Medical Assistant Exam Quiz!

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| By Silvija Bannatyne
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Silvija Bannatyne
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 300
Questions: 24 | Attempts: 301

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Medical Assistant Exam Quiz! - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In a human, urine flows through the urinary system in which order?

    • A.

      Bladder, urethra, kidney, urethral meatus, ureter

    • B.

      Bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra, urethral meatus

    • C.

      Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, urethral meatus

    • D.

      Urethra, bladder, ureter, kidney, urethral meatus

    Correct Answer
    C. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, urethral meatus
  • 2. 

    The prefix brady (as in bradycardia) means:

    • A.

      Fast

    • B.

      Irregular

    • C.

      Slow

    • D.

      Without

    Correct Answer
    C. Slow
    Explanation
    The prefix "brady" is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a slow or decreased rate. For example, bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate. Therefore, in the context of this question, the correct answer is "Slow".

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  • 3. 

    Of the following, which would a certified medical assistant typically be able to perform when assisting the physician in the exam room?

    • A.

      Assist with minor procedures

    • B.

      Start an IV for therapy

    • C.

      Administer medications by intravenous route

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Assist with minor procedures
    Explanation
    A certified medical assistant is typically trained and qualified to assist the physician in performing minor procedures in the exam room. This may include tasks such as preparing the necessary equipment, sterilizing instruments, and providing assistance during the procedure. However, starting an IV for therapy and administering medications by intravenous route are more specialized skills that may require additional training and certification beyond the scope of a typical medical assistant's duties. Therefore, the correct answer is "Assist with minor procedures."

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  • 4. 

    When washing hands, the three most important factors include:

    • A.

      Antibacterial soap, length of time spent and hot water

    • B.

      Friction, soap and warm running water

    • C.

      Position of the hands, friction and water temperature

    • D.

      Length of time spent, type of soap, and running water

    Correct Answer
    B. Friction, soap and warm running water
    Explanation
    Friction, soap, and warm running water are the three most important factors when washing hands. Friction helps to physically remove dirt, germs, and bacteria from the skin. Soap helps to break down and remove oils, dirt, and germs from the hands. Warm running water helps to enhance the effectiveness of the soap and aids in rinsing away the dirt and germs. Together, these three factors work synergistically to ensure proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of spreading infections.

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  • 5. 

    If a paper medical record needs to be corrected, which of the following would be an acceptable way to make the correction?

    • A.

      Erase the portion of note that needs to be corrected.

    • B.

      Draw one line through the portion of the note that needs to be corrected and initial it

    • C.

      Use white out on the incorrect entry.

    • D.

      Shred that page of the chart.

    Correct Answer
    B. Draw one line through the portion of the note that needs to be corrected and initial it
    Explanation
    Drawing one line through the portion of the note that needs to be corrected and initialing it is an acceptable way to make a correction in a paper medical record. This method allows for transparency and accountability by clearly indicating that a correction has been made and who made it. Erasing the portion of the note can lead to questions about what was originally written, using white out can make the record look altered, and shredding the page removes important information from the patient's chart.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following would EMR refer to?

    • A.

      Emergency magnetic resonance

    • B.

      Emergency medical records

    • C.

      European medical research

    • D.

      Electronic medical records

    Correct Answer
    D. Electronic medical records
    Explanation
    EMR stands for Electronic Medical Records. This refers to the digital version of a patient's medical history, including their diagnoses, treatments, medications, and test results. It allows healthcare providers to access and share this information easily, improving the quality and efficiency of patient care. EMR systems are used in hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare settings to store and manage patient data securely. It eliminates the need for paper-based records and enables healthcare professionals to make informed decisions based on accurate and up-to-date information.

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  • 7. 

    Before referring a patient to another facility, a medical assistant should be sure to verify the patient's:

    • A.

      Address

    • B.

      Income

    • C.

      Insurance

    • D.

      Transportation

    Correct Answer
    C. Insurance
    Explanation
    A medical assistant should verify the patient's insurance before referring them to another facility. This is important because different facilities may have different insurance requirements and coverage. By verifying the patient's insurance, the medical assistant can ensure that the patient will be able to receive the necessary care at the referred facility without any financial issues or complications. It also helps in determining if the patient's insurance will cover the costs of the referral and if any pre-authorization is required.

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  • 8. 

    A pregnant patient's medical chart states EHR 150 BPM. What does this indicate?

    • A.

      Electronic Health Record

    • B.

      Embryonic Hereditary Range

    • C.

      Embryonic heart rate

    • D.

