Medical Assistant Practice Exams 1

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  • 1/50 Questions

    Which of the following statements is not tue regarding the preparation of a patient for MRI?

    • The patient should avoid caffeine for four hours before the examination
    • The patient should not wear eye makeup
    • The patient should avoid alcohol for four hours before the procedure
    • The patient should be asked whether any internal metallic materials are present
    • The patient should not have a pacemaker
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About This Quiz

Medical Assistant Practice Exams 1 assesses key competencies in patient care, medical terminology, and healthcare procedures. It is designed for aspiring medical assistants to evaluate their readiness and understanding of essential medical practices.

Medical Assistant Practice Exams 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A regular referral from a primary care physician often takes

    • No time at all, because it is handled over the phone

    • 24 hours

    • From 3 to 10 days

    • About a month

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. From 3 to 10 days
    Explanation
    A regular referral from a primary care physician often takes from 3 to 10 days. This suggests that there is a process involved in obtaining a referral, which may include gathering necessary information, reviewing the patient's medical history, and coordinating with the specialist. It is not immediate, like a phone call referral, but also not as long as a month. Therefore, the correct answer is from 3 to 10 days.

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  • 3. 

    Which abbreviation refers to the left ear?

    • OU

    • AD

    • AS

    • OS

    • LE

    Correct Answer
    A. AS
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "AS" refers to the left ear.

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  • 4. 

    Mr. Brown, who is thirty-nine years old, received second-and third-degree burns on his chest, abdomen, upper back, and genital area. Which of the following is an estimation of the extent of his burn?

    • 20 percent

    • 28 percent

    • 48 percent

    • 53 percent

    • 68 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 28 percent
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, Mr. Brown has received burns on his chest, abdomen, upper back, and genital area. The estimation of the extent of his burn is 28 percent.

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  • 5. 

    A prescription reads: Ibuprofen 200 q 4-6 hr prn fever. Which of the following is indicated by the abbreviation prn?

    • Every day

    • Twice a day

    • As needed

    • At bedtime

    • After meals

    Correct Answer
    A. As needed
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "prn" stands for "pro re nata" which means "as needed" in Latin. In the context of the prescription, it indicates that the medication should be taken only when necessary, specifically for the purpose of reducing fever. It suggests that the patient should take Ibuprofen 200 mg every 4 to 6 hours, depending on the severity of the fever.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following types of bacteria is arranged in clusters?

    • Streptococci

    • Diplococci

    • Staphylococci

    • Protozoa

    • Spirilla

    Correct Answer
    A. Staphylococci
    Explanation
    Staphylococci is the correct answer because it is a type of bacteria that is arranged in clusters. The name "staphylococci" comes from the Greek words "staphylē" meaning "bunch of grapes" and "kokkos" meaning "berry," which accurately describes the clustered arrangement of these bacteria. Streptococci, on the other hand, are arranged in chains, while diplococci are arranged in pairs. Protozoa and spirilla are not types of bacteria but rather different types of microorganisms.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is true of the specific immune response?

    • Controlled by T cells, it is highly changed after exposure to a pathogen

    • It is responsible for the body’s initial inflammation in response to pathogens

    • It presents antigens to macrophages for destruction via phagocytosis

    • The response is slower the second time a pathogen invades because of a lack of memory and immune weakness or exhaustion

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled by T cells, it is highly changed after exposure to a pathogen
    Explanation
    The specific immune response is controlled by T cells and undergoes significant changes after exposure to a pathogen. T cells play a crucial role in recognizing and targeting specific antigens, activating other immune cells, and coordinating the immune response. After exposure to a pathogen, T cells undergo clonal expansion, leading to an increased number of T cells specific to the pathogen. This expansion allows for a more efficient and targeted immune response upon subsequent encounters with the same pathogen. Therefore, the statement that the specific immune response is controlled by T cells and highly changed after exposure to a pathogen is true.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is the role of the umbilical vein in fetal circulation?

    • It transports oxygen from the placenta to the fetus

    • It transports blood from the fetus to the placenta to deliver oxygen and to get rid of carbon dioxide

    • It carries blood directly to the inferior vena cava

    • It carries blood directly to the right atrium

    Correct Answer
    A. It transports oxygen from the placenta to the fetus
    Explanation
    The umbilical vein is responsible for transporting oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus. This is essential for the fetus's oxygenation and overall development.

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  • 9. 

