NCCT Medical Asst. 2016 Ful Pratice Test

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1. The medical assistant reviews instructions with the patient with hypertension about techniques to manage this condition at home.  Which of the following statements by the patient indicates teaching has been successful?  (Select the three (3) correct answers.)

Explanation

The correct answer choices indicate that the patient understands the importance of taking medications regularly, monitoring blood pressure regularly, and incorporating moderate exercise into their daily routine. These actions are all key components of managing hypertension at home. The incorrect answer choice of increasing salt intake in the diet is not recommended for patients with hypertension, as it can worsen the condition. Checking blood sugar regularly is not directly related to managing hypertension, so it is not a correct answer choice.

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About This Quiz
NCCT Medical Asst. 2016 Ful Pratice Test - Quiz

The National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT) is an accredited body that tests and certifies medical practitioners and health care professionals. The medical asst. 2016 full practice test helps you with this. Enjoy as you learn.

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2. The medical assistant witnesses the medical office receptionist taking money from the cash drawer.  The receptionist learns the medical assistant saw her and asks her not to tell the office manager, as it was to pay for her electric bill.  Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

Explanation

The medical assistant should tell the office manager about the incident and request that confidentiality be maintained. This is the most ethical and responsible course of action. By reporting the incident, the medical assistant ensures that the office manager is aware of the situation and can take appropriate action. Requesting confidentiality shows professionalism and respect for the privacy of the receptionist.

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3. The medical assistant is providing instructions for a patient with pneumonia. The optimal time a sputum specimen should be collected is

Explanation

The optimal time to collect a sputum specimen for a patient with pneumonia is first thing in the morning. This is because during the night, secretions accumulate in the lungs and airways, making it easier to produce a good quality specimen in the morning. Collecting the specimen before any food or drink is consumed ensures that it is not contaminated and provides the most accurate results for diagnosis and treatment.

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4. A 6-month-old child is at the clinic for their well-child visit and routine vaccines. Which of the following is the preferred site for an intramuscular injection on this patient?

Explanation

The preferred site for an intramuscular injection on a 6-month-old child is the vastus lateralis. This is because the vastus lateralis muscle, located in the thigh, is well-developed and has a larger muscle mass compared to other sites such as the deltoid or gluteal muscles. The vastus lateralis also has fewer major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of injury during the injection. Additionally, the thigh is easily accessible and provides good stability for administering the injection.

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5. A patient presents to the clinic with a paper towel wrapped around a deep laceration to his hand.  The medical assistant removes the paper towel and finds it is heavily saturated with blood.  The paper towel should be disposed of in a

Explanation

The correct answer is biohazard waste bin. The paper towel is heavily saturated with blood, which makes it a potential biohazardous material. Biohazard waste bins are specifically designed to safely dispose of biohazardous materials, such as blood-soaked items, to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Yellow trash bins and medical waste recycling containers are not specifically designed for biohazardous materials, and sharps containers are used for the disposal of sharp objects like needles and blades. Therefore, the best option for disposing of the blood-soaked paper towel is the biohazard waste bin.

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6. The medical assistant is completing front office opening tasks prior to the start of the day.  Which of the following indicates the reception area is prepared to receive patients? (Select the three (3) correct answers.)

Explanation

The three correct answers are: magazines are stacked on the side tables, lights are turned on, and the path from the entrance to the front desk is direct and unobstructed. These indicate that the reception area is prepared to receive patients. The magazines being stacked on the side tables suggest that there are reading materials available for patients. The lights being turned on create a welcoming and well-lit environment. Lastly, the clear and unobstructed path from the entrance to the front desk ensures that patients can easily navigate their way to check-in.

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7. Which of the following medical office software applications uses an electronic signature? 

Explanation

EHR (Electronic Health Record) is the correct answer because it is a medical office software application that uses an electronic signature. An EHR is a digital version of a patient's paper chart, and it allows healthcare providers to record, store, and share medical information. Electronic signatures are used in EHRs to authenticate and validate the identity of the person signing a document or approving a medical order. This ensures the security and integrity of the patient's electronic health information.

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8. The post office returns a patient's bill to the clinic with the notation "address unknown."  Which of the following steps are appropriate in handling this situation? (Select THE 3 that apply)

Explanation

The appropriate steps in handling this situation are to verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database, document the postmark date, and prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage. Resending the bill to the same address requesting return receipt may not be necessary if the address is unknown. Calling the patient's primary phone number is not mentioned as a necessary step in resolving the issue.

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9. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to ensure proper monitoring of a patient during a stress test?  (Select the three [3] correct answers.)

Explanation

To ensure proper monitoring of a patient during a stress test, the medical assistant should take the following actions: instruct the patient to report any symptoms, measure blood pressure and heart rate frequently, and observe facial expressions, skin color, and perspiration. These actions are important for assessing the patient's response to the stress test and detecting any signs of distress or complications. By instructing the patient to report any symptoms, the medical assistant can gather important information about the patient's well-being during the test. Measuring blood pressure and heart rate frequently allows for monitoring any changes or abnormalities. Observing facial expressions, skin color, and perspiration provides additional visual cues that can indicate the patient's physical and emotional state during the test.

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10. Which of the following statements reflects open-ended communication?

Explanation

The statement "Tell me what brings you in today" reflects open-ended communication because it allows the person to freely express their reasons for visiting without any specific constraints or limitations. This encourages them to share their thoughts, feelings, and concerns in their own words, providing a more comprehensive understanding of their situation.

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11. A medical assistant is hired at a Family Medical Practice. According to OSHA requirements the medical assistant must be offered a vaccine within 10 days of hire, free of charge. The medical assistant knows that this vaccination is to protect him from which of the following?

Explanation

According to OSHA requirements, a medical assistant must be offered a vaccine within 10 days of hire, free of charge. This vaccination is to protect the medical assistant from Hepatitis B.

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12. The endocrinologist requested the patient to return to the outpatient clinic the next day for a glucose tolerance test.  Which of the following preparations should the medical assistant instruct the patient to do the night before the test?

Explanation

The correct answer is NPO after midnight. This means that the patient should not eat or drink anything (except water) after midnight. This is important for a glucose tolerance test because it helps ensure accurate results. Eating or drinking anything before the test can affect blood sugar levels and interfere with the interpretation of the test. By instructing the patient to be NPO after midnight, the medical assistant is ensuring that the patient follows the necessary preparation for the test.

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13. What does the abbreviation HIPAA stand for?

Explanation

The correct answer is Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. This act was enacted in 1996 and is a US federal law that aims to protect the privacy and security of individuals' health information. It also establishes standards for the electronic exchange of health information and sets guidelines for healthcare providers, health plans, and other entities that handle health information. The act also includes provisions to ensure the portability of health insurance coverage for individuals when they change jobs or lose their job.

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14. For which of the following incidents is employer provided post-exposure follow-up indicated?

Explanation

An employer provided post-exposure follow-up is indicated for incidents involving potential exposure to infectious materials, such as blood or bodily fluids. In this case, a polycup containing urine splashed into the eye of an employee, which could potentially contain pathogens. Therefore, post-exposure follow-up is necessary to assess the risk of infection and provide appropriate medical treatment if needed.

