Sbr: Johnson - Anderson
In this quiz that focuses in on a wide range of medical disorders and the symptoms that accompany them, we’ll offer you a variety of scenarios that you’ll have to respond accordingly to. Could you save a person’s life?
Questions and Answers
- 1.
An individual who has a stroke is copying a picture of a clock. The drawing appears as a lopsided circle with a flat side on the left. The numbers 1 through 8 are written in numerical order around the right side of the clock. The hands are correctly drawn on the clock to represent three o’clock. The individual’s performance appear to demonstrate
- A.
Right hemianopsia
- B.
Left unilateral neglect
- C.
Cataracts in the left eye
- D.
Bitemporal hemianopsia
Correct Answer
B. Left unilateral neglectExplanation
Left unilateral neglect refers to a condition where an individual is unable to pay attention to or be aware of stimuli on the left side of their body or environment. In this case, the individual with a stroke is copying a clock but only focuses on the right side, resulting in a lopsided circle with a flat side on the left. This demonstrates a lack of attention or neglect towards the left side, which is characteristic of left unilateral neglect.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A school age child has DMD. Although he is able to use a manual chair for distances between classes, he is tired on arrival. What would be the best recommendation the OT could make for wheelchair use at school?
- A.
Retain the manual wheelchair to build up strength
- B.
Change to an ultralight sports model because it requires less strength
- C.
Change to a power wheelchair to reduce effort
- D.
Encourage walking with a walker to alternate mobility methods
Correct Answer
C. Change to a power wheelchair to reduce effortExplanation
The best recommendation the OT could make for wheelchair use at school would be to change to a power wheelchair to reduce effort. This would help alleviate the child's fatigue upon arrival at school, as they would no longer have to manually propel themselves between classes. The power wheelchair would provide the child with the necessary assistance and reduce the physical exertion required, allowing them to conserve energy for other activities throughout the day.Rate this question:
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- 3.
During evaluation, the OT asks a client with rheumatoid arthritis to raise her arm. The client’s range of motion is limited to 90 degrees and she can tolerate moderate assistance in this position. The OT further observed that passive range of motion is the same as active range of motion. The manual muscle test grade would most likely be documented as:
- A.
Normal (5)
- B.
Good (4)
- C.
Fair (3)
- D.
Fair minus (3-)
Correct Answer
A. Normal (5)Explanation
The client's range of motion is limited to 90 degrees and she can tolerate moderate assistance in this position. Additionally, the passive range of motion is the same as active range of motion. These findings indicate that the client has full range of motion and strength in her arm, despite the limitation to 90 degrees. Therefore, the manual muscle test grade would most likely be documented as Normal (5).Rate this question:
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- 4.
An OT practitioner is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and appears to be experiencing acute symptoms of the disease. Which of the ff is considered to ba an acute or positive symptom of schizophrenia that the OT might document in her assessment?
- A.
Flat affect
- B.
Lack of pleasure
- C.
Hallucinations
- D.
Withdrawal from others
Correct Answer
C. HallucinationsExplanation
Hallucinations are considered to be an acute or positive symptom of schizophrenia. Hallucinations refer to sensory perceptions that are not based on external stimuli, such as hearing voices or seeing things that are not there. These hallucinations can be auditory, visual, or even tactile in nature. The presence of hallucinations is an important symptom to document in the assessment of a client with schizophrenia as it helps in understanding the severity and nature of their psychotic experiences.Rate this question:
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- 5.
An OT practitioner is treating a client who demonstrates pain, progressive weakness of the thumb, atrophy of the thenar muscles and numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, long and half of the ring fingers. The client is not experiencing proximal upper extremity limitations so the practitioner will most likely suspect problems with which of the following?
- A.
Ulnar nerve
- B.
Median nerve
- C.
Radial nerve
- D.
Brachial plexus
Correct Answer
B. Median nerveExplanation
The client is experiencing symptoms that are consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome, which is caused by compression of the median nerve. The pain, weakness, atrophy, and numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, long, and half of the ring fingers are all characteristic of median nerve compression. The fact that the client is not experiencing proximal upper extremity limitations suggests that the issue is localized to the median nerve rather than a more widespread nerve problem such as ulnar nerve compression or brachial plexus injury. Therefore, the practitioner will most likely suspect problems with the median nerve.Rate this question:
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- 6.
An individual with C6 spinal cord injurt has been referred to OT two days post-injury. Immobilized with a Halo brace, the individual demonstrates fair plus wrist extension and poor minus finger flexion. Which of the following interventions should be implemented first?
- A.
Volar resting pan splints to prevent flexion contractures
- B.
Wrist support with universal cuff to promote independence
- C.
Wrist splints to promote development of tenodesis
- D.
Instruction in bed mobility techniques to prevent decubiti
Correct Answer
C. Wrist splints to promote development of tenodesisExplanation
The individual with C6 spinal cord injury demonstrates fair plus wrist extension and poor minus finger flexion. Wrist splints should be implemented first to promote the development of tenodesis. Tenodesis is a functional grasp pattern that allows individuals with limited finger flexion to grasp objects by using wrist extension. By using wrist splints, the individual can practice and strengthen this grasp pattern, which will ultimately promote independence in activities of daily living. The other options, such as volar resting pan splints and wrist support with a universal cuff, may be beneficial later in the rehabilitation process, but the priority at this stage is to promote the development of tenodesis. Instruction in bed mobility techniques is not directly related to the individual's hand function and would not be the first intervention to implement.Rate this question:
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- 7.
