Law Corner 2nd National Online Quiz Competition

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| By Mainuddin Mondal
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Mainuddin Mondal
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 253
| Attempts: 253
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  • 1/40 Questions

    Which of the following Union Territories has a legislature –

    • Andaman and Nicobar Island
    • Dadra and Nagar Haveli
    • Pondicherry
    • Chandigarh
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Law Corner 2nd National Online Quiz Competition - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The concept of Directive Principle of State Policy borrowed from –

    • Germany

    • France

    • Ireland

    • USA

    Correct Answer
    A. Ireland
    Explanation
    The concept of Directive Principle of State Policy was borrowed from Ireland. Directive Principles of State Policy are a set of guidelines or principles given to the government to be followed while making laws and policies. These principles aim to establish social and economic justice, promote the welfare of the people, and secure a just and humane society. Ireland's Constitution, adopted in 1937, included Directive Principles, which were later incorporated into the Indian Constitution.

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  • 3. 

    Article 15(1) prohibits the state to discriminate against citizens on the ground of –

    • Religion

    • Race

    • Caste and Place of birth

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Article 15(1) of the Constitution prohibits the state from discriminating against citizens on the grounds of religion, race, caste, and place of birth. This means that the state cannot treat individuals differently or deny them their rights based on these factors. The inclusion of "All of the above" as the correct answer indicates that all of these grounds are covered by Article 15(1) and any discrimination based on them is prohibited.

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  • 4. 

    Right to freedom of religion can not be restricted on the ground of –

    • Public order

    • Security of state

    • Health

    • Morality

    Correct Answer
    A. Security of state
    Explanation
    The right to freedom of religion can be restricted on the grounds of public order, health, and morality. However, it cannot be restricted on the ground of security of state. This means that individuals have the freedom to practice their religion without interference from the government or state authorities, as long as it does not pose a threat to the security of the state.

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  • 5. 

    Fundamental duties under Article 51(A) is confine to –

    • Prime minister and his council of ministers

    • Public servants

    • All those who run public sector enterprises

    • Citizens of India

    Correct Answer
    A. Citizens of India
    Explanation
    The correct answer is citizens of India because fundamental duties are a set of moral obligations that every citizen of India is expected to follow. These duties are mentioned under Article 51(A) of the Indian Constitution and include respecting the national flag, promoting harmony, safeguarding public property, and upholding the ideals of the Constitution. Therefore, it is the responsibility of every citizen to fulfill these duties and contribute to the betterment of the nation.

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  • 6. 

    Treaty making power is confined upon –

    • President of India

    • Prime Minister

    • Parliament of India

    • President of India but subject to ratification by Parliament

    Correct Answer
    A. President of India but subject to ratification by Parliament
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "President of India but subject to ratification by Parliament." This means that the President of India has the authority to make treaties, but these treaties must be ratified by the Parliament before they can become legally binding. This ensures that the President does not have absolute power in making international agreements and that there is a system of checks and balances in place.

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  • 7. 

    The Indian Parliament consists of –

    • Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President

    • Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

    • House of People and Council of States

    • Lok Sabha

    Correct Answer
    A. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
    Explanation
    The Indian Parliament consists of three main components: Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President. Lok Sabha is the lower house of Parliament, representing the people of India. Rajya Sabha is the upper house, representing the states and union territories. The President is the head of state and is also a part of the Parliament. Together, these three entities form the Indian Parliament, which is responsible for making laws and governing the country.

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  • 8. 

    Seats allocated to the various states in Lok Sabha on the basis of –

    • Their population

    • Their size and resources

    • Their size, resources and population

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Their population
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Their population". Seats in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament, are allocated to the various states based on their population. This is done to ensure proportional representation and to give states with larger populations a greater say in the legislative process.

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  • 9. 

    Who has the power to abolish or create the legislative council for states –

    • The State Assembly

    • The President

    • Governor of State

    • The Parliament

    Correct Answer
    A. The Parliament
    Explanation
    The Parliament has the power to abolish or create the legislative council for states. This is because the Parliament is the supreme legislative body in India and has the authority to make laws and regulate the functioning of the government at both the national and state levels. The legislative council is a part of the state legislature and its creation or abolition falls under the jurisdiction of the Parliament.