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15. A patient expresses cultural beliefs about an alternative method of pain management that differs from the medical assistant's own view.  How should the medical assistant respond?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you." This response shows respect for the patient's cultural beliefs and allows the medical assistant to gather more information about the alternative method. It demonstrates empathy and open-mindedness, which are important in building a trusting relationship with the patient. It also provides an opportunity for the medical assistant to assess the effectiveness and safety of the alternative method before discussing it further with the physician.

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16. An incorrect dose of medication is delivered to a patient in the medical clinic.  As a result, the patient experienced mild kidney damage.  The responsible health care providers and/or clinic is at risk for which of the following?

Explanation

The responsible health care providers and/or clinic are at risk for negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to provide the necessary care or attention that is expected in a particular situation, resulting in harm or injury to someone. In this case, the incorrect dose of medication was delivered to the patient, causing mild kidney damage. This suggests that the health care providers or clinic did not exercise the proper level of care or attention in administering the medication, which can be considered negligence.

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17. Which of the following needle gauges is most commonly used for venipuncture?

Explanation

The most commonly used needle gauges for venipuncture are 21-23. These gauges are preferred because they are large enough to allow for the smooth flow of blood but not too large to cause excessive pain or damage to the vein. They strike a balance between being able to effectively draw blood and minimizing discomfort for the patient.

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18. The medical assistant is collecting a urine sample on a patient to test for pregnancy.  Which of the following is the correct CLIA-waived test?

Explanation

hCG stands for human chorionic gonadotropin, which is a hormone produced during pregnancy. Testing for hCG in a urine sample is a common method to determine if a person is pregnant or not. This test is CLIA-waived, meaning it is considered to be of low complexity and can be performed by medical assistants without extensive laboratory training. Therefore, hCG is the correct CLIA-waived test for pregnancy.

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19. The medical assistant is performing a 12-lead ECG on a patient and notices that lead III does not appear on the tracing. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

Explanation

The correct answer is to check for a loose wire, reconnect, and repeat the tracing. This is because the absence of lead III on the ECG tracing could indicate a technical issue, such as a loose or disconnected wire. By checking for a loose wire, reconnecting it if necessary, and repeating the tracing, the medical assistant can ensure that all leads are properly connected and obtain an accurate ECG reading.

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20. The medical assistant documented an IM injection as follows:  10/12/XX @ 1030, Rocephin 1 gram IM patient tolerated procedure well. Amy Ray, medical assistant.  Which of the following necessary pieces of documentation is missing?

Explanation

The necessary piece of documentation that is missing is the site of administration. The given documentation mentions the date and time of the injection, the medication used, and the fact that the patient tolerated the procedure well. However, it does not specify where the injection was administered, which is an important piece of information for proper medical record keeping.

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21. The medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for a patient following surgical removal of their uterus.  The medical term for this procedure is

Explanation

The correct answer is hysterectomy. This procedure involves the surgical removal of the uterus. The medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for the patient after this procedure, indicating that the patient had a hysterectomy. Oophorectomy refers to the removal of the ovaries, uteroscopy is a procedure to examine the uterus using a scope, and amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test.

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22. In most cultures in the United States, when a medical assistant is speaking with a patient, making direct eye contact encourages

Explanation

Making direct eye contact with a patient encourages open communication because it signals attentiveness, interest, and respect. When a medical assistant maintains eye contact, it shows that they are actively listening and engaged in the conversation. This can help create a sense of trust and comfort for the patient, allowing them to feel more comfortable sharing their concerns, symptoms, and medical history. Open communication is crucial in the healthcare setting to ensure accurate diagnosis, effective treatment, and overall patient satisfaction.

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23. The physician orders a random blood sugar on an adult patient newly diagnosed with diabetes who is right hand dominant. The medical assistant notices inappropriate puncture markings on the patient's fingers. Which of the following statements should the medical assistant use when re-educating the patient in capillary puncture?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the patient should use the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on their left hand when performing a finger stick for blood sugar testing. This is because the patient is right hand dominant and has shown inappropriate puncture markings on their fingers, indicating that they may not be using the correct technique. By using the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on the left hand, the patient can ensure proper technique and avoid further damage or complications.

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24. Which of the following organizations makes on-site visits to inspect medical office laboratories?

Explanation

CLIA, or the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, is the organization that makes on-site visits to inspect medical office laboratories. CLIA is a federal program that regulates laboratory testing and ensures the quality and accuracy of laboratory results. They conduct inspections to assess compliance with their standards and guidelines, including personnel qualifications, quality control, and proficiency testing. These on-site visits help to ensure that medical office laboratories meet the necessary standards to provide accurate and reliable testing for patient care.

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25. Which of the following insurance programs covers active duty military personnel?

Explanation

TRICARE is the correct answer because it is an insurance program specifically designed to provide coverage for active duty military personnel, as well as their dependents and retirees. TRICARE offers comprehensive health care services and benefits to ensure that military personnel and their families have access to the medical care they need. CHAMPVA is a separate insurance program that covers the spouses and dependents of veterans with permanent and total service-connected disabilities, while BCBS and Medicare are not specifically tailored for active duty military personnel.

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26. A patient presents to the medical office with nausea and vomiting. Which of the following types of medication is likely to be prescribed?

Explanation

An antiemetic medication is likely to be prescribed for a patient presenting with nausea and vomiting. Antiemetics are specifically designed to relieve symptoms of nausea and vomiting by blocking certain receptors in the brain and gastrointestinal tract. They can help reduce the urge to vomit and alleviate feelings of nausea, providing relief to the patient.

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27. The primary objective of which of the following agencies is to regulate and ensure quality of clinical laboratory testing?

Explanation

CLIA, or the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, is the correct answer. CLIA is an agency that aims to regulate and ensure the quality of clinical laboratory testing. It sets standards for laboratory testing and certification, and it also conducts inspections to ensure compliance with these standards. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) focuses on workplace safety, FDA (Food and Drug Administration) regulates food, drugs, and medical devices, and DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) deals with enforcing controlled substance laws. Therefore, CLIA is the agency specifically dedicated to regulating and ensuring the quality of clinical laboratory testing.

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28. The order reads cefaclor (Ceclor) 250 mg p.o. stat, then 150 mg q 2 h. How should the medical assistant interpret this medication order?

Explanation

The correct answer is to give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150 milligrams every 2 hours. This interpretation is based on the medication order stating "p.o." which stands for "per os" or "by mouth." Additionally, the order specifies the dose in milligrams, not micrograms or milliliters. The frequency of every 2 hours indicates the timing of the subsequent doses.

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29. A finger stick capillary puncture should be performed at which of the following sites to prevent injury?

Explanation

Performing a finger stick capillary puncture slightly to the side of the center of the fingertip helps to prevent injury. This is because the center of the fingertip contains nerve endings and blood vessels, and puncturing directly in the center can cause more pain and potential damage. By choosing a site slightly to the side, the risk of hitting a nerve or blood vessel is reduced, resulting in a safer and less painful procedure.

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30. Which of the following resources should the medical assistant use to look up the side effects of (enoxaparin)  Lovenox in the medical office?

