NCCT Medical Asst. 2016 Ful Pratice Test

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  • 1/108 Questions

    The medical assistant reviews instructions with the patient with hypertension about techniques to manage this condition at home.  Which of the following statements by the patient indicates teaching has been successful?  (Select the three (3) correct answers.)

    • “I will take prescribed medications regularly at the same time each day.”, “I will monitor my blood pressure and record readings daily.”, “I will incorporate moderate exercise into my daily routine.”
    • I will increase salt intake in my diet.” “I will incorporate moderate exercise into my daily routine.” “I will check my blood sugar regularly.”
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NCCT Medical Asst. 2016 Ful Pratice Test - Quiz
About This Quiz

The National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT) is an accredited body that tests and certifies medical practitioners and health care professionals. The medical asst. 2016 full practice test helps you with this. Enjoy as you learn.

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  • 2. 

    The medical assistant is providing instructions for a patient with pneumonia. The optimal time a sputum specimen should be collected is

    • First thing in the morning.

    • After lunch.

    • At bedtime.

    • After breakfast.

    Correct Answer
    A. First thing in the morning.
    Explanation
    The optimal time to collect a sputum specimen for a patient with pneumonia is first thing in the morning. This is because during the night, secretions accumulate in the lungs and airways, making it easier to produce a good quality specimen in the morning. Collecting the specimen before any food or drink is consumed ensures that it is not contaminated and provides the most accurate results for diagnosis and treatment.

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  • 3. 

    The medical assistant witnesses the medical office receptionist taking money from the cash drawer.  The receptionist learns the medical assistant saw her and asks her not to tell the office manager, as it was to pay for her electric bill.  Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

    • Tell the office manager about the incident and request that confidentiality be maintained

    • Tell the receptionist that she will not tell as long as the money is put back in one week

    • Tell the receptionist that she understands why she is taking the money

    • Tell other employees in the office so it will get back to the office manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Tell the office manager about the incident and request that confidentiality be maintained
    Explanation
    The medical assistant should tell the office manager about the incident and request that confidentiality be maintained. This is the most ethical and responsible course of action. By reporting the incident, the medical assistant ensures that the office manager is aware of the situation and can take appropriate action. Requesting confidentiality shows professionalism and respect for the privacy of the receptionist.

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  • 4. 
    A 6-month-old child is at the clinic for their well-child visit and routine vaccines. Which of the following is the preferred site for an intramuscular injection on this patient? - ProProfs

    A 6-month-old child is at the clinic for their well-child visit and routine vaccines. Which of the following is the preferred site for an intramuscular injection on this patient?

    • Deltoid

    • Ventrogluteal

    • Dorsogluteal

    • Vastus lateralis

    Correct Answer
    A. Vastus lateralis
    Explanation
    The preferred site for an intramuscular injection on a 6-month-old child is the vastus lateralis. This is because the vastus lateralis muscle, located in the thigh, is well-developed and has a larger muscle mass compared to other sites such as the deltoid or gluteal muscles. The vastus lateralis also has fewer major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of injury during the injection. Additionally, the thigh is easily accessible and provides good stability for administering the injection.

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  • 5. 

    A patient presents to the clinic with a paper towel wrapped around a deep laceration to his hand.  The medical assistant removes the paper towel and finds it is heavily saturated with blood.  The paper towel should be disposed of in a

    • Biohazard sharps container.

    • Yellow trash bin.

    • Biohazard waste bin.

    • Medical waste recycling container.

    Correct Answer
    A. Biohazard waste bin.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is biohazard waste bin. The paper towel is heavily saturated with blood, which makes it a potential biohazardous material. Biohazard waste bins are specifically designed to safely dispose of biohazardous materials, such as blood-soaked items, to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Yellow trash bins and medical waste recycling containers are not specifically designed for biohazardous materials, and sharps containers are used for the disposal of sharp objects like needles and blades. Therefore, the best option for disposing of the blood-soaked paper towel is the biohazard waste bin.

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  • 6. 

    The medical assistant is completing front office opening tasks prior to the start of the day.  Which of the following indicates the reception area is prepared to receive patients? (Select the three (3) correct answers.)

