Registered Medical Assistant

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Medical Assistant Quizzes & Trivia

Practice questions for Registered Medical Assistant


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The largest bone of the body is the

    • A.

      Ulna

    • B.

      Tibia

    • C.

      Radius

    • D.

      Femur

    Correct Answer
    D. Femur
    Explanation
    The femur is the largest bone in the body. It is located in the thigh and is the longest and strongest bone. Its size and strength are necessary to support the weight of the upper body and provide stability and mobility to the lower limbs. The femur also plays a crucial role in the production of blood cells in the bone marrow.

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  • 2. 

    An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the

    • A.

      Knee

    • B.

      Elbow

    • C.

      Hip

    • D.

      Ankle

    Correct Answer
    C. Hip
    Explanation
    A ball and socket joint allows for a wide range of movement in multiple directions. The hip joint is a prime example of a ball and socket joint as it consists of a rounded head of the femur bone fitting into a cup-shaped socket in the pelvis. This structure allows for movements such as flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation, making it a highly mobile joint. The knee, elbow, and ankle joints do not possess the same ball and socket structure and therefore do not exhibit the same range of motion as the hip joint.

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  • 3. 

    Muscles are attached to bones by

    • A.

      Fascia

    • B.

      Tendons

    • C.

      Ligaments

    • D.

      Joints

    Correct Answer
    B. Tendons
    Explanation
    Tendons are the connective tissues that attach muscles to bones. They are strong, fibrous cords that transmit the force generated by the muscles to the bones, allowing movement to occur. Tendons are made up of collagen fibers, which provide strength and flexibility. Without tendons, the muscles would not be able to exert their force on the bones, and movement would be impossible. Therefore, tendons are the correct answer for this question.

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  • 4. 

    When a muscle contracts, it becomes

    • A.

      Shorter and thinner

    • B.

      Longer and thicker

    • C.

      Shorter and thicker

    • D.

      Longer and thinner

    Correct Answer
    C. Shorter and thicker
    Explanation
    When a muscle contracts, the muscle fibers within the muscle pull closer together, causing the muscle to become shorter. Additionally, the muscle fibers also become thicker as they contract, which is due to an increase in the tension and force exerted by the muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is "shorter and thicker".

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  • 5. 

    Growth hormone is produced in the

    • A.

      Thymus

    • B.

      Thyroid

    • C.

      Pancreas

    • D.

      Pituitary

    Correct Answer
    D. Pituitary
    Explanation
    The growth hormone is produced in the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland is a small pea-sized gland located at the base of the brain. It is often referred to as the "master gland" because it controls the release of hormones from other glands in the body. The growth hormone, also known as somatotropin, plays a crucial role in stimulating growth and development in children and adolescents. It also helps regulate metabolism and body composition in adults.

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  • 6. 

    The fuction of insulin is to

    • A.

      Promote carbohydrate synthesis

    • B.

      Convert glucose into fat

    • C.

      Accelerate liver glycogenolysis

    • D.

      Assist glucose into the cells

    Correct Answer
    D. Assist glucose into the cells
    Explanation
    Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. Its main function is to assist glucose, which is the primary source of energy for cells, to enter the cells. Insulin acts as a key that unlocks the cells, allowing glucose to be transported from the bloodstream into the cells where it can be used for energy production. Without insulin, glucose would not be able to enter the cells, leading to high blood sugar levels and energy deprivation in the cells.

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  • 7. 

    The cavity within the kidney that colects urine is the

    • A.

      Ureter

    • B.

      Renal pelvis

    • C.

      Urinary bladder

    • D.

      Bowman's capsule

    Correct Answer
    B. Renal pelvis
    Explanation
    The renal pelvis is the correct answer because it is the cavity within the kidney that collects urine. It is located at the top of the ureter, where urine from the kidney is funneled into before it is transported to the bladder. The renal pelvis acts as a reservoir for urine and helps in the smooth flow of urine through the urinary system.