      Mother's heart rate

    Correct Answer
    C. Embryonic heart rate
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "EHR" stands for Electronic Health Record, which is a digital version of a patient's medical history. However, in this context, "EHR" is followed by "150 BPM," indicating a heart rate measurement. Since the question mentions a pregnant patient, it is reasonable to assume that "EHR 150 BPM" refers to the embryonic heart rate, as it is common for medical charts to record the heart rate of a developing fetus during pregnancy.

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  • 9. 

    Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs includes which of the following?

    • A.

      Money

    • B.

      Direction

    • C.

      Self-loathing

    • D.

      Self-esteem

    Correct Answer
    D. Self-esteem
    Explanation
    Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is a psychological theory that explains human motivation and behavior. It suggests that individuals have a hierarchy of needs, starting from basic physiological needs like food and shelter, and progressing towards higher-level needs like self-esteem and self-actualization. Self-esteem refers to the individual's sense of self-worth and confidence. It is an important component of psychological well-being and is included in Maslow's theory as one of the higher-level needs that individuals strive to fulfill once their basic needs are met.

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  • 10. 

    When a medical assistant is able to listen to a speaker's problem and understand the speaker's personal point of view, it is called:

    • A.

      Nonverbal Communication

    • B.

      Critical Listening

    • C.

      Appreciative Listening

    • D.

      Empathic Listening

    Correct Answer
    D. Empathic Listening
    Explanation
    Empathic listening refers to the ability of a medical assistant to not only listen to a speaker's problem but also understand their personal point of view. It involves actively engaging with the speaker, showing empathy, and trying to see the situation from their perspective. This type of listening allows the medical assistant to establish a connection with the speaker, build trust, and provide appropriate support and care.

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  • 11. 

    A medical procedure cannot be performed on a patient until the doctor obtains __________________.

    • A.

      Confidentiality

    • B.

      Informed consent

    • C.

      Insurance authorization

    • D.

      Vital statistics

    Correct Answer
    B. Informed consent
    Explanation
    Informed consent is necessary before performing a medical procedure on a patient. This means that the patient has been provided with all relevant information about the procedure, including its risks and benefits, and has given their voluntary agreement to undergo the procedure. This ensures that the patient is fully aware of what will happen during the procedure and can make an informed decision about their healthcare.

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  • 12. 

    If a clinic charges a patient's insurance for treatments that were not done, it would be considered which of the following?

    • A.

      Malpractice

    • B.

      Fraud

    • C.

      Assault

    • D.

      Embezzlement

    Correct Answer
    B. Fraud
    Explanation
    If a clinic charges a patient's insurance for treatments that were not done, it would be considered fraud. Fraud refers to the act of deceiving or misleading someone for personal gain. In this case, the clinic is intentionally billing the insurance company for services that were not provided, which is a fraudulent activity aimed at obtaining financial benefits dishonestly.

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  • 13. 

    If a patient's bill has been unpaid for more than 90 days, which of the following would call the patient?

    • A.

      Attorney

    • B.

      Medical Assistant

    • C.

      Collection Agency

    • D.

      Physician

    Correct Answer
    C. Collection Agency
    Explanation
    If a patient's bill has been unpaid for more than 90 days, it is likely that the healthcare provider has exhausted other means of collecting the payment. In such cases, they may choose to involve a collection agency. Collection agencies specialize in recovering unpaid debts and can use various methods to contact the patient and collect the outstanding balance. This option is chosen when other attempts to collect the payment have failed and legal action is not yet necessary.

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  • 14. 

    What financial record in a clinic is typically the most active?

    • A.

      Accounts Payable

    • B.

      Employee Payroll

    • C.

      Accounts Receivable

    • D.

      Malpractice Liability

    Correct Answer
    C. Accounts Receivable
    Explanation
    In a clinic, the financial record that is typically the most active is Accounts Receivable. This record tracks the money owed to the clinic by patients and insurance companies for services rendered. As patients receive treatments and services, they are billed and their outstanding balances are recorded in the accounts receivable ledger. This record requires constant monitoring and management as payments are received, adjustments are made, and collection efforts are undertaken. Therefore, accounts receivable is the financial record that sees the most activity in a clinic.

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  • 15. 

    When checking the identity of a patient, most health care facilities require that the patient present __ forms of identification.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      0

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    D. 2
    Explanation
    Most health care facilities require that the patient present two forms of identification when checking their identity. This is done to ensure that the correct patient is being treated and to prevent any potential mix-ups or errors in their medical records. Having two forms of identification helps to verify the patient's identity more reliably and accurately.

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  • 16. 

    What type of booking or scheduling is used if a medical assistant brings multiple patients into the office at the top of an hour to see their health care professional and they are seen on a first-come, first-served basis?

    • A.

      Double booking

    • B.

      Wave scheduling

    • C.

      Standard procedure

    • D.