    • A throw rug is folded up at one corner., Sharps containers are placed by the entrance for biohazard pick-up., The path from the entrance to the front desk is direct and unobstructed.

    • Magazines are stacked on the side tables., Lights are turned on., The path from the entrance to the front desk is direct and unobstructed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Magazines are stacked on the side tables., Lights are turned on., The path from the entrance to the front desk is direct and unobstructed.
    Explanation
    The three correct answers are: magazines are stacked on the side tables, lights are turned on, and the path from the entrance to the front desk is direct and unobstructed. These indicate that the reception area is prepared to receive patients. The magazines being stacked on the side tables suggest that there are reading materials available for patients. The lights being turned on create a welcoming and well-lit environment. Lastly, the clear and unobstructed path from the entrance to the front desk ensures that patients can easily navigate their way to check-in.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following medical office software applications uses an electronic signature? 

    • Spreadsheets

    • EHR

    • Encoders

    • Scheduling

    Correct Answer
    A. EHR
    Explanation
    EHR (Electronic Health Record) is the correct answer because it is a medical office software application that uses an electronic signature. An EHR is a digital version of a patient's paper chart, and it allows healthcare providers to record, store, and share medical information. Electronic signatures are used in EHRs to authenticate and validate the identity of the person signing a document or approving a medical order. This ensures the security and integrity of the patient's electronic health information.

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  • 8. 

    The post office returns a patient’s bill to the clinic with the notation “address unknown.”  Which of the following steps are appropriate in handling this situation? (Select THE 3 that apply)

    • Resend the bill to the same address requesting return receipt,Call the patient's primary phone number,Document the postmark date.

    • Verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database., Document the postmark date., Prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database., Document the postmark date., Prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage.
    Explanation
    The appropriate steps in handling this situation are to verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database, document the postmark date, and prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage. Resending the bill to the same address requesting return receipt may not be necessary if the address is unknown. Calling the patient's primary phone number is not mentioned as a necessary step in resolving the issue.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following statements reflects open-ended communication?

    • "Tell me what brings you in today."

    • "Have you had a fever in the past 24 hours?"

    • "Are you experiencing significant pain?"

    • "Is the cough keeping you awake at night?"

    Correct Answer
    A. "Tell me what brings you in today."
    Explanation
    The statement "Tell me what brings you in today" reflects open-ended communication because it allows the person to freely express their reasons for visiting without any specific constraints or limitations. This encourages them to share their thoughts, feelings, and concerns in their own words, providing a more comprehensive understanding of their situation.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to ensure proper monitoring of a patient during a stress test?  (Select the three [3] correct answers.)

    • Instruct the patient to report any symptoms., Measure blood pressure and heart rate frequently., Observe facial expressions, skin color and perspiration.

    • Instruct the patient to start at a rapid pace., Adjust the temperature of the room to the patient’s preference., Observe facial expressions, skin color and perspiration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Instruct the patient to report any symptoms., Measure blood pressure and heart rate frequently., Observe facial expressions, skin color and perspiration.
    Explanation
    To ensure proper monitoring of a patient during a stress test, the medical assistant should take the following actions: instruct the patient to report any symptoms, measure blood pressure and heart rate frequently, and observe facial expressions, skin color, and perspiration. These actions are important for assessing the patient's response to the stress test and detecting any signs of distress or complications. By instructing the patient to report any symptoms, the medical assistant can gather important information about the patient's well-being during the test. Measuring blood pressure and heart rate frequently allows for monitoring any changes or abnormalities. Observing facial expressions, skin color, and perspiration provides additional visual cues that can indicate the patient's physical and emotional state during the test.

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  • 11. 

    A medical assistant is hired at a Family Medical Practice. According to OSHA requirements the medical assistant must be offered a vaccine within 10 days of hire, free of charge. The medical assistant knows that this vaccination is to protect him from which of the following?

    • Tetanus

    • Varicella

    • Hepatitis B

    • Haemophilus influenza

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis B
    Explanation
    According to OSHA requirements, a medical assistant must be offered a vaccine within 10 days of hire, free of charge. This vaccination is to protect the medical assistant from Hepatitis B.

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  • 12. 

    What does the abbreviation HIPAA stand for?

    • Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

    • History Inquiry of Professional Assertive Assistance

    • Health Inquiry for Permission of Accountability Association

    • Health Information Privacy Adjustment Association

    Correct Answer
    A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. This act was enacted in 1996 and is a US federal law that aims to protect the privacy and security of individuals' health information. It also establishes standards for the electronic exchange of health information and sets guidelines for healthcare providers, health plans, and other entities that handle health information. The act also includes provisions to ensure the portability of health insurance coverage for individuals when they change jobs or lose their job.

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  • 13. 

    The endocrinologist requested the patient to return to the outpatient clinic the next day for a glucose tolerance test.  Which of the following preparations should the medical assistant instruct the patient to do the night before the test?

    • NPO after midnight.

    • Ingest 10 ounces of oral glucose solution.

    • Refrain from tobacco use for 24 hours.

    • Drink at least 32 ounces of water.

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO after midnight.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NPO after midnight. This means that the patient should not eat or drink anything (except water) after midnight. This is important for a glucose tolerance test because it helps ensure accurate results. Eating or drinking anything before the test can affect blood sugar levels and interfere with the interpretation of the test. By instructing the patient to be NPO after midnight, the medical assistant is ensuring that the patient follows the necessary preparation for the test.

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  • 14. 

    A patient expresses cultural beliefs about an alternative method of pain management that differs from the medical assistant’s own view.  How should the medical assistant respond?

    • Perhaps you should see a neurologist."

    • "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you."

    • "The physician does not recommend that approach."

    • "Standard pharmaceutical methods of pain management are proven to be more effective."

    Correct Answer
    A. "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you."
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you." This response shows respect for the patient's cultural beliefs and allows the medical assistant to gather more information about the alternative method. It demonstrates empathy and open-mindedness, which are important in building a trusting relationship with the patient. It also provides an opportunity for the medical assistant to assess the effectiveness and safety of the alternative method before discussing it further with the physician.

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  • 15. 

    For which of the following incidents is employer provided post-exposure follow-up indicated?

    • An employee fall from a step stool while obtaining medical records

    • A polycup containing urine splashed into the eye of an employee

    • Loss of power during an ECG procedure

    • An employee fall in the parking lot, resulting in a hand laceration

    Correct Answer
    A. A polycup containing urine splashed into the eye of an employee
    Explanation
    An employer provided post-exposure follow-up is indicated for incidents involving potential exposure to infectious materials, such as blood or bodily fluids. In this case, a polycup containing urine splashed into the eye of an employee, which could potentially contain pathogens. Therefore, post-exposure follow-up is necessary to assess the risk of infection and provide appropriate medical treatment if needed.

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  • 16. 

    An incorrect dose of medication is delivered to a patient in the medical clinic.  As a result, the patient experienced mild kidney damage.  The responsible health care providers and/or clinic is at risk for which of the following?

    • Slander

    • Libel

    • Defamation

    • Negligence

    Correct Answer
    A. Negligence
    Explanation
    The responsible health care providers and/or clinic are at risk for negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to provide the necessary care or attention that is expected in a particular situation, resulting in harm or injury to someone. In this case, the incorrect dose of medication was delivered to the patient, causing mild kidney damage. This suggests that the health care providers or clinic did not exercise the proper level of care or attention in administering the medication, which can be considered negligence.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following needle gauges is most commonly used for venipuncture?

    • 21-23

    • 24-25

    • 18-20

    • 16-17

    Correct Answer
    A. 21-23
    Explanation
    The most commonly used needle gauges for venipuncture are 21-23. These gauges are preferred because they are large enough to allow for the smooth flow of blood but not too large to cause excessive pain or damage to the vein. They strike a balance between being able to effectively draw blood and minimizing discomfort for the patient.

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  • 18. 

    The medical assistant is collecting a urine sample on a patient to test for pregnancy.  Which of the following is the correct CLIA-waived test?

    • HCG

    • Hgb

    • FBG

    • Hct

    Correct Answer
    A. HCG
    Explanation
    hCG stands for human chorionic gonadotropin, which is a hormone produced during pregnancy. Testing for hCG in a urine sample is a common method to determine if a person is pregnant or not. This test is CLIA-waived, meaning it is considered to be of low complexity and can be performed by medical assistants without extensive laboratory training. Therefore, hCG is the correct CLIA-waived test for pregnancy.

