The Law Learners 5th National Law Quiz
Gear up everyone as the PRELIMS Rounds are all set to begin. This is the 1st Preliminary Round and the Second Preliminary round shall take place tomorrow. Here is everything you need to know about the QUIZ. This Round consists of 30 Questions. There shall be questions from Constitutional Law, Criminal Law and Legal Awareness. All shall have equal weightage i. E. Of 10 marks each. All questions carry 1 mark each. There is no negative marking. The Quiz is time bound and has to be completed within. . . . . . Minutes. If you do not complete the Read morequiz within the required time frame, you shall be disqualified. Thus we request you to submit the quiz with as many questions you have done in the required time frame. TOP 120 PARTICIPANTS from this Round make it into Prelims - 2 which shall take place on 30th November ' 2018. All the very best to everyone. May you pass with flying colours.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Election Commission of India is provided under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
- A.
124
- B.
224
- C.
324
- D.
328
Correct Answer
C. 324Explanation
Article 324 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Election Commission of India. This article empowers the Election Commission to superintend, direct, and control the conduct of elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. It ensures the fair and smooth functioning of the electoral process in the country by overseeing the registration of political parties, delimitation of constituencies, and the implementation of the Model Code of Conduct, among other responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Annual Financial Statement of India is provided under which Article of the Constitution of India?
- A.
112
- B.
110
- C.
114
- D.
116
Correct Answer
A. 112Explanation
The correct answer is 112. This article of the Constitution of India provides for the Annual Financial Statement of India. It states that the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year. This statement is commonly known as the Union Budget and is presented by the Finance Minister.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Can the Vice President of India, vote in Presidential Elections?
- A.
Yes, he is a member of the House.
- B.
Yes, he is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- C.
No, he is a Constitutional body.
- D.
No, he is not a member of the House.
Correct Answer
D. No, he is not a member of the House.Explanation
The Vice President of India cannot vote in Presidential Elections because he is not a member of the House. The Vice President serves as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, which is the upper house of the Parliament of India. Although the Vice President holds a constitutional position, he does not have voting rights in the Presidential Elections.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In case of equality of votes in a Legislative Assembly of a state, who exercises his voting rights?
- A.
Governor
- B.
Speaker
- C.
Deputy Governor
- D.
Chief Minister
Correct Answer
B. SpeakerExplanation
In case of equality of votes in a Legislative Assembly of a state, the Speaker exercises his voting rights. The Speaker is the presiding officer of the assembly and is responsible for maintaining order and conducting the proceedings. In such a situation, the Speaker casts the deciding vote to break the tie and make a final decision. This ensures that there is a clear outcome and prevents any deadlock in the decision-making process.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was first amended in 1976 by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. When was the 2nd amendment to the Preamble made?
- A.
44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978
- B.
102nd Constitutional Amendment, 2018
- C.
Never
- D.
71st Constitutional Amendment, 1992
Correct Answer
C. NeverExplanation
The second amendment to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution was never made. This means that there has been no official change or alteration to the language or content of the Preamble since its first amendment in 1976.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who is the leader of the Lower House of Parliament of India i.e. the Lok Sabha?
- A.
President
- B.
Prime Minister
- C.
Speaker
- D.
Leader of Opposition
Correct Answer
B. Prime MinisterExplanation
The leader of the Lower House of Parliament of India, known as the Lok Sabha, is the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is the head of government and holds the highest executive office in the country. They are responsible for leading the government, making policy decisions, and representing the country both domestically and internationally. As the leader of the Lok Sabha, the Prime Minister plays a crucial role in shaping and implementing legislation and policies that affect the nation.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which ruling witnessed the largest Constitutional bench of the Apex Court?
- A.
Kesavananda Bharati v. Union of India
- B.
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Tamil Nadu
- C.
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
- D.
I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Correct Answer
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of KeralaExplanation
The largest Constitutional bench of the Apex Court was witnessed in the case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.Rate this question:
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- 8.
By way of which Amendment was Article 21A inserted in the Constitution of India?
- A.
44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978
- B.
73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992
- C.
61st Constitutional Amendment, 1989
- D.
86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002
Correct Answer
D. 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002Explanation
The correct answer is the 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002. This amendment inserted Article 21A in the Constitution of India, which provides for free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14. It aimed to ensure that every child has the right to education and to bridge the gap in access to education across the country.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The States with the highest and lowest Constituencies, respectively are?
- A.
Uttar Pradesh and Goa
- B.
Rajasthan and Sikkim
- C.
Uttar Pradesh and Sikkim
- D.
Rajasthan and Goa
Correct Answer
C. Uttar Pradesh and SikkimExplanation
Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of constituencies among all states in India, while Sikkim has the lowest number. This can be attributed to the fact that Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in the country, with a large number of people requiring representation. On the other hand, Sikkim is the least populous state, hence requiring fewer constituencies.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which Article provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
- A.
248
- B.
124
- C.
158
- D.