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  • 8. 

    The kidneys are located behind the

    • A.

      Peritoneum

    • B.

      Spinal column

    • C.

      Bladder

    • D.

      Sternum

    Correct Answer
    A. Peritoneum
    Explanation
    The peritoneum is a membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the organs within it. The kidneys are located behind the peritoneum, specifically in the retroperitoneal space. This means that they are positioned outside the peritoneal cavity, behind the peritoneum and against the back muscles. This location provides protection to the kidneys and helps maintain their position in the body.

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  • 9. 

    The site of fertilization is usually the

    • A.

      Ovary

    • B.

      Vagina

    • C.

      Uterus

    • D.

      Fallopian tube

    Correct Answer
    D. Fallopian tube
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the fallopian tube. The fallopian tube is the site where fertilization typically occurs. After ovulation, the egg is released from the ovary and travels through the fallopian tube. If sperm is present in the fallopian tube, it can fertilize the egg, resulting in pregnancy. The fertilized egg then continues its journey to the uterus, where it implants and develops into a fetus. The vagina is the birth canal, while the uterus is the organ where the fetus grows during pregnancy.

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  • 10. 

    Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at

    • A.

      Conception

    • B.

      Birth

    • C.

      Puberty

    • D.

      Menopause

    Correct Answer
    C. Puberty
    Explanation
    The correct answer is puberty because it is during this stage of development that the reproductive system matures and becomes capable of producing sperm and egg cells. Conception refers to the moment of fertilization when an egg is fertilized by a sperm, but the maturity of these cells starts at puberty. Birth and menopause are not accurate answers as they do not represent the beginning of sperm and egg cell maturity.

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  • 11. 

    The three sctions of the small intestine are the

    • A.

      Cecum, duodenum, and ileum

    • B.

      Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

    • C.

      Duodenum, sigmoid, and jejunum

    • D.

      Ascending, transverse, and descending

    Correct Answer
    B. Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The small intestine is divided into three sections: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The duodenum is the first and shortest section, where most of the digestion takes place. The jejunum is the middle section, responsible for nutrient absorption. The ileum is the final section, where absorption of remaining nutrients and vitamins occurs. These three sections work together to ensure proper digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.

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  • 12. 

    The internal folds of the stomach are known as

    • A.

      Villi

    • B.

      Rugae

    • C.

      Cilia

    • D.

      Convolutions

    Correct Answer
    B. Rugae
    Explanation
    The internal folds of the stomach are known as rugae. Rugae are the folds of the stomach lining that allow it to expand and accommodate larger amounts of food. These folds also increase the surface area of the stomach, allowing for better absorption of nutrients.

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  • 13. 

    The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need, is vitamin

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      E

    • C.

      K

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    C. K
    Explanation
    The correct answer is K. The normal flora of the colon refers to the beneficial bacteria that naturally reside in the large intestine. These bacteria have the ability to produce vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. The body does not produce enough vitamin K on its own, so it relies on the bacteria in the colon to meet its daily needs. Therefore, vitamin K is the vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in sufficient amounts.

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  • 14. 

    The gray matter on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres is called the

    • A.

      Cerebrum

    • B.

      Cerebellum

    • C.

      Cerebral cortex

    • D.

      Corpus callosum

    Correct Answer
    C. Cerebral cortex
    Explanation
    The gray matter on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres is called the cerebral cortex. The cerebral cortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as perception, language, memory, and consciousness. It plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and initiating voluntary movements. The cerebral cortex is highly folded, allowing for a larger surface area and more complex neural connections. It is divided into different regions, each with specific functions.

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  • 15. 

    A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by

    • A.

      An axon

    • B.

      A neuron

    • C.

      A dendrite

    • D.