An OT practitioner is transferring a client with hemiplegia from a wheelchair to an elevated mat. The client is able to place both feet on the floor and move the buttocks to the edge of the wheelchair. The therapist then places one hand on the client’s right anterior pelvis and the other hand on the client’s left shoulder. The client is set up so the transfer can be performed toward the client’s stronger side. The client then pushes to a standing position and pivots with the therapist’s guidance. This is most likely an example of a/an:
- A.
Independent transfer from wheelchair to mat
- B.
Assisted stand pivot transfer
- C.
Pneumatic lift transfer
- D.
Dependent stand pivot transfer
Correct Answer
B. Assisted stand pivot transferExplanation
The given scenario describes a transfer where the client is able to participate in the transfer by placing both feet on the floor and moving their buttocks to the edge of the wheelchair. The therapist provides assistance by placing one hand on the client's right anterior pelvis and the other hand on the client's left shoulder. The transfer is performed towards the client's stronger side, and the client pushes to a standing position and pivots with the therapist's guidance. This indicates that the client is able to actively participate in the transfer but requires some assistance and guidance from the therapist, making it an example of an assisted stand pivot transfer.Rate this question:
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- 8.
An OT practitioner is working with an individual with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) who is no longer able to ambulate for kitchen or home management activities. Which of the following interventions best addresses the goals of independence in meal preparation for this individual?
- A.
Meal preparation techniques using a wheelchair
- B.
Training in the use of adapted cooking equipment
- C.
Simple cooking activities while standing at the counter for gradually increasing amounts of time
- D.
Begin with cold meals and progress to hot meals
Correct Answer
A. Meal preparation techniques using a wheelchairExplanation
Meal preparation techniques using a wheelchair would be the most appropriate intervention for an individual with ALS who is no longer able to ambulate. This intervention addresses the individual's specific mobility limitations and allows them to continue to participate in meal preparation activities independently. Training in the use of adapted cooking equipment may also be helpful, but it does not directly address the individual's inability to ambulate. Simple cooking activities while standing at the counter may not be feasible for someone with ALS who can no longer ambulate. Beginning with cold meals and progressing to hot meals does not address the individual's independence in meal preparation.Rate this question:
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- 9.
An individual attending an adult day program has expressed interest in obtaining employment. In groups, however, the individual grabs tools from others, frequently acts out of turn, and has difficulty accepting feedback. Participation in which one of the following interventions is most appropriate for addressing this individual’s limitations and helping to prepare the individual for a work environment?
- A.
Operating the photocopy machine in a clerical group
- B.
Handing out trays and utensils in a food service group
- C.
Placing books back on the shelves in a library group
- D.
Balancing the books at the end of the day in a thrift
Correct Answer
B. Handing out trays and utensils in a food service groupExplanation
The individual's difficulty with accepting feedback and acting out of turn may indicate challenges with social skills and impulse control. Participating in a food service group, where they would be responsible for handing out trays and utensils, can help address these limitations. This intervention would provide opportunities for the individual to practice appropriate social interactions, follow instructions, and develop self-control, which are important skills for success in a work environment. Additionally, the structured nature of a food service group can provide clear expectations and routines that can support the individual's learning and development.Rate this question:
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- 10.
An OT practitioner observes a 5-year old child with Down syndrome who was low muscle tone sitting on the floor exclusively using a “W” sitting position. This observation most likely indicates that the child is:
- A.
Developing abnormally
- B.
Using a noncompensatory position to achieve stability
- C.
Demonstrating typical development for a child with Down syndrome
- D.
Using a position normal for a younger child, not for a 5-year old child
Correct Answer
C. Demonstrating typical development for a child with Down syndromeExplanation
The observation of a 5-year old child with Down syndrome exclusively using a "W" sitting position indicates that the child is demonstrating typical development for a child with Down syndrome. "W" sitting is a common sitting position for children with low muscle tone as it provides a wider base of support and helps to stabilize their bodies. While it may not be a typical sitting position for a 5-year old child without Down syndrome, it is considered normal for children with Down syndrome due to their specific physical characteristics and muscle tone.Rate this question:
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- 11.
“The patient has taken a more active role in the task group, as evidenced by the patient’s willingness to contribute ideas and offer to assist in designing the unit mural.” This statement would most appropriately be documented in which portion of a SOAP note?
- A.
Subjective
- B.
Objective
- C.
Assessment
- D.
Plan
Correct Answer
B. ObjectiveExplanation
This statement would most appropriately be documented in the Objective portion of a SOAP note because it describes observable and measurable actions and behaviors of the patient, such as their willingness to contribute ideas and offer assistance in designing the unit mural. The Objective portion of a SOAP note is where healthcare professionals record factual information about the patient's condition, including physical examination findings and objective observations.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The treatment goal for a 4-year old child with hypotonia is to improve grasp. Which of the following activities would be best for preparing the child’s hand for grasp activities?
- A.
Dropping blocks into a pail
- B.
Placing pegs on a pegboard
- C.
Weight-bearing on hands
- D.
