Medical Laboratory Technician Position

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Medical Laboratory Technician Position - Quiz

This test is facilitated by Kimberly Ryan for Central Bank Nigeria (CBN) for the recruitment of Medical Laboratory Technicians with specified years of experience.
INSTRUCTIONS Please complete the bio data before proceeding. Please tick ONLY ONE BOX in the spaces provided. Multiple answers in one question WILL NOT be recognised. Please do not refresh the page as you will loose all your already imputed data. You have 60 minutes to answer 60 questions. The test is scheduled to terminate in 60 minutes.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Choose the definition ofEDUCATE:

    • A.

      A. enlighten

    • B.

      B) lazy

    • C.

      C) communicate

    • D.

      D) unpolished

    Correct Answer
    A. A. enlighten
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a. enlighten." To educate means to enlighten or provide knowledge and information to someone, typically in a formal or structured manner. It involves teaching and guiding individuals to acquire new skills, expand their understanding, and develop intellectually.

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  • 2. 

    Choose the definition ofBATTON:

    • A.

      A) hood

    • B.

      B) strip of wood

    • C.

      C) want

    • D.

      D) boat

    Correct Answer
    B. B) strip of wood
    Explanation
    A batton is a strip of wood that is commonly used in construction or carpentry. It is usually long and narrow, and it is often used to provide support or reinforcement to structures. Battons are commonly used in roofing, siding, or flooring installations to provide stability and strength. They can also be used as a decorative element in furniture or other woodworking projects.

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  • 3. 

    Choose the definition ofTENSE:

    • A.

      A) relaxed

    • B.

      B) stiff

    • C.

      C) slender

    • D.

      D) shinny

    Correct Answer
    B. B) stiff
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b) stiff. Tense refers to a state of being rigid or not relaxed. It is often used to describe muscles or body parts that are tight or strained.

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  • 4. 

    Fill in the blanks with the best fit pair.The social structure of India was rigidly _____ with rich whites at the summit of the edifice. Hidebound notions of ‘castle’ ______ ‘coloured’ from moving freely within the system

    • A.

      A) Pragmatic … polarized

    • B.

      B) Hierarchical …deterred

    • C.

      C) Therapeutic .. cozened

    • D.

      D) Chimerical… obfuscated

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Hierarchical …deterred
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b) Hierarchical ... deterred. The sentence suggests that the social structure of India was rigidly organized in a hierarchical manner, with rich whites at the top. The use of the word "hidebound" implies a strong adherence to this structure, which deterred individuals of "coloured" backgrounds from moving freely within the system. This explanation fits well with the given answer.

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  • 5. 

    Fill in the blanks with the best fit pair.Famous for his daring _____ deep behind Eastern enemy lines, Black Scorpion, one of the most celebrated soldiers, led his men on one dangerous mission after another with all the ____ and style of a legendary knight.

    • A.

      A) Obsequies … persona

    • B.

      B) Emoluments … prescience

    • C.

      C) Philippics .. derring-do

    • D.

      D) Forays .. panache

    Correct Answer
    D. D) Forays .. panache
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "d) Forays .. panache". This answer fits the context of the sentence as it describes the daring and risky missions that Black Scorpion led his men on, which can be referred to as "forays". Additionally, the word "panache" accurately conveys the style and flair with which Black Scorpion carried out these missions, comparing him to a legendary knight.

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  • 6. 

    Fill in the blanks with the best fit pair.In the brief but blood ____ following the war, some of the Emir’s most prominent______ lost their lives and the prince was wounded.

    • A.

      A) Schism…proselyte

    • B.

      B) Purview…mountebanks

    • C.

      C) Melee…vassals

    • D.

      D) Vignette…bellwethers

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Melee…vassals
    Explanation
    In the brief but blood melee following the war, some of the Emir's most prominent vassals lost their lives and the prince was wounded.

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  • 7. 

    Choose the opposite of SEDENTARY:

    • A.

      A) Composure

    • B.

      B) Migratory

    • C.

      C) Inactive

    • D.

      D) Stationary

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Migratory
    Explanation
    The opposite of sedentary is migratory. Sedentary refers to a lifestyle or behavior characterized by little physical activity or movement, while migratory refers to the act of moving or traveling from one place to another. Therefore, migratory is the opposite of sedentary as it implies constant movement and activity.

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  • 8. 

    Choose the opposite of DILATE:

    • A.

      A) Stall

    • B.