Explanation

The correct answer is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR). The PDR is a comprehensive reference guide that provides information on prescription drugs, including their indications, dosages, and side effects. It is commonly used by healthcare professionals to look up drug information, including the side effects of specific medications like enoxaparin (Lovenox). The CPT and HCPCS are coding systems used for billing and reimbursement purposes, while the laboratory reference manual is specific to laboratory procedures and tests. Therefore, the PDR is the most appropriate resource for looking up the side effects of Lovenox in a medical office setting.

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31. Commitment to privacy, continuity of care, advance directives, and the authority to refuse treatment are granted according to which of the following?

Explanation

The Patient's Bill of Rights grants individuals the right to privacy, continuity of care, advance directives, and the authority to refuse treatment. This means that patients have the right to keep their personal information confidential, receive consistent and uninterrupted healthcare, make decisions about their medical treatment in advance, and decline any treatment they do not wish to receive. These rights are outlined in the Patient's Bill of Rights, which is a set of guidelines that protect patients' autonomy and ensure they receive the necessary care while respecting their wishes and preferences.

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32. A patient calls requesting to see their provider with report of intense burning and urgency upon urination.  This is an example of which of the following types of special scheduling?

Explanation

The correct answer is same-day appointment. This is because the patient is experiencing intense burning and urgency upon urination, which suggests a possible urinary tract infection or another urgent issue that requires immediate attention. A same-day appointment allows the patient to be seen by their provider on the same day they called, ensuring timely and appropriate care.

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33. Which of the following techniques is correct when collecting a throat culture?

Explanation

The correct technique for collecting a throat culture is to use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat. This method allows for the collection of samples from the specific area of interest, which is the throat. It ensures that the swab comes into contact with the throat surface, allowing for the detection of any potential pathogens or abnormalities present in that area. The other options mentioned in the question either involve collecting samples from incorrect locations (nostril, mouth, nasopharynx) or using a viral media tube, which is not necessary for a throat culture.

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34. When reading the results of an HCT the medical assistant should read starting at the

    Explanation

    When reading the results of an HCT (hematocrit), the medical assistant should read starting at the top of the packed cells. The packed cells refer to the red blood cells that have settled at the bottom of the tube after centrifugation. Reading from the top of the packed cells ensures accurate measurement of the volume of red blood cells in relation to the total volume of blood. This is important for diagnosing conditions such as anemia or polycythemia.

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    35. What does the color of an evacuated collection tube represent?

    Explanation

    The color of an evacuated collection tube represents the type or absence of an additive. Different additives are used in collection tubes to prevent blood from clotting or to preserve certain components of the blood for testing purposes. The color-coding system helps healthcare professionals identify the specific additive present in the tube and ensure accurate test results.

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    36. Which of the following acts involves the termination of a patient from the care of a physician without reasonable, written notice of withdrawal from the case?

    Explanation

    Abandonment involves the termination of a patient from the care of a physician without reasonable, written notice of withdrawal from the case. This means that the physician abruptly ends the patient's treatment without providing proper notification or making alternative arrangements for their care. Abandonment is considered unethical and can have serious consequences for the patient's health and well-being. It is different from other options such as slander, discrimination, and battery, which do not directly involve the termination of a patient's care by a physician.

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    37. The medical assistant is scheduling a patient for a gallbladder study. Which of the following terms should the medical assistant use on the patient test order?

    Explanation

    The medical assistant should use the term "cholecystography" on the patient test order because it specifically refers to a study of the gallbladder. Angiography is a procedure to visualize blood vessels, cystography is a study of the urinary bladder, and cholangiography is an imaging technique used to visualize the bile ducts. Therefore, cholecystography is the most appropriate term for scheduling a patient for a gallbladder study.

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    38. The medical assistant prepares a written prescription for the physician as follows.  What information did the medical assistant leave out? 

    Explanation

    The medical assistant left out the quantity to dispense and directions for taking the medication. This information is crucial for the patient to know how much of the medication to take and how often to take it.

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    39. A patient complains of nausea and vomiting, and has been unable to keep fluids down over the course of two days.  A suppository has been ordered.  Which of the following abbreviations is the correct route of administration?

    Explanation

    The correct route of administration for a suppository is rectal (PR). This means that the medication is inserted into the rectum, where it will be absorbed into the bloodstream. This route is often used when a patient is unable to take medication orally due to nausea and vomiting, as in this case. IM stands for intramuscular, which involves injecting the medication into a muscle. SC stands for subcutaneous, which involves injecting the medication into the fatty tissue just below the skin. INH stands for inhaled, which involves breathing in the medication.

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    40. The patient was seen in the office for follow up evaluation post CVA.  The doctor noticed significant weakness on the patient's left side.  Which of the following should the medical assistant expect to perform?

    Explanation

    Based on the information given, the patient has significant weakness on their left side. Active assist range of motion exercises involve the patient actively participating in moving their affected limb while the medical assistant provides assistance as needed. This type of exercise would be appropriate for a patient with weakness on one side, as it helps to maintain joint mobility and prevent contractures. Full weight bearing exercise assistance, crutch training, and cold chemical pack application are not mentioned in the scenario and are not relevant to addressing weakness on the left side.

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    41. The medical assistant should administer nitroglycerin by which of the following methods?

    Explanation

    The medical assistant should administer nitroglycerin sublingually. This method involves placing the medication under the tongue, where it quickly dissolves and is absorbed into the bloodstream. Sublingual administration allows for rapid onset of action, making it an effective route for treating acute conditions such as angina. Buccal administration involves placing the medication between the cheek and gum, while intramuscular and intradermal routes involve injecting the medication into the muscle or skin, respectively. However, these routes are not appropriate for administering nitroglycerin.

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    42. When preparing to assist the physician with collection of a deep wound culture, the medical assistant should have which of the following available?

    Explanation

    When preparing to assist the physician with collection of a deep wound culture, the medical assistant should have bacterial culture swabs available. This is because bacterial culture swabs are specifically designed to collect samples from wounds for further analysis. Blood culture media is used to collect and culture blood samples, viral transport media is used to transport viral samples, and cotton tipped swabs are not specifically designed for wound culture collection.

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    43. Which of the following is required for permission to treat a patient scheduled for a complex procedure?

    Explanation

    Informed consent is required for permission to treat a patient scheduled for a complex procedure. This means that the patient must be fully informed about the procedure, including its risks, benefits, and alternatives, before giving their consent. Informed consent ensures that the patient has the necessary information to make an educated decision about their treatment and allows them to actively participate in their healthcare decisions. It is an essential ethical and legal requirement in medical practice to respect patient autonomy and ensure patient-centered care.

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    44. The medical assistant should access which of the following sections of the electronic health record or paper chart to retrieve patient contact information?

    Explanation

    The medical assistant should access the billing section of the electronic health record or paper chart to retrieve patient contact information. This section typically contains the patient's billing address, phone number, and insurance information, which are necessary for contacting the patient regarding billing-related matters.

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    45. Which of the following ECG leads records the electrical activity of the inferior surface of the left ventricle and is closest to the heart? 

