as patients who require more time with the physician.

    • A.

      Wave

    • B.

      Specified time

    • C.

      Procedures grouping

    • D.

      Double booking

    Correct Answer
    A. Wave
    Explanation
    Wave scheduling provides built-in flexibility to accommodate unforeseen situations, such as patients who require more time with the physician. In wave scheduling, patients are scheduled at the beginning of each hour, and they are seen in the order they arrive. This allows for some buffer time between appointments, which can be utilized to handle any unexpected situations or delays that may arise during the day. This flexibility ensures that patients who require more time can be accommodated without disrupting the entire schedule.

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  • 43. 

    An incorrect dose of medication is delivered to a patient in the medical clinic.  As a result, the patient experienced mild kidney damage.  The responsible health care providers and/or clinic is at risk for which of the following?

    • A.

      Slander

    • B.

      Libel

    • C.

      Defamation

    • D.

      Negligence

    Correct Answer
    D. Negligence
    Explanation
    The responsible health care providers and/or clinic are at risk for negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to provide the necessary care or attention that is expected in a particular situation, resulting in harm or injury to someone. In this case, the incorrect dose of medication was delivered to the patient, causing mild kidney damage. This suggests that the health care providers or clinic did not exercise the proper level of care or attention in administering the medication, which can be considered negligence.

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  • 44. 

    The primary objective of which of the following agencies is to regulate and ensure quality of clinical laboratory testing?

    • A.

      OSHA

    • B.

      FDA

    • C.

      DEA

    • D.

      CLIA

    Correct Answer
    D. CLIA
    Explanation
    CLIA, or the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, is the correct answer. CLIA is an agency that aims to regulate and ensure the quality of clinical laboratory testing. It sets standards for laboratory testing and certification, and it also conducts inspections to ensure compliance with these standards. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) focuses on workplace safety, FDA (Food and Drug Administration) regulates food, drugs, and medical devices, and DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) deals with enforcing controlled substance laws. Therefore, CLIA is the agency specifically dedicated to regulating and ensuring the quality of clinical laboratory testing.

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  • 45. 

    Which government agency oversees HIPAA?

    • A.

      OIG

    • B.

      CMS

    • C.

      HHS

    • D.

      OSHA

    Correct Answer
    C. HHS
    Explanation
    HHS, which stands for the Department of Health and Human Services, is the government agency that oversees HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). This act was passed in 1996 to protect the privacy and security of individuals' health information. HHS is responsible for enforcing HIPAA regulations and ensuring that healthcare providers, health plans, and other covered entities comply with the law. They also provide guidance and support to help organizations understand and implement HIPAA requirements effectively.

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  • 46. 

    To prevent the likelihood of somatic tremor artifact, the medical assistant should

    • A.

      Make the patient calm and comfortable to minimize movement.

    • B.

      Attach V2 at the fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum.

    • C.

      Move limb electrodes as far away from the trunk as possible.

    • D.

      Ask the patient to remove any metal objects to reduce interference.

    Correct Answer
    A. Make the patient calm and comfortable to minimize movement.
    Explanation
    Somatic tremor artifact refers to unwanted movement or shaking of the body that can interfere with the accuracy of medical measurements. To prevent this artifact, it is important to make the patient calm and comfortable, as movement is often a cause of somatic tremor. By ensuring that the patient is relaxed and at ease, the likelihood of any involuntary movements that could affect the medical measurements is minimized.

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  • 47. 

    The physician orders a random blood sugar on an adult patient newly diagnosed with diabetes who is right hand dominant. The medical assistant notices inappropriate puncture markings on the patient’s fingers. Which of the following statements should the medical assistant use when re-educating the patient in capillary puncture?

    • A.

      It’s best to use the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on your left hand when doing your finger stick."

    • B.

      "You should consider using the center of the middle finger on either hand for your blood sugar testing."

    • C.

      “Do not use your right hand when checking your blood sugar."

    • D.

      "It’s best to use the outer edge of the under-side of your big toe when performing capillary punctures.”

    Correct Answer
    A. It’s best to use the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on your left hand when doing your finger stick."
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the patient should use the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on their left hand when performing a finger stick for blood sugar testing. This is because the patient is right hand dominant and has shown inappropriate puncture markings on their fingers, indicating that they may not be using the correct technique. By using the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on the left hand, the patient can ensure proper technique and avoid further damage or complications.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following ECG leads records the electrical activity of the inferior surface of the left ventricle and is closest to the heart? 

    • A.

      Lead I

    • B.

      Lead II

    • C.

      AVF

    • D.

      AVR

    Correct Answer
    B. Lead II
    Explanation
    Lead II records the electrical activity of the inferior surface of the left ventricle and is closest to the heart. This is because lead II is formed by placing the positive electrode on the left leg and the negative electrode on the right arm, creating a diagonal line across the chest. This placement allows lead II to capture the electrical activity of the left ventricle, which is located close to the heart's apex.

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  • 49. 

    The medical assistant is completing front office opening tasks prior to the start of the day.  Which of the following indicates the reception area is prepared to receive patients? (Select the three (3) correct answers.)

    • A.

      A throw rug is folded up at one corner., Sharps containers are placed by the entrance for biohazard pick-up., The path from the entrance to the front desk is direct and unobstructed.

    • B.

      Magazines are stacked on the side tables., Lights are turned on., The path from the entrance to the front desk is direct and unobstructed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Magazines are stacked on the side tables., Lights are turned on., The path from the entrance to the front desk is direct and unobstructed.
    Explanation
    The three correct answers are: magazines are stacked on the side tables, lights are turned on, and the path from the entrance to the front desk is direct and unobstructed. These indicate that the reception area is prepared to receive patients. The magazines being stacked on the side tables suggest that there are reading materials available for patients. The lights being turned on create a welcoming and well-lit environment. Lastly, the clear and unobstructed path from the entrance to the front desk ensures that patients can easily navigate their way to check-in.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following is the most common means of transmission of Hepatitis A?

    • A.

      Sexual contact

    • B.

      Contact with contaminated needles

    • C.

      Contact with fecal contaminated food/water

    • D.

      Forceful coughing

    Correct Answer
    C. Contact with fecal contaminated food/water
    Explanation
    The most common means of transmission of Hepatitis A is through contact with fecal contaminated food or water. Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver and is primarily spread through the ingestion of contaminated food or water. The virus is present in the feces of infected individuals and can contaminate food or water sources, leading to the transmission of the virus to others who consume the contaminated food or water. Sexual contact and contact with contaminated needles can also transmit Hepatitis A, but they are not as common as the fecal-oral route of transmission. Forceful coughing is not a means of transmission for Hepatitis A.

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