      A neurotransmitter

    Correct Answer
    D. A neurotransmitter
    Explanation
    A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by a neurotransmitter. When a nerve impulse reaches the end of an axon, it triggers the release of neurotransmitters into the synapse. These neurotransmitters then bind to receptors on the neighboring neuron, allowing the impulse to be transmitted from one neuron to another. The neurotransmitter acts as a chemical messenger, facilitating the communication between neurons and allowing the nerve impulse to continue its journey through the nervous system.

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  • 16. 

    During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the

    • A.

      Tongue

    • B.

      Epiglottis

    • C.

      Soft palate

    • D.

      Uvula

    Correct Answer
    B. Epiglottis
    Explanation
    During swallowing, the epiglottis covers the larynx to prevent food or liquid from entering the windpipe and causing choking or aspiration. It acts as a flap that closes off the opening to the trachea, directing the food or liquid down the esophagus and into the stomach. This protective mechanism ensures that the airway remains clear and allows for safe passage of food and liquid into the digestive system. The tongue, soft palate, and uvula play important roles in swallowing, but they do not directly cover the larynx during this process.

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  • 17. 

    The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the

    • A.

      Nasopharynx

    • B.

      Oropharynx

    • C.

      Laryngopharynx

    • D.

      Larynx

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasopharynx
    Explanation
    The nasopharynx is the part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only. It is located behind the nasal cavity and above the oropharynx and laryngopharynx. The nasopharynx plays a crucial role in the respiratory system as it allows air to pass through it, facilitating breathing. It is also responsible for producing mucus, which helps to humidify and filter the air as it enters the respiratory system.

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  • 18. 

    The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

    • A.

      Aorta

    • B.

      Carotid

    • C.

      Coronary

    • D.

      Pulmonary

    Correct Answer
    A. Aorta
    Explanation
    The left ventricle of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries this oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body's tissues and organs. Therefore, the correct answer is the aorta.

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  • 19. 

    The outermost of the pericardial membranse is the

    • A.

      Epicardium

    • B.

      Fibrous pericardium

    • C.

      Visceral pericardium

    • D.

      Parietal pericardium

    Correct Answer
    B. Fibrous pericardium
    Explanation
    The fibrous pericardium is the outermost of the pericardial membranes. It is a tough, dense connective tissue layer that surrounds the heart and helps protect it. It is responsible for anchoring the heart in place and preventing overstretching. The fibrous pericardium also acts as a barrier, preventing the spread of infection or inflammation from surrounding structures to the heart.

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  • 20. 

    The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is

    • A.

      Elastin

    • B.

      Keratin

    • C.

      Melanin

    • D.

      Collagen

    Correct Answer
    B. Keratin
    Explanation
    Keratin is the correct answer because it is the protein found in epidermal cells that provides strength and protection to the skin. It forms a waterproof barrier on the outer layer of the skin, preventing water loss and protecting the underlying tissues. Keratin is also responsible for the structure and hardness of nails and hair. Elastin is a protein found in connective tissues that provides elasticity, while melanin is responsible for skin coloration. Collagen is another protein found in the skin, but it is not specifically responsible for making the skin waterproof.

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  • 21. 

    The outer layer of the skin is the

    • A.

      Dermis

    • B.

      Corium

    • C.

      Epidermis

    • D.

      Subcutaneous

    Correct Answer
    C. Epidermis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is epidermis. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin. It acts as a protective barrier against external factors such as bacteria, UV radiation, and chemicals. The epidermis is composed of several layers of cells, including keratinocytes, which produce the protein keratin that gives the skin its strength and waterproof properties. It also contains melanocytes, which produce melanin, the pigment responsible for skin color. The epidermis plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and health of the skin.

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  • 22. 

    The receptors for hearing and equilibrium are located in the

    • A.

      Eardrum

    • B.

      Inner ear

    • C.

      Middle ear

    • D.

