Registered Medical Assistant

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  • 1/123 Questions

    The suffix meaning "inflammation" is

    • Osis
    • Ectomy
    • Itis
    • Desis
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About This Quiz

This Registered Medical Assistant quiz assesses knowledge on key anatomical and physiological concepts, including bone structure, joint types, muscle mechanics, and hormone functions. It is designed for aspiring medical assistants to demonstrate their understanding and readiness for professional responsibilities.

Medical Assistant Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    The abbreviation for "prescription" is

    • Fx

    • Bx

    • Rx

    • Tx

    Correct Answer
    A. Rx
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "Rx" is commonly used in the medical field to represent "prescription." It is derived from the Latin word "recipe," which means "take." The symbol "Rx" is often seen on medical prescriptions, indicating that a medication or treatment has been prescribed by a healthcare professional.

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  • 3. 

    The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?

    • Physician advertising

    • Suspected child abuse

    • A minor with a positive pregnancy test

    • Advertisements for surrogacy

    Correct Answer
    A. Suspected child abuse
    Explanation
    Suspected child abuse must be reported to the appropriate authorities as required by law. This is because the safety and well-being of children is of utmost importance, and reporting suspected abuse ensures that necessary intervention and protection measures can be taken to safeguard the child. Failure to report suspected child abuse can have serious consequences and may perpetuate the cycle of abuse, potentially putting the child at further risk. Therefore, it is crucial to report any suspicions or concerns regarding child abuse to the appropriate authorities.

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  • 4. 

    According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with

    • Blood

    • Skin

    • Hair

    • Sweat

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood
    Explanation
    According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment must be worn whenever there is contact with blood. This is because blood can potentially contain infectious agents such as viruses or bacteria that can be transmitted to healthcare workers. Wearing personal protective equipment, such as gloves, masks, and gowns, helps to prevent the spread of these infectious agents and protects both the healthcare worker and the patient from potential harm.

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  • 5. 

    Of the following, what is the most appropriate patient position for a venipuncture?

    • Standing at a counter

    • Sitting in a chair

    • Sitting on a stool

    • Standing at the examination table

    Correct Answer
    A. Sitting in a chair
    Explanation
    Sitting in a chair is the most appropriate patient position for a venipuncture because it provides stability and comfort for the patient. Sitting allows the patient to relax their arm, making it easier to locate and access the veins. It also allows the healthcare professional to have better control and visibility during the procedure. Additionally, sitting in a chair ensures that the patient is at a comfortable height for the healthcare professional to perform the venipuncture without straining their own posture.

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  • 6. 

    The largest bone of the body is the

    • Ulna

    • Tibia

    • Radius

    • Femur

    Correct Answer
    A. Femur
    Explanation
    The femur is the largest bone in the body. It is located in the thigh and is the longest and strongest bone. Its size and strength are necessary to support the weight of the upper body and provide stability and mobility to the lower limbs. The femur also plays a crucial role in the production of blood cells in the bone marrow.

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  • 7. 

    The term "total permanent impairment" mean that the patient

    • Is unable to work for one year

    • Is unable to perform duties for 30 days

    • May return to full occupational duty

    • Is unable to perform previous occupational duties

    Correct Answer
    A. Is unable to perform previous occupational duties
    Explanation
    The term "total permanent impairment" refers to a condition where the patient is unable to perform their previous occupational duties. This means that the patient's ability to carry out the tasks and responsibilities of their previous job has been permanently affected or compromised.

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  • 8. 

    When a patient fails to keep an appoinment the medical assistant should

    • Bill the appointment fee to the insurance company

    • Document the failed appointment in the patient's chart

    • Call the patient's nearest relative

    • Refuse further treatments

    Correct Answer
    A. Document the failed appointment in the patient's chart
    Explanation
    When a patient fails to keep an appointment, it is important for the medical assistant to document the failed appointment in the patient's chart. This helps to maintain accurate records of the patient's history and can be useful for future reference. It also allows the healthcare provider to track and monitor the patient's adherence to appointments and follow-up care. This documentation ensures that the healthcare team is aware of the missed appointment and can take appropriate action if necessary.

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  • 9. 