148
Correct Answer
D. 148Explanation
Article 148 of the Indian Constitution provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The Comptroller and Auditor General is the supreme audit institution in the country and is responsible for auditing the accounts of the central and state governments, as well as other public authorities. This article establishes the office and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General, ensuring independence and impartiality in the auditing process.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Indian Evidence Act applies to tribunals as well. State the correct option.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- C.
Depends on case to case basis
- D.
Applies with the permission of the Court
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to tribunals. Tribunals have their own set of rules and procedures for gathering and presenting evidence, which may differ from those outlined in the Indian Evidence Act. Therefore, the correct option is False.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the minimum number of members required to constitute Criminal Conspiracy?
- A.
2
- B.
5
- C.
1
- D.
No such requirement.
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
Criminal conspiracy requires a minimum of two members. This is because conspiracy involves an agreement or plan between two or more individuals to commit a criminal act. It is necessary to have at least two individuals involved in order for there to be a conspiracy.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The rarest of rare doctrine originated in which of the following case?
- A.
Mukesh v. State for NCT OF Delhi
- B.
Mathura Rape Case
- C.
Aarushi Talwar Case
- D.
Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
Correct Answer
D. Bachan Singh v. State of PunjabExplanation
The rarest of rare doctrine originated in the case of Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab. This case involved the constitutionality of the death penalty in India. The Supreme Court held that the death penalty can only be imposed in the rarest of rare cases where the alternative option of life imprisonment is unquestionably foreclosed. This landmark case established the guidelines for determining the rarest of rare cases and laid the foundation for the application of the death penalty in India.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides for FIR without expressly naming it?
- A.
154
- B.
164
- C.
134
- D.
200
Correct Answer
A. 154Explanation
Section 154 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides for FIR without expressly naming it. This section states that when information is given to an officer in charge of a police station regarding the commission of a cognizable offense, the officer must record the information in writing. This written document is commonly known as the First Information Report (FIR), even though the term "FIR" is not explicitly mentioned in the section. Therefore, section 154 is the correct answer as it deals with the provision for FIR without expressly naming it.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Inherent power of a Sessions Court is provided under which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code?
- A.
482
- B.
151
- C.
404
- D.
None
Correct Answer
D. NoneExplanation
The inherent power of a Sessions Court is not provided under any specific provision of the Criminal Procedure Code. The inherent power of a court is derived from the general principles of law and is not dependent on any specific provision. Therefore, the correct answer is "None."Rate this question:
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- 16.
Unlawful assembly requires a minimum of how many members?
- A.
2
- B.
5
- C.
4
- D.
No such requirement
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
An unlawful assembly requires a minimum of 5 members. This means that for an assembly to be considered unlawful, there must be at least 5 people involved. If there are fewer than 5 people, it would not be classified as an unlawful assembly.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In case of a reverse onus clause, the burden of proof lies on?
- A.
Defense
- B.
Prosecution
- C.
Either of them.
- D.
Victim
Correct Answer
A. DefenseExplanation
In a reverse onus clause, the burden of proof is shifted from the prosecution to the defense. This means that it is the defense's responsibility to provide evidence and prove their innocence, rather than the prosecution having to prove guilt. The reverse onus clause is often used in specific situations where certain offenses or circumstances are considered to be inherently suspicious or dangerous. By placing the burden of proof on the defense, it aims to ensure that those involved in such cases are able to provide a reasonable explanation or defense for their actions.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the maximum punishment for Theft as provided by the Indian Penal Code 1860?
- A.
3 years or fine or both.
- B.
7 years or fine or both.
- C.
1 year or fine or both.
- D.
5 years or fine or both.
Correct Answer
A. 3 years or fine or both.Explanation
The maximum punishment for Theft as provided by the Indian Penal Code 1860 is 3 years or fine or both. This means that a person convicted of theft can be sentenced to imprisonment for a maximum of 3 years, or be fined, or both. The punishment may vary depending on the circumstances of the theft and the discretion of the court.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The Indian Evidence Act was drafted in 1872 by?
- A.
Macaulay
- B.
Cornwallis
- C.
Bebington
- D.
James Stephen
Correct Answer
D. James StephenExplanation
The Indian Evidence Act was drafted in 1872 by James Stephen. He was a British lawyer and politician who played a major role in the formulation of the Act. James Stephen was a member of the Indian Law Commission and was responsible for drafting various laws in India during the colonial era. His expertise and contribution to the legal system in India are widely recognized, making him the correct answer to this question.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which is the lowest Court to possess absolute power to order for death penalty?
- A.
Sessions and District Court
- B.
Supreme Court
- C.
High Court
- D.
Judicial Magistrate Second Class
Correct Answer
C. High CourtExplanation
The High Court is the lowest court that possesses absolute power to order for the death penalty. This is because the High Court is a superior court with the authority to hear appeals and exercise original jurisdiction over certain cases. It has the power to review and overturn decisions made by lower courts, including the imposition of the death penalty. The Sessions and District Court, Supreme Court, and Judicial Magistrate Second Class do not have the same level of authority as the High Court in this regard.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Who was the lone dissenting judge in the recent Sabarimala verdict of the Apex Court in 2018?