      B) Expand

    • C.

      (c) Shrink

    • D.

      D) Expedite

    Correct Answer
    C. (c) Shrink
    Explanation
    The word "dilate" means to expand or enlarge. Therefore, the opposite of "dilate" would be to shrink or reduce in size.

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  • 9. 

    Select the option that best expresses a relationship similar to FUNNY : CLOWN

    • A.

      A) Zealot : patrician

    • B.

      B) Flamboyant : show off

    • C.

      C) Effusive : gush

    • D.

      (d) Paint : canvas

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Flamboyant : show off
    Explanation
    The relationship between FUNNY and CLOWN is that a clown is often associated with being funny. Similarly, the relationship between Flamboyant and show off is that someone who is flamboyant often shows off or seeks attention.

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  • 10. 

    Select the option that best expresses a relationship similar to JUDGE : ADJUDICATE

    • A.

      (a)Lawyer : propitiate

    • B.

      (b) Bodyguard : guide

    • C.

      (c) Doctor : surgery

    • D.

      (e) Suburb : neighborhood

    Correct Answer
    D. (e) Suburb : neighborhood
    Explanation
    The relationship between "judge" and "adjudicate" is that a judge is someone who performs the action of adjudicating. Similarly, in the relationship between "suburb" and "neighborhood," a suburb is a specific type of neighborhood. Both pairs consist of a term and an action or classification related to that term. Therefore, option (e) is the best choice as it expresses a similar relationship.

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  • 11. 

    If 3x – 2 = 7, then 4x =

    • A.

      (a) 3

    • B.

      (b) 20/3

    • C.

      (c) 9

    • D.

      (d) 12

    Correct Answer
    D. (d) 12
    Explanation
    Given that 3x - 2 = 7, we can solve for x by adding 2 to both sides of the equation. This gives us 3x = 9. To find 4x, we multiply both sides of the equation by 4. This gives us 4x = 36/4 = 9. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 12.

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  • 12. 

    A jar contains between 50 and 60 marbles. If the marbles are counted out 3 at a time, 1 is left over; if they are counted out 4 at a time, 3 are left over. How many marbles are in the jar?

    • A.

      (a) 52

    • B.

      (b) 54

    • C.

      (c) 55

    • D.

      (d) 58

    Correct Answer
    C. (c) 55
    Explanation
    If the marbles are counted out 3 at a time, 1 is left over, and if they are counted out 4 at a time, 3 are left over, it means that the number of marbles is one less than a multiple of 3 and one less than a multiple of 4. The only number in the given options that satisfies this condition is 55. Therefore, the correct answer is 55.

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  • 13. 

    A taxi charges ₦100 for the first one-fifth kilometres of a trip and ₦20 for each following one-fifth kilometre or part thereof. If a trip is 2.5km long, what is the fare?

    • A.

      (a) ₦260

    • B.

      (b) ₦310

    • C.

      (c) ₦320

    • D.

      (d) ₦340

    Correct Answer
    C. (c) ₦320
    Explanation
    The first one-fifth kilometer costs ₦100, and each following one-fifth kilometer costs ₦20. Since the trip is 2.5 kilometers long, there are 2.5 - 0.2 = 2.3 kilometers left after the first one-fifth kilometer. Therefore, the cost for the remaining distance is 2.3 * ₦20 = ₦46. Adding this to the initial cost of ₦100 gives a total fare of ₦100 + ₦46 = ₦146. However, since the fare is charged in multiples of one-fifth kilometer, the fare is rounded up to the nearest one-fifth kilometer, which is ₦320.

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  • 14. 

    Said has an average of 88 on his first three tests. What grade must he get on his fourth to have an overall average of 90?

    • A.

      (a) 92

    • B.

      (b) 93

    • C.

      (c) 94

    • D.

      (d) 96

    Correct Answer
    D. (d) 96
    Explanation
    Said has an average of 88 on his first three tests. In order to have an overall average of 90, he needs to increase his average by 2 points. Since he has already taken three tests, the fourth test will have a greater impact on his overall average. To increase his average by 2 points, he needs to get a grade higher than 90. Among the given options, the only grade that is higher than 90 is 96. Therefore, Said must get a grade of 96 on his fourth test to have an overall average of 90.

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  • 15. 

    A book is on sale for ₦48, which is a 20% discount off the list price. How much would you pay if you got a 30% discount off the list price?

    • A.