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  • 19. 

    The medical assistant is performing a 12-lead ECG on a patient and notices that lead III does not appear on the tracing. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

    • Check for a loose wire, reconnect, and repeat the tracing.

    • Add an extra electrode to the 5th intercostal space.

    • Ask the patient to lie still to reduce somatic interference.

    • Re-center the stylus and repeat the tracing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Check for a loose wire, reconnect, and repeat the tracing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to check for a loose wire, reconnect, and repeat the tracing. This is because the absence of lead III on the ECG tracing could indicate a technical issue, such as a loose or disconnected wire. By checking for a loose wire, reconnecting it if necessary, and repeating the tracing, the medical assistant can ensure that all leads are properly connected and obtain an accurate ECG reading.

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  • 20. 

    The medical assistant documented an IM injection as follows:  10/12/XX @ 1030, Rocephin 1 gram IM patient tolerated procedure well. Amy Ray, medical assistant.  Which of the following necessary pieces of documentation is missing?

    • Physician signature

    • Use of the medication

    • Site of administration

    • Frequency of administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Site of administration
    Explanation
    The necessary piece of documentation that is missing is the site of administration. The given documentation mentions the date and time of the injection, the medication used, and the fact that the patient tolerated the procedure well. However, it does not specify where the injection was administered, which is an important piece of information for proper medical record keeping.

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  • 21. 

    The medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for a patient following surgical removal of their uterus.  The medical term for this procedure is

    • Oophorectomy

    • Hysterectomy.

    • Uteroscopy.

    • Amniocentesis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hysterectomy.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is hysterectomy. This procedure involves the surgical removal of the uterus. The medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for the patient after this procedure, indicating that the patient had a hysterectomy. Oophorectomy refers to the removal of the ovaries, uteroscopy is a procedure to examine the uterus using a scope, and amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test.

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  • 22. 

    In most cultures in the United States, when a medical assistant is speaking with a patient, making direct eye contact encourages

    • Open communication

    • Emotional reasoning

    • A subordinate relationshi

    • Control of the conversation

    Correct Answer
    A. Open communication
    Explanation
    Making direct eye contact with a patient encourages open communication because it signals attentiveness, interest, and respect. When a medical assistant maintains eye contact, it shows that they are actively listening and engaged in the conversation. This can help create a sense of trust and comfort for the patient, allowing them to feel more comfortable sharing their concerns, symptoms, and medical history. Open communication is crucial in the healthcare setting to ensure accurate diagnosis, effective treatment, and overall patient satisfaction.

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  • 23. 

    A patient presents to the medical office with nausea and vomiting. Which of the following types of medication is likely to be prescribed?

    • Antiarrhythmic

    • Antitussive

    • Antidiarrheal

    • Antiemetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Antiemetic
    Explanation
    An antiemetic medication is likely to be prescribed for a patient presenting with nausea and vomiting. Antiemetics are specifically designed to relieve symptoms of nausea and vomiting by blocking certain receptors in the brain and gastrointestinal tract. They can help reduce the urge to vomit and alleviate feelings of nausea, providing relief to the patient.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following insurance programs covers active duty military personnel?

    • CHAMPVA

    • TRICARE

    • BCBS

    • Medicare

    Correct Answer
    A. TRICARE
    Explanation
    TRICARE is the correct answer because it is an insurance program specifically designed to provide coverage for active duty military personnel, as well as their dependents and retirees. TRICARE offers comprehensive health care services and benefits to ensure that military personnel and their families have access to the medical care they need. CHAMPVA is a separate insurance program that covers the spouses and dependents of veterans with permanent and total service-connected disabilities, while BCBS and Medicare are not specifically tailored for active duty military personnel.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following organizations makes on-site visits to inspect medical office laboratories?

    • WHO

    • DEA

    • CLIA

    • FDA

    Correct Answer
    A. CLIA
    Explanation
    CLIA, or the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, is the organization that makes on-site visits to inspect medical office laboratories. CLIA is a federal program that regulates laboratory testing and ensures the quality and accuracy of laboratory results. They conduct inspections to assess compliance with their standards and guidelines, including personnel qualifications, quality control, and proficiency testing. These on-site visits help to ensure that medical office laboratories meet the necessary standards to provide accurate and reliable testing for patient care.