Holding and eating a cookie
Correct Answer
C. Weight-bearing on handsExplanation
Weight-bearing on hands would be the best activity for preparing the child's hand for grasp activities. This activity helps to strengthen the muscles in the hands and improve overall hand stability, which is essential for grasping objects. By bearing weight on their hands, the child will develop better control and coordination, making it easier for them to grasp and manipulate objects. Dropping blocks into a pail, placing pegs on a pegboard, and holding and eating a cookie may also help with fine motor skills, but they do not specifically target hand strength and stability like weight-bearing on hands does.Rate this question:
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- 13.
During an initial evaluation, an OT practitioner documents that the client’s chart reveals a history of both depression and substance abuse. The term that indicates a diagnosis from two mental diagnostic criteria is:
- A.
Dual diagnosis
- B.
Multiply handicapped
- C.
Axis I and II duplicity
- D.
Primary and secondary diagnoses
Correct Answer
A. Dual diagnosisExplanation
The term "dual diagnosis" is used to indicate a diagnosis that involves two or more mental health conditions or disorders. In this case, the client is diagnosed with both depression and substance abuse, making it a dual diagnosis. The term "multiply handicapped" refers to individuals with multiple physical disabilities, so it does not apply to this situation. "Axis I and II duplicity" is not a recognized term in mental health diagnosis. "Primary and secondary diagnoses" does not specifically indicate that there are two mental health conditions present.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is the best example of “objective” information as written by an OT practitioner for the objective section of a discharge summary?
- A.
“Pt reports he can work at the computer much longer and more comfortably than he could initially.”
- B.
“Pt was initially able to work at the computer for only 10 minutes. Upon discharge, he can work at the computer for 3 hours with stretch breaks every 30 minutes.”
- C.
“Pt has improved significantly in his ability to work at the computer.”
- D.
“Pt reports that he is now able to work at the computer for 3 hours, where initially he was only able to tolerate 10 minutes.”
Correct Answer
B. “Pt was initially able to work at the computer for only 10 minutes. Upon discharge, he can work at the computer for 3 hours with stretch breaks every 30 minutes.”Explanation
The answer "Pt was initially able to work at the computer for only 10 minutes. Upon discharge, he can work at the computer for 3 hours with stretch breaks every 30 minutes" is the best example of "objective" information because it provides specific and measurable details about the patient's progress. It includes specific timeframes and actions, such as the initial ability to work for only 10 minutes and the current ability to work for 3 hours with stretch breaks every 30 minutes. This information is factual and can be observed or measured, making it objective rather than subjective.Rate this question:
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- 15.
An individual has made gains in fine-motor coordination in the past week. Which of the following statements belongs in the assessment section of a SOAP note?
- A.
“Patient performed the Nine Hole Peg Test in 20 seconds.”
- B.
“Patient reports being able to button the buttons on most items of clothing.”
- C.
“Patient is demonstrating gradual improvement in fine-motor coordination.”
- D.
“Family reports patient is performing more fine-motor activities independently.”
Correct Answer
C. “Patient is demonstrating gradual improvement in fine-motor coordination.”Explanation
The answer "Patient is demonstrating gradual improvement in fine-motor coordination" belongs in the assessment section of a SOAP note because it accurately summarizes the individual's progress in fine-motor coordination. The statement indicates that the patient is showing improvement over time, suggesting that their fine-motor skills have developed and become more refined. This information is important to include in the assessment section to track the patient's progress and determine the effectiveness of any interventions or treatments.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A child with swallowing dysfunction is being discharged with a home-feeding program that includes eliminating foods with consistencies that are difficult to swallow. The OT would most likely recommend that the following type of food texture be avoided:
- A.
Smooth semisolids (pureed bananas)
- B.
Lumpy semisolids (cottage cheese)
- C.
Liquids and solids combined (minestrone soup)
- D.
Thickened liquids (malted milk)
Correct Answer
C. Liquids and solids combined (minestrone soup)Explanation
The correct answer is liquids and solids combined (minestrone soup). This is because a child with swallowing dysfunction may have difficulty managing foods with mixed consistencies, such as minestrone soup which contains both liquids and solids. The OT would recommend avoiding this texture to prevent choking or aspiration. Instead, the OT may suggest smoother or more consistent textures, such as smooth semisolids or lumpy semisolids, which are easier to swallow and less likely to cause difficulties for the child.Rate this question:
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- 17.
An OT practitioner is evaluating an individual who recently sustained a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The sensory portion of the test would be invalid for an individual with which one of the following impairments?
- A.
Expressive aphasia
- B.
Receptive aphasia
- C.
Agnosia
- D.
Ataxia
Correct Answer
B. Receptive aphasiaExplanation
The sensory portion of the test would be invalid for an individual with receptive aphasia. Receptive aphasia is a language impairment that affects the individual's ability to understand and comprehend language. Since the sensory portion of the test requires the individual to perceive and interpret sensory information, such as touch or temperature, it would not be valid for someone with receptive aphasia who may struggle to understand the instructions or the purpose of the test.Rate this question:
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- 18.
An OT practitioner is treating a client who has a swallowing limitation, partly caused by the inability to receive visual and olfactory stimulation before eating. This limitation typically occurs in which stage of the swallowing process?
- A.
Oral preparatory phase
- B.
Oral phase
- C.
Pharyngeal phase
- D.
