Registered Medical Assistant Review Quesions

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Quizzes Created: 18 | Total Attempts: 23,422
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Medical Assistant Quizzes & Trivia

Review Questions on Medical Terminology, Anatomy Physiology, Office procedures, Administration, Vitals and more, a little of every thing


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An abnormal increase in the size of an organ is

    • A.

      Atrophy

    • B.

      Hypertrophy

    • C.

      Dystrophy

    • D.

      Hypothrophy

    • E.

      Visceral

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypertrophy
    Explanation
    Hypertrophy refers to an abnormal increase in the size of an organ. This can occur due to various factors such as increased workload, hormonal stimulation, or increased demand for the organ's function. It is characterized by an increase in the size of individual cells within the organ, resulting in an overall increase in organ size. Atrophy, on the other hand, refers to a decrease in organ size, while dystrophy refers to abnormal development or degeneration of tissues. "Hypothrophy" is not a recognized term, and "visceral" refers to the internal organs of the body.

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  • 2. 

    The abbreviation for "right eye" is

    • A.

      OD

    • B.

      OS

    • C.

      OU

    • D.

      AD

    • E.

      AS

    Correct Answer
    A. OD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is OD. In medical terminology, OD stands for "oculus dexter" which means "right eye" in Latin. This abbreviation is commonly used in ophthalmology to differentiate between the right and left eye when prescribing medications or documenting eye conditions.

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  • 3. 

    An abnormal decreases in the total number of WBC's is known as

    • A.

      Leukocytosis

    • B.

      Leukemia

    • C.

      Leukosis

    • D.

      Leukopenia

    • E.

      Anemia

    Correct Answer
    D. Leukopenia
    Explanation
    Leukopenia refers to an abnormal decrease in the total number of white blood cells (WBCs) in the body. This condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, autoimmune disorders, certain medications, or bone marrow disorders. It can lead to an increased risk of infections as the body's immune system is compromised due to the low number of WBCs. Leukopenia is different from other options listed in the question. Leukocytosis refers to an abnormal increase in WBCs, leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the production of WBCs, leukosis is not a medical term, and anemia refers to a decrease in the number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood.

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  • 4. 

    An extremely high fever is called

    • A.

      Pyrexia

    • B.

      Hyperpnea

    • C.

      Hyperpyrexia

    • D.

      Hypertension

    • E.

      Hyperglycemia

    Correct Answer
    C. Hyperpyrexia
    Explanation
    Hyperpyrexia is the correct answer because it refers to an extremely high fever, typically above 106°F (41.1°C). This condition is often caused by severe infections, heatstroke, or certain medications. Hyperpyrexia is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention and treatment to prevent complications such as organ damage or seizures.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following suffixes refers to eating?

    • A.

      -cardia

    • B.

      -phasia

    • C.

      -algia

    • D.

      -phagia

    • E.

      -dipsia

    Correct Answer
    D. -phagia
    Explanation
    The suffix "-phagia" refers to eating. This can be seen in words like "dysphagia" (difficulty swallowing) and "polyphagia" (excessive eating).

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  • 6. 

    A suffix used to denote destruction is

    • A.

      -lysis

    • B.

      -desis

    • C.

      -pexy

    • D.

      -plasty

    • E.

      -rrhaphy

    Correct Answer
    A. -lysis
    Explanation
    The suffix "-lysis" is used to denote destruction. This can be seen in medical terms such as "hemolysis" (destruction of red blood cells) or "lysis of adhesions" (destruction of scar tissue). The other suffixes listed (-desis, -pexy, -plasty, -rrhaphy) do not have the same meaning and are used to denote other surgical procedures or techniques.

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  • 7. 

    A rhinoplasty is a surgical procedure on the

    • A.

      Uterus

    • B.

      Nose

    • C.

      Cornea

    • D.

      Ear

    • E.

      Knee

    Correct Answer
    B. Nose
    Explanation
    A rhinoplasty is a surgical procedure that is performed on the nose. It involves reshaping or reconstructing the nose to improve its appearance or functionality. This procedure may be done for various reasons, such as correcting a deviated septum, repairing a nasal fracture, or enhancing the overall aesthetics of the nose. Rhinoplasty is a common cosmetic surgery that can address issues like a crooked nose, a bump on the bridge, or a wide nostril. It is not performed on the uterus, cornea, ear, or knee.