    HCPCS is the abbreviation for the Health Care Procedural Coding System, mandated by Congress for

    • Medicare

    • Medicaid

    • Blue Cross

    • CHAMPVA

    • TRICARE

    Correct Answer
    A. Medicare
    Explanation
    HCPCS is the abbreviation for the Health Care Procedural Coding System, which is mandated by Congress for Medicare. This system is used to standardize the coding of medical procedures and services provided to Medicare beneficiaries. It helps ensure accurate billing, reimbursement, and data collection for Medicare claims. HCPCS codes are also used by other payers, such as Medicaid, but it is specifically mandated for Medicare. Therefore, the correct answer is Medicare.

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  • 10. 

    A method of identifying and separating items to be filed into smaller subunits is called

    • Indexing

    • Creating tickler files

    • Numerical filing

    • Coding

    • Subject filing

    Correct Answer
    A. Indexing
    Explanation
    Indexing is the correct answer because it refers to the process of organizing and categorizing items to be filed into smaller subunits. This method helps in efficient retrieval and management of information by creating a systematic structure or index. It involves assigning keywords, codes, or labels to items to facilitate easy identification and sorting. Indexing is commonly used in libraries, databases, and filing systems to enhance accessibility and organization of files and documents.

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  • 11. 

    Which part of the brain is responsible for language comprehension?

    • Parietal lobe

    • Broca’s area

    • Insular lobe

    • Occipital lobe

    • Wernicke’s area

    Correct Answer
    A. Wernicke’s area
    Explanation
    Wernicke's area, located in the left hemisphere of the brain, is responsible for language comprehension. It is involved in the understanding and interpretation of spoken and written language. Damage to this area can result in Wernicke's aphasia, a condition characterized by difficulty understanding language and producing coherent speech. This suggests that Wernicke's area plays a crucial role in language comprehension.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is also called a bipolar lead?

    • Precordial lead

    • Augmented lead

    • Standard lead

    • Unconventional lead

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard lead
    Explanation
    A standard lead is also called a bipolar lead because it uses two electrodes to measure the electrical activity of the heart. These electrodes are placed on different parts of the body, such as the limbs or the chest. The electrical signals recorded by the electrodes provide information about the heart's functioning and can help diagnose various cardiac conditions.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following medical instruments is used to examine the pressure of the eyes?

    • Penlight

    • Ophthalmoscope

    • Tonometer

    • Otoscope

    • Goniometer

    Correct Answer
    A. Tonometer
    Explanation
    A tonometer is a medical instrument used to examine the pressure of the eyes. It is specifically designed to measure intraocular pressure, which is important in diagnosing and managing conditions such as glaucoma. The tonometer works by gently touching the surface of the eye or by using a puff of air to measure the resistance and pressure within the eye. This helps ophthalmologists and optometrists assess the health of the eyes and determine the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

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  • 14. 

    The prefix hypo-means

    • Excessive

    • High

    • Half

    • Below

    Correct Answer
    A. Below
    Explanation
    The prefix hypo- in medical terminology indicates a state or condition that is below the normal or expected level. It is derived from the Greek word "hypo" which means "under" or "below." Therefore, the correct answer is "Below" as it accurately represents the meaning of the prefix hypo-.

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  • 15. 

    The place where transactions are first recorded is called the

    • General journal

    • Charge journal

    • Daysheet

    • Daily log

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all the options listed (General journal, Charge journal, Daysheet, and Daily log) are places where transactions can be first recorded. Each option represents a different type of record-keeping system that businesses may use to track and record their transactions. Therefore, all of these options are valid answers for the place where transactions are first recorded.

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  • 16. 

    If a needlestick injury occurs, you should take all of the following action excepts

    • Washing your hands

    • Documenting and reporting the injury

    • Sending the report to the local health department

    • Covering the injury

    • Notifying your supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Sending the report to the local health department
    Explanation
    In case of a needlestick injury, it is important to take immediate action to prevent any potential infections or diseases. This includes washing your hands to clean the affected area, documenting and reporting the injury for record-keeping purposes, covering the injury to prevent further contamination, and notifying your supervisor to ensure proper follow-up. However, sending the report to the local health department is not necessary as it is not typically a requirement in such cases.

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  • 17. 

    To ensure the continuous accuracy of accounts, a medical assistant can

    • Transfer the amounts in each account from the journals to the ledgers

    • Keep track of write-offs

    • Bank electronically

    • Write only certified checks

    • Take a trial balance

    Correct Answer
    A. Take a trial balance
    Explanation
    Taking a trial balance is a process where all the accounts in the ledger are listed along with their respective debit and credit balances. The purpose of taking a trial balance is to ensure that the total debits equal the total credits, which helps in identifying any errors or discrepancies in the accounts. By comparing the trial balance with the original journals and ledgers, a medical assistant can ensure the continuous accuracy of accounts and detect any mistakes or omissions that may have occurred during the recording process.