    Explanation

    Lead II records the electrical activity of the inferior surface of the left ventricle and is closest to the heart. This is because lead II is formed by placing the positive electrode on the left leg and the negative electrode on the right arm, creating a diagonal line across the chest. This placement allows lead II to capture the electrical activity of the left ventricle, which is located close to the heart's apex.

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    46. The medical assistant should refer to which of the following agencies to access updated immunization schedules?

    Explanation

    The medical assistant should refer to the CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) to access updated immunization schedules. The CDC is a government agency responsible for protecting public health and safety and provides guidelines and recommendations for immunizations. They regularly update their schedules based on the latest research and scientific evidence to ensure that healthcare professionals have the most up-to-date information on immunizations.

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    47. An established patient who has Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease is evaluated in the medical office for hypertension.  What is the importance of identifying the reason for today's visit related to billing?

    Explanation

    Identifying the reason for today's visit is important for billing because it helps determine the primary diagnosis. The primary diagnosis is the main reason for the patient's visit and is used to determine the appropriate billing codes and reimbursement. By identifying the primary diagnosis, the medical office can accurately code and bill for the services provided, ensuring proper reimbursement for the care given to the patient.

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    48. The medical assistant schedules the patient with a sebaceous cyst for an I & D.  Which of the following statements best describes this procedure?

    Explanation

    The procedure described in the correct answer involves making an incision into a localized area of infection, specifically an abscess, in order to drain the exudate (pus) from the area. This procedure is commonly known as an incision and drainage (I&D) and is performed to relieve pain, promote healing, and prevent the spread of infection. It is a common treatment for sebaceous cysts, which are painless sacs filled with sebum (a waxy substance).

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    49. Which of the following is the most common means of transmission of Hepatitis A?

    Explanation

    The most common means of transmission of Hepatitis A is through contact with fecal contaminated food or water. Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver and is primarily spread through the ingestion of contaminated food or water. The virus is present in the feces of infected individuals and can contaminate food or water sources, leading to the transmission of the virus to others who consume the contaminated food or water. Sexual contact and contact with contaminated needles can also transmit Hepatitis A, but they are not as common as the fecal-oral route of transmission. Forceful coughing is not a means of transmission for Hepatitis A.

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    50. The importance of accurate anatomic positioning of leads on a patient when performing an ECG is to

    Explanation

    The importance of accurate anatomic positioning of leads on a patient when performing an ECG is to capture true cardiac activity. An ECG measures the electrical activity of the heart, and accurate placement of the leads ensures that the electrical signals from the heart are properly detected and recorded. This allows for an accurate assessment of the heart's rhythm and any abnormalities that may be present.

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    51. Which of the following actions by the medical assistant demonstrates compliance with the ADA?

    Explanation

    The action of ensuring hallways to exam rooms remain free of obstructions demonstrates compliance with the ADA because it promotes accessibility for individuals with disabilities. The ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act) requires that public spaces, including healthcare facilities, be accessible to people with disabilities. By keeping hallways clear, the medical assistant is ensuring that individuals with mobility aids or other disabilities can navigate the space safely and easily. This action aligns with the ADA's goal of equal access and non-discrimination for individuals with disabilities.

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    52. The patient complains of joint pain and swelling.  The physician wants to remove synovial fluid for analysis.  The medical assistant should set up for which of the following procedures?

    Explanation

    Arthrocentesis is a procedure in which synovial fluid is removed from a joint for analysis. It is commonly performed to diagnose conditions such as arthritis or infection. In this case, the patient's complaint of joint pain and swelling suggests the need for analysis of the synovial fluid, making arthrocentesis the appropriate procedure to set up for. Arthroscopy is a different procedure that involves inserting a camera into the joint to visualize and potentially treat any abnormalities. Arthrodesis is a surgical procedure to fuse a joint, and arthrogram is a diagnostic imaging test that involves injecting contrast dye into a joint.

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    53. Older adult patients are the population most at risk for which of the following medication complications due to a declining liver function?

    Explanation

    Older adult patients are at a higher risk for medication toxicity due to their declining liver function. The liver is responsible for metabolizing and eliminating drugs from the body. As liver function declines with age, the ability to metabolize medications may be impaired, leading to higher levels of drugs in the bloodstream and an increased risk of toxicity. This can result in adverse effects and complications from medications.

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    54. Which of the following mail classifications is the most cost-efficient for sending an office newsletter to patients and associates?

    Explanation

    The most cost-efficient mail classification for sending an office newsletter to patients and associates would be "standard." Standard mail is typically the least expensive option for sending bulk mail and is suitable for non-urgent and non-time-sensitive materials like newsletters. It may take longer to reach the recipients compared to priority or express mail, but it offers a more economical solution for regular communication. Certified mail, on the other hand, is used for important documents that require proof of delivery and is not necessary for sending newsletters.

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    55. Prior to purging and destroying paper medical charts, a medical office assistant should consult which of following guidelines?

    Explanation

    A medical office assistant should consult state and federal guidelines prior to purging and destroying paper medical charts. These guidelines are crucial as they outline the specific regulations and requirements that must be followed to ensure the proper handling and disposal of sensitive medical information. Municipal guidelines may vary from one locality to another, while the American Medical Association (AMA) and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) provide general guidelines but may not cover all the specific legal requirements. Therefore, it is essential to refer to state and federal guidelines for accurate and comprehensive instructions.

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    56. Which of the following types of scheduling provides built in flexibility to accommodate unforeseen situations, such as patients who require more time with the physician.

    Explanation

    Wave scheduling provides built-in flexibility to accommodate unforeseen situations, such as patients who require more time with the physician. In wave scheduling, patients are scheduled at the beginning of each hour, and they are seen in the order they arrive. This allows for some buffer time between appointments, which can be utilized to handle any unexpected situations or delays that may arise during the day. This flexibility ensures that patients who require more time can be accommodated without disrupting the entire schedule.

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    57. The transfer of information such as patient eligibility, payment remittances, claims, claim status, authorizations and referrals are addressed under the HIPAA Administrative Simplification and Compliance Act as electronic

    Explanation

    The transfer of information such as patient eligibility, payment remittances, claims, claim status, authorizations, and referrals is addressed under the HIPAA Administrative Simplification and Compliance Act as electronic data interchange. This refers to the electronic exchange of data between different healthcare entities, such as healthcare providers, insurance companies, and clearinghouses. It allows for the efficient and secure transfer of information, ensuring compliance with HIPAA regulations and streamlining administrative processes in the healthcare industry.

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    58. A parent calls the pediatrician's office very upset because her child is vomiting and has a temperature of 103.3 F.  The medical assistant should

    Explanation

    Based on the information provided, the child is experiencing vomiting and has a high temperature of 103.3 F. These symptoms may indicate an illness that requires medical attention. Therefore, scheduling a same day work-in appointment would be the most appropriate action for the medical assistant to take. This would allow the child to be evaluated by a healthcare professional and receive appropriate treatment if necessary.

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    59. When managing multiple incoming calls, the medical assistant should handle which of the following calls first?

    Explanation

    The correct answer is a neurologist seeing a patient on consult. When managing multiple incoming calls, the medical assistant should prioritize urgent matters first. In this case, the neurologist seeing a patient on consult is likely to require immediate attention as it involves patient care. The other calls can be addressed after attending to the urgent consult.