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  • 8. 

    The prefixes apo-, de-, and ab- mean

    • A.

      Against

    • B.

      Before

    • C.

      Within

    • D.

      Outside

    • E.

      Away from

    Correct Answer
    E. Away from
    Explanation
    The prefixes apo-, de-, and ab- all indicate movement or separation from a certain point or location. They suggest a sense of "away from" or "out of." For example, apocalyptic means "away from" or "unrelated to" the apocalypse, while deform means to change the shape or form of something. Similarly, abnormal means deviating from the normal or expected. Therefore, the correct answer is "Away from."

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  • 9. 

    The creation of an opening in the abdomen to bring some portion of the colon onto the surface is a

    • A.

      Cholecystectomy

    • B.

      Gastropexy

    • C.

      Gastrostomy

    • D.

      Colectomy

    • E.

      Colostomy

    Correct Answer
    E. Colostomy
    Explanation
    A colostomy is the correct answer because it involves creating an opening in the abdomen to bring a portion of the colon onto the surface. This procedure is typically performed when there is a need to divert fecal flow from the lower part of the colon or rectum, such as in cases of bowel obstruction, colorectal cancer, or inflammatory bowel disease. By creating a colostomy, waste products can be eliminated through a stoma, which is a surgically created opening in the abdomen.

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  • 10. 

    The abbreviation meaning "four times a day" is

    • A.

      Bid

    • B.

      Tid

    • C.

      Qid

    • D.

      Qod

    • E.

      Q4h

    Correct Answer
    C. Qid
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "qid" stands for "quater in die" which means "four times a day" in Latin. This term is commonly used in medical prescriptions to indicate the frequency at which a medication should be taken.

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  • 11. 

    The prefix "hypo-"  means

    • A.

      Above

    • B.

      Below

    • C.

      Excessive

    • D.

      Skin

    • E.

      Before

    Correct Answer
    B. Below
    Explanation
    The prefix "hypo-" in medical terminology means "below." It is derived from the Greek word "hypo," which means "under" or "below." This prefix is commonly used to indicate a deficiency or a lower than normal level of something. For example, hypoglycemia refers to a condition where the blood sugar level is below the normal range. Similarly, hypotension refers to low blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is "below."

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following abbreviations is not correct?

    • A.

      Feb.

    • B.

      T4

    • C.

      Rh

    • D.

      Mm HG

    • E.

      Bl pr

    Correct Answer
    E. Bl pr
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "bl pr" is not correct because it does not follow the standard format for abbreviations. Generally, abbreviations consist of the first letter of each word in the phrase, such as "Feb." for February or "Rh" for Rh factor. However, "bl pr" does not correspond to any commonly recognized phrase or abbreviation.

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  • 13. 

    Pyuria is

    • A.

      Blood in stool

    • B.

      Pus in sputum

    • C.

      Pus in urine

    • D.

      Blood in urine

    • E.

      Blood in sputum

    Correct Answer
    C. Pus in urine
    Explanation
    Pyuria refers to the presence of pus in urine. Pus is a thick, yellowish fluid that is composed of dead white blood cells, tissue debris, and bacteria. It is a sign of inflammation or infection in the urinary tract, such as a urinary tract infection (UTI). The presence of pus in urine can be detected through a urinalysis, where the urine sample is examined under a microscope. This finding helps healthcare professionals diagnose and treat the underlying cause of the infection or inflammation.

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  • 14. 

    Another term for "pain when urinating" is

    • A.

      Hematuria

    • B.

      Anuria

    • C.

      Dysuria

    • D.

      Pyuria

    • E.

      Polyuria

    Correct Answer
    C. Dysuria
    Explanation
    Dysuria refers to the pain or discomfort experienced during urination. It is often caused by inflammation or infection in the urinary tract. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, anuria is the absence of urine production, pyuria is the presence of pus in the urine, and polyuria refers to excessive urination. None of these terms specifically describe pain during urination, making dysuria the correct answer.

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  • 15. 

    The term that means "to control or stop bleeding" is

    • A.