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  • 26. 

    The physician orders a random blood sugar on an adult patient newly diagnosed with diabetes who is right hand dominant. The medical assistant notices inappropriate puncture markings on the patient’s fingers. Which of the following statements should the medical assistant use when re-educating the patient in capillary puncture?

    • It’s best to use the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on your left hand when doing your finger stick."

    • "You should consider using the center of the middle finger on either hand for your blood sugar testing."

    • “Do not use your right hand when checking your blood sugar."

    • "It’s best to use the outer edge of the under-side of your big toe when performing capillary punctures.”

    Correct Answer
    A. It’s best to use the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on your left hand when doing your finger stick."
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the patient should use the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on their left hand when performing a finger stick for blood sugar testing. This is because the patient is right hand dominant and has shown inappropriate puncture markings on their fingers, indicating that they may not be using the correct technique. By using the outer edge of the middle or ring finger on the left hand, the patient can ensure proper technique and avoid further damage or complications.

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  • 27. 

    The primary objective of which of the following agencies is to regulate and ensure quality of clinical laboratory testing?

    • OSHA

    • FDA

    • DEA

    • CLIA

    Correct Answer
    A. CLIA
    Explanation
    CLIA, or the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, is the correct answer. CLIA is an agency that aims to regulate and ensure the quality of clinical laboratory testing. It sets standards for laboratory testing and certification, and it also conducts inspections to ensure compliance with these standards. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) focuses on workplace safety, FDA (Food and Drug Administration) regulates food, drugs, and medical devices, and DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) deals with enforcing controlled substance laws. Therefore, CLIA is the agency specifically dedicated to regulating and ensuring the quality of clinical laboratory testing.

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  • 28. 

    The order reads cefaclor (Ceclor) 250 mg p.o. stat, then 150 mg q 2 h. How should the medical assistant interpret this medication order?

    • Give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150 milligrams every 2 hours.

    • Give 250 micrograms of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150 micrograms every 2 hours.

    • Give 250 milliliters of cefaclor (Ceclor) post-operatively as needed, and then give 150 milliliters every 2 hours.

    • Give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) post-operatively, and then give 150 milligrams every 2 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. Give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150 milligrams every 2 hours.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150 milligrams every 2 hours. This interpretation is based on the medication order stating "p.o." which stands for "per os" or "by mouth." Additionally, the order specifies the dose in milligrams, not micrograms or milliliters. The frequency of every 2 hours indicates the timing of the subsequent doses.

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  • 29. 

    A finger stick capillary puncture should be performed at which of the following sites to prevent injury?

    • At the most distal end of the fingertip

    • Slightly to the side of the center of the fingertip

    • Directly in the center of the fingertip

    • Proximal to the skin crease located at the first joint on the fingertip

    Correct Answer
    A. Slightly to the side of the center of the fingertip
    Explanation
    Performing a finger stick capillary puncture slightly to the side of the center of the fingertip helps to prevent injury. This is because the center of the fingertip contains nerve endings and blood vessels, and puncturing directly in the center can cause more pain and potential damage. By choosing a site slightly to the side, the risk of hitting a nerve or blood vessel is reduced, resulting in a safer and less painful procedure.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following techniques is correct when collecting a throat culture?

    • Depress the patient’s tongue and place the swab in a viral media tube following collection.

    • Insert swab into the nostril and rub against the turbinate to absorb mucous.

    • Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.

    • Swab both sides of the mouth, tongue, and nasopharnyx.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.
    Explanation
    The correct technique for collecting a throat culture is to use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat. This method allows for the collection of samples from the specific area of interest, which is the throat. It ensures that the swab comes into contact with the throat surface, allowing for the detection of any potential pathogens or abnormalities present in that area. The other options mentioned in the question either involve collecting samples from incorrect locations (nostril, mouth, nasopharynx) or using a viral media tube, which is not necessary for a throat culture.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following resources should the medical assistant use to look up the side effects of (enoxaparin)  Lovenox in the medical office?

    • Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)

    • Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS)

    • Physician’s Desk Reference (PDR)

    • Laboratory reference manual

    Correct Answer
    A. Physician’s Desk Reference (PDR)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR). The PDR is a comprehensive reference guide that provides information on prescription drugs, including their indications, dosages, and side effects. It is commonly used by healthcare professionals to look up drug information, including the side effects of specific medications like enoxaparin (Lovenox). The CPT and HCPCS are coding systems used for billing and reimbursement purposes, while the laboratory reference manual is specific to laboratory procedures and tests. Therefore, the PDR is the most appropriate resource for looking up the side effects of Lovenox in a medical office setting.

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  • 32. 

    A patient calls requesting to see their provider with report of intense burning and urgency upon urination.  This is an example of which of the following types of special scheduling?

    • Grouping

    • Modified wave

    • Same-day appointment

    • Procedural

    Correct Answer
    A. Same-day appointment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is same-day appointment. This is because the patient is experiencing intense burning and urgency upon urination, which suggests a possible urinary tract infection or another urgent issue that requires immediate attention. A same-day appointment allows the patient to be seen by their provider on the same day they called, ensuring timely and appropriate care.

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  • 33. 

    Commitment to privacy, continuity of care, advance directives, and the authority to refuse treatment are granted according to which of the following?

    • The Patient’s Bill of Rights

    • Good Samaritan Law

    • Informed Consent

    • Americans with Disabilities Act

    Correct Answer
    A. The Patient’s Bill of Rights
    Explanation
    The Patient's Bill of Rights grants individuals the right to privacy, continuity of care, advance directives, and the authority to refuse treatment. This means that patients have the right to keep their personal information confidential, receive consistent and uninterrupted healthcare, make decisions about their medical treatment in advance, and decline any treatment they do not wish to receive. These rights are outlined in the Patient's Bill of Rights, which is a set of guidelines that protect patients' autonomy and ensure they receive the necessary care while respecting their wishes and preferences.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following acts involves the termination of a patient from the care of a physician without reasonable, written notice of withdrawal from the case?

    • Slander

    • Discrimination

    • Battery

    • Abandonment

    Correct Answer
    A. Abandonment
    Explanation
    Abandonment involves the termination of a patient from the care of a physician without reasonable, written notice of withdrawal from the case. This means that the physician abruptly ends the patient's treatment without providing proper notification or making alternative arrangements for their care. Abandonment is considered unethical and can have serious consequences for the patient's health and well-being. It is different from other options such as slander, discrimination, and battery, which do not directly involve the termination of a patient's care by a physician.

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  • 35. 

    What does the color of an evacuated collection tube represent?

    • A visual identifier for tests expected to be above or below normal range

    • The minimum volume of blood to be obtained

    • The personal protective equipment required for collection

    • The type or absence of an additive

    Correct Answer
    A. The type or absence of an additive
    Explanation
    The color of an evacuated collection tube represents the type or absence of an additive. Different additives are used in collection tubes to prevent blood from clotting or to preserve certain components of the blood for testing purposes. The color-coding system helps healthcare professionals identify the specific additive present in the tube and ensure accurate test results.

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  • 36. 

    When reading the results of an HCT the medical assistant should read starting at the

      • Top of the packed cells.

      • Bottom of the meniscus.

      • Top of the buffy coat.

      • Bottom of the plasma.

      Correct Answer
      A. Top of the packed cells.
      Explanation
      When reading the results of an HCT (hematocrit), the medical assistant should read starting at the top of the packed cells. The packed cells refer to the red blood cells that have settled at the bottom of the tube after centrifugation. Reading from the top of the packed cells ensures accurate measurement of the volume of red blood cells in relation to the total volume of blood. This is important for diagnosing conditions such as anemia or polycythemia.

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    1. 37. 
      The medical assistant prepares a written prescription for the physician as follows.  What information did the medical assistant leave out?  - ProProfs

      The medical assistant prepares a written prescription for the physician as follows.  What information did the medical assistant leave out? 