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    60. The patient is referred to a neurosurgeon. Entering the specialist's NPI number and number of visits requested into the patient's insurance carrier's website is part of which of the following processes?

    Explanation

    The patient is referred to a neurosurgeon, and the next step is to enter the specialist's NPI number and the number of visits requested into the patient's insurance carrier's website. This process is known as precertification. Precertification is the process of obtaining approval from the insurance company before receiving certain medical services or procedures. It ensures that the services are medically necessary and covered by the patient's insurance plan.

    Submit
    61. The medical assistant is reprocessing instruments in the medical office.  Which of the following indicates the instrument pack is sterile?

    Explanation

    The indicator strip darkens - This indicates that the instrument pack is sterile. Indicator strips are specifically designed to change color when exposed to high temperatures and pressure in an autoclave, indicating that the sterilization process has been successful. The autoclave tape turning black or the completion of a cycle does not necessarily guarantee sterility, while the autoclave door unlocking is unrelated to the sterilization process.

    Submit
    62. A patient with dyspnea comes in for an ECG. In which of the following positions should the patient be placed for the procedure?

    Explanation

    The patient should be placed in the semi Fowlers position for the ECG procedure. This position involves the patient sitting at a 45-degree angle with their knees bent. It is commonly used for patients with dyspnea as it helps to improve breathing by allowing the diaphragm to move more freely. This position also helps to reduce strain on the heart and improve blood flow.

    Submit
    63. The physician excises a mole and wants to send it to the pathology laboratory for further analysis.  The sample should be placed with care into which of the following collection containers?

    Explanation

    The physician needs to send the mole to the pathology laboratory for further analysis. Formalin is a commonly used fixative in pathology to preserve tissues for examination. Therefore, the sample should be placed in a sterile specimen container with formalin to ensure proper preservation and transportation of the mole for analysis.

    Submit
    64. Which of the following is a requirement for a healthcare facility to be in compliance with OSHA?

    Explanation

    To be in compliance with OSHA, a healthcare facility must provide annual employee safety training. This is necessary to ensure that employees are aware of and trained in the proper safety protocols and procedures to prevent workplace injuries and hazards. It is a requirement for healthcare facilities to prioritize the safety and well-being of their employees, and providing regular safety training is a crucial aspect of this commitment.

    Submit
    65. A toddler is brought into the office by a parent with complaints of coughing, sneezing, runny nose, and temperature of 102.2 F.  At a minimum, which of the following PPE should the medical assistant put on before taking vital signs on the patient?

    Explanation

    The correct answer is gown, gloves, and mask. This is because the patient is displaying symptoms of a respiratory illness, including coughing, sneezing, and a runny nose. These symptoms indicate that the patient may be contagious and could potentially spread the illness to others. Wearing a gown, gloves, and mask will help protect the medical assistant from coming into contact with the patient's respiratory secretions and reduce the risk of transmission.

    Submit
    66. To prevent the likelihood of somatic tremor artifact, the medical assistant should

    Explanation

    Somatic tremor artifact refers to unwanted movement or shaking of the body that can interfere with the accuracy of medical measurements. To prevent this artifact, it is important to make the patient calm and comfortable, as movement is often a cause of somatic tremor. By ensuring that the patient is relaxed and at ease, the likelihood of any involuntary movements that could affect the medical measurements is minimized.

    Submit
    67. Which of the following is necessary before ordering or paying for medical office supplies?

    Explanation

    Before ordering or paying for medical office supplies, a purchase order is necessary. A purchase order is a document that is issued by the buyer to the seller, specifying the details of the items to be purchased, quantities, prices, and terms of payment. It serves as a formal agreement between the buyer and seller, ensuring that the correct items are ordered and delivered, and also helps in tracking and managing inventory. Without a purchase order, there is a risk of confusion, incorrect orders, or payment disputes. Therefore, a purchase order is essential in the procurement process for medical office supplies.

    Submit
    68. A pediatric patient has been diagnosed with a mild skin infection and the physician orders Amoxicillin.  The ordered dose (based on today's weight) is 91 mg every 8 hours.  The patient is to receive a first dose of medication before leaving the office and the suspension available is 125 mg/5 mL.  How much medication should the medical assistant administer?

    Explanation

    The physician has ordered a dose of 91 mg every 8 hours. The available suspension is 125 mg/5 mL. To find out how much medication should be administered, we can set up a proportion: 125 mg/5 mL = 91 mg/x mL. Cross-multiplying, we get 125x = 455. Dividing both sides by 125, we find x = 3.64 mL. Since we need to round to the nearest tenth, the medical assistant should administer 3.6 mL of medication.

    Submit
    69. When measuring oxygen saturation on a child breathing room air, with normal color, and no signs of respiratory distress, the medical assistant obtains a reading of 79%.  Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take next?

    Explanation

    The correct answer is to reposition the finger probe. Oxygen saturation readings are obtained by placing a finger probe on the patient's finger, and if the probe is not positioned correctly, it can lead to inaccurate readings. In this case, the reading of 79% may be incorrect due to a faulty probe placement. Therefore, the medical assistant should reposition the finger probe to ensure accurate oxygen saturation measurement.

    Submit
    70. While emptying the autoclave, the medical assistant notices that the wrapped instruments are damp. The medical assistant should

    Explanation

    The correct answer is to leave the instruments in the autoclave with the door cracked to dry. This is because opening the autoclave door allows air to circulate and helps the instruments dry more quickly. Removing the instruments and setting them on the counter or placing them on the Mayo stand for surgery may lead to contamination. Running the cycle again is not necessary and may waste time and resources.

    Submit
    71. Forced Vital Capacity is measured by instructing the patient to

    Explanation

    The correct answer is "forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds." This is because Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) is a measure of the maximum amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and completely after taking a deep breath. By instructing the patient to forcefully breathe air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds, it ensures that the test accurately measures the patient's maximum exhalation capacity.

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    72. Disinfecting an ECG machine and lead wire surfaces with antimicrobial wipes after each patient use is an example of which of the following?

    Explanation

    Disinfecting an ECG machine and lead wire surfaces with antimicrobial wipes after each patient use is an example of medical asepsis. Medical asepsis refers to practices that aim to reduce the number and transfer of pathogens, such as cleaning and disinfecting surfaces and equipment to prevent the spread of infection. This practice helps maintain a clean and safe environment for patients and healthcare providers.

    Submit
    73. Which of the following forms must be signed by the patient and kept on file, allowing physicians to be paid directly from the insurance carrier?

    Explanation

    The assignment of benefits form must be signed by the patient and kept on file, allowing physicians to be paid directly from the insurance carrier. This form authorizes the insurance company to pay the healthcare provider directly for the services rendered to the patient. It ensures that the healthcare provider receives payment for their services without the patient having to be involved in the payment process.

    Submit
    74. Which of the following names should come first when working with an alpha-numeric filing system?

    Explanation

    In an alpha-numeric filing system, names are arranged in alphabetical order first, followed by any numeric designations. In this case, "Peter G. Burns Jr." should come first because it is the only name without a numeric designation. "Jonathan A. Mendez I" and "Jonathan A. Mendez II" have numeric designations, while "Peter G. Burns S" does not follow the alphabetical order. Therefore, "Peter G. Burns Jr." is the correct answer.