      Hemolysis

    • B.

      Hemostasis

    • C.

      Hematocrit

    • D.

      Hemopoiesis

    • E.

      Hemophilia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hemostasis
    Explanation
    Hemostasis refers to the process of controlling or stopping bleeding. It involves various mechanisms such as blood vessel constriction, formation of platelet plug, and blood clotting. Hemolysis is the breakdown of red blood cells, hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, hemopoiesis is the production of blood cells, and hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the body's ability to form blood clots. Therefore, the correct answer is hemostasis.

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  • 16. 

    The combining form for "heart" is

    • A.

      Hem/o

    • B.

      Crani/o

    • C.

      Electr/o

    • D.

      Neur/o

    • E.

      Cardi/o

    Correct Answer
    E. Cardi/o
    Explanation
    The combining form "cardi/o" refers to the heart. It is commonly used in medical terms to indicate conditions or procedures related to the heart. For example, "cardiology" is the branch of medicine that deals with the study and treatment of heart diseases. Therefore, "cardi/o" is the correct answer as it directly relates to the term "heart".

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  • 17. 

    The cell from which bone tissue develops is a (n)

    • A.

      Erythroblast

    • B.

      Osteoblast

    • C.

      Osteoclast

    • D.

      Myoblast

    • E.

      Neuroblast

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteoblast
    Explanation
    Osteoblast is the correct answer because it is the cell responsible for bone tissue development. Osteoblasts are involved in the formation of new bone by secreting collagen and other proteins that help in the mineralization of bone. They play a crucial role in bone growth, repair, and remodeling. Erythroblast is a precursor cell for red blood cells, osteoclast is responsible for bone resorption, myoblast is involved in muscle tissue development, and neuroblast is a precursor cell for neurons.

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  • 18. 

    Excessive amounts of hair on the body is synonymous with

    • A.

      Alopecia

    • B.

      Myopia

    • C.

      Hirsutism

    • D.

      Vitiligo

    • E.

      Urticaria

    Correct Answer
    C. Hirsutism
    Explanation
    Hirsutism refers to the excessive growth of hair on the body in areas where hair is typically minimal or absent, such as the face, chest, and back. It is commonly seen in women and is usually caused by an imbalance of hormones, specifically an increase in androgens. This condition can be a result of various factors, including polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), certain medications, and hormonal disorders. Therefore, hirsutism is the correct answer as it accurately describes the excessive amounts of hair on the body.

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  • 19. 

    Another term for swallowing is

    • A.

      Obstipation

    • B.

      Peristaisis

    • C.

      Deglutition

    • D.

      Herniation

    • E.

      Regurgitation

    Correct Answer
    C. Deglutition
    Explanation
    Deglutition is another term for swallowing. It is the process of moving food or liquid from the mouth to the stomach through the esophagus. This process involves the coordination of various muscles in the mouth, throat, and esophagus to push the food or liquid downwards. Therefore, deglutition is the correct answer as it accurately describes the act of swallowing.

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  • 20. 

    Adipose tissue is

    • A.

      Lymph

    • B.

      Tendon

    • C.

      Muscle

    • D.

      Fat

    • E.

      Skin

    Correct Answer
    D. Fat
    Explanation
    Adipose tissue refers to the specialized connective tissue that stores fat in the body. It is composed of adipocytes, which are responsible for storing and releasing energy in the form of triglycerides. This tissue plays a crucial role in insulation, cushioning, and energy storage. Therefore, the correct answer is "fat."

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  • 21. 

    A cicatrix in the popliteal area is a

    • A.

      Blister on the shoulder

    • B.

      Polyp on the elbow

    • C.

      Wart on the bottom of the foot

    • D.

      Scar on the back of the knee

    • E.

      Mole on the wrist

    Correct Answer
    D. Scar on the back of the knee
    Explanation
    A cicatrix is a medical term for a scar, and the popliteal area refers to the back of the knee. Therefore, a cicatrix in the popliteal area would mean a scar on the back of the knee.

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  • 22. 

    A disease process of unknown origin is referred to as

    • A.

      Diastolic

    • B.

      Epidemic

    • C.

      Biologic

    • D.

      Etiologic

    • E.