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  • 10. 

    Which Article provides for the appointment of an acting Chief Justice of India –

    • Article 125

    • Article 126

    • Article 127

    • Article 130

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 126
  • 11. 

    Which of the following has the power to establish a common High Court for two or more States and Union Territories -

    • Supreme Court

    • Parliament

    • Rajya Sabha

    • President

    Correct Answer
    A. Parliament
    Explanation
    Parliament has the power to establish a common High Court for two or more States and Union Territories. This power is derived from the Constitution of India, specifically from Article 231. The establishment of a common High Court helps in ensuring uniformity and consistency in the administration of justice across different states and union territories. It also promotes efficiency and reduces the burden on the judiciary by consolidating resources and infrastructure. Therefore, Parliament is the correct authority to establish a common High Court.

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  • 12. 

    The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between –

    • The government of India and a State or States

    • The government of India and one State on one side and one or more States on the other side

    • Two states

    • A citizen and a state

    Correct Answer
    A. A citizen and a state
    Explanation
    The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between a citizen and a state. This means that if there is a legal dispute between an individual citizen and a state government, the case cannot be directly filed in the Supreme Court. Instead, it must first go through the lower courts and appellate process before it can be heard by the Supreme Court. This limitation ensures that the Supreme Court primarily focuses on cases that involve significant constitutional issues and matters of national importance, rather than individual disputes between citizens and states.

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  • 13. 

    When the offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker are vacant, who will appoint the person to functions of the Speaker?

    • The President

    • The Prime Minister of India

    • The Chief Justice of India

    • Council of Ministers

    Correct Answer
    A. The President
    Explanation
    When both the offices of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker are vacant, the person to function as the Speaker is appointed by the President. As per the Constitution of India, the Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Parliament) and is responsible for maintaining order and conducting the proceedings of the house. In the absence of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker, the President has the authority to appoint a suitable person to carry out the functions of the Speaker until a new Speaker is elected.

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  • 14. 

    Who has the power to dissolve the House of People?

    • The Speaker of Lok Sabha

    • The President

    • The Prime Minister of India

    • Council of Ministers

    Correct Answer
    A. The President
    Explanation
    The President has the power to dissolve the House of People. As the head of state, the President holds the authority to dissolve the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. This power is typically exercised in situations such as when the government loses majority support or when a political crisis arises. Dissolving the House of People leads to the initiation of new elections and the formation of a new government.

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  • 15. 

    The power of the President of India to issue ordinance is a –

    • Executive power

    • Legislative power

    • Quasi-judicial power

    • Constituent power

    Correct Answer
    A. Legislative power
    Explanation
    The power of the President of India to issue ordinances falls under legislative power. The President has the authority to issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session and there is a need for immediate legislation. This power allows the President to make laws on urgent matters without the approval of Parliament. However, these ordinances must be approved by Parliament within a specified time period to become permanent laws. Therefore, the power to issue ordinances is considered a legislative power of the President.

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  • 16. 

    ‘Equality of opportunity in matter of public employment’ is mentioned in which of the following Article?

    • Article 14

    • Article 15

    • Article 16

    • None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 16
    Explanation
    Article 16 of the Indian Constitution mentions the principle of equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. This article ensures that all citizens have equal chances of getting employed in government jobs, regardless of their religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. It prohibits discrimination in public employment and promotes merit-based selection. Therefore, Article 16 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the issue of equality of opportunity in public employment.

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  • 17. 

    Fundamental duties were inserted in the Constitution by –

    • 42nd Amendment

    • 44th Amendment

    • 47th Amendment

    • 49th Amendment

    Correct Answer
    A. 42nd Amendment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 42nd Amendment. This amendment was passed in 1976 and it added a new part, Part IV-A, to the Constitution which contains the fundamental duties of citizens. These duties are intended to promote the ideals of patriotism, respect for national symbols, and the protection of the environment, among others. The 42nd Amendment was a significant milestone in the development of the Indian Constitution as it emphasized the importance of civic responsibilities and aimed to create a more responsible and conscientious citizenry.

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  • 18. 