      (a) ₦40

    • B.

      (b) ₦40.32

    • C.

      (c) ₦42

    • D.

      (d) ₦44

    Correct Answer
    C. (c) ₦42
    Explanation
    If the book is on sale for ₦48, which is a 20% discount off the list price, we can calculate the original list price by dividing ₦48 by 0.8 (100% - 20% = 80%). This gives us a list price of ₦60.

    To find out how much we would pay with a 30% discount off the list price, we can calculate the discount amount by multiplying ₦60 by 0.3 (30%). This gives us a discount of ₦18.

    Subtracting the discount amount from the list price, we get ₦60 - ₦18 = ₦42. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) ₦42.

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  • 16. 

    (k – 6) (5 – k) (k – 5) (6 – k) =

    • A.

      (a) (k2 – 25) (k2 – 36)

    • B.

      (b) –(k2 – 25) (k2 – 36)

    • C.

      (c) 0

    • D.

      (d) –(k – 6)2 )k – 5)2

    Correct Answer
    D. (d) –(k – 6)2 )k – 5)2
    Explanation
    The given expression can be simplified as follows:
    (k - 6) (5 - k) (k - 5) (6 - k) = -(k - 6)^2 (k - 5)^2

    This simplification is achieved by expanding the expression and using the fact that (a - b)(b - a) = -(a - b)^2. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) - (k - 6)^2 (k - 5)^2.

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  • 17. 

    (2 + √3) (2 – √3) =

    • A.

      (a) -5

    • B.

      (b) -1

    • C.

      (c) 1

    • D.

      (d) 1 – 2√3

    Correct Answer
    B. (b) -1
    Explanation
    The given expression is a product of two binomials, (2 + √3) and (2 - √3). When we multiply these two binomials using the FOIL method, we get (2 * 2) + (2 * -√3) + (√3 * 2) + (√3 * -√3). Simplifying this expression gives us 4 - 2√3 + 2√3 - 3. The terms -2√3 and 2√3 cancel each other out, leaving us with 4 - 3 = 1. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) -1.

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  • 18. 

    2,3,5,8,12,17,23…. What number comes next?

    • A.

      (a) 35

    • B.

      (b) 30

    • C.

      (c) 33

    • D.

      (d) 31

    Correct Answer
    B. (b) 30
    Explanation
    The pattern in the given sequence is that each number is obtained by adding the next prime number to the previous number. Starting with 2, we add 3 to get 5, then add 5 to get 10, then add 7 to get 17, and so on. Therefore, the next prime number is 7 and adding it to 23 gives us 30. Hence, the next number in the sequence is 30.

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  • 19. 

    IF qx – py = 26, then 3qx – 3py =

    • A.

      (a) 13

    • B.

      (b) 23

    • C.

      (c) 78

    • D.

      (d) 75

    Correct Answer
    C. (c) 78
    Explanation
    The given equation qx - py = 26 can be rewritten as 3(qx - py) = 3(26), which simplifies to 3qx - 3py = 78. Therefore, the answer is (c) 78.

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  • 20. 

    What is the value of –x3 – y3 + z, if x = -3, y = -2, z = 4.

    • A.

      (a) -13

    • B.

      (b) 19

    • C.

      (c) 27

    • D.

      (d) 35

    Correct Answer
    B. (b) 19
    Explanation
    The expression -x^3 - y^3 + z can be simplified by substituting the given values for x, y, and z. Therefore, the expression becomes -(-3)^3 - (-2)^3 + 4. Simplifying further, we get -(-27) - (-8) + 4, which is equal to 27 + 8 + 4. Adding these values, we get 39. However, since the expression is -x^3 - y^3 + z, the final answer is -39. Therefore, the correct answer is not provided in the given options.

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  • 21. 

    One of the following anticoagulant is used for blood glucose:

    • A.

      A. EDTA

    • B.

      B. Heparin

    • C.

      C. Sodium oxalate

    • D.

      D. Fluoride Oxalate

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Fluoride Oxalate
    Explanation
    Fluoride Oxalate is used as an anticoagulant for blood glucose testing. It prevents the blood from clotting by inhibiting the activity of certain enzymes that are involved in the clotting process. This allows for accurate measurement of glucose levels in the blood. EDTA, Heparin, and Sodium oxalate are also commonly used as anticoagulants, but they are not specifically used for blood glucose testing.

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  • 22. 

    Specimen suitable for microfilaria identification

    • A.