      Idiopathic

    Correct Answer
    E. Idiopathic
    Explanation
    The term "idiopathic" is used to describe a disease process of unknown origin. It refers to a condition or disease that arises spontaneously or for which the cause is unknown. In medical terminology, "idiopathic" is often used when the underlying cause of a disease cannot be determined despite thorough investigation and evaluation.

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  • 23. 

    The function of the optic nerve is

    • A.

      Hearing

    • B.

      Seeing

    • C.

      Smelling

    • D.

      Tasting

    • E.

      Touching

    Correct Answer
    B. Seeing
    Explanation
    The optic nerve is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain. It carries signals that allow us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli, enabling the sense of sight.

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  • 24. 

    A patient with urticaria most likely has

    • A.

      Acne vulgaris

    • B.

      A boil

    • C.

      Shingles

    • D.

      Warts

    • E.

      Hives

    Correct Answer
    E. Hives
    Explanation
    A patient with urticaria most likely has hives. Urticaria is a condition commonly known as hives, characterized by itchy, raised, and red welts on the skin. It is usually caused by an allergic reaction to certain foods, medications, or environmental factors. Acne vulgaris, boils, shingles, and warts are different skin conditions with distinct characteristics and causes, unrelated to urticaria.

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  • 25. 

    The membrane that surrounds the abdominopelvic cavity is the

    • A.

      Perineum

    • B.

      Pericardium

    • C.

      Endocardium

    • D.

      Endometrium

    • E.

      Peritoneum

    Correct Answer
    E. Peritoneum
    Explanation
    The peritoneum is the membrane that surrounds the abdominopelvic cavity. It is a thin, transparent, and serous membrane that lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and covers the organs within it. The peritoneum helps to protect and support the organs, as well as provide a lubricated surface for their movement. It also plays a role in the absorption and transport of nutrients and waste products in the abdominal cavity.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of membrane lines cavities that open to the outside?

    • A.

      Cutaneous

    • B.

      Mucous

    • C.

      Synovial

    • D.

      Pleural

    • E.

      Peritoneum

    Correct Answer
    B. Mucous
    Explanation
    Mucous membranes line cavities that open to the outside. These membranes are found in various parts of the body such as the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. They secrete mucus, a sticky substance that helps to protect and lubricate the tissues. Examples of mucous membranes include the lining of the nasal passages, mouth, throat, and digestive tract.

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  • 27. 

    The dorsal region of the body is described as

    • A.

      Posterior

    • B.

      Anterior

    • C.

      Medial

    • D.

      Lateral

    • E.

      Superior

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "posterior" because the dorsal region of the body refers to the backside or the upper side of the body. It is opposite to the ventral region, which is the front or belly side of the body. Therefore, posterior accurately describes the dorsal region.

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  • 28. 

    The body cavity that contains the heart and lungs is the

    • A.

      Abdominal

    • B.

      Pleural

    • C.

      Peritoneal

    • D.

      Spinal

    • E.

      Thoracic

    Correct Answer
    E. Thoracic
    Explanation
    The thoracic cavity is the correct answer because it is the body cavity that contains the heart and lungs. This cavity is located in the chest region, between the neck and the diaphragm. It is protected by the rib cage and contains vital organs such as the heart, lungs, and major blood vessels. The thoracic cavity plays a crucial role in respiration and circulation, making it the appropriate choice for the body cavity that houses the heart and lungs.

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  • 29. 

    Movement of a body part away from the midline of the body is

    • A.

      Adduction

    • B.

      Abduction

    • C.

      Rotation

    • D.

      Pronation

    • E.

      Supination

    Correct Answer
    B. Abduction
    Explanation
    Abduction refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline of the body. It is the opposite of adduction, which is the movement towards the midline. Rotation refers to the movement around an axis, while pronation and supination refer specifically to the movement of the forearm and hand. Therefore, abduction is the correct answer as it accurately describes the movement away from the midline.

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  • 30. 

    The plane that divides the body into right and left halves is

    • A.

      Transverse

    • B.

      Coronal

    • C.

      Frontal

    • D.

      Sagittal

    • E.