    “Excessive reservation would be a fraud on the Constitution of India” was observed by the the Supreme Court of India in –

    • Balaji v. State of Mysore

    • Indira Swahney v. Union of India

    • Devadasan v. Union of India

    • Ajit Singh v. State of Punjab

    Correct Answer
    A. Balaji v. State of Mysore
    Explanation
    In the case of Balaji v. State of Mysore, the Supreme Court of India observed that excessive reservation would be a fraud on the Constitution of India. This means that while the Constitution allows for reservations to promote social justice and uplift marginalized communities, if the reservation policies are implemented in an excessive or unfair manner, it would go against the principles and intentions of the Constitution. The court emphasized the need for a balanced approach in implementing reservation policies to ensure that they do not undermine the overall constitutional framework.

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  • 19. 

    The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ in Article 20(2) means –

    • No one can be tried and punished for more than once for the same offence

    • One can be tried several times for the same offence

    • Punishment once awarded can not be enhanced in appeal or revision

    • One can be tried more than once but punished only once

    Correct Answer
    A. No one can be tried and punished for more than once for the same offence
    Explanation
    The doctrine of 'double jeopardy' in Article 20(2) means that no one can be tried and punished for more than once for the same offence. This principle is based on the idea that it is unfair and against the principles of justice to subject an individual to multiple trials and punishments for the same crime. It ensures that once a person has been acquitted or convicted and punished for an offence, they cannot be subjected to further legal proceedings or penalties for the same offence. This principle is an important safeguard to protect individuals from being harassed or unfairly targeted by the legal system.

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  • 20. 

    The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another High Court may be made by the-

    • President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of that High Court

    • Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

    • Governor of the concerned State with consultation with the Chief Justice of High Court

    • President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of India

    Correct Answer
    A. President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of India
    Explanation
    The correct answer is President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of India. This is because the transfer of Judges from one High Court to another High Court is a decision that falls under the jurisdiction of the President of India. However, the President is required to consult with the Chief Justice of India before making such a decision. This ensures that the transfer is made after considering the expertise and suitability of the Judge for the new High Court.

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  • 21. 

    Rajya Sabha has a term of –

    • Six years

    • It is a permanent body in which 1/3rd of the members retire after every 2nd year

    • Five years from the date taken by the members

    • Ten years

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a permanent body in which 1/3rd of the members retire after every 2nd year
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "It is a permanent body in which 1/3rd of the members retire after every 2nd year". This is because Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and its members have a term of six years. However, to ensure continuity and prevent the entire house from being reconstituted at once, 1/3rd of the members retire after every 2nd year. This allows for a gradual turnover of members while maintaining the stability and experience of the house.

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  • 22. 

    The members of council of ministers are appointed by –

    • Appointed by the Prime Minister

    • Appointed by the President on the recommendation of Parliament

    • Appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister

    • Appointed by the President on at his discretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister." In a parliamentary system of government, the President appoints the members of the council of ministers, but it is done on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is the head of the government and holds the real executive power. The President acts on the advice of the Prime Minister as the council of ministers is responsible for the day-to-day administration of the country.

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  • 23. 

    Which is correct statement –

    • The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected by elected members of Rajya Sabha

    • The Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the joint session of both Houses of Parliament

    • The Electoral College for election of the Vice-President is the same as for the election of the President

    • The nominated members of both Houses have voting right in the election of the Vice-President but not President

    Correct Answer
    A. The nominated members of both Houses have voting right in the election of the Vice-President but not President
    Explanation
    The correct statement is that the nominated members of both Houses have voting rights in the election of the Vice-President but not the President. This means that while the nominated members can participate in the election process for the Vice-President, they do not have the same privilege when it comes to the election of the President.

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  • 24. 

    Judicial review in Indian Constitution is based on –

    • Procedure establish by law

    • Due process of law

    • Rule of law

    • Precedents and conventions

    Correct Answer
    A. Procedure establish by law
    Explanation
    Judicial review in the Indian Constitution is based on the principle of "Procedure established by law." This means that any law or procedure established by the legislature must be followed while taking any action. The judiciary can review the actions of the executive and legislative branches to ensure that they are in accordance with the established procedure. This principle ensures that the government functions within the bounds of the law and prevents arbitrary exercise of power. It also provides citizens with a safeguard against any violation of their rights by the government.