      • Quantity to dispense and directions for taking the medication

      • Quantity to dispense and EIN

      • Directions for taking the medication and superscription

      • Superscription and EIN

      Correct Answer
      A. Quantity to dispense and directions for taking the medication
      Explanation
      The medical assistant left out the quantity to dispense and directions for taking the medication. This information is crucial for the patient to know how much of the medication to take and how often to take it.

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    2. 38. 

      A patient complains of nausea and vomiting, and has been unable to keep fluids down over the course of two days.  A suppository has been ordered.  Which of the following abbreviations is the correct route of administration?

      • IM

      • PR

      • SC

      • INH

      Correct Answer
      A. PR
      Explanation
      The correct route of administration for a suppository is rectal (PR). This means that the medication is inserted into the rectum, where it will be absorbed into the bloodstream. This route is often used when a patient is unable to take medication orally due to nausea and vomiting, as in this case. IM stands for intramuscular, which involves injecting the medication into a muscle. SC stands for subcutaneous, which involves injecting the medication into the fatty tissue just below the skin. INH stands for inhaled, which involves breathing in the medication.

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    3. 39. 

      The medical assistant is scheduling a patient for a gallbladder study. Which of the following terms should the medical assistant use on the patient test order?

      • Angiography

      • Cystography

      • Cholecystography

      • Cholangiography

      Correct Answer
      A. Cholecystography
      Explanation
      The medical assistant should use the term "cholecystography" on the patient test order because it specifically refers to a study of the gallbladder. Angiography is a procedure to visualize blood vessels, cystography is a study of the urinary bladder, and cholangiography is an imaging technique used to visualize the bile ducts. Therefore, cholecystography is the most appropriate term for scheduling a patient for a gallbladder study.

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    4. 40. 

      The patient was seen in the office for follow up evaluation post CVA.  The doctor noticed significant weakness on the patient’s left side.  Which of the following should the medical assistant expect to perform?

      • Full weight bearing exercise assistance

      • Active assist range of motion

      • Crutch training

      • Cold chemical pack application

      Correct Answer
      A. Active assist range of motion
      Explanation
      Based on the information given, the patient has significant weakness on their left side. Active assist range of motion exercises involve the patient actively participating in moving their affected limb while the medical assistant provides assistance as needed. This type of exercise would be appropriate for a patient with weakness on one side, as it helps to maintain joint mobility and prevent contractures. Full weight bearing exercise assistance, crutch training, and cold chemical pack application are not mentioned in the scenario and are not relevant to addressing weakness on the left side.

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    5. 41. 

      The medical assistant should access which of the following sections of the electronic health record or paper chart to retrieve patient contact information?

      • Consultations

      • Laboratory orders

      • Progress notes

      • Billing

      Correct Answer
      A. Billing
      Explanation
      The medical assistant should access the billing section of the electronic health record or paper chart to retrieve patient contact information. This section typically contains the patient's billing address, phone number, and insurance information, which are necessary for contacting the patient regarding billing-related matters.

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    6. 42. 

      The medical assistant should administer nitroglycerin by which of the following methods?

      • Buccal

      • Sublingual

      • Intramuscular

      • Intradermal

      Correct Answer
      A. Sublingual
      Explanation
      The medical assistant should administer nitroglycerin sublingually. This method involves placing the medication under the tongue, where it quickly dissolves and is absorbed into the bloodstream. Sublingual administration allows for rapid onset of action, making it an effective route for treating acute conditions such as angina. Buccal administration involves placing the medication between the cheek and gum, while intramuscular and intradermal routes involve injecting the medication into the muscle or skin, respectively. However, these routes are not appropriate for administering nitroglycerin.

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    7. 43. 

      When preparing to assist the physician with collection of a deep wound culture, the medical assistant should have which of the following available?

      • Blood culture media

      • Viral transport media

      • Bacterial culture swabs

      • Cotton tipped swabs

      Correct Answer
      A. Bacterial culture swabs
      Explanation
      When preparing to assist the physician with collection of a deep wound culture, the medical assistant should have bacterial culture swabs available. This is because bacterial culture swabs are specifically designed to collect samples from wounds for further analysis. Blood culture media is used to collect and culture blood samples, viral transport media is used to transport viral samples, and cotton tipped swabs are not specifically designed for wound culture collection.

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    8. 44. 