      Horizontal

    Correct Answer
    D. Sagittal
    Explanation
    The plane that divides the body into right and left halves is the sagittal plane. This plane passes vertically through the body, dividing it into two equal halves along the midline. The term "sagittal" is derived from the Latin word "sagitta," meaning arrow, as the plane resembles an arrow slicing through the body from front to back. The other options, transverse, coronal, frontal, and horizontal, do not divide the body into right and left halves, but rather into different sections or planes.

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  • 31. 

    An acute disorder that tends to follow viral illnesses in children is

    • A.

      Muscular dystrophy

    • B.

      Reye's syndrome

    • C.

      Toxic Shock Syndrome

    • D.

      AIDS

    • E.

      Multiple Sclerosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Reye's syndrome
    Explanation
    Reye's syndrome is an acute disorder that typically occurs in children after they have experienced a viral illness, such as the flu or chickenpox. It is characterized by swelling in the liver and brain, leading to symptoms such as vomiting, confusion, and seizures. The exact cause of Reye's syndrome is unknown, but it is believed to be related to the use of aspirin during or after viral infections. Prompt medical attention is crucial in managing this condition, as it can be life-threatening if not treated appropriately.

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  • 32. 

    The first (neck) section of the vertebral column is the

    • A.

      Cervical

    • B.

      Thoracic

    • C.

      Lumbar

    • D.

      Sacral

    • E.

      Coccyx

    Correct Answer
    A. Cervical
    Explanation
    The first section of the vertebral column is known as the cervical section. It consists of seven vertebrae and is located in the neck region. The cervical vertebrae are smaller and more mobile compared to the other sections of the vertebral column. They provide support to the head and allow for a wide range of movement, including nodding and rotating the head.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following lesions is characterized by asymmetry, irregular borders, and change in color?

    • A.

      Dermatofibroma

    • B.

      Basal cell carcinoma

    • C.

      Keratosis

    • D.

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • E.

      Melanoma

    Correct Answer
    E. Melanoma
    Explanation
    Melanoma is characterized by asymmetry, irregular borders, and change in color. Asymmetry refers to one half of the lesion not matching the other half. Irregular borders indicate that the edges of the lesion are not smooth or even. Change in color refers to the presence of different shades or colors within the lesion. These characteristics are important in identifying melanoma, a type of skin cancer, as they indicate potential malignancy and the need for further evaluation and treatment.

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  • 34. 

    This chronic skin condition is characterized by exacerbations and remissions of patches of scaly skin

    • A.

      Impetigo

    • B.

      Psoriasis

    • C.

      Scabies

    • D.

      Melanoma

    • E.

      Herpes zoster

    Correct Answer
    B. Psoriasis
    Explanation
    Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that is characterized by flare-ups and periods of remission. It causes patches of scaly skin to develop on the body. Impetigo is a bacterial infection that causes sores and blisters. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by mites. Melanoma is a type of skin cancer. Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is a viral infection that causes a painful rash. Therefore, Psoriasis is the correct answer as it fits the description given in the question.

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  • 35. 

    The bone that makes up the forehead area of the skull is the

    • A.

      Frontal

    • B.

      Ethmoid

    • C.

      Temporal

    • D.

      Occipital

    • E.

      Mandible

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal
    Explanation
    The bone that makes up the forehead area of the skull is the frontal bone. The frontal bone is located at the front of the skull and forms the forehead, the upper part of the eye sockets, and the roof of the nasal cavity. It also contains the frontal sinuses, which are air-filled spaces that help to lighten the weight of the skull. The frontal bone is an important part of the skull's structure and helps to protect the brain and support facial features.

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  • 36. 

    The peripheral nervous system is composed of how many pairs of cranial nerves?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      20

    • E.

      31

    Correct Answer
    C. 12
    Explanation
    The peripheral nervous system is composed of 12 pairs of cranial nerves. These nerves originate from the brain and extend to various parts of the head, neck, and upper body. Each pair of cranial nerves serves specific functions such as controlling facial movements, transmitting sensory information, and regulating autonomic functions. The number 12 is a well-established fact in anatomy and neuroscience, making it the correct answer in this case.

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  • 37. 

    The largest part of the brain is the

    • A.

      Brainstem

    • B.

      Cerebellum

    • C.