Esophageal phase
Correct Answer
A. Oral preparatory phaseExplanation
The correct answer is the Oral preparatory phase. In the oral preparatory phase of the swallowing process, the food is prepared to be swallowed. This includes activities such as chewing and mixing the food with saliva to form a bolus. In this case, the client's swallowing limitation is partly caused by the inability to receive visual and olfactory stimulation before eating, which suggests that the issue is occurring before the food is actually being swallowed. Therefore, it is likely to be happening in the oral preparatory phase.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A new client exhibits no awareness of functional limitations resulting from his recent head injury, and he attempts to perform transfers without assistance. He also has expressed that he doesn’t see the need for therapy. The best approach to promote awareness and insight is to:
- A.
Have the patient explain why he believes he is not impaired
- B.
Provide the client with a checklist of skills he must have to perform various activities and review these
- C.
Have the client predict his performance before an activity, then have him self-evaluate the performance
- D.
Disregard the client’s perceptions and proceed with therapy
Correct Answer
C. Have the client predict his performance before an activity, then have him self-evaluate the performanceExplanation
The best approach to promote awareness and insight in this situation is to have the client predict his performance before an activity and then have him self-evaluate his performance. This approach allows the client to actively participate in the evaluation process and reflect on his own abilities. It encourages self-awareness and insight by comparing his predictions to his actual performance, which can help him recognize any functional limitations resulting from his head injury. This approach respects the client's autonomy and allows him to take ownership of his therapy progress.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A client who recently started using a wheelchair will be returning to work and an OT is evaluating the client’s workplace for accessibility, according to ADA guidelines. The doorway to the client’s office has a clear opening of 28 inches. Which of the following recommendations would be the most appropriate to facilitate clear passage of the wheelchair through the doorway?
- A.
The doorway width needs to be expanded to have a minimum clear opening of 32 inches
- B.
The client needs to obtain a wheelchair narrower than 28 inches
- C.
The doorway width needs to be expanded to have a minimum clear opening of 45 inches
- D.
The doorway width is satisfactory and needs no modification
Correct Answer
A. The doorway width needs to be expanded to have a minimum clear opening of 32 inchesExplanation
The most appropriate recommendation would be to expand the doorway width to have a minimum clear opening of 32 inches. This is because the ADA guidelines require a minimum clear opening of 32 inches for wheelchair accessibility. A clear opening of 28 inches is not sufficient for the client to pass through comfortably with their wheelchair. Expanding the doorway width to 32 inches would ensure that the client can navigate through the doorway without any difficulties.Rate this question:
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- 21.
An individual with ALS swims three times a week to maximize strength and endurance. Initially able to swim for only 10 minutes, the individual is now able to swim 20 minutes without becoming fatigued. The next step is:
- A.
Continue the program of swimming 20 minutes three times a week
- B.
Decrease swimming frequency to two times a week
- C.
Increase swimming time to 25 minutes or to tolerance
- D.
Provide adaptive equipment that will enable the individual to swim using less energy
Correct Answer
C. Increase swimming time to 25 minutes or to toleranceExplanation
The individual with ALS has been able to increase their swimming endurance from 10 minutes to 20 minutes without experiencing fatigue. This indicates that their strength and endurance have improved. To continue progressing and challenging themselves, the next step would be to increase the swimming time to 25 minutes or to their tolerance level. This will help them further improve their strength and endurance.Rate this question:
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- 22.
An OT practitioner is working with a client in a work program setting. What is the first step to achieving the program objective of preventing reinjury within a work program?
- A.
Performing a prework screening
- B.
Learning proper body mechanics
- C.
Participating in work hardening
- D.
Engaging in vocational counseling
Correct Answer
B. Learning proper body mechanicsExplanation
Learning proper body mechanics is the first step to achieving the program objective of preventing reinjury within a work program. This is because proper body mechanics help individuals maintain correct posture, use appropriate muscle groups, and avoid unnecessary strain or injury while performing work tasks. By learning and implementing proper body mechanics, clients can reduce the risk of reinjury and promote overall safety and well-being in the work program setting.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A client is experiencing acute right upper extremity and hand lymphedema after a recent mastectomy. The client’s primary complaint is joint stiffness. The initial techniques the OT can implement to alleviate joint stiffness would most likely be:
- A.
Contrast baths, active and passive range of motion, and retrograde massage
- B.
Ultrasound, electrical stimulation, and dynamic splinting
- C.
Resistive exercises, weight bearing, and lifting
- D.
Joint mobilization, serial casting, and dynamic splinting
Correct Answer
A. Contrast baths, active and passive range of motion, and retrograde massageExplanation
Contrast baths involve alternating between warm and cold water, which can help decrease joint stiffness. Active and passive range of motion exercises can help improve joint mobility and reduce stiffness. Retrograde massage involves using gentle pressure to stimulate lymphatic flow and reduce swelling, which can also help alleviate joint stiffness. Therefore, implementing these techniques would be the most appropriate initial approach for alleviating joint stiffness in a client with acute right upper extremity and hand lymphedema after a mastectomy.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An OT practitioner is instructing an individual with left hemiplegia how to remove a shirt. The correct sequence is:
- A.
[1] Remove shirt from unaffected arm; [2] remove shirt from affected arm; [3] gather shirt up at the back of the neck; and [4] pull gathered fabric back over head.
- B.
1] Remove shirt from affected arm; [2] remove shirt from unaffected arm; [3] gather shirt up at the back of the neck; and [4] pull gathered back fabric off over head.