      Which of the following is required for permission to treat a patient scheduled for a complex procedure?

      • Implied consent

      • Informed consent

      • Advanced directive

      • Living will

      Correct Answer
      A. Informed consent
      Explanation
      Informed consent is required for permission to treat a patient scheduled for a complex procedure. This means that the patient must be fully informed about the procedure, including its risks, benefits, and alternatives, before giving their consent. Informed consent ensures that the patient has the necessary information to make an educated decision about their treatment and allows them to actively participate in their healthcare decisions. It is an essential ethical and legal requirement in medical practice to respect patient autonomy and ensure patient-centered care.

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    9. 45. 

      An established patient who has Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease is evaluated in the medical office for hypertension.  What is the importance of identifying the reason for today’s visit related to billing?

      • To determine the primary diagnosis

      • To ensure a secondary diagnosis is not listed on the claim form

      • To assign a two-digit modifier

      • To assign a V code

      Correct Answer
      A. To determine the primary diagnosis
      Explanation
      Identifying the reason for today's visit is important for billing because it helps determine the primary diagnosis. The primary diagnosis is the main reason for the patient's visit and is used to determine the appropriate billing codes and reimbursement. By identifying the primary diagnosis, the medical office can accurately code and bill for the services provided, ensuring proper reimbursement for the care given to the patient.

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    10. 46. 

      Which of the following ECG leads records the electrical activity of the inferior surface of the left ventricle and is closest to the heart? 

      • Lead I

      • Lead II

      • AVF

      • AVR

      Correct Answer
      A. Lead II
      Explanation
      Lead II records the electrical activity of the inferior surface of the left ventricle and is closest to the heart. This is because lead II is formed by placing the positive electrode on the left leg and the negative electrode on the right arm, creating a diagonal line across the chest. This placement allows lead II to capture the electrical activity of the left ventricle, which is located close to the heart's apex.

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    11. 47. 

      The medical assistant should refer to which of the following agencies to access updated immunization schedules?

      • FDA

      • DEA

      • CDC

      • FEMA

      Correct Answer
      A. CDC
      Explanation
      The medical assistant should refer to the CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) to access updated immunization schedules. The CDC is a government agency responsible for protecting public health and safety and provides guidelines and recommendations for immunizations. They regularly update their schedules based on the latest research and scientific evidence to ensure that healthcare professionals have the most up-to-date information on immunizations.

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    12. 48. 

      Which of the following actions by the medical assistant demonstrates compliance with the ADA?

      • Ensure hallways to exam rooms remain free of obstructions

      • Wear personal protective equipment prior to irrigating a wound

      • Obtain hepatitis B vaccination series offered by employer

      • Maintain confidentiality of protected health information

      Correct Answer
      A. Ensure hallways to exam rooms remain free of obstructions
      Explanation
      The action of ensuring hallways to exam rooms remain free of obstructions demonstrates compliance with the ADA because it promotes accessibility for individuals with disabilities. The ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act) requires that public spaces, including healthcare facilities, be accessible to people with disabilities. By keeping hallways clear, the medical assistant is ensuring that individuals with mobility aids or other disabilities can navigate the space safely and easily. This action aligns with the ADA's goal of equal access and non-discrimination for individuals with disabilities.

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    13. 49. 

      Which of the following is the most common means of transmission of Hepatitis A?

      • Sexual contact

      • Contact with contaminated needles

      • Contact with fecal contaminated food/water

      • Forceful coughing

      Correct Answer
      A. Contact with fecal contaminated food/water
      Explanation
      The most common means of transmission of Hepatitis A is through contact with fecal contaminated food or water. Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver and is primarily spread through the ingestion of contaminated food or water. The virus is present in the feces of infected individuals and can contaminate food or water sources, leading to the transmission of the virus to others who consume the contaminated food or water. Sexual contact and contact with contaminated needles can also transmit Hepatitis A, but they are not as common as the fecal-oral route of transmission. Forceful coughing is not a means of transmission for Hepatitis A.

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    Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

    Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

    • Current Version
    • Mar 22, 2023
      Quiz Edited by
      ProProfs Editorial Team
    • May 13, 2016
      Quiz Created by
      Sweetliz27

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