      External ear

    Correct Answer
    B. Inner ear
    Explanation
    The receptors for hearing and equilibrium are located in the inner ear. This is because the inner ear contains the cochlea, which is responsible for hearing, and the vestibular system, which is responsible for balance and equilibrium. The cochlea contains tiny hair cells that detect sound vibrations and convert them into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. The vestibular system contains fluid-filled canals and sacs that detect changes in head position and movement, allowing us to maintain balance and coordination. Therefore, the inner ear is where the receptors for both hearing and equilibrium are located.

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  • 23. 

    The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the

    • A.

      Cornea

    • B.

      Choroid

    • C.

      Sclera

    • D.

      Conjunctiva

    Correct Answer
    D. Conjunctiva
    Explanation
    The conjunctiva is a thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye. It helps to protect the eye from foreign particles and lubricates the surface of the eye by producing tears. It also contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the eye. The cornea is the clear front surface of the eye, the choroid is a layer of tissue that provides blood supply to the retina, and the sclera is the tough outer layer of the eye. Therefore, the correct answer is conjunctiva.

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  • 24. 

    The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is

    • A.

      Lordosis

    • B.

      Scoliosis

    • C.

      Kyphosis

    • D.

      Spondylosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Scoliosis is the correct answer because it refers to the abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, which is often congenital in origin. Lordosis is an abnormal inward curvature of the spine, kyphosis is an abnormal outward curvature of the spine, and spondylosis is a degenerative condition affecting the spine.

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  • 25. 

    A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is

    • A.

      An open fracture

    • B.

      A compound fracture

    • C.

      A comminuted fracture

    • D.

      A greenstick fracture

    Correct Answer
    C. A comminuted fracture
    Explanation
    A comminuted fracture is a type of bone fracture that produces many bone fragments. This occurs when the bone shatters into multiple pieces, often due to a high-energy impact or a severe force applied to the bone. Unlike other types of fractures, such as a greenstick fracture (incomplete break) or an open fracture (bone breaks through the skin), a comminuted fracture results in multiple fragmented pieces of bone. This can make the fracture more complex and challenging to treat, requiring surgical intervention in many cases.

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  • 26. 

    An abnormal scar formation is

    • A.

      Nevus

    • B.

      Keloid

    • C.

      Angioma

    • D.

      Melanoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Keloid
    Explanation
    A keloid is an abnormal scar formation that occurs when the body produces excessive collagen during the healing process. Unlike typical scars, keloids extend beyond the original wound site and can be raised, thickened, and darker in color. They can cause discomfort, itching, and can be cosmetically undesirable. Keloids can develop after any type of injury to the skin, including surgical incisions, burns, acne, or even minor scratches. Treatment options for keloids include corticosteroid injections, surgical removal, laser therapy, or silicone gel sheets.

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  • 27. 

    Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation?

    • A.

      Freezing

    • B.

      Incubation

    • C.

      Protection from light

    • D.

      Refrigeration

    Correct Answer
    C. Protection from light
    Explanation
    Bilirubin specimens require protection from light because exposure to light can lead to the degradation of bilirubin molecules, resulting in inaccurate test results. Bilirubin is a light-sensitive compound that is produced during the breakdown of red blood cells. Therefore, it is crucial to store and handle bilirubin specimens in a way that minimizes exposure to light, such as using amber-colored tubes or wrapping them in aluminum foil. This ensures the integrity of the specimen and allows for accurate measurement of bilirubin levels in the laboratory.

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  • 28. 

    A genetic disorder characterized by the inablility of the blood to clot properly is

    • A.

      Galactosemia

    • B.

      Hemophilia

    • C.

      Thalassemia

    • D.

      Thrombocythemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hemophilia
    Explanation
    Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot properly. This condition is caused by a deficiency or absence of certain clotting factors in the blood. As a result, individuals with hemophilia may experience prolonged bleeding, even from minor injuries. This disorder is typically inherited and primarily affects males. Galactosemia is a metabolic disorder related to the inability to metabolize galactose, thalassemia is a blood disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin production, and thrombocythemia is a condition where there is an excess of platelets in the blood.