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  • 18. 

    Bills and statements of account should be sent as

    • Standard Mail (B)

    • Standard Mail (A)

    • Express Mail

    • Priority Mail

    • First-Class Mail

    Correct Answer
    A. First-Class Mail
    Explanation
    Bills and statements of account should be sent as First-Class Mail because it is the most reliable and efficient method for delivering important documents. First-Class Mail offers fast delivery times and includes features such as tracking and delivery confirmation, ensuring that the bills and statements reach the intended recipients in a timely manner. This option is commonly used for important correspondence that requires prompt attention and accurate delivery.

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  • 19. 

    All of the following waves are part of one heartbeat on an ECG tracing except

    • P

    • V

    • Q

    • R

    Correct Answer
    A. V
    Explanation
    The correct answer is V. In an ECG tracing, the P wave represents atrial depolarization, the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The V wave is not a recognized wave in the normal ECG pattern and therefore is not part of one heartbeat on an ECG tracing.

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  • 20. 

    Amounts of money owed to a medical practice for professional services rendered are

    • Usual fees

    • Actual charges

    • Major medical expenses

    • Accounts receivable

    • Accounts payable

    Correct Answer
    A. Accounts receivable
    Explanation
    Accounts receivable refers to the amounts of money owed to a medical practice for professional services rendered. This term is used in the context of the practice's financial records to track the outstanding payments from patients or insurance companies. It represents the income that is expected to be received in the future.

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  • 21. 

    A certain patient often comes to your office for cancer treatment. When this patient comes in with a sore throat caused by the flu, what is the primary diagnosis according to the ICD-9-CM?

    • Cancer

    • Flu

    • Sore throat

    • Coughing

    Correct Answer
    A. Flu
    Explanation
    The primary diagnosis according to the ICD-9-CM for a patient with a sore throat caused by the flu would be the flu. This is because the flu is the underlying cause of the sore throat in this scenario.

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  • 22. 

    The combining form ren/o refers to the

    • Urinary bladder

    • Rectum

    • Abdomen

    • Kidney

    • Chest

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidney
    Explanation
    The combining form ren/o refers to the kidney. This can be understood by breaking down the word "ren/o" - "reno" refers to the kidney. Combining forms are used in medical terminology to indicate specific body parts or systems, and in this case, "ren/o" specifically refers to the kidney.

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  • 23. 

    The study of drugs and their actions in the body is called

    • Pharmacognosy

    • Pharmacy

    • Pharmacology

    • Posology

    • Pharmacodynamics

    Correct Answer
    A. Pharmacology
    Explanation
    Pharmacology is the study of drugs and their actions in the body, including their interactions with living organisms and their effects on physiological processes. It involves understanding how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted by the body, as well as their mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses. Pharmacology is a broad field that encompasses the study of both natural and synthetic drugs, and it plays a crucial role in the development and use of medications for the treatment of various diseases and conditions.

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  • 24. 

    To maximize communication with children, all of the following guidelines are good practices except

    • To take their feelings seriously

    • To work directly with their parents

    • Explain all procedures, even basic ones, in simple terms

    • To let them examine instruments

    Correct Answer
    A. To work directly with their parents
    Explanation
    Working directly with parents is an important guideline for maximizing communication with children. Collaborating with parents allows for a holistic understanding of the child's needs and ensures consistency in communication and support. By involving parents, professionals can gain valuable insights into the child's background, preferences, and specific communication strategies that work best for them. This collaborative approach enhances the overall effectiveness of communication and fosters a supportive and inclusive environment for the child.

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  • 25. 

    When is it legal to release medical information about a patient?

    • When the person asking for it is close relative or frient

    • When the patient has verbally consented

    • When an insurance company cells to repquest it

    • When release of the information is ordered by a subpoena

    Correct Answer
    A. When release of the information is ordered by a subpoena
    Explanation
    Medical information about a patient can only be legally released when there is a subpoena ordering the release. A subpoena is a legal document issued by a court that requires the disclosure of information. This means that the patient's privacy rights are protected unless there is a legal order compelling the release of their medical information. The other options mentioned in the question, such as when the person asking for it is a close relative or friend, when the patient has verbally consented, or when an insurance company requests it, are not sufficient reasons to release medical information without a subpoena.