      Cerebrum

    • D.

      Thalamus

    • E.

      Medulla

    Correct Answer
    C. Cerebrum
    Explanation
    The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain, responsible for higher-level functions such as thinking, memory, and voluntary movements. It is divided into two hemispheres and is composed of several lobes, including the frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes. The cerebrum plays a crucial role in cognition, perception, and consciousness. It also houses the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing sensory information and controlling motor functions.

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  • 38. 

    Malabsorption of vitamin B12 results in which type of anemia?

    • A.

      Hemolytic

    • B.

      Microcytic

    • C.

      Pernicious

    • D.

      Hemorrhagic

    • E.

      Bone marrow deficiency

    Correct Answer
    C. Pernicious
    Explanation
    Pernicious anemia is caused by the malabsorption of vitamin B12. This occurs when the body is unable to properly absorb or utilize vitamin B12, leading to a deficiency in red blood cell production. This type of anemia is characterized by large, immature red blood cells and can cause symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Treatment typically involves regular vitamin B12 injections or supplements to correct the deficiency.

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  • 39. 

    Wheezing is a classic sign of which respiratory disease?

    • A.

      Asthma

    • B.

      Tympanic membrane

    • C.

      Cochlea

    • D.

      Oval window

    • E.

      Organ of Corti

    Correct Answer
    A. Asthma
    Explanation
    Wheezing is a classic sign of asthma. Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Wheezing occurs when there is a constriction of the airways, causing a high-pitched whistling sound during breathing. Therefore, wheezing is a common and recognizable symptom of asthma.

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  • 40. 

    Another name for the eardrum is

    • A.

      Stapes

    • B.

      Tympanic membrane

    • C.

      Cochlea

    • D.

      Oval Window

    • E.

      Organ of Corti

    Correct Answer
    B. Tympanic membrane
    Explanation
    The eardrum, also known as the tympanic membrane, is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. It plays a vital role in the process of hearing by vibrating in response to sound waves, which then transmit the vibrations to the middle ear bones. The other options listed, such as stapes, cochlea, oval window, and organ of Corti, are all different structures within the ear, but they do not specifically refer to the eardrum. Therefore, the correct answer is tympanic membrane.

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  • 41. 

    The vein that returns blood to the heart from areas below the diaphragm is the

    • A.

      Subclavian vein

    • B.

      Superior vena cava

    • C.

      Inferior vena cava

    • D.

      Axillary vein

    • E.

      Brachiocephalic vein

    Correct Answer
    C. Inferior vena cava
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body and returns it to the right atrium of the heart. It receives blood from various veins, including the common iliac veins, renal veins, and hepatic veins. The superior vena cava, on the other hand, returns blood from the upper body to the heart. The other options, subclavian vein, axillary vein, and brachiocephalic vein, are not responsible for returning blood from areas below the diaphragm.

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  • 42. 

    The pacemaker of the heart is the

    • A.

      Sinoatrial node

    • B.

      Atrioventricular node

    • C.

      Cardiac septum

    • D.

      Bundle of His

    • E.

      Purkinje fibers

    Correct Answer
    A. Sinoatrial node
    Explanation
    The Sinoatrial node is often referred to as the pacemaker of the heart because it initiates the electrical impulses that regulate the heart's rhythm. Located in the right atrium, it generates an electrical signal that causes the atria to contract and sends the signal to the atrioventricular node, which then relays the signal to the ventricles. This coordinated contraction allows for effective pumping of blood throughout the body. The other options listed are all important components of the heart's electrical conduction system, but the Sinoatrial node is specifically responsible for initiating the heartbeat.

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  • 43. 

    Which electrolyte is important for the activity of the heart muscle

    • A.

      Chloride

    • B.

      Sodium

    • C.

      Acid phosphate

    • D.

      Potassium

    • E.

      Bicarbonate

    Correct Answer
    D. Potassium
    Explanation
    Potassium is an essential electrolyte for the activity of the heart muscle. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the electrical conductivity of cardiac cells, which is necessary for the proper functioning of the heart. Potassium helps regulate the heart's rhythm and ensures proper contraction and relaxation of the heart muscles. Imbalances in potassium levels can lead to irregular heartbeats and potentially life-threatening conditions such as arrhythmias. Therefore, maintaining adequate potassium levels is vital for the normal activity of the heart muscle.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following demonstrates a voluntary muscle action?