- C.
1] Gather shirt up at the back of the neck; [2] pull gathered back fabric over head; [3] Remove shirt from affected arm; and [4] remove shirt from unaffected arm.
- D.
1] Gather shirt up at the back of the neck; [2] pull gathered back fabric over head; [3] Remove shirt from unaffected arm; and [4] remove shirt from affected arm.
Correct Answer
D. 1] Gather shirt up at the back of the neck; [2] pull gathered back fabric over head; [3] Remove shirt from unaffected arm; and [4] remove shirt from affected arm.Explanation
The correct sequence for removing a shirt for an individual with left hemiplegia is to first gather the shirt up at the back of the neck, then pull the gathered back fabric over the head, followed by removing the shirt from the unaffected arm, and finally removing the shirt from the affected arm. This sequence ensures that the individual can maintain balance and stability while removing the shirt, as well as minimize any discomfort or strain on the affected arm. By starting with gathering the shirt at the back of the neck, it allows for a smoother and more controlled removal process.Rate this question:
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- 25.
An OT practitioner who is leading a stress management group explains to the members that stressors can be most accurately described as the:
- A.
Process by which individuals adjust to daily stressful events within their environments
- B.
Body’s reactions to threat, often described as “fight or flight”
- C.
Precipitating conditions and events that elicit stress reactions
- D.
Process of “fit” between the individual and his or her environment
Correct Answer
C. Precipitating conditions and events that elicit stress reactionsExplanation
This answer is correct because stressors are defined as the conditions and events that trigger or elicit stress reactions in individuals. Stressors can be external events or situations that cause stress, such as work deadlines or relationship problems. By understanding and identifying these precipitating conditions and events, individuals can better manage and cope with their stress.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A toddler diagnosed with developmental delays does not finger-feed when presented with food in the clinic. The best way to obtain further information about his feeding skills is to:
- A.
Interview his parents to determine his favorite foods
- B.
Observe him in his home during feeding time
- C.
Review his chart for food allergies
- D.
Repeat the observation in a quiet area (in order to minimize distractions)
Correct Answer
B. Observe him in his home during feeding timeExplanation
Observing the toddler in his home during feeding time would provide the best opportunity to assess his feeding skills. It allows for a natural and familiar environment where the toddler is likely to be more comfortable and behave in a typical manner. By observing him in this setting, it would be easier to identify any specific challenges or difficulties he may have with finger-feeding and gather more accurate information about his feeding skills. This method also eliminates potential distractions that may occur in a clinic or other unfamiliar setting.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A preschooler with a diagnosis of developmental delay is very withdrawn and passive. While working on toilet skills, the child reaches out for a toothbrush and starts to brush her hair with it. The OT practitioner recognizes the primary importance of this behavior as:
- A.
Demonstrating attention-getting behavior
- B.
A sign of cognitive limitation
- C.
Indicating initiative and beginning task-directed behavior
- D.
Demonstrating misinterpretation of cues because of a visual deficit
Correct Answer
C. Indicating initiative and beginning task-directed behaviorExplanation
The child reaching out for a toothbrush and starting to brush her hair with it indicates initiative and beginning task-directed behavior. This behavior suggests that the child is attempting to engage in a purposeful activity and take the initiative to complete a task. It shows that the child is beginning to understand the concept of using objects for specific actions and is starting to demonstrate task-oriented behavior.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A therapist reviews an individual’s chart as part of the screening process. The psychiatrist has written “observe for side effects with current antianxiety medications.” The OT practitioner is most likely to report about which of the following side effects?
- A.
Akathisia
- B.
Confusion
- C.
Extrapyramidal syndrome
- D.
Tardive dyskinesia
Correct Answer
B. ConfusionExplanation
The OT practitioner is most likely to report about confusion as a side effect of the current antianxiety medications. This is because confusion is a common side effect of many medications, including antianxiety medications. It is important for the therapist to monitor and report any instances of confusion in order to ensure the individual's safety and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A therapist is evaluating an individual with a peripheral nerve injury for strength, range of motion, and endurance. The most appropriate frame of reference on which to base the evaluation is:
- A.
Rehabilitative frame of reference
- B.
Neurodevelopmental frame of reference
- C.
Biomechanical frame of reference
- D.
Psychoanalytic frame of reference
Correct Answer
C. Biomechanical frame of referenceExplanation
The biomechanical frame of reference is the most appropriate for evaluating an individual with a peripheral nerve injury for strength, range of motion, and endurance. This frame of reference focuses on the physical aspects of movement and function, such as muscle strength, joint range of motion, and endurance. It considers the mechanical principles of the body and aims to restore or improve the individual's physical abilities through specific exercises and interventions. This approach is particularly relevant for individuals with physical impairments, as it emphasizes the restoration of biomechanical function.Rate this question:
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- 30.
An OT practitioner is selecting treatment activities to use with a young adult diagnosed with schizophrenia, undifferentiated type, that would help to receive, process, and respond to sensory information. The most suitable activities for the patient would include:
- A.
Social skills training
- B.
Vestibular stimulation and gross motor exercise
- C.
Role-playing
- D.