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  • 26. 

    Intentional torts

    • Include assault, defamation, and invasion of privacy

    • Are forms of abandonment

    • Are always considered misdemeanors

    • Are always forms of negligence

    • Are a breach of contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Include assault, defamation, and invasion of privacy
    Explanation
    Intentional torts refer to wrongful acts committed intentionally, with the intention to cause harm or injury to another person. They are not forms of abandonment, misdemeanors, negligence, or a breach of contract. Instead, intentional torts include assault, which involves intentionally causing fear of physical harm, defamation, which involves making false statements that harm someone's reputation, and invasion of privacy, which involves intruding upon someone's private affairs without their consent. These actions are considered intentional torts because they involve intentional wrongdoing rather than accidental or negligent behavior.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following terms indicates increased appetite?

    • Polyclonia

    • Polycythemia

    • Polydipsia

    • Polyphagia

    Correct Answer
    A. Polyphagia
    Explanation
    Polyphagia is the term that indicates increased appetite. "Poly-" means excessive or increased, and "phagia" refers to eating or appetite. Therefore, polyphagia specifically refers to an abnormally increased appetite, which can be a symptom of various medical conditions such as diabetes or hyperthyroidism.

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  • 28. 

    When filing patient records, which of the following should be filed first?

    • Paul Edward Jr.

    • Paul Edward Sr.

    • Paul J. Edward Sr.

    • P. Travis Edward Jr.

    • P. Travis Edward Sr.

    Correct Answer
    A. Paul Edward Jr.
    Explanation
    The patient records should be filed in alphabetical order based on the last name. In this case, "Edward" is the last name for all the options. Among the given options, "Paul Edward Jr." comes first alphabetically, followed by "Paul Edward Sr.", "Paul J. Edward Sr.", "P. Travis Edward Jr.", and "P. Travis Edward Sr.". Therefore, "Paul Edward Jr." should be filed first.

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  • 29. 

    According to Erikson's stages of development, a four-year-old boy who is not allowed to initiate some tasks by himself will later show

    • Guilt when initiating tasks

    • Inability to trust

    • Positive outcome to his intimacy versus isolation conflict

    • Negative outcome to his generativity versus stagnation conflict

    Correct Answer
    A. Guilt when initiating tasks
    Explanation
    According to Erikson's stages of development, a four-year-old boy who is not allowed to initiate some tasks by himself will later show guilt when initiating tasks. This is because during the stage of initiative versus guilt, children develop a sense of purpose and the ability to initiate activities. If they are consistently prevented from doing so, they may develop feelings of guilt and a lack of confidence in their abilities.

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  • 30. 

    Voucher checks are commonly used for

    • Insurance payments

    • Purchasing items that cost less than $100

    • Purchasing items that cost more than $100

    • Cash in foreign countries

    • Payroll

    Correct Answer
    A. Payroll
    Explanation
    Voucher checks are commonly used for payroll because they provide a convenient and secure way to distribute employee wages. Voucher checks include detailed information about the payment, such as the employee's name, amount, and any deductions. This helps to ensure accuracy and transparency in the payroll process. Additionally, voucher checks can be easily tracked and recorded for accounting purposes.

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  • 31. 

    Physicians are required to keep payroll data for how many years?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    • Five

    Correct Answer
    A. Four
    Explanation
    Physicians are required to keep payroll data for four years. This is important for record-keeping and compliance purposes. By retaining payroll data for this duration, physicians can ensure that they have accurate and up-to-date information regarding their employees' salaries, wages, and benefits. It also allows them to address any potential issues or discrepancies that may arise in the future. Additionally, keeping payroll data for four years enables physicians to meet any legal or regulatory requirements related to payroll and employment documentation.

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  • 32. 

    When sending a specimen for a throat culture to an outside laboratory, which of the following substances should be used?

    • Transport medium

    • Agar medium

    • Saline solution

    • Fixative solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Transport medium
    Explanation
    When sending a specimen for a throat culture to an outside laboratory, a transport medium should be used. This is because a transport medium is specifically designed to maintain the viability and integrity of the specimen during transportation. It provides the necessary nutrients and conditions for the survival of the microorganisms present in the specimen. Agar medium is used for culturing microorganisms in the laboratory, while saline solution is used for rinsing or diluting specimens. Fixative solution is used to preserve and stabilize the structure of cells or tissues for microscopic examination.

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  • 33. 

    The abbreviation for "sexually transmitted disease" is

    • SD

    • S

    • STD

    • AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. STD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is STD, which stands for sexually transmitted disease.