    • A.

      Breathing

    • B.

      Heartbeat

    • C.

      Peristalsis

    • D.

      Flexion

    • E.

      Pupil dilation

    Correct Answer
    D. Flexion
    Explanation
    Flexion is the correct answer because it refers to the bending or contraction of a joint or muscle voluntarily. It is a voluntary muscle action that allows movement and flexibility in the body. Breathing, heartbeat, peristalsis, and pupil dilation are involuntary muscle actions that occur automatically without conscious control.

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  • 45. 

    Food is conveyed from the mouth to stomach by the

    • A.

      Trachea

    • B.

      Esophagus

    • C.

      Salivary glands

    • D.

      Tonsils

    • E.

      Tongue

    Correct Answer
    B. Esophagus
    Explanation
    The esophagus is the correct answer because it is the tube that connects the mouth to the stomach, allowing food to pass through. The trachea, on the other hand, is the tube that carries air to the lungs, not food. The salivary glands produce saliva, which helps with the digestion process but does not directly convey food to the stomach. The tonsils are part of the immune system and do not play a role in food transportation. The tongue helps with chewing and swallowing, but it does not directly convey food to the stomach.

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  • 46. 

    An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as

    • A.

      Kyphosis

    • B.

      Spondylosis

    • C.

      Lordosis

    • D.

      Scoliosis

    • E.

      Ankylosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Scoliosis is the correct answer because it refers to an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. Kyphosis is a condition characterized by an excessive outward curvature of the upper back, while lordosis is an excessive inward curvature of the lower back. Spondylosis is a degenerative condition affecting the spine, and ankylosis refers to the stiffening or fusion of joints. Therefore, Scoliosis is the most appropriate term to describe an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine.

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  • 47. 

    The beta cells in the pancreas are responsible for the production of

    • A.

      Glucagon

    • B.

      HCI

    • C.

      Insulin

    • D.

      Gastrin

    • E.

      Pepsin

    Correct Answer
    C. Insulin
    Explanation
    The beta cells in the pancreas are responsible for the production of insulin. Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream and use it for energy. It also helps to store excess glucose in the liver for later use. Without sufficient insulin production, the body cannot effectively regulate blood sugar levels, leading to conditions such as diabetes. Therefore, the correct answer is insulin.

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  • 48. 

    The cranial nerve that is involved in the sense of smell is the

    • A.

      Facial

    • B.

      Oculomotor

    • C.

      Trigeminal

    • D.

      Olfactory

    • E.

      Optic

    Correct Answer
    D. Olfactory
    Explanation
    The cranial nerve that is involved in the sense of smell is the olfactory nerve. The olfactory nerve is responsible for transmitting signals from the nose to the brain, allowing us to detect and perceive different smells. It is located in the upper part of the nasal cavity and plays a crucial role in our sense of taste as well.

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  • 49. 

    To confirm a fracture of the lower leg, a radiograph should include the

    • A.

      Femur and trochanter

    • B.

      Tibia and fibula

    • C.

      Radius and ulna

    • D.

      Femur and patella

    • E.

      Humerus and scapula

    Correct Answer
    B. Tibia and fibula
    Explanation
    To confirm a fracture of the lower leg, a radiograph should include the tibia and fibula. The tibia and fibula are the two bones that make up the lower leg. They are commonly fractured due to trauma or injury. By including both bones in the radiograph, a healthcare professional can accurately assess the extent and location of the fracture, allowing for appropriate treatment and management. The other options listed, such as the femur and trochanter, radius and ulna, femur and patella, and humerus and scapula, are not relevant for confirming a fracture of the lower leg.

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  • 50. 

    The opposite of lateral is

    • A.

      Proximal

    • B.

      Anterior

    • C.

      Medial

    • D.

      Distal

    • E.

      Posterior

    Correct Answer
    C. Medial
    Explanation
    The opposite of lateral is medial. Lateral refers to the side or away from the midline, while medial refers to the middle or towards the midline. Therefore, medial is the opposite of lateral.

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