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  • 29. 

    Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of

    • A.

      Niacin

    • B.

      Thiamin

    • C.

      Vitamin A

    • D.

      Vitamin D

    Correct Answer
    C. Vitamin A
    Explanation
    Night blindness is a condition where an individual has difficulty seeing in low light or at night. This condition can be caused by a deficiency of vitamin A. Vitamin A is essential for the production of a pigment called rhodopsin, which is necessary for vision in low light conditions. Without enough vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is impaired, leading to night blindness. Therefore, a deficiency of vitamin A can be a potential cause of night blindness.

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  • 30. 

    A deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to which type of anemia?

    • A.

      Sickle Cell

    • B.

      Hemolytic

    • C.

      Pernicious

    • D.

      Hemorrhagic

    Correct Answer
    C. Pernicious
    Explanation
    A deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia that occurs when the body is unable to absorb enough vitamin B12 from the diet. This can happen due to a lack of intrinsic factor, a protein produced by the stomach that helps with the absorption of vitamin B12. Without enough vitamin B12, the body is unable to produce enough healthy red blood cells, leading to pernicious anemia.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?

    • A.

      Glaucoma

    • B.

      Presbyopia

    • C.

      Conjuncivitis

    • D.

      Astigmatism

    Correct Answer
    B. Presbyopia
    Explanation
    Presbyopia is the most common eye condition associated with aging. It is a natural condition that occurs as the lens of the eye becomes less flexible over time, resulting in difficulty focusing on close objects. This condition typically begins around the age of 40 and gradually worsens with age. Presbyopia is different from other eye conditions like glaucoma, conjunctivitis, and astigmatism, which can affect people of all ages.

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  • 32. 

    The combining form that means "red" is

    • A.

      Xantho

    • B.

      Leuko

    • C.

      Erythro

    • D.

      Melano

    Correct Answer
    C. Erythro
    Explanation
    The combining form "erythro" is derived from the Greek word for "red." It is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate the color red or something related to the color red, such as red blood cells or red pigmentation. Therefore, "erythro" is the correct answer for the combining form that means "red."

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  • 33. 

    The combining form "hist/o" means

    • A.

      Fat

    • B.

      Tissue

    • C.

      Organ

    • D.

      Muscle

    Correct Answer
    B. Tissue
    Explanation
    The combining form "hist/o" refers to tissue. This can be inferred from the fact that "hist/o" is a combining form, which means it is used to create medical terms by combining it with other word parts. In this case, "hist/o" specifically refers to tissue, indicating that it is the correct answer choice.

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  • 34. 

    The suffix meaning "inflammation" is

    • A.

      Osis

    • B.

      Ectomy

    • C.

      Itis

    • D.

      Desis

    Correct Answer
    C. Itis
    Explanation
    The suffix "-itis" refers to inflammation. It is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate various types of inflammation in different parts of the body. Examples include tonsillitis (inflammation of the tonsils) and arthritis (inflammation of the joints). This suffix helps healthcare professionals to identify and describe specific inflammatory conditions.

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  • 35. 

    Encephalopathy is defined as

    • A.

      Swelling of the brain

    • B.

      Deterioration of the brain

    • C.

      Inflammation of the brain

    • D.

      Any dysfunction of the brain

    Correct Answer
    D. Any dysfunction of the brain
    Explanation
    Encephalopathy is a broad term that encompasses any dysfunction or abnormality in the brain. It can refer to a wide range of conditions that affect the brain's functioning, such as brain damage, metabolic disorders, infections, or toxic reactions. The term does not specifically indicate swelling, deterioration, or inflammation of the brain, although these may be present in certain cases of encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is "any dysfunction of the brain."

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  • 36. 

    The medical term for inflammation of the liver is

    • A.

      Hepatitis

    • B.

      Hepatomegaly

    • C.

      Cirrhosis

    • D.