    Submit
    75. Files for patients who have died or moved away are known as

    Explanation

    Files for patients who have died or moved away are typically closed because they are no longer active or in use. Closing a file indicates that it is no longer active and does not require further action or updates. This allows for better organization and management of patient records, as closed files can be stored separately or archived.

    Submit
    76. Venipuncture should be avoided on an arm with

    Explanation

    Venipuncture should be avoided on an arm with an elbow splint because the splint restricts movement and immobilizes the elbow joint. This can make it difficult to access and properly position the vein for venipuncture. Additionally, there is a risk of causing discomfort or injury to the patient if the splint is not handled carefully during the procedure. Therefore, it is best to choose another arm for venipuncture if the patient has an elbow splint.

    Submit
    77. The physician's office sets aside Monday afternoons for high school sports physicals.  This is an example of which method of scheduling?

    Explanation

    Clustering is the method of scheduling where specific appointments or tasks are grouped together based on their similarities or common characteristics. In this case, the physician's office sets aside Monday afternoons specifically for high school sports physicals, indicating that these appointments are being clustered together on a designated day and time. This allows for efficient use of resources and ensures that the necessary equipment and staff are available for these specific appointments.

    Submit
    78. The medical assistant performs a urine hCG on a patient whose results are inconclusive.  Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take next?

    Explanation

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    Submit
    79. Flow charts, progress notes, and narrative notation are all examples of

    Explanation

    Flow charts, progress notes, and narrative notation are all different methods of recording patient information in a medical record. These methods are used to document various aspects of a patient's condition, treatment, and progress. Flow charts are visual representations of information, progress notes are written summaries of patient encounters, and narrative notation is a detailed written account of events. All of these styles contribute to the comprehensive recording of patient information in a medical record.

    Submit
    80. A patient's encounter form contributes to the efficiency and flow of information in the medical office at check-out in which of the following ways?

    Explanation

    The patient's encounter form contributes to the efficiency and flow of information in the medical office at check-out by listing codes for services and procedures performed during the visit. This allows for accurate and organized documentation of the medical services provided, which is essential for billing and reimbursement purposes. It also helps in maintaining a record of the patient's medical history and aids in future reference or follow-up visits. By having these codes listed on the encounter form, it streamlines the administrative process and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and communicated effectively.

    Submit
    81. Placement of the ground lead on an ECG is on the

    Explanation

    The correct answer is RL on the soft tissue of the leg. In an ECG, the ground lead is placed on the soft tissue of the leg to provide a reference point for the electrical activity of the heart. This helps in accurately measuring the electrical signals produced by the heart during each heartbeat. Placing the ground lead on the soft tissue ensures a stable and consistent reference point, allowing for accurate interpretation of the ECG readings.

    Submit
    82. The medical assistant measures the head circumference on a 6-month-old male infant during a well-baby check.  The circumference is 42 cm.  Which of the following percentiles should the medical assistant assign based on this pediatric growth chart?

    Explanation

    Based on the given information, the medical assistant measures the head circumference of a 6-month-old male infant and it is 42 cm. To assign a percentile based on a pediatric growth chart, the head circumference measurement is compared to a range of measurements for infants of the same age and sex. In this case, the measurement falls within the 10th percentile, indicating that the infant's head circumference is larger than 10% of infants of the same age and sex.

    Submit
    83. Beginning with the infectious agent, place the elements in the correct order of the chain of infection.

    Explanation

    The chain of infection starts with a reservoir host, which is where the infectious agent lives and multiplies. The infectious agent then exits the reservoir host through a portal of exit, such as respiratory secretions or bodily fluids. The means of transmission refers to how the infectious agent is transferred from the reservoir host to a new host, such as through direct contact or airborne droplets. The infectious agent then enters the new host through a portal of entry, such as through the respiratory system or broken skin. Finally, the new host becomes susceptible to the infection.

    Submit
    84. A patient is discharged from the hospital with a diagnosis of HIV and MRSA and comes to the office for a follow-up appointment.  What is the best method the medical assistant could use to clean the nasal speculum, forceps, and hemostat used in the exam?

    Explanation

    The best method the medical assistant could use to clean the nasal speculum, forceps, and hemostat used in the exam is steam sterilization. Steam sterilization is a highly effective method that uses high-pressure steam to kill all microorganisms, including HIV and MRSA. It is a reliable and efficient way to ensure that the instruments are completely sterile and safe to use on other patients. Chemical sterilization, disinfection with 70% isopropyl alcohol, and disinfection with sodium hypochlorite (1:10) may not be as effective in eliminating all pathogens, especially in the case of HIV and MRSA.

    Submit
    85. The medical assistant is caring for an adult patient with a history of coronary artery disease.  Which of the following BP measurements should prompt the medical assistant to notify the health care provider?   (Select the three (3) correct answers.) 

    Explanation

    not-available-via-ai

    Submit
    86. A female patient has come in for an ECG following a mastectomy. ECG electrodes should be placed

    Explanation

    The correct answer is "as close to the surgery site as possible without touching the site." This is because placing the ECG electrodes as close to the surgery site as possible allows for accurate monitoring of the heart's electrical activity. However, it is important to avoid directly touching the surgery site to prevent any disruption or discomfort for the patient.

    Submit
    87. A medical assistant is positioning a patient for sigmoidoscopy.  Which of the following positions would be appropriate for the procedure?

    Explanation

    The Sims position would be appropriate for sigmoidoscopy. The Sims position involves the patient lying on their left side with the right knee bent towards the chest. This position allows for better visualization and access to the rectum and sigmoid colon during the procedure. The lithotomy position involves the patient lying on their back with their legs elevated and spread apart, which is commonly used for gynecological exams. The Trendelenburg position involves the patient lying flat on their back with the head lower than the feet, which is used in certain surgical procedures. The supine position involves the patient lying flat on their back, which is a common position for medical examinations.

    Submit
    88. Which of the following actions is an example of compliance with Quality Control (QC) guidelines for phlebotomy?

    Explanation

    Checking controls on urinalysis dipsticks daily is an example of compliance with Quality Control (QC) guidelines for phlebotomy because it ensures the accuracy and reliability of the test results. Regularly checking the controls helps to identify any issues or inaccuracies in the testing process, allowing for prompt corrective actions to be taken. This is an important aspect of maintaining quality and ensuring that patients receive accurate and reliable test results.

    Submit
    89. When reading the results of an HCT the medical assistant should read starting at the

    Explanation

    When reading the results of an HCT (Hematocrit), it is important for the medical assistant to read starting at the top of the packed cells. The packed cells refer to the red blood cells that have settled at the bottom of the sample tube after centrifugation. By reading from the top of the packed cells, the medical assistant can accurately measure the volume of red blood cells in relation to the total volume of the sample, which is a crucial parameter in assessing a patient's blood health.

    Submit
    90. Which of the following conditions may occur if a tourniquet is left in place on a patient's extremity for longer than 60 seconds?