- A.
D.Y. Chandrachud J.
- B.
R.F. Nariman J.
- C.
Ranjan Gogoi J.
- D.
Indu Malhotra J.
Correct Answer
D. Indu Malhotra J.Explanation
Indu Malhotra J. was the lone dissenting judge in the recent Sabarimala verdict of the Apex Court in 2018.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Whom did Advocate Tushar Mehta succeed while being appointed as the Solicitor General of India in October 2018?
- A.
Mukul Rohatgi
- B.
K.K. Venugopal
- C.
K.T.S Tulsi
- D.
Ranjit Kumar
Correct Answer
D. Ranjit KumarExplanation
Advocate Tushar Mehta succeeded Ranjit Kumar while being appointed as the Solicitor General of India in October 2018.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which case partially struck down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code in 2018?
- A.
Suresh Kaushal v. Union of India
- B.
Naz Foundation v. Union of India
- C.
K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
- D.
Navtej Johar v. Union of India
Correct Answer
D. Navtej Johar v. Union of IndiaExplanation
Navtej Johar v. Union of India is the correct answer because this case partially struck down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code in 2018. This landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India decriminalized consensual same-sex relationships between adults, stating that homosexuality is a natural variation of human sexuality and that discrimination against LGBTQ+ individuals is unconstitutional. The court recognized the rights of LGBTQ+ individuals to live with dignity and enjoy equal protection under the law, marking a significant step towards LGBTQ+ rights in India.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The Supreme Court verdict of 2017 which held that Triple Talaq is unconstitutional was given by a 5 judges bench. What was the ratio of the judgement?
- A.
3:2
- B.
Unanimous
- C.
4:1
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. 3:2Explanation
The Supreme Court verdict on Triple Talaq being unconstitutional was given by a 5-judge bench. The ratio of the judgement was 3:2, indicating that 3 out of the 5 judges agreed with the decision while 2 judges dissented or had a different opinion. This suggests that the verdict was not unanimous, with a slight majority in favor of declaring Triple Talaq as unconstitutional.Rate this question:
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- 25.
In which landmark ruling did the Apex Court held that sexual intercourse with minor wife is rape with regard to Exception 2 of Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code.
- A.
Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
- B.
Mitthu Singh v. State of Punjab
- C.
Independent Thought v. Union of India
- D.
Centre for Civil Society v. Union of India
Correct Answer
C. Independent Thought v. Union of IndiaExplanation
In the case of Independent Thought v. Union of India, the Apex Court held that sexual intercourse with a minor wife is considered rape under Exception 2 of Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code. This landmark ruling recognized the importance of protecting the rights and well-being of minor girls, acknowledging that consent cannot be given by a child who is not capable of understanding the consequences of such an act. The judgment aimed to address the issue of child marriage and provide legal protection to underage girls from sexual exploitation within marriage.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which judge and of which High Court had to go through a lot of controversy as the Centre has returned his name for appointment to the Supreme Court?
- A.
Hemant Gupta - Madhya Pradesh HC
- B.
R. Subhash Reddy - Gujarat HC
- C.
Kurien Joseph - Rajasthan HC
- D.
KM Joseph J. - Uttarakhand HC
Correct Answer
D. KM Joseph J. - Uttarakhand HCExplanation
KM Joseph J. of Uttarakhand High Court had to go through a lot of controversy as the Centre returned his name for appointment to the Supreme Court. This suggests that there were objections or issues raised by the government regarding his appointment to the highest court in the country. The controversy surrounding his appointment could be due to various reasons such as political differences, concerns about his suitability for the position, or conflicts of interest.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is the present day strength of the Apex Court?
- A.
28
- B.
26
- C.
24
- D.
27
Correct Answer
A. 28Explanation
The present day strength of the Apex Court is 28.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following High Court does not share its jurisdiction with another state?
- A.
Hyderabad HC
- B.
Bombay HC
- C.
Punjab HC
- D.
Allahabad HC
Correct Answer
D. Allahabad HCExplanation
The Allahabad High Court does not share its jurisdiction with another state. This means that it has exclusive jurisdiction over the state of Uttar Pradesh and does not have to share its authority or decision-making power with any other state. In contrast, the other options mentioned (Hyderabad HC, Bombay HC, and Punjab HC) may have shared jurisdiction with other states, meaning they have to consider cases and legal matters from multiple states.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who was the lone dissenting judge in the recent judgement of the Apex Court validating Aadhaar card with some guidelines?
- A.
Jasti Chelameshwar J.
- B.
D.Y. Chandrachud J.
- C.
Ranjan Gogoi J.
- D.
Kurien Joseph J.
Correct Answer
B. D.Y. Chandrachud J.Explanation
D.Y. Chandrachud J. was the lone dissenting judge in the recent judgement of the Apex Court validating Aadhaar card with some guidelines.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Rajesh Sharma v. State of Uttar Pradesh was one of the judgement which remained in the limelight for a long time. Which provision did it deal with?
- A.
138, Negotiable Instruments Act
- B.
66A, Information