Discussion group
Correct Answer
B. Vestibular stimulation and gross motor exerciseExplanation
Vestibular stimulation and gross motor exercise would be the most suitable activities for a young adult diagnosed with schizophrenia, undifferentiated type, who needs help with receiving, processing, and responding to sensory information. Vestibular stimulation involves activities that stimulate the inner ear and help with balance and spatial orientation, which can be beneficial for individuals with sensory processing difficulties. Gross motor exercise, on the other hand, involves physical activities that engage large muscle groups, promoting body awareness and coordination. Both of these activities can help the individual improve their sensory integration skills and enhance their ability to process sensory information effectively.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A preschool child with spastic cerebral palsy uses “bunny-hopping” for functional mobility during an OT evaluation. This indicates that a primitive pattern is being used for mobility. Which of the following reflexes is most likely being used by the child:
- A.
Symmetrical tonic neck reflex
- B.
Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex
- C.
Tonic labyrinthine reflex
- D.
Neck righting reflex
Correct Answer
A. Symmetrical tonic neck reflexExplanation
The preschool child with spastic cerebral palsy using "bunny-hopping" for functional mobility indicates the use of a primitive pattern. The symmetrical tonic neck reflex is most likely being used by the child in this case. The symmetrical tonic neck reflex is a primitive reflex that occurs when the head is turned to one side, causing the limbs on that side to extend and the limbs on the opposite side to flex. This reflex is typically present in infants and should disappear by the age of 6 months. However, in children with cerebral palsy, this reflex may persist, leading to abnormal movement patterns such as bunny-hopping.Rate this question:
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- 32.
During an oral motor evaluation, an OT practitioner asks the client to stick out her tongue. Next, the client is asked to move her tongue from side to side. The two functions that the OT practitioner is attempting to facilitate are
- A.
Protrusion and humping
- B.
Lateralization and tipping
- C.
Protrusion and lateralization
- D.
Lateralization and humping
Correct Answer
C. Protrusion and lateralizationExplanation
In an oral motor evaluation, the OT practitioner is assessing the client's tongue movements and functions. Protrusion refers to the act of sticking out the tongue, while lateralization refers to moving the tongue from side to side. Therefore, the OT practitioner is attempting to facilitate both the protrusion and lateralization functions during the evaluation.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A child with spina bifida has a lesion at the lumbar level that causes her bladder to be flaccid. At what age should the OT practitioner consider lack of bladder control as a delay and constitute a toilet training program?
- A.
Never, because children with flaccid bladders typically cannot be toilet trained
- B.
At 3 years of age when normally developing children recognize the need to urinate
- C.
At 4 years of age because normally developing children tend to get toilet trained at this age
- D.
At 4-5 years of age
Correct Answer
A. Never, because children with flaccid bladders typically cannot be toilet trainedExplanation
Children with flaccid bladders, such as those with spina bifida, typically have difficulties with bladder control and cannot be toilet trained. This is due to the fact that the nerves controlling the bladder are affected, resulting in a lack of sensation and muscle control. Therefore, the OT practitioner should not consider lack of bladder control as a delay and should not initiate a toilet training program for these children.Rate this question:
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- 34.
To assess an individual who is suspected of having carpal tunnel syndrome, the OT tests for Tinel’s sign by gently tapping the median nerve at the level of the carpal tunnel with the person’s wrist positioned in:
- A.
10 degrees of ulnar deviation
- B.
10 degrees of radial deviation
- C.
20 degrees of flexion or 20 degrees of dorsiflexion
- D.
Neutral
Correct Answer
D. NeutralExplanation
When assessing for Tinel's sign in a person suspected of having carpal tunnel syndrome, the OT tests by gently tapping the median nerve at the level of the carpal tunnel. The wrist should be positioned in a neutral position. This means that the wrist should not be deviated in either the ulnar or radial direction, and it should not be flexed or dorsiflexed. A neutral wrist position allows for a more accurate assessment of Tinel's sign and helps to identify any potential nerve compression or irritation in the carpal tunnel.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A child’s long-term goal is to increase fine motor skills. The assessment has revealed a deficit in tactile discrimination, specifically stereognosis. The most relevant short-term goal would be:
- A.
“The child will correctly identify five out of five fingers touched when given tactile stimulus.”
- B.
“The child will correctly identify five out of five shapes drawn on the dorsum of her hand.”
- C.
“The child will correctly identify five out of five matching textures.”
- D.
"The child will correctly identify, by feel only, five out of five common objects.”
Correct Answer
D. "The child will correctly identify, by feel only, five out of five common objects.”Explanation
The most relevant short-term goal would be for the child to correctly identify, by feel only, five out of five common objects. This is because the deficit in tactile discrimination, specifically stereognosis, indicates a difficulty in recognizing objects by touch. By setting this goal, the child will be encouraged to improve their fine motor skills and tactile discrimination abilities by accurately identifying common objects through touch alone.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which individual would benefit the most from using a wrist-driven flexor hinge splint during a prehension activity?
- A.
A client with C1 injury
- B.
A client with C3 injury
- C.
A client with C6 injury
- D.
A client with T1 injury
Correct Answer
C. A client with C6 injuryExplanation
A client with a C6 injury would benefit the most from using a wrist-driven flexor hinge splint during a prehension activity. This is because a C6 injury typically results in limited hand function and weak wrist extension. The wrist-driven flexor hinge splint can provide support and assist with wrist extension, allowing the client to have a more functional grip and better control during prehension activities.Rate this question:
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- 37.