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  • 34. 

    Any infection or inflammation of the membranes covering the brain or spinal cord is called

    • Infectious mononucleosis

    • Meningitis

    • Parotitis

    • Diphtheria

    • Myocarditis

    Correct Answer
    A. Meningitis
    Explanation
    Meningitis is the correct answer because it refers to an infection or inflammation of the membranes, known as meninges, that cover the brain and spinal cord. This condition can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens, and it can lead to symptoms such as headache, fever, stiff neck, and sensitivity to light. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and potential damage to the central nervous system.

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  • 35. 

    The prefix ab- means

    • Without

    • Toward

    • Against

    • Away from

    Correct Answer
    A. Away from
    Explanation
    The prefix "ab-" is commonly used to indicate movement or direction away from something. For example, in words like "abandon" or "absent," the prefix suggests a sense of separation or distance. Therefore, "away from" is the most appropriate explanation for the meaning of the prefix "ab-."

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  • 36. 

    Tetracyclines are

    • Bactericidal antibiotics

    • Bacteriostatic antibiotics

    • Antiviral agents

    • Norepinephrine

    • Antiepileptic drugs

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacteriostatic antibiotics
    Explanation
    Tetracyclines are classified as bacteriostatic antibiotics because they inhibit the growth and reproduction of bacteria rather than directly killing them. They do this by binding to the bacterial ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis, and preventing them from functioning properly. This ultimately leads to the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis and slows down bacterial growth. Bacteriostatic antibiotics are different from bactericidal antibiotics, which directly kill bacteria.

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  • 37. 

    A forty-four-year-old woman comes to the emergency room complaining of nausea, vomiting, and pain in the upper abdomen. She also appears to have mild jaundice. These symptoms are most characteristic of

    • Stomach cancer

    • Diabetes insipidus

    • Hyperinsulinism

    • Cholelithiasis

    • Myxedema

    Correct Answer
    A. Cholelithiasis
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the scenario, including nausea, vomiting, pain in the upper abdomen, and mild jaundice, are most characteristic of cholelithiasis. Cholelithiasis refers to the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder, which can cause blockage of the bile ducts and lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain and jaundice. Stomach cancer, diabetes insipidus, hyperinsulinism, and myxedema do not typically present with the same combination of symptoms described in the scenario.

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  • 38. 

    Bob Johnson goes to his participating HMO provider for a checkup and a flu shot. The allowed charge for a checkup is $80, and the physician’s usual fee is $85. The allowed charge for the flu shot is $50, and the physician’s usual fee is $40. How much is Mr. Johnson charged for the visit?

    • Nothing

    • $5

    • $15

    • $40

    Correct Answer
    A. Nothing
  • 39. 

    The most common site for cancer incidence in males is the

    • Bladder

    • Colon

    • Lung

    • Prostate

    • Brain

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Prostate. Prostate cancer is the most common site for cancer incidence in males. It is a type of cancer that develops in the prostate gland, which is a small walnut-shaped gland that produces seminal fluid. Prostate cancer usually grows slowly and initially remains confined to the prostate gland. It is more common in older men and can cause symptoms such as difficulty urinating, blood in the urine or semen, and erectile dysfunction. Regular screenings and early detection can improve the chances of successful treatment for prostate cancer.

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  • 40. 

    Placing area rugs in the reception area of a medical office is an example of

    • Quality assurance

    • Quality improvement

    • A safety hazard

    • Universal precautions

    Correct Answer
    A. A safety hazard
    Explanation
    Placing area rugs in the reception area of a medical office can be considered a safety hazard because they can create a tripping hazard for patients and staff. Rugs can easily bunch up or slide on smooth floors, increasing the risk of falls and injuries. In a medical setting where people may already be vulnerable or have mobility issues, it is important to prioritize safety and minimize any potential hazards that could cause harm.

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  • 41. 

    The primary purpose of a patient record-filing system is to

    • Protect patient privacy

    • Make documents available to authorized personnel

    • Facilitate efficient document retrieval

    • Separate active and inactive files

    • Arrange chart files for the physician’s review

    Correct Answer
    A. Facilitate efficient document retrieval
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of a patient record-filing system is to facilitate efficient document retrieval. This means that the system is designed to make it easy and quick for authorized personnel to locate and access patient documents when needed. By organizing and categorizing the files in a systematic manner, the system ensures that the documents can be retrieved in a timely manner, allowing for efficient workflow and effective patient care.

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  • 42. 