    The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of

    • 24-40 beats per minute

    • 40-55 beats per minute

    • 60-80 beats per minute

    • 100-110 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    A. 60-80 beats per minute
    Explanation
    The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of 60-80 beats per minute. This range is considered normal for a healthy adult at rest, indicating a normal heart rate. A pulse rate below 60 may indicate bradycardia (a slow heart rate), while a pulse rate above 80 may indicate tachycardia (a fast heart rate). Therefore, a pulse rate between 60-80 beats per minute is considered within the normal range for an adult at rest.

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  • 10. 

    The instrument pictured below to take blood pressure is called a

    • A tonometer

    • A spirometer

    • An audiometer

    • A sphygmomanometer

    Correct Answer
    A. A sphygmomanometer
    Explanation
    A sphygmomanometer is the correct answer because it is an instrument used to measure blood pressure. It consists of an inflatable cuff that is wrapped around the upper arm and a pressure gauge to measure the pressure in the cuff. By inflating the cuff and gradually releasing the pressure, healthcare professionals can determine the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings of a patient. The other options, tonometer, spirometer, and audiometer, are not used for measuring blood pressure but rather for measuring intraocular pressure, lung function, and hearing, respectively.

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  • 11. 

    The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the

    • Ear

    • Mouth

    • Axilla

    • Rectum

    Correct Answer
    A. Ear
    Explanation
    The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the ear because it is designed to measure the temperature of the tympanic membrane, which is located in the ear canal. This type of thermometer is commonly used because it provides a quick and accurate reading of body temperature. By inserting the thermometer into the ear, it can measure the infrared heat waves emitted by the tympanic membrane, giving an accurate representation of the body's internal temperature.

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  • 12. 

    Workers Compensation insurance provides benefits for

    • Employees whose jobs have been eliminated

    • Non-occupational injuries and illnesses

    • Occupational injuries

    • Family medical leave

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational injuries
    Explanation
    Workers Compensation insurance provides benefits for occupational injuries. This type of insurance is designed to cover medical expenses, lost wages, and rehabilitation costs for employees who are injured while performing their job duties. It is a form of protection for both the employee and the employer, as it helps ensure that injured workers receive the necessary care and compensation, while also protecting the employer from potential lawsuits related to workplace injuries.

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  • 13. 

    The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is

    • Lordosis

    • Scoliosis

    • Kyphosis

    • Spondylosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Scoliosis is the correct answer because it refers to the abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, which is often congenital in origin. Lordosis is an abnormal inward curvature of the spine, kyphosis is an abnormal outward curvature of the spine, and spondylosis is a degenerative condition affecting the spine.

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  • 14. 

    The term "myotomy" means incision into

    • A tendon

    • A muscle

    • The eardrum

    • The spinal cord

    Correct Answer
    A. A muscle
    Explanation
    The term "myotomy" refers to a surgical procedure that involves incision into a muscle. This procedure is commonly performed to release or cut the muscle fibers, which can help treat conditions such as muscle spasms or hypertonia. By making an incision into the muscle, the surgeon can effectively relieve tension and improve muscle function. Therefore, the correct answer is "a muscle."

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  • 15. 

    The first step in controlling bleeding is

    • Elevation

    • Tourniquet

    • Direct pressure

    • Pressure points

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct pressure
    Explanation
    Direct pressure is the first step in controlling bleeding because it helps to stop or slow down the flow of blood from a wound. Applying direct pressure to the bleeding site with a clean cloth, bandage, or hand helps to compress the blood vessels and promote clotting. This method is effective in most cases of external bleeding and should be done immediately to prevent excessive blood loss. Elevation, tourniquets, and pressure points may be used in specific situations, but direct pressure is generally the initial and most important step.

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  • 16. 

    If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a

    • Gross profit of $17,500

    • Gross profit of $33,000

    • Net profit of $17,500

    • Net profit of $2,000

    Correct Answer
    A. Net profit of $2,000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "net profit of $2,000". This is because net profit is calculated by subtracting total expenses from total income. In this case, the total income is $17,500 and the total expenses are $15,500. Therefore, the net profit would be $17,500 - $15,500 = $2,000.

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  • 17. 