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  • 25. 

    The proclamation of emergency is valid up to –

    • 6 months

    • 1 year

    • Depends upon the situation

    • It has to be only for six months and if needed further, a second resolution has to be passed

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6 months. The proclamation of emergency is initially valid for a period of six months. However, if the situation requires an extension of the emergency, a second resolution must be passed. This means that the emergency can be extended beyond six months, but it cannot exceed the maximum limit of one year. Therefore, the proclamation of emergency is valid for a maximum of six months, but can be extended if necessary.

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  • 26. 

    Residuary powers are vested in the –

    • Executive

    • Judiciary

    • Parliament

    • State Legislature

    Correct Answer
    A. Parliament
    Explanation
    Residuary powers refer to the powers that are not specifically mentioned in the Constitution and are not assigned to any level of government. These powers are given to the Parliament, which is the supreme legislative body in India. Parliament has the authority to make laws on matters that are not within the jurisdiction of the State Legislature or the Executive. Therefore, Parliament is vested with the residuary powers in India.

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  • 27. 

    Under the Indian Constitution the ‘doctrine of eclipse’ applies  –

    • Only to pre-constitutional laws

    • To the post-constitutional laws in respect to citizens only

    • The the post-constitutional law in respect of States

    • To all law pre-constitutional and post-constitutional laws

    Correct Answer
    A. To all law pre-constitutional and post-constitutional laws
    Explanation
    The doctrine of eclipse applies to both pre-constitutional and post-constitutional laws. According to this doctrine, if a pre-constitutional law is inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution, it becomes void to the extent of the inconsistency. However, if the inconsistency is removed by a constitutional amendment, the law revives and becomes effective again. Similarly, if a post-constitutional law is inconsistent with the Constitution, it is not void ab initio but is only in a state of eclipse. It can still be enforced until it is declared unconstitutional by a court. Therefore, the doctrine of eclipse applies to all pre-constitutional and post-constitutional laws.

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  • 28. 

    Article 246 of the Constitution –

    • Deals with the Election Commission

    • Deals Parliaments exclusive powers to make laws with respect to matters in the Union list

    • Deals with the Finance Commission

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Deals Parliaments exclusive powers to make laws with respect to matters in the Union list
    Explanation
    Article 246 of the Constitution deals with Parliament's exclusive powers to make laws with respect to matters in the Union list. The Union list includes subjects on which only the central government has the authority to legislate. This article establishes the legislative power of the Parliament and defines the scope of its authority in making laws on various subjects. It ensures that the central government has the exclusive power to make laws on matters that fall within the Union list, thereby maintaining a clear division of legislative powers between the central and state governments.

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  • 29. 

    Planning Commission is a –

    • Political body

    • Non-political body

    • Statutory body

    • Quasi-political body

    Correct Answer
    A. Quasi-political body
    Explanation
    The term "quasi-political body" refers to an organization or institution that has both political and non-political characteristics. In the case of the Planning Commission, it is a body that is involved in making policy decisions and implementing plans related to economic and social development in a country. While it is not directly involved in the political decision-making process, its function and influence are closely tied to political considerations. Therefore, it can be considered a quasi-political body.

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  • 30. 

    A Constitutional Amendment passed by both Houses of Parliament –

    • Does not need the assent of the President

    • Does need the assent of President

    • Does not need the assent of the President if passed by ratification of States

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Does need the assent of President
    Explanation
    A Constitutional Amendment passed by both Houses of Parliament does need the assent of the President. The President plays a crucial role in the amendment process as they have the power to either give assent or withhold assent to a constitutional amendment. This ensures that the President acts as a check and balance on the power of the Parliament and ensures that any amendments made to the Constitution are in line with the principles and values of the country.

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  • 31. 

    Reservation for women in Panchayat and Nagarpalika is –

    • 30 per cent

    • 50 per cent

    • 40 per cent

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The question is asking about the reservation for women in Panchayat and Nagarpalika, and the given options are 30%, 50%, 40%, and None of the above. However, without more information, it is not possible to determine the exact percentage of reservation for women in Panchayat and Nagarpalika. Therefore, the correct answer is None of the above.