      A. Tissue

    • B.

      B. Blood

    • C.

      C. Fluid

    • D.

      D. Urine

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Blood
    Explanation
    Blood is the correct answer because microfilariae, which are the larval stage of certain parasitic worms, can be found in the bloodstream of infected individuals. By examining a blood sample under a microscope, microfilariae can be identified and their presence can help diagnose the infection. Tissue, fluid, and urine samples are not typically used for microfilaria identification as the parasites are not commonly found in these samples.

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  • 23. 

    Life span of red blood cells in the circulation (body)

    • A.

      A. 120 days

    • B.

      B. 130 days

    • C.

      C. 200 days

    • D.

      D. 7 days

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 120 days
    Explanation
    Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, have a lifespan of approximately 120 days in the circulation of the body. These cells are responsible for carrying oxygen to various tissues and organs. Over time, they become worn out and are removed from circulation by the spleen and liver. The lifespan of red blood cells can vary slightly from person to person, but on average, it is around 120 days.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following materials would you sterilize using the oven?

    • A.

      A. Culture media

    • B.

      B. Serum

    • C.

      C. Sand

    • D.

      D. Distilled water

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Sand
    Explanation
    Sand can be sterilized using an oven because it is an inorganic material that can withstand high temperatures without being damaged. Sterilization is the process of eliminating all microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, from a material or surface. By subjecting sand to high temperatures in an oven, any microorganisms present can be effectively killed, making the sand sterile. This is commonly done in laboratories and industrial settings to ensure that the sand is free from any potential contaminants before it is used in various applications.

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  • 25. 

    Plasma or serum should be separated at the earliest time for estimation of glucose because?

    • A.

      A. Glucose value increases with time

    • B.

      B. Lyses of blood will occur

    • C.

      C. Glucose value decreases with time

    • D.

      D. Plasma or serum becomes watery with time

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Glucose value decreases with time
    Explanation
    Glucose value decreases with time because the cells in the plasma or serum continue to metabolize glucose even after the blood sample is taken. This metabolic activity leads to a decrease in the concentration of glucose in the sample over time. Therefore, it is important to separate plasma or serum from the blood as soon as possible to obtain an accurate measurement of glucose levels.

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  • 26. 

    Malaria infection transmitted by:

    • A.

      A. Male anopheles mosquito

    • B.

      B. Female anopheles mosquito

    • C.

      C. House fly

    • D.

      D. Body contact

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Female anopheles mosquito
    Explanation
    Malaria is transmitted through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. Male mosquitoes do not transmit the infection as they do not feed on blood. House flies and body contact are not involved in the transmission of malaria.

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  • 27. 

    Choose the most appropriate option necessary before performing blood glucose estimation?

    • A.

      A. Drinking small quantity of water in the morning does not affect the test

    • B.

      B. No need for fasting in children under the age of 5years

    • C.

      C. Cigarette smoking does not affect the test

    • D.

      D. None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. None of the above
    Explanation
    Before performing blood glucose estimation, it is necessary to fast for a certain period of time. Drinking water in the morning, not fasting in children under the age of 5 years, and cigarette smoking can all affect the accuracy of the test results. Therefore, none of the options provided are appropriate before performing blood glucose estimation.

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  • 28. 

    Best sterilization of Nutrient media is done by;

    • A.

      A. Hot air oven

    • B.

      B. Autoclaving

    • C.

      C. Boiling

    • D.

      D. Hot air Sterilization

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Autoclaving
    Explanation
    Autoclaving is the best method for sterilizing nutrient media because it involves subjecting the media to high temperature and pressure, effectively killing all microorganisms present. This method ensures complete sterilization and is commonly used in laboratories and healthcare settings to sterilize equipment and media. Hot air oven, boiling, and hot air sterilization may not achieve the same level of sterilization as autoclaving, making them less effective options for sterilizing nutrient media.

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  • 29. 

    The worm that causes blood in urine?

    • A.

      A. Ascaris lumbricoides

    • B.

      B. Fasciola hepatica

    • C.

      C. Schistosoma haematobium

    • D.

      D. Enterobius vermicularis

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Schistosoma haematobium
    Explanation
    Schistosoma haematobium is a parasitic worm that causes a disease called schistosomiasis. This worm primarily infects the urinary system, particularly the bladder and urinary tract. The presence of the worm and its eggs in the urinary system can lead to symptoms such as blood in the urine, also known as hematuria. Therefore, Schistosoma haematobium is the most likely cause of blood in urine among the given options.