    The combining form that means "red" is

    • Xantho

    • Leuko

    • Erythro

    • Melano

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythro
    Explanation
    The combining form "erythro" is derived from the Greek word for "red." It is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate the color red or something related to the color red, such as red blood cells or red pigmentation. Therefore, "erythro" is the correct answer for the combining form that means "red."

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  • 18. 

    The abbreviation "QID" means

    • Every day

    • Two times per day

    • Three times per day

    • Four times per day

    Correct Answer
    A. Four times per day
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "QID" stands for "quater in die" in Latin, which translates to "four times per day" in English. This medical abbreviation is commonly used to indicate the frequency at which a medication should be taken throughout the day.

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  • 19. 

    A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?

    • Blood test

    • Lumbar puncture

    • Organ donation

    • Breast biopsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood test
    Explanation
    Implied consent refers to a situation where a patient's consent is assumed based on their actions or behavior. In the context of medical procedures, a blood test is a relatively non-invasive procedure that is commonly performed for diagnostic purposes. Since it does not involve any major risks or potential harm to the patient, it is reasonable to assume that a patient's implied consent would cover a blood test. However, it is important to note that the scope of implied consent may vary depending on the specific circumstances and the healthcare provider's policies.

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  • 20. 

    Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should

    • Refer all inquiries to the collection agency

    • Offer the patient a payment plan

    • Continue to send monthly statements

    • Continue billng late fees

    Correct Answer
    A. Refer all inquiries to the collection agency
    Explanation
    Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should refer all inquiries to the collection agency. This is because the collection agency is now responsible for handling the collection process and communicating with the patient regarding the outstanding debt. By referring inquiries to the collection agency, the physician's office ensures that the appropriate party is handling the matter and avoids any confusion or miscommunication.

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  • 21. 

    The "Snellen Chart" is used to test

    • Reflexes

    • Hearing

    • Smell

    • Sight

    Correct Answer
    A. Sight
    Explanation
    The "Snellen Chart" is used to test sight. This chart consists of letters or symbols in different sizes, which are displayed at a specific distance. The person being tested is asked to read the letters or identify the symbols, and their ability to see clearly at different distances is assessed. This test helps determine the visual acuity of an individual and is commonly used in eye examinations to diagnose and monitor vision problems.

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  • 22. 

    When a muscle contracts, it becomes

    • Shorter and thinner

    • Longer and thicker

    • Shorter and thicker

    • Longer and thinner

    Correct Answer
    A. Shorter and thicker
    Explanation
    When a muscle contracts, the muscle fibers within the muscle pull closer together, causing the muscle to become shorter. Additionally, the muscle fibers also become thicker as they contract, which is due to an increase in the tension and force exerted by the muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is "shorter and thicker".

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  • 23. 

    A drug used to relieve pain is an

    • Antidote

    • Antibiotic

    • Analgesic

    • Antidepressant

    Correct Answer
    A. Analgesic
    Explanation
    An analgesic is a drug that is used to relieve pain. It works by blocking the transmission of pain signals to the brain or by reducing the inflammation that causes pain. Unlike an antibiotic, which is used to treat infections caused by bacteria, or an antidepressant, which is used to treat depression, an analgesic specifically targets pain relief. Therefore, the correct answer is analgesic.

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  • 24. 

    During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the

    • Tongue

    • Epiglottis

    • Soft palate

    • Uvula

    Correct Answer
    A. Epiglottis
    Explanation
    During swallowing, the epiglottis covers the larynx to prevent food or liquid from entering the windpipe and causing choking or aspiration. It acts as a flap that closes off the opening to the trachea, directing the food or liquid down the esophagus and into the stomach. This protective mechanism ensures that the airway remains clear and allows for safe passage of food and liquid into the digestive system. The tongue, soft palate, and uvula play important roles in swallowing, but they do not directly cover the larynx during this process.

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  • 25. 

    A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of

    • FSH

    • PTH

    • HCG

    • TSH

    Correct Answer
    A. HCG
    Explanation
    A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). HCG is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. Its presence in the urine indicates that a woman is pregnant. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), PTH (parathyroid hormone), and TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) are not directly related to pregnancy and would not be detected in a urine pregnancy test.