An individual uses a mouthstick when working with a computer. Which of the following devices will prevent the mouthstick from accidentally striking other keys?
- A.
A moisture guard
- B.
A keyguard
- C.
An auto-repeat defeat
- D.
One-finger-access software
Correct Answer
B. A keyguardExplanation
A keyguard is a device that is placed over the keyboard and has holes or slots that correspond to each key. It prevents the mouthstick from accidentally striking other keys by providing a physical barrier between the mouthstick and the rest of the keys. This allows the individual to accurately target and press the desired key without any unintended keystrokes.Rate this question:
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- 38.
An individual in an adult day program demonstrates poor social skills and frequent sexual acting-out. The activity that would most effectively provide release for this individual’s sexual tension is:
- A.
Jogging
- B.
Macramé
- C.
Reading Playboy magazine
- D.
Ballroom dancing
Correct Answer
A. JoggingExplanation
Engaging in physical exercise such as jogging can effectively release sexual tension for individuals. Jogging allows for the release of endorphins, which can help reduce stress and anxiety. It also provides a healthy outlet for energy and can distract the individual from engaging in inappropriate sexual behaviors. Additionally, jogging promotes overall physical well-being, which can contribute to a positive sense of self and improved social interactions.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A teenage patient is hospitalized with anorexia nervosa. An OT practitioner has been assigned to collect data on the child’s family background, education, and habits through a chart review. Where will the practitioner most likely find this information?
- A.
In the nurse notes
- B.
In the doctor’s notes
- C.
In the social worker’s notes
- D.
In the admitting note
Correct Answer
C. In the social worker’s notesExplanation
In this scenario, the OT practitioner is tasked with collecting data on the teenage patient's family background, education, and habits. The most likely place to find this information would be in the social worker's notes. Social workers are trained to gather comprehensive information about a patient's social and familial context, which would include details about their family background, education, and habits. The nurse and doctor's notes may focus more on the medical aspects of the patient's condition, while the admitting note may provide general information but may not delve into specific details about the patient's family background, education, and habits.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A child with a learning disability has difficulty integrating visual, auditory, vestibular and somatosensory stimuli, and responds to stimuli primarily with defensiveness. The area of the central nervous system that serves as a center for these functions is the:
- A.
Reticular formation
- B.
Superior and inferior colliculi
- C.
Cerebral cortex
- D.
Cerebellum
Correct Answer
B. Superior and inferior colliculiExplanation
The superior and inferior colliculi are parts of the midbrain that play a role in processing sensory information, particularly visual and auditory stimuli. They are involved in integrating and coordinating sensory inputs from different sources. In the case of a child with a learning disability, who has difficulty integrating various sensory inputs, the superior and inferior colliculi would be the most likely area of the central nervous system to be affected. Therefore, this answer is correct.Rate this question:
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- 41.
An individual learning to use an augmentative communication system has mastered the task of understanding picture symbols and their use. The next step would be:
- A.
Sequencing of picture symbols
- B.
Recognizing letters on the alphabet
- C.
Recognizing whole words
- D.
Spelling letter by letter
Correct Answer
A. Sequencing of picture symbolsExplanation
After mastering the task of understanding picture symbols and their use, the next step for an individual learning to use an augmentative communication system would be sequencing of picture symbols. This involves arranging the picture symbols in a specific order to convey a message or express a thought. It is a more advanced skill compared to simply recognizing letters or words, and it allows the individual to communicate more complex ideas and thoughts using the augmentative communication system.Rate this question:
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- 42.
During the evaluation of a 6-month-old baby the OT practitioner gently pulls the infant from a supine position into a sitting position by the hands. The child demonstrates the ability to hold her head and trunk in alignment against gravity. This observable movement can most accurately be described by the OT as a:
- A.
Protective reaction
- B.
Flexion righting reaction
- C.
Body righting on body reaction
- D.
Optical righting reaction
Correct Answer
B. Flexion righting reactionExplanation
The correct answer is Flexion righting reaction. This is because when the OT practitioner pulls the infant from a supine position into a sitting position, the baby demonstrates the ability to hold her head and trunk in alignment against gravity. This is a flexion righting reaction, which refers to the baby's ability to flex and align their head and trunk against gravity in order to maintain a sitting position.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A client who was fitted for an upper extremity prosthesis complains of pain at the stump site. The client comments that the absent limb still feels intact and that the pain is severe. This is most likely an example of:
- A.
Paresthesias
- B.
Phantom limb sensation
- C.
Neuromas
- D.
Phantom limb pain
Correct Answer
D. Phantom limb painExplanation
Phantom limb pain refers to the sensation of pain experienced in a limb that has been amputated. In this case, the client's complaint of pain at the stump site, along with the comment that the absent limb still feels intact, suggests that they are experiencing phantom limb pain. This phenomenon is believed to occur due to the brain's inability to adjust to the absence of sensory input from the amputated limb, leading to the perception of pain. Paresthesias refer to abnormal sensations such as tingling or numbness, while phantom limb sensation refers to the perception of the presence of the amputated limb. Neuromas, on the other hand, are abnormal growths of nerve tissue that can cause pain and other symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A child diagnosed with mental retardation has been participating in a craft group structured as a parallel group. The child is now developing skills such as sharing materials and interacting with other group members. The next level of structured activity which the OT practitioner would recommend for the child is a/an:
- A.