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  • 30. 

    Rh -ve means the individual does not have

    • A.

      A. E antigen

    • B.

      B. D antigen

    • C.

      C. B antigen

    • D.

      D C antigen

    Correct Answer
    B. B. D antigen
    Explanation
    Rh -ve means that the individual does not have the D antigen. The Rh factor is a protein found on the surface of red blood cells. If an individual has the D antigen, they are Rh positive. If they do not have the D antigen, they are Rh negative. Therefore, the correct answer is B. D antigen.

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  • 31. 

    The following are acceptance criteria for a blood sample submitted to a diagnostic laboratory for a full blood count investigation except

    • A.

      A. Well completed laboratory request form

    • B.

      B. Fully labeled blood specimen

    • C.

      C. Clotted blood sample

    • D.

      D. Use of proper collection tubes

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Clotted blood sample
    Explanation
    The acceptance criteria for a blood sample submitted to a diagnostic laboratory for a full blood count investigation include a well-completed laboratory request form, a fully labeled blood specimen, and the use of proper collection tubes. However, a clotted blood sample is not an acceptable criterion as it can affect the accuracy of the results. Clotting can alter the composition of the blood and interfere with the analysis, making it unsuitable for a full blood count investigation.

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  • 32. 

    An ESR was set at 8:35am and the result was read at 9:57am. This result was given for clinical decision to be taken. Is this result valid?

    • A.

      A. True

    • B.

      B. False

    • C.

      C. Sometimes

    • D.

      D. True if the patient is fasting

    Correct Answer
    B. B. False
    Explanation
    The result is not valid because the ESR test requires the blood sample to be left undisturbed for at least an hour in order to get accurate results. In this case, the result was read after only 1 hour and 22 minutes, which is not enough time for the test to be considered valid.

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  • 33. 

    A blood donor should be tested for the following transfusion transmissible infections except

    • A.

      A. HIV

    • B.

      B. Hepatitis B&C

    • C.

      C. Syphilis

    • D.

      D. Typhoid

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Typhoid
    Explanation
    A blood donor should be tested for transfusion transmissible infections to ensure the safety of the blood supply. HIV, Hepatitis B&C, and Syphilis are all infections that can be transmitted through blood transfusions. However, Typhoid is not a transfusion transmissible infection. Typhoid is a bacterial infection that is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water, not through blood. Therefore, testing for Typhoid is not necessary in the context of blood donation.

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  • 34. 

    Blood sample should be collected from a person coming for fasting blood sugar test after overnight fast of:

    • A.

      A. Minimum of 6 hours

    • B.

      B. Minimum of 10 hours

    • C.

      C. Minimum of 20 hours

    • D.

      D. Minimum of 8 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Minimum of 10 hours
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. Minimum of 10 hours. This is because fasting blood sugar tests measure the amount of glucose in the blood after a period of fasting. Fasting for a minimum of 10 hours ensures that the body has had enough time to metabolize any food or drink consumed, allowing for an accurate measurement of blood sugar levels. A shorter fasting period may result in higher blood sugar levels due to recent food intake.

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  • 35. 

    Which of these is correct in the pre- and post-analytical processes of cleaning the work bench in the laboratory?

    • A.

      A. 15% sodium hypo chloride prepared daily

    • B.

      B. 10% sodium hypo chloride prepared three days ago

    • C.

      C. 10% sodium hypo chloride prepared same day

    • D.

      D. 2% sodium hypo chloride prepared days ago

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 10% sodium hypo chloride prepared three days ago
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B because in the pre- and post-analytical processes of cleaning the workbench in the laboratory, it is important to use a disinfectant that is prepared recently and has not expired. Using a disinfectant that was prepared three days ago may still be effective in killing bacteria and viruses on the workbench surface. However, using a disinfectant that was prepared days ago or using a disinfectant that is prepared daily with a higher concentration (15%) may not be as effective or may be too strong for regular cleaning purposes.

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  • 36. 

    The following are true about universal precaution except:

    • A.

      A. Consider all specimens as highly infectious

    • B.

      B. No eating in the laboratory

    • C.

      C. Mouth pipetting in emergency situations

    • D.