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  • 26. 

    The medical term for inflammation of the liver is

    • Hepatitis

    • Hepatomegaly

    • Cirrhosis

    • Ascites

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is hepatitis. Hepatitis refers to the inflammation of the liver, which can be caused by various factors such as viruses, alcohol abuse, or autoimmune diseases. It can lead to symptoms like fatigue, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Hepatitis can be acute or chronic, and if left untreated, it can progress to more serious conditions like cirrhosis or liver cancer. Therefore, hepatitis is the appropriate medical term for inflammation of the liver.

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  • 27. 

    The policy describing a period of non coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called

    • An exclusion

    • A special risk rider

    • A hold-harmless clause

    • A pre-existing conditions waiver

    Correct Answer
    A. A pre-existing conditions waiver
    Explanation
    A pre-existing conditions waiver refers to a policy that excludes coverage for medical conditions that were diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan. This means that any treatment or expenses related to these pre-existing conditions will not be covered by the insurance. The waiver allows the insurance company to avoid the financial risk associated with providing coverage for conditions that already existed before the policy was issued.

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  • 28. 

    The "universal donor" has blood type

    • A+

    • B-

    • AB+

    • O-

    Correct Answer
    A. O-
    Explanation
    O- is considered the "universal donor" because individuals with this blood type can donate blood to individuals of any other blood type. This is because O- blood lacks both A and B antigens on the red blood cells, making it compatible with all other blood types. Additionally, O- blood is also compatible with Rh positive and Rh negative individuals, further increasing its compatibility. Therefore, O- blood can be safely transfused to patients with different blood types without the risk of an adverse immune reaction.

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  • 29. 

    The three sctions of the small intestine are the

    • Cecum, duodenum, and ileum

    • Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

    • Duodenum, sigmoid, and jejunum

    • Ascending, transverse, and descending

    Correct Answer
    A. Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The small intestine is divided into three sections: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The duodenum is the first and shortest section, where most of the digestion takes place. The jejunum is the middle section, responsible for nutrient absorption. The ileum is the final section, where absorption of remaining nutrients and vitamins occurs. These three sections work together to ensure proper digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.

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  • 30. 

    The combining form "hist/o" means

    • Fat

    • Tissue

    • Organ

    • Muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Tissue
    Explanation
    The combining form "hist/o" refers to tissue. This can be inferred from the fact that "hist/o" is a combining form, which means it is used to create medical terms by combining it with other word parts. In this case, "hist/o" specifically refers to tissue, indicating that it is the correct answer choice.

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  • 31. 

    The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from

    • Loss of credentials

    • Civil and criminal liability

    • Contracting diseases

    • Accidental injury

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil and criminal liability
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from civil and criminal liability. This means that if a healthcare provider, in good faith, provides emergency care or assistance at the scene of an accident or emergency, they cannot be held legally responsible for any harm or injury that may occur during the course of their aid. This protection encourages healthcare providers to offer their assistance in emergency situations without the fear of facing legal consequences.

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  • 32. 

    The method used to perform a breast examination is

    • Palpation

    • Percussion

    • Ausculation

    • Mensuration

    Correct Answer
    A. Palpation
    Explanation
    The method used to perform a breast examination is palpation. Palpation involves using the hands to feel and examine the breasts for any abnormalities, such as lumps or changes in texture. This method allows healthcare professionals to detect any potential issues early on and is an important part of breast cancer screening and prevention. Percussion, auscultation, and mensuration are not typically used in breast examinations.

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  • 33. 

    An abnormal scar formation is

    • Nevus

    • Keloid

    • Angioma

    • Melanoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Keloid
    Explanation
    A keloid is an abnormal scar formation that occurs when the body produces excessive collagen during the healing process. Unlike typical scars, keloids extend beyond the original wound site and can be raised, thickened, and darker in color. They can cause discomfort, itching, and can be cosmetically undesirable. Keloids can develop after any type of injury to the skin, including surgical incisions, burns, acne, or even minor scratches. Treatment options for keloids include corticosteroid injections, surgical removal, laser therapy, or silicone gel sheets.

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  • 34. 