    A type of trial in which the verdict is decided by the judge is called

    • Arbitration

    • Civil

    • Interrogatory

    • Disposition

    • Bench

    Correct Answer
    A. Bench
    Explanation
    In a trial where the verdict is decided by the judge, it is referred to as a "bench" trial. This means that there is no jury involved, and the judge alone determines the outcome of the case based on the evidence presented and the applicable laws. The judge serves as both the fact-finder and the decision-maker in these types of trials, making the final judgment on the case.

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  • 43. 

    Carbohydrate is stored in the liver as

    • Starch

    • Sucrose

    • Disaccharides

    • Glycogen

    • Lactose

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycogen
    Explanation
    Glycogen is the correct answer because it is the main form in which carbohydrates are stored in the liver. When the body needs energy, glycogen is broken down into glucose to be used as fuel. Starch, sucrose, disaccharides, and lactose are all types of carbohydrates, but they are not specifically stored in the liver as glycogen.

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  • 44. 

    Bipolar disorder is characterized by

    • Eating disorders

    • Euphoric and depressed moods

    • Amnesia

    • Autism

    Correct Answer
    A. Euphoric and depressed moods
    Explanation
    Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by extreme shifts in mood. These mood swings can range from periods of euphoria and high energy (known as manic episodes) to periods of depression and low energy. People with bipolar disorder may experience intense happiness, increased activity levels, racing thoughts, and decreased need for sleep during manic episodes. On the other hand, during depressive episodes, they may feel sad, hopeless, fatigued, have difficulty concentrating, and lose interest in activities they once enjoyed. Therefore, the presence of euphoric and depressed moods is a defining feature of bipolar disorder.

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  • 45. 

    Res ipsa loquitur means

    • The matter speaks for itself

    • Giving something in return for something else

    • Let the superior answer

    • Within the scope of education and training

    • Negligent in a complicated case

    Correct Answer
    A. The matter speaks for itself
    Explanation
    Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin legal term that means "the matter speaks for itself". It is a legal doctrine that allows a plaintiff to establish a defendant's negligence based on the circumstances of the case. It applies when the event causing the injury or harm is of a type that would not normally occur without negligence, and the defendant has exclusive control over the instrumentality that caused the harm. In such cases, the plaintiff does not need to provide direct evidence of the defendant's negligence because the circumstances themselves imply negligence.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following radiological studies requires the patient to fast for twelve hours prior to the procedure?

    • Magnetic resonance imaging of the spinal cord

    • Angiography

    • Nuclear medicine scan of the liver

    • Computed tomography of the skull

    • Upper gastrointestinal X-ray series

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper gastrointestinal X-ray series
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Upper gastrointestinal X-ray series. This radiological study requires the patient to fast for twelve hours prior to the procedure because it involves imaging of the upper gastrointestinal tract, which includes the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine. Fasting helps to ensure that the stomach is empty, which allows for better visualization of the organs and reduces the risk of complications during the procedure.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following statements was true of Special Delivery?

    • When something was marked Special Delivery, it was delivered as soon as it reached the recipient’s post office

    • It could not be used for items sent to a post office box or to a military address

    • Special Delivery mail got a unique tracking number, and the sender was notified when the mail was received

    • It alerted postal workers that a package or letter contained unusual contents

    • Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Special Delivery was a service that ensured prompt delivery of mail once it reached the recipient's post office. This means that when something was marked Special Delivery, it was delivered as soon as it reached the recipient's post office. Additionally, Special Delivery could not be used for items sent to a post office box or to a military address. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both A and B".

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is the correct postal abbreviation for Circle?

    • Cr

    • C

    • CIR

    • Crl

    Correct Answer
    A. CIR
    Explanation
    The correct postal abbreviation for Circle is CIR.

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  • 49. 

    The medical assistant’s most effective means of preventing the spread of infection from one patient to another is to

    • Wear a gown and mask

    • Wear sterile gloves

    • Disinfect the examination table

    • Wash one’s hands after each patient

    • Disinfect the instruments

    Correct Answer
    A. Wash one’s hands after each patient
    Explanation
    The most effective means of preventing the spread of infection from one patient to another is to wash one's hands after each patient. This is because hands are the primary mode of transmission for many infections, and proper hand hygiene can significantly reduce the risk of spreading pathogens. Wearing a gown and mask, wearing sterile gloves, disinfecting the examination table, and disinfecting the instruments are all important infection control measures, but they are not as effective as handwashing in preventing the spread of infection.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Nov 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 17, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Maricela07

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