      D. Wearing gloves in the laboratory

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Mouth pipetting in emergency situations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. Mouth pipetting in emergency situations. Universal precautions are a set of guidelines followed in healthcare settings to prevent the transmission of infections. These precautions include considering all specimens as highly infectious, not eating in the laboratory, and wearing gloves. However, mouth pipetting is not recommended as it poses a high risk of exposure to infectious materials.

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  • 37. 

    Which of these anticoagulants is best used for blood sample for fasting blood sugar test?

    • A.

      A. EDTA

    • B.

      B. Fluoride oxalate

    • C.

      C. Acid citrate dextrose

    • D.

      D. Citrate phosphate dextrose

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Fluoride oxalate
    Explanation
    Fluoride oxalate is the best anticoagulant to use for a fasting blood sugar test because it inhibits the enzymes that break down glucose in the blood, preventing any changes in the blood sugar levels during the storage and transportation of the sample. This ensures that the blood sugar levels accurately reflect the fasting state of the patient. EDTA, acid citrate dextrose, and citrate phosphate dextrose are not suitable for this test as they do not have the same inhibitory effect on glucose enzymes.

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  • 38. 

    In gram’s staining technique for bacteriological investigation, Lugol’s iodine serves as?

    • A.

      A. Primary stain

    • B.

      B. De colorizer

    • C.

      C. Mordant

    • D.

      D. Counter stain

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Mordant
    Explanation
    Lugol's iodine serves as a mordant in the gram's staining technique. A mordant is a substance that helps to fix or intensify the color of a stain. In gram staining, the mordant helps to bind the crystal violet stain to the bacterial cell wall, allowing for better visualization and differentiation of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

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  • 39. 

    The following are true about sterilization of media in medical microbiology laboratory except:

    • A.

      A. SSA is sterilized by autoclaving

    • B.

      B. All media are prepared with distilled water

    • C.

      C. Chloramphenicol is added to sabaraud dextrose agar for mycology work

    • D.

      D. None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A. SSA is sterilized by autoclaving
    Explanation
    Sterilization of media is a crucial step in the medical microbiology laboratory to ensure that the media is free from any living microorganisms. Autoclaving is a commonly used method for sterilization, but it is not suitable for all types of media. Some media, such as selective and differential media like Salmonella-Shigella Agar (SSA), contain heat-sensitive components that can be damaged by autoclaving. Therefore, SSA and similar media are typically sterilized by filtration rather than autoclaving.

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  • 40. 

    In malaria, the form of plasmodium that is transmitted from mosquito to human is the

    • A.

      A. Sporozoite

    • B.

      B. Gametocyte

    • C.

      C. Merozoite

    • D.

      D. Hypnozoite

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Sporozoite
    Explanation
    Malaria is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The mosquito injects sporozoites, which are the infective form of the Plasmodium parasite, into the bloodstream of the human. These sporozoites then travel to the liver, where they multiply and develop into merozoites. Merozoites are responsible for infecting and destroying red blood cells, causing the symptoms of malaria. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Sporozoite.

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  • 41. 

    All except one is true of Ascaris

    • A.

      A. Ascaris is transmitted by ingestion of the eggs

    • B.

      B. Ascaris is an obligate parasite

    • C.

      C. Ascaris is a nematode

    • D.

      D. Both cats and dogs are intermediate hosts of Ascaris

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Both cats and dogs are intermediate hosts of Ascaris
    Explanation
    Ascaris is a nematode parasite that infects humans and animals. It is transmitted by ingestion of the eggs, making statement A true. Ascaris is an obligate parasite, meaning it cannot complete its life cycle without a host, making statement B true. Statement C is also true as Ascaris is a type of nematode worm. However, statement D is false as cats and dogs are not intermediate hosts for Ascaris. Intermediate hosts are organisms that harbor the parasite during one or more stages of its life cycle but are not the final host.

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  • 42. 

    In urine PGT, the presence of chorionic gonadotropin(HCG) confirms positive pregnancy

    • A.

      A. True

    • B.

      B. False

    • C.

      C. Unusual in twin pregnancy

    • D.

      D. Not recommended in infertility

    Correct Answer
    A. A. True
    Explanation
    The presence of chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) in urine confirms a positive pregnancy. HCG is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy, and its presence in urine is a reliable indicator of pregnancy. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is a substitute for crystal violet used in gram-positive staining procedure

    • A.

      A. Safranin

    • B.

      B. Bromocresol blue

    • C.

      C. Methylene blue

    • D.