      Time-specific scheduling

    Correct Answer
    B. Wave scheduling
    Explanation
    Wave scheduling is the correct answer because it involves scheduling multiple patients to arrive at the same time, typically at the top of the hour, and they are seen in the order they arrive. This type of scheduling allows for some flexibility and can help to minimize waiting times for patients.

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  • 17. 

    Which is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count?

    • A.

      Anemia

    • B.

      Leukemia

    • C.

      Leukocytosis

    • D.

      Leukopenia

    Correct Answer
    D. Leukopenia
    Explanation
    Leukopenia is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count. This condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, autoimmune disorders, certain medications, or bone marrow disorders. A low white blood cell count can weaken the immune system and increase the risk of infections. Treatment for leukopenia depends on the underlying cause and may involve addressing the root cause, managing symptoms, or using medications to stimulate white blood cell production.

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  • 18. 

    Which blood type would be considered the "Universal Donor?"

    • A.

      AB

    • B.

      O+

    • C.

      O-

    • D.

      B-

    Correct Answer
    C. O-
    Explanation
    O- is considered the "Universal Donor" because it can be given to patients with any blood type. This is because O- blood lacks both A and B antigens on its red blood cells, making it compatible with all blood types. Additionally, O- blood is also negative for the Rh factor, making it safe to use for Rh-negative individuals.

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  • 19. 

    Of the following, which would be considered the first step in treating a patient with a chemical burn of the skin?

    • A.

      Wash with soap and water

    • B.

      Apply an antiseptic ointment

    • C.

      Apply ice

    • D.

      Flush area with water

    Correct Answer
    D. Flush area with water
    Explanation
    The first step in treating a patient with a chemical burn of the skin is to flush the affected area with water. This is important to remove any remaining chemicals from the skin and prevent further damage. Washing with soap and water, applying an antiseptic ointment, or applying ice may be helpful in later stages of treatment, but the immediate priority is to flush the area with water.

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  • 20. 

    A paramedic informs the medical assistant that a patient has had a cardiac arrest. What does this mean?

    • A.

      Irregular heartbeat

    • B.

      Blood flow interference to the heart

    • C.

      Variation in the rhythm of the heartbeat

    • D.

      Sudden stoppage of the heartbeat

    Correct Answer
    D. Sudden stoppage of the heartbeat
    Explanation
    Cardiac arrest refers to the sudden stoppage of the heartbeat. This means that the heart has stopped pumping blood effectively, leading to a cessation of blood flow to the body's organs and tissues. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention, as it can result in unconsciousness and death if not promptly treated.

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  • 21. 

    The pharmaceutical abbreviation "qid" means ____________________.

    • A.

      Every hour

    • B.

      Every day

    • C.

      Four times a day

    • D.

      Every week

    Correct Answer
    C. Four times a day
    Explanation
    The pharmaceutical abbreviation "qid" stands for "four times a day". This means that the medication should be taken four times within a 24-hour period, usually with approximately 6 hours between each dose. It is important to follow the prescribed dosage instructions to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the medication.

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  • 22. 

    If medication of a patient or resident is indicated as PRN, it is given:

    • A.

      Once a day

    • B.

      When necessary

    • C.

      By mouth only

    • D.

      To discontinue use

    Correct Answer
    B. When necessary
    Explanation
    PRN stands for "pro re nata," which means "as needed" in Latin. When medication is indicated as PRN, it is given when necessary, based on the patient's symptoms or condition. This means that the medication is not given on a fixed schedule, but rather when the patient requires it. The healthcare provider will assess the patient's needs and determine when the medication should be administered.

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  • 23. 

    If the physician prescribes a low-fat diet for a patient, which of the following should they be able to eat?

    • A.

      Whole milk

    • B.

      Chicken with skin attached

    • C.

      Cake with icing

    • D.

      Boneless, skinless chicken breast

    Correct Answer
    D. Boneless, skinless chicken breast
    Explanation
    If a physician prescribes a low-fat diet for a patient, they should be able to eat boneless, skinless chicken breast. This is because boneless, skinless chicken breast is a lean source of protein and does not contain a high amount of fat. Whole milk, chicken with skin attached, and cake with icing are all high in fat and would not be recommended for a low-fat diet.

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  • 24. 

    Of the following, which would be considered the correct percentage of nutrient intake by the Dietetic Association for a person's protein intake every 24 hours?

    • A.

      15%

    • B.

      65%

    • C.

      25%

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 15%
    Explanation
    The correct percentage of nutrient intake for a person's protein intake every 24 hours, according to the Dietetic Association, is 15%. This means that 15% of a person's daily caloric intake should come from protein sources.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 15, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Silvija Bannatyne
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