      Ascites

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is hepatitis. Hepatitis refers to the inflammation of the liver, which can be caused by various factors such as viruses, alcohol abuse, or autoimmune diseases. It can lead to symptoms like fatigue, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Hepatitis can be acute or chronic, and if left untreated, it can progress to more serious conditions like cirrhosis or liver cancer. Therefore, hepatitis is the appropriate medical term for inflammation of the liver.

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  • 37. 

    The term "myotomy" means incision into

    • A.

      A tendon

    • B.

      A muscle

    • C.

      The eardrum

    • D.

      The spinal cord

    Correct Answer
    B. A muscle
    Explanation
    The term "myotomy" refers to a surgical procedure that involves incision into a muscle. This procedure is commonly performed to release or cut the muscle fibers, which can help treat conditions such as muscle spasms or hypertonia. By making an incision into the muscle, the surgeon can effectively relieve tension and improve muscle function. Therefore, the correct answer is "a muscle."

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  • 38. 

    Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

    • A.

      E

    • B.

      K

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    C. C
    Explanation
    Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin. Water-soluble vitamins are easily dissolved in water and are not stored in the body, so they need to be consumed regularly through diet or supplements. Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is essential for the growth, development, and repair of body tissues. It is also a powerful antioxidant that helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Good food sources of vitamin C include citrus fruits, strawberries, kiwi, bell peppers, and broccoli.

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  • 39. 

    The abbreviation "QID" means

    • A.

      Every day

    • B.

      Two times per day

    • C.

      Three times per day

    • D.

      Four times per day

    Correct Answer
    D. Four times per day
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "QID" stands for "quater in die" in Latin, which translates to "four times per day" in English. This medical abbreviation is commonly used to indicate the frequency at which a medication should be taken throughout the day.

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  • 40. 

    The abbreviation for "prescription" is

    • A.

      Fx

    • B.

      Bx

    • C.

      Rx

    • D.

      Tx

    Correct Answer
    C. Rx
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "Rx" is commonly used in the medical field to represent "prescription." It is derived from the Latin word "recipe," which means "take." The symbol "Rx" is often seen on medical prescriptions, indicating that a medication or treatment has been prescribed by a healthcare professional.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?

    • A.

      Tonsilitis

    • B.

      Tonsillitis

    • C.

      Toncilitis

    • D.

      Toncillitis

    Correct Answer
    B. Tonsillitis
    Explanation
    The correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils is "Tonsillitis".

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  • 42. 

    A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?

    • A.

      Blood test

    • B.

      Lumbar puncture

    • C.

      Organ donation

    • D.

      Breast biopsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood test
    Explanation
    Implied consent refers to a situation where a patient's consent is assumed based on their actions or behavior. In the context of medical procedures, a blood test is a relatively non-invasive procedure that is commonly performed for diagnostic purposes. Since it does not involve any major risks or potential harm to the patient, it is reasonable to assume that a patient's implied consent would cover a blood test. However, it is important to note that the scope of implied consent may vary depending on the specific circumstances and the healthcare provider's policies.

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  • 43. 

    HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims

    • A.

      Through claims processing centers

    • B.

      Through electronic data exchange

    • C.

      By paper CMS 1500 forms

    • D.

      By facsimile transmission

    Correct Answer
    C. By paper CMS 1500 forms
    Explanation
    HIPAA, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a federal law that sets standards for the protection of sensitive patient health information. Covered entities, such as healthcare providers, are required to submit Medicare claims in accordance with HIPAA regulations. The correct answer states that these claims must be submitted by paper CMS 1500 forms. This means that healthcare providers need to fill out the CMS 1500 form manually, providing all the necessary information related to the patient and the services rendered, and submit it in paper format for Medicare claims processing.

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  • 44. 

    The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?

    • A.

      Physician advertising

    • B.

      Suspected child abuse

    • C.

      A minor with a positive pregnancy test

    • D.