    The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of

    • Electronic exchange of patient information

    • Insurance premium information

    • Paper-based patient files

    • Office employee files

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic exchange of patient information
    Explanation
    The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to establish a set of national guidelines and regulations for protecting the privacy and confidentiality of electronic exchange of patient information. This ensures that healthcare organizations and professionals handle and transmit patient data securely, preventing unauthorized access and maintaining the integrity of sensitive information.

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  • 35. 

    Banking fees will appear on a monthly statement in the form of a

    • Credit

    • Service charge

    • Withdrawal

    • Overdraft

    Correct Answer
    A. Service charge
    Explanation
    Banking fees are charges imposed by the bank for various services provided to the customer. These fees are typically deducted from the customer's account and appear on the monthly statement. The term "service charge" is commonly used to refer to these fees, making it the correct answer in this case.

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  • 36. 

    The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is

    • Popliteal

    • Brachial

    • Carotid

    • Radial

    Correct Answer
    A. Radial
    Explanation
    The radial artery is the most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse because it is easily accessible and located on the wrist, making it convenient for healthcare professionals to measure the pulse rate. Additionally, the radial artery is close to the surface of the skin, allowing for accurate and efficient pulse assessment.

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  • 37. 

    An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the

    • Knee

    • Elbow

    • Hip

    • Ankle

    Correct Answer
    A. Hip
    Explanation
    A ball and socket joint allows for a wide range of movement in multiple directions. The hip joint is a prime example of a ball and socket joint as it consists of a rounded head of the femur bone fitting into a cup-shaped socket in the pelvis. This structure allows for movements such as flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation, making it a highly mobile joint. The knee, elbow, and ankle joints do not possess the same ball and socket structure and therefore do not exhibit the same range of motion as the hip joint.

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  • 38. 

    The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the

    • Endorsement

    • Maker

    • Payee

    • Payer

    Correct Answer
    A. Payee
    Explanation
    The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the payee. This is the person or entity who will receive the payment. The payee is the individual or organization that the check is intended to be paid to.

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  • 39. 

    The angle for a subcutaneous injection is

    • 15 degree

    • 25 degree

    • 45 degree

    • 90 degree

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 degree
    Explanation
    The correct angle for a subcutaneous injection is 45 degrees. This angle is commonly used for subcutaneous injections because it allows the medication to be injected into the layer of fat just below the skin. Injecting at a 45-degree angle helps ensure that the medication is absorbed properly and minimizes the risk of injecting too deeply into the muscle or causing unnecessary pain or discomfort.

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  • 40. 

    The most effective method of sterilization is

    • Boiling

    • Chemicals

    • Disinfectants

    • Autoclaving

    Correct Answer
    A. Autoclaving
    Explanation
    Autoclaving is the most effective method of sterilization because it uses high pressure and steam to kill microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and spores. The combination of high temperature and pressure in an autoclave ensures that all parts of the object being sterilized are reached, making it highly reliable in achieving complete sterilization. This method is commonly used in medical and laboratory settings to sterilize equipment, instruments, and supplies. Boiling, chemicals, and disinfectants may be effective in some cases, but they are not as reliable or thorough as autoclaving.

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  • 41. 

    The knee-chest position is used for examination of the

    • Lumbar spine

    • Abdomen

    • Bladder

    • Rectum

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectum
    Explanation
    The knee-chest position is used for examination of the rectum because it allows for better visualization and access to the rectal area. In this position, the patient kneels on the examination table with their knees and chest resting on the surface, while their buttocks are elevated. This position helps to relax the pelvic muscles and allows the healthcare provider to perform a thorough examination of the rectum, including digital rectal examination or other procedures such as sigmoidoscopy or proctoscopy.

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  • 42. 

    Which one of the following tests identifies the organism associated with a urinary tract infection?

    • Culture and sensitivity

    • Colony count

    • Pure culture

    • Gram stain

    Correct Answer
    A. Culture and sensitivity
    Explanation
    Culture and sensitivity testing is used to identify the organism causing a urinary tract infection (UTI). This test involves culturing a urine sample in a laboratory to allow the growth of bacteria or other pathogens. Once the organism is identified, it can be tested against different antibiotics to determine which ones are effective in treating the infection. This helps guide the choice of appropriate antibiotic therapy for the UTI. Colony count and pure culture are related to the process of culture and sensitivity testing, while Gram stain is a different laboratory test used to identify the type of bacteria present in a sample.