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  • 32. 

    National Capital Territory of Delhi has been constituted by –

    • 71st Amendment

    • 69th Amendment

    • Ordinance promulgated by the President

    • Ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor

    Correct Answer
    A. 69th Amendment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 69th Amendment. This amendment was passed in 1991 and it provided special status to the National Capital Territory of Delhi. It granted the territory its own legislative assembly and council of ministers, giving it more autonomy and self-governance. This amendment also established the Lieutenant Governor as the administrator of Delhi, who acts as the representative of the President.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is an incorrect statement –

    • Fundamental rights are in Part III of the Constitution

    • Directive Principle of State Policy are in Part IV of the Constitution

    • Fundamental Duties are in Part IV of the Constitution

    • Union Territories are in Part VIII of the Constitution

    Correct Answer
    A. Fundamental Duties are in Part IV of the Constitution
  • 34. 

    Article 370 of the Constitution confers special status to which of the following state –

    • Karnataka

    • Gujarat

    • Andhra Pradesh

    • Jammu and Kashmir

    Correct Answer
    A. Jammu and Kashmir
    Explanation
    Article 370 of the Constitution grants special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir. This article provides the state with its own constitution, separate flag, and the power to make its own laws. It also restricts the central government's authority over the state to only three areas: defense, foreign affairs, and communications. This special status was granted to Jammu and Kashmir to accommodate the region's unique circumstances and historical background.

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  • 35. 

    The legal advisor to the Constituent Assembly was –

    • Jawaharlal Nehru

    • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

    • Sachchidanand Sinha

    • B.N. Rau

    Correct Answer
    A. B.N. Rau
    Explanation
    B.N. Rau was the legal advisor to the Constituent Assembly. He played a crucial role in providing legal expertise and guidance during the drafting of the Indian Constitution. Rau's extensive knowledge and experience in constitutional law made him an invaluable asset to the Constituent Assembly. His contributions helped shape the final version of the Constitution and ensure its legality and effectiveness.

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  • 36. 

    Article 24 of the Constitution prohibits employment of children in any factory or mine or in hazardous employment below the age of –

    • 15 years

    • 16 years

    • 14 years

    • 21 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 14 years
    Explanation
    Article 24 of the Constitution states that children below the age of 14 years are prohibited from being employed in any factory or mine or in hazardous employment. This means that it is illegal to hire children who are below 14 years old for such work.

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  • 37. 

    In which year the Council of States first constituted –

    • 1951

    • 1952

    • 1956

    • 1947

    Correct Answer
    A. 1952
    Explanation
    The Council of States was first constituted in 1952. This means that it was established or formed in that year.

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  • 38. 

    The term ‘State’ as mentioned in Article 12 also includes –

    • LIC

    • Indian Law Institute

    • Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies

    • Affiliated but privately owned and managed colleges

    Correct Answer
    A. LIC
    Explanation
    The term 'State' as mentioned in Article 12 includes LIC because LIC is a government-owned corporation and falls under the definition of 'State' as per Article 12. Therefore, it is subject to the same constitutional limitations and obligations as the government.

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  • 39. 

    Any charge for the impeachment of the President may be preferred –

    • Only in the House of People

    • Only in Council of States

    • Only in joint session of Parliament

    • By either house of Parliament

    Correct Answer
    A. By either house of Parliament
    Explanation
    Any charge for the impeachment of the President can be brought forward by either house of Parliament. This means that both the House of People and the Council of States have the authority to initiate impeachment proceedings against the President. Additionally, the impeachment can also be initiated in a joint session of Parliament, where both houses come together. Therefore, any of these bodies can prefer charges for the impeachment of the President.

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  • 40. 

    The fundamental rights as envisaged under Articles 12-35 are –

    • Absolutely flexible

    • Can be amended

    • Not justiciable

    • Cannot be amended at all

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be amended
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Can be amended." This means that the fundamental rights as stated in Articles 12-35 can be changed or modified. This is important because it allows for the flexibility to adapt these rights to the changing needs of society. However, any amendments to these rights must still adhere to the principles of justice and equality.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 12, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Mainuddin Mondal

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