      Advertisements for surrogacy

    Correct Answer
    B. Suspected child abuse
    Explanation
    Suspected child abuse must be reported to the appropriate authorities as required by law. This is because the safety and well-being of children is of utmost importance, and reporting suspected abuse ensures that necessary intervention and protection measures can be taken to safeguard the child. Failure to report suspected child abuse can have serious consequences and may perpetuate the cycle of abuse, potentially putting the child at further risk. Therefore, it is crucial to report any suspicions or concerns regarding child abuse to the appropriate authorities.

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  • 45. 

    The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of

    • A.

      Electronic exchange of patient information

    • B.

      Insurance premium information

    • C.

      Paper-based patient files

    • D.

      Office employee files

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic exchange of patient information
    Explanation
    The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to establish a set of national guidelines and regulations for protecting the privacy and confidentiality of electronic exchange of patient information. This ensures that healthcare organizations and professionals handle and transmit patient data securely, preventing unauthorized access and maintaining the integrity of sensitive information.

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  • 46. 

    The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from

    • A.

      Loss of credentials

    • B.

      Civil and criminal liability

    • C.

      Contracting diseases

    • D.

      Accidental injury

    Correct Answer
    B. Civil and criminal liability
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from civil and criminal liability. This means that if a healthcare provider, in good faith, provides emergency care or assistance at the scene of an accident or emergency, they cannot be held legally responsible for any harm or injury that may occur during the course of their aid. This protection encourages healthcare providers to offer their assistance in emergency situations without the fear of facing legal consequences.

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  • 47. 

    If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for the referral of a patient, both are guilty of

    • A.

      Fee spliting

    • B.

      Insurance fraud

    • C.

      A misdemeanor

    • D.

      Violation of confidentiality

    Correct Answer
    A. Fee spliting
    Explanation
    If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for the referral of a patient, both are guilty of fee splitting. Fee splitting refers to the practice of dividing or sharing fees for patient referrals, which is considered unethical and illegal in many jurisdictions. It undermines the integrity of medical decision-making and can lead to unnecessary tests or procedures. Therefore, both physicians involved in this arrangement would be in violation of professional ethics and potentially subject to legal consequences.

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  • 48. 

    Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to

    • A.

      Define what is included in the practice of medicine

    • B.

      Provide medical leave for employees

    • C.

      Prevent malpractice

    • D.

      Institute arbitration

    Correct Answer
    A. Define what is included in the practice of medicine
    Explanation
    Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to define what is included in the practice of medicine. These acts establish the scope of practice for healthcare professionals, outlining the specific activities and procedures that they are authorized to perform. By clearly defining what falls under the practice of medicine, these laws help protect the public by ensuring that only qualified individuals are providing medical care. They also provide guidelines for licensing and regulation of healthcare professionals, helping to maintain standards of competency and professionalism within the field.

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  • 49. 

    The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called

    • A.

      Focusing

    • B.

      Reflecting

    • C.

      Restating

    • D.

      Clarification

    Correct Answer
    C. Restating
    Explanation
    Restating is the technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message they are communicating. It involves repeating or paraphrasing the patient's words back to them in order to confirm your understanding and ensure that you are on the same page. Restating helps to clarify any misunderstandings and allows the patient to correct any misconceptions. This technique encourages effective communication and helps build rapport between the healthcare provider and the patient.

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  • 50. 

    Positioning or sitting behind a dest communicates the message of

    • A.

      Authority

    • B.

      Impartiality

    • C.

      Congruency

    • D.

      Acknowledgment

    Correct Answer
    A. Authority
    Explanation
    Sitting or positioning oneself behind a desk is commonly associated with authority. This is because it is a typical setup for individuals in positions of power or leadership, such as managers or executives. The desk acts as a physical barrier and symbolizes control and decision-making. It creates a sense of hierarchy and establishes the person behind the desk as someone with the power to make important decisions and give orders. Therefore, sitting behind a desk communicates authority to others.

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