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  • 43. 

    Growth hormone is produced in the

    • Thymus

    • Thyroid

    • Pancreas

    • Pituitary

    Correct Answer
    A. Pituitary
    Explanation
    The growth hormone is produced in the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland is a small pea-sized gland located at the base of the brain. It is often referred to as the "master gland" because it controls the release of hormones from other glands in the body. The growth hormone, also known as somatotropin, plays a crucial role in stimulating growth and development in children and adolescents. It also helps regulate metabolism and body composition in adults.

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  • 44. 

    Positioning or sitting behind a dest communicates the message of

    • Authority

    • Impartiality

    • Congruency

    • Acknowledgment

    Correct Answer
    A. Authority
    Explanation
    Sitting or positioning oneself behind a desk is commonly associated with authority. This is because it is a typical setup for individuals in positions of power or leadership, such as managers or executives. The desk acts as a physical barrier and symbolizes control and decision-making. It creates a sense of hierarchy and establishes the person behind the desk as someone with the power to make important decisions and give orders. Therefore, sitting behind a desk communicates authority to others.

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  • 45. 

    The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physician's office is to

    • Advise the patient to call "911".

    • Have special evening appointments for emergencies

    • Leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule

    • Refer all emergency cases to the nearest paramedica station

    Correct Answer
    A. Leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule. This method allows the physician's office to have flexibility in accommodating appointments for minor emergencies. By leaving unassigned slots, they can fit in urgent cases as they arise without disrupting the regular schedule too much. It provides a buffer for unexpected situations and ensures that patients with minor emergencies can be seen in a timely manner.

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  • 46. 

    What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines?

    • CDC

    • EPA

    • CMS

    • OSHA

    Correct Answer
    A. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines. OSHA is a regulatory body that ensures safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. They establish and enforce guidelines to protect workers from occupational hazards, including the proper use of Standard Precautions to prevent the spread of infections in healthcare settings. OSHA conducts inspections, provides training, and enforces compliance with these guidelines to ensure the safety of healthcare workers and patients.

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  • 47. 

    Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation?

    • Freezing

    • Incubation

    • Protection from light

    • Refrigeration

    Correct Answer
    A. Protection from light
    Explanation
    Bilirubin specimens require protection from light because exposure to light can lead to the degradation of bilirubin molecules, resulting in inaccurate test results. Bilirubin is a light-sensitive compound that is produced during the breakdown of red blood cells. Therefore, it is crucial to store and handle bilirubin specimens in a way that minimizes exposure to light, such as using amber-colored tubes or wrapping them in aluminum foil. This ensures the integrity of the specimen and allows for accurate measurement of bilirubin levels in the laboratory.

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  • 48. 

    A genetic disorder characterized by the inablility of the blood to clot properly is

    • Galactosemia

    • Hemophilia

    • Thalassemia

    • Thrombocythemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemophilia
    Explanation
    Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot properly. This condition is caused by a deficiency or absence of certain clotting factors in the blood. As a result, individuals with hemophilia may experience prolonged bleeding, even from minor injuries. This disorder is typically inherited and primarily affects males. Galactosemia is a metabolic disorder related to the inability to metabolize galactose, thalassemia is a blood disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin production, and thrombocythemia is a condition where there is an excess of platelets in the blood.

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  • 49. 

     A hemostat is used to

    • Secure drapes

    • Retract tissue

    • Control bleeding

    • Transfer instruments

    Correct Answer
    A. Control bleeding
    Explanation
    A hemostat is a surgical tool specifically designed to control bleeding by clamping blood vessels. It is commonly used during surgical procedures to temporarily stop the flow of blood, allowing the surgeon to work without obstruction. By applying pressure to the blood vessels, a hemostat helps to prevent excessive bleeding, ensuring a clear surgical field and minimizing the risk of complications. The other options listed, such as securing drapes, retracting tissue, or transferring instruments, do not involve the primary function of a hemostat, which is controlling bleeding.

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  • Aug 27, 2012
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