      D. Phenolphthalene

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Methylene blue
    Explanation
    Methylene blue is a substitute for crystal violet in the gram-positive staining procedure. Gram staining is a technique used to differentiate bacteria into two groups: gram-positive and gram-negative. Crystal violet is used as the primary stain in this procedure to stain the bacteria, but if it is not available, methylene blue can be used as an alternative. Methylene blue is a basic dye that can also stain bacteria, allowing for the differentiation of gram-positive bacteria based on their ability to retain the stain.

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  • 44. 

    From the following, one is not correct,

    • A.

      A. EDTA for FBC

    • B.

      B. Sodium citrate for ESR

    • C.

      C. EDTA for hereditary spherocytosis

    • D.

      D. Heparin for PCV

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Heparin for PCV
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. Heparin for PCV. Heparin is not used for the measurement of packed cell volume (PCV). PCV is typically measured using anticoagulants like EDTA or sodium citrate. Heparin is commonly used as an anticoagulant for other laboratory tests, but not for PCV.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is useful to stimulate antibody production?

    • A.

      A. An adjuvant

    • B.

      B. A hapten

    • C.

      C. Antiserum

    • D.

      D. Purified antigen

    Correct Answer
    A. A. An adjuvant
    Explanation
    An adjuvant is a substance that is added to a vaccine to enhance the immune response and stimulate antibody production. It helps to increase the effectiveness of the vaccine by promoting a stronger immune response to the antigen. Adjuvants can activate immune cells, increase antigen presentation, and promote the production of antibodies. Therefore, an adjuvant is useful in stimulating antibody production.

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  • 46. 

    VDRL test is an example is an example of one of the following options

    • A.

      A. Tube test

    • B.

      B. Ring test

    • C.

      C. Slide test

    • D.

      D. None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Slide test
    Explanation
    The VDRL test is a type of serological test used to detect the presence of antibodies in the blood that are associated with syphilis. In this test, a small amount of the patient's blood is mixed with an antigen and then placed on a glass slide. The slide is then observed under a microscope for the presence of clumping, which indicates a positive result. This method of testing on a slide is known as a slide test. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Slide test.

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  • 47. 

    Agglutination reaction is more sensitive than precipitation for the detection of one of the following options:

    • A.

      A. Antigens

    • B.

      B. Antibodies

    • C.

      C. Complement

    • D.

      D. Antigen-Antibody complexes

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Antigens
    Explanation
    Agglutination reaction is more sensitive than precipitation for the detection of antigens because in agglutination, the visible clumping of particles occurs when antigens and antibodies react, making it easier to detect the presence of antigens. In precipitation, the reaction occurs in a soluble phase, resulting in the formation of a precipitate that may not be easily visible, making it less sensitive for antigen detection.

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  • 48. 

    All of these:  hand gloves, eye goggles, hand sanitizers, Laboratory coat, face mask are referred to as:

    • A.

      A. Personal Protective Agents

    • B.

      B. Personal Protective Barriers

    • C.

      C. Personal protective Devices

    • D.

      D. Personal Protective Equipment

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Personal Protective Equipment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. Personal Protective Equipment. This term is used to refer to all the items listed in the question (hand gloves, eye goggles, hand sanitizers, laboratory coat, face mask) that are used to protect individuals from potential hazards or risks in their environment. Personal Protective Equipment is essential in various industries and settings to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals.

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  • 49. 

    The Ebola virus disease can be transmitted through contamination from which of the following?

    • A.

      A. Urine

    • B.

      B. Blood

    • C.

      C. Sweat

    • D.

      D. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The Ebola virus disease can be transmitted through all of the mentioned sources, including urine, blood, and sweat. These bodily fluids can contain the virus and can lead to transmission if they come into contact with broken skin, mucous membranes, or are ingested. It is important to take precautions and practice proper hygiene to prevent the spread of the disease.

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  • 50. 

    In gram’s stain, the steps involved are

    • A.

      A. 5

    • B.

      B. 10

    • C.

      C. 13

    • D.

      D. 8

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 13
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. 13. In the Gram's stain procedure, there are a total of 13 steps involved. These steps include preparing a heat-fixed smear, flooding the slide with crystal violet, rinsing with water, flooding with iodine, rinsing again, decolorizing with alcohol, rinsing once more, counterstaining with safranin, rinsing again, blotting dry, observing under a microscope, and finally, interpreting the results.

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  • Current Version
  • May 21, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 30, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    KRQuiz
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