    Explanation

    If a tourniquet is left in place on a patient's extremity for longer than 60 seconds, venous stasis may occur. Venous stasis refers to the slowing or stagnation of blood flow in the veins, usually due to a blockage or compression. Leaving a tourniquet on for an extended period can obstruct venous blood flow, leading to pooling of blood in the veins and potentially causing venous stasis. This can result in swelling, pain, and potentially more serious complications such as blood clots or tissue damage.

    Submit
    91.
    Which of the following are Schedule IV drugs?

    Explanation

    Antianxiety agents and hypnotics with a low potential for abuse are classified as Schedule IV drugs. These drugs are considered to have a lower risk of abuse and dependence compared to drugs in higher schedules. They are commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. The other options listed, such as controlled narcotics and substances with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse, do not fall under Schedule IV drugs.

    Submit
    92. Which government agency oversees HIPAA?

    Explanation

    HHS, which stands for the Department of Health and Human Services, is the government agency that oversees HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). This act was passed in 1996 to protect the privacy and security of individuals' health information. HHS is responsible for enforcing HIPAA regulations and ensuring that healthcare providers, health plans, and other covered entities comply with the law. They also provide guidance and support to help organizations understand and implement HIPAA requirements effectively.

    Submit
    93. The pictured rhythm is an example of which of the following?

    Explanation

    The pictured rhythm is an example of a premature ventricular contraction. Premature ventricular contractions occur when an electrical signal in the heart originates from a ventricle instead of the normal pathway. This can cause the ventricles to contract earlier than expected, disrupting the normal rhythm of the heart. It is characterized by a wide and bizarre QRS complex on an ECG, which is evident in the pictured rhythm.

    Submit
    94. When performing a 12-lead ECG, which of the following positions demonstrates correct lead placement?

    Explanation

    In a 12-lead ECG, V4 is correctly placed in the left midclavicular 5th intercostal space. This is a standard placement for V4, allowing for accurate recording of electrical activity in the heart. Placing V4 in the left midclavicular 4th intercostal space or placing V5 in the left midaxillary 5th intercostal space or left midclavicular 4th intercostal space would result in incorrect lead placement.

    Submit
    95. The physician believes a patient might have problems with her spleen. Where would the doctor palpate to feel for the spleen?

    Explanation

    The correct answer is the left side of the patient's abdomen beneath the diaphragm. The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, beneath the diaphragm. Palpation in this area allows the physician to feel for any enlargement or tenderness of the spleen, which may indicate a problem.

    Submit
    96. A medical office assistant is reviewing a patient's encounter that is documented in the medical record prior to completing a CMS-1500 form. She notices that the physician upcoded the encounter. The medical office assistant has the ethical obligation to

    Explanation

    The medical office assistant has the ethical obligation to debate the code. This means that the assistant should question or discuss the coding discrepancy with the physician. It is important for the assistant to address any concerns or discrepancies in order to ensure accurate and ethical coding practices. Simply changing or altering the code without discussion may not be appropriate, as it is essential to have a clear understanding and agreement between the assistant and the physician. Down coding the code may also not be the best approach, as it may result in undercoding and potential financial implications for the patient or the medical office.

    Submit
    97. When removing a suture from a patient's leg, the medical assistant should use which of the following instruments?

    Explanation

    When removing a suture from a patient's leg, the medical assistant should use dressing forceps. Dressing forceps are specifically designed to handle sterile dressings and sutures. They have a delicate grip and a smooth surface, which makes them suitable for removing sutures without causing any damage or discomfort to the patient. Tissue forceps are used for grasping and manipulating tissues during surgical procedures, splinter forceps are used for removing splinters, and sponge forceps are used for holding and manipulating surgical sponges. None of these instruments are appropriate for removing sutures.

    Submit
    98. Which of the following types of appointment scheduling would be the best method for an office with standard hours, multiple practitioners, and accommodating work-in appointments?

    Explanation

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    Submit
    99. The physician orders an ECG on a patient with severe burns on his left arm.  Which of the following alternate placements should the ECG technician use?

    Explanation

    In this scenario, the patient has severe burns on his left arm. Placing the upper limb leads symmetrically as close to the original site as possible ensures that the ECG readings are obtained from a comparable location on the unaffected right arm. This allows for accurate comparison and interpretation of the ECG results. Placing the leads substernally at the acromion process or only on the left upper limb may not provide accurate readings or a proper baseline for comparison.

    Submit
    100. When preparing liquid medications for administration, the medical assistant should check the medication and expiration date, then place the cap with attached dropper face

    Explanation

    When preparing liquid medications for administration, the medical assistant should place the cap with attached dropper face up and read the volume at the bottom of the meniscus. This is because the meniscus is the curved surface of the liquid in the dropper, and the bottom of the meniscus represents the true volume of the liquid. By reading the volume at the bottom of the meniscus, the medical assistant ensures accurate measurement of the medication.

    Submit
    101. Which of the following rhythms is shown in the strip?

    Explanation

    Atrial flutter is a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and regular atrial contractions. It is typically seen as a sawtooth pattern on an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip. In this question, the rhythm shown in the strip is most likely atrial flutter, as it matches the description given. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregular and chaotic atrial contractions, premature atrial complex refers to a single early beat originating from the atria, and atrial tachycardia is a rapid heart rate originating from the atria.

    Submit
    102. The physician orders the following blood work to evaluate a patient for sepsis:  CBC, Blood Culture, and BMP.  When using the evacuated tube method for venipuncture, in which of the following orders should the tubes be drawn?

    Explanation

    The correct order for drawing the tubes when using the evacuated tube method for venipuncture is blood culture, red top, lavender top. This order is important because the blood culture tube should be drawn first to minimize the risk of contamination from other tubes. The red top tube is then drawn to obtain a serum sample, followed by the lavender top tube which is used for a complete blood count (CBC).

    Submit
    103. The medical assistant performs daily accounts receivable (AR) procedures in the medical office to identify

    Explanation

    The medical assistant performs daily accounts receivable (AR) procedures in the medical office to identify amounts owed to the physician. This means that the medical assistant is responsible for keeping track of the payments that patients owe to the physician for the medical services provided. By performing these AR procedures, the medical assistant ensures that all outstanding debts are identified and can be followed up on for payment.

    Submit
    104. Which of the following blood components are visible in a centrifuged, evacuated red top tube?

    Explanation

    In a centrifuged, evacuated red top tube, both serum and blood clot are visible. The serum is the clear, yellowish fluid that separates from the blood cells and clot during the centrifugation process. It contains various proteins, electrolytes, hormones, and waste products. The blood clot is formed by the aggregation of platelets and the activation of the clotting cascade. It appears as a gel-like substance and helps in stopping bleeding and promoting wound healing.

    Submit
    105. A personal check is returned to the medical office due to nonsufficient funds for an established patient recently placed on hospice care services.  Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

    Explanation

    The correct answer is to increase the patient's account balance due by the same amount of the returned check plus the penalty fee. This action ensures that the medical office recovers the funds owed by the patient and also accounts for any additional charges incurred due to the returned check. By increasing the account balance, the medical office can pursue collections and take appropriate actions to recover the payment.