Egocentric cooperative group
- B.
Project group
- C.
Cooperative group
- D.
Mature group
Correct Answer
B. Project groupExplanation
The correct answer is a Project group. A project group would be the next level of structured activity recommended for the child because it would allow them to further develop their skills in sharing materials and interacting with other group members. In a project group, the child would have the opportunity to work collaboratively with others towards a common goal or project, which would enhance their social skills and promote cooperation and teamwork. This would be a natural progression for the child as they continue to grow and develop their abilities.Rate this question:
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- 45.
“The patient arrived without her walker 3 out of 3 days this week.” The most appropriate section of a SOAP note for the OT practitioner is to place this statement is the:
- A.
Subjective
- B.
Objective
- C.
Assessment
- D.
Plan
Correct Answer
B. ObjectiveExplanation
The statement "The patient arrived without her walker 3 out of 3 days this week" is an objective observation that can be measured and verified. It provides factual information about the patient's behavior. In a SOAP note, the Objective section is where the therapist records objective data such as observations, measurements, and test results. Therefore, this statement would be most appropriately placed in the Objective section of the SOAP note.Rate this question:
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- 46.
An OT practitioner is helping a family plan a wheelchair ramp to the front door of their home. What is the minimum amount of space needed in front of the door to allow easy access by the wheelchair?
- A.
3 feet by 5 feet
- B.
4 feet by 4 feet
- C.
4.5 feet by 3 feet
- D.
5 feet by 5 feet
Correct Answer
D. 5 feet by 5 feetExplanation
The correct answer is 5 feet by 5 feet because it provides the most space for easy access by the wheelchair. A larger space allows for easier maneuverability and reduces the risk of accidents or difficulty in entering or exiting the home. This size also accommodates any additional equipment or assistance that may be required for the wheelchair user.Rate this question:
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- 47.
An OT practitioner is fabricating a static splint to prevent further injury, reduce pain, and encourage proper positioning. Which of the following would best address these these goal?
- A.
A resting pan splint for a client after a TBI who has been unresponsive in the ICU for 3weeks, yet grimaces with passive digit extension
- B.
A dynamic extension splint for a client with a radial nerve injury sustained after a skiing accident
- C.
An articular splint after surgical repair of the PIP joint for a burn injury
- D.
A spring coil splint for a client with median nerve injury sustained in a boating accident
Correct Answer
A. A resting pan splint for a client after a TBI who has been unresponsive in the ICU for 3weeks, yet grimaces with passive digit extensionExplanation
The correct answer is a resting pan splint for a client after a TBI who has been unresponsive in the ICU for 3 weeks, yet grimaces with passive digit extension. This option is the most appropriate because it addresses the goals of preventing further injury, reducing pain, and encouraging proper positioning. The client's unresponsiveness and grimacing suggest that they may have some level of discomfort or pain during passive digit extension, and a resting pan splint can help immobilize the hand and provide support to reduce pain and prevent further injury.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A child with athetoid CP is learning to use augmentative communication and is frustrated because it takes so long to produce a sentence. Which of the ff is the best solution for this problem?
- A.
A larger monitor
- B.
A voice output tool
- C.
Word prediction software
- D.
Masking inappropriate keys
Correct Answer
C. Word prediction softwareExplanation
Word prediction software is the best solution for the child with athetoid CP who is frustrated with the time it takes to produce a sentence using augmentative communication. This software can help the child by suggesting words or phrases based on their input, making it quicker and easier to form complete sentences. By reducing the time and effort required to communicate, the child can overcome their frustration and improve their overall communication skills.Rate this question:
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- 49.
An individual has been referred to OT following open heart surgery and a period of prolonged bedrest. After the individual is able to tolerate sitting unsupported at the edge of the bed, the next activity the OT practitioner should introduce s:
- A.
Peeling potatoes while seated
- B.
Wheelchair propulsion in 1.2mph
- C.
Taking a shower
- D.
Walking at 1mph
Correct Answer
D. Walking at 1mphExplanation
After a period of prolonged bedrest, it is important for the individual to gradually regain their strength and endurance. Walking at 1mph would be the most appropriate activity to introduce at this stage. Walking helps in improving cardiovascular fitness, muscle strength, and balance. It also promotes weight-bearing and helps in preventing complications such as blood clots. Peeling potatoes while seated, wheelchair propulsion, and taking a shower may be introduced at a later stage when the individual has further progressed in their recovery.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A 3rd grade student receives direct OT services provided through public school system. Which of the ff activities should the OT recommend to the gym teacher to best consolidate the child’s skills in spatial organization and motor planning?
- A.
Relay races
- B.
Obstacle courses
- C.
The balance beam
- D.
Freeze tag
Correct Answer
B. Obstacle coursesExplanation
Obstacle courses would be the best activity to consolidate the child's skills in spatial organization and motor planning. Obstacle courses require the child to navigate through various physical challenges, such as climbing over objects, crawling under obstacles, and balancing on beams. These activities enhance the child's ability to plan and execute movements in a coordinated manner, while also improving their spatial awareness and problem-solving skills. Relay races and freeze tag may involve running and tagging, but they do not specifically target spatial organization and motor planning. The balance beam primarily focuses on balance skills rather than spatial organization and motor planning.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 10, 2016Quiz Created by
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