    Submit
    106. When giving a nebulizer treatment with bronchodilator, the medical assistant should most closely monitor for which of the following complications?

    Explanation

    When giving a nebulizer treatment with a bronchodilator, the medical assistant should most closely monitor for persistent tachycardia. Nebulizer treatments with bronchodilators can cause an increase in heart rate, and persistent tachycardia may indicate a more severe reaction or potential complications. Monitoring the patient's heart rate closely is important to ensure their safety and to promptly address any adverse reactions.

    Submit
    107. Which of the following resources should the medical assistant use to look up the code for a laceration repair?

    Explanation

    The correct answer is Current Procedural Terminology. Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) is a standardized system used by medical professionals to code procedures and services provided to patients. It provides a uniform language that allows for accurate communication, billing, and reimbursement. In this case, the medical assistant should refer to CPT to find the appropriate code for a laceration repair. The other options, such as the International Classification of Disease, Physician's Desk Reference, and healthcare Common Procedural Coding System, are not specifically designed for coding procedures and services like CPT is.

    Submit
    108. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to eliminate the artifact shown in the strip shown above?

    Explanation

    The artifact shown in the strip is likely caused by electrical interference, which is commonly seen when there is a problem with the grounding of the equipment. Checking the bed plugin at the wall socket or unplugging the bed can help eliminate the interference and improve the quality of the strip. This action ensures that the equipment is properly grounded and reduces the chances of electrical interference causing artifacts.

    Submit
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    The medical assistant reviews instructions with the patient with...
    The medical assistant witnesses the medical office receptionist taking...
    The medical assistant is providing instructions for a patient with...
    A 6-month-old child is at the clinic for their well-child visit and...
    A patient presents to the clinic with a paper towel wrapped around a...
    The medical assistant is completing front office opening tasks prior...
    Which of the following medical office software applications uses an...
    The post office returns a patient's bill to the clinic with the...
    Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to...
    Which of the following statements reflects open-ended communication?
    A medical assistant is hired at a Family Medical Practice. According...
    The endocrinologist requested the patient to return to the outpatient...
    What does the abbreviation HIPAA stand for?
    For which of the following incidents is employer provided...
    A patient expresses cultural beliefs about an alternative method of...
    An incorrect dose of medication is delivered to a patient in the...
    Which of the following needle gauges is most commonly used for...
    The medical assistant is collecting a urine sample on a patient to...
    The medical assistant is performing a 12-lead ECG on a patient and...
    The medical assistant documented an IM injection as follows: ...
    The medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for a patient...
    In most cultures in the United States, when a medical assistant is...
    The physician orders a random blood sugar on an adult patient newly...
    Which of the following organizations makes on-site visits to inspect...
    Which of the following insurance programs covers active duty military...
    A patient presents to the medical office with nausea and vomiting....
    The primary objective of which of the following agencies is to...
    The order reads cefaclor (Ceclor) 250 mg p.o. stat, then 150 mg q 2 h....
    A finger stick capillary puncture should be performed at which of the...
    Which of the following resources should the medical assistant use to...
    Commitment to privacy, continuity of care, advance directives, and the...
    A patient calls requesting to see their provider with report of...
    Which of the following techniques is correct when collecting a throat...
    When reading the results of an HCT the medical assistant should read...
    What does the color of an evacuated collection tube represent?
    Which of the following acts involves the termination of a patient from...
    The medical assistant is scheduling a patient for a gallbladder study....
    The medical assistant prepares a written prescription for the...
    A patient complains of nausea and vomiting, and has been unable to...
    The patient was seen in the office for follow up evaluation post...
    The medical assistant should administer nitroglycerin by which of the...
    When preparing to assist the physician with collection of a deep wound...
    Which of the following is required for permission to treat a patient...
    The medical assistant should access which of the following sections of...
    Which of the following ECG leads records the electrical activity of...
    The medical assistant should refer to which of the following agencies...
    An established patient who has Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease...
    The medical assistant schedules the patient with a sebaceous cyst for...
    Which of the following is the most common means of transmission of...
    The importance of accurate anatomic positioning of leads on a patient...
    Which of the following actions by the medical assistant demonstrates...
    The patient complains of joint pain and swelling.  The physician...
    Older adult patients are the population most at risk for which of the...
    Which of the following mail classifications is the most cost-efficient...
    Prior to purging and destroying paper medical charts, a medical office...
    Which of the following types of scheduling provides built in...
    The transfer of information such as patient eligibility, payment...
    A parent calls the pediatrician's office very upset because her child...
    When managing multiple incoming calls, the medical assistant should...
    The patient is referred to a neurosurgeon. Entering the specialist's...
    The medical assistant is reprocessing instruments in the medical...
    A patient with dyspnea comes in for an ECG. In which of the following...
    The physician excises a mole and wants to send it to the pathology...
    Which of the following is a requirement for a healthcare facility to...
    A toddler is brought into the office by a parent with complaints of...
    To prevent the likelihood of somatic tremor artifact, the medical...
    Which of the following is necessary before ordering or paying for...
    A pediatric patient has been diagnosed with a mild skin infection and...
    When measuring oxygen saturation on a child breathing room air, with...
    While emptying the autoclave, the medical assistant notices that the...
    Forced Vital Capacity is measured by instructing the patient to
    Disinfecting an ECG machine and lead wire surfaces with antimicrobial...
    Which of the following forms must be signed by the patient and kept on...
    Which of the following names should come first when working with an...
    Files for patients who have died or moved away are known as
    Venipuncture should be avoided on an arm with
    The physician's office sets aside Monday afternoons for high school...
    The medical assistant performs a urine hCG on a patient whose results...
    Flow charts, progress notes, and narrative notation are all examples...
    A patient's encounter form contributes to the efficiency and flow of...
    Placement of the ground lead on an ECG is on the
    The medical assistant measures the head circumference on a 6-month-old...
    Beginning with the infectious agent, place the elements in the correct...
    A patient is discharged from the hospital with a diagnosis of HIV and...
    The medical assistant is caring for an adult patient with a history of...
    A female patient has come in for an ECG following a mastectomy. ECG...
    A medical assistant is positioning a patient for sigmoidoscopy....
    Which of the following actions is an example of compliance with...
    When reading the results of an HCT the medical assistant should read...
    Which of the following conditions may occur if a tourniquet is left in...
    Which of the following are Schedule IV drugs?
    Which government agency oversees HIPAA?
    The pictured rhythm is an example of which of the following?
    When performing a 12-lead ECG, which of the following positions...
    The physician believes a patient might have problems with her spleen....
    A medical office assistant is reviewing a patient's encounter that is...
    When removing a suture from a patient's leg, the medical assistant...
    Which of the following types of appointment scheduling would be the...
    The physician orders an ECG on a patient with severe burns on his left...
    When preparing liquid medications for administration, the medical...
    Which of the following rhythms is shown in the strip?
    The physician orders the following blood work to evaluate a patient...
    The medical assistant performs daily accounts receivable (AR)...
    Which of the following blood components are visible in a centrifuged,...
    A personal check is returned to the medical office due to...
    When giving a nebulizer treatment with bronchodilator, the medical...
    Which of the following resources should the medical assistant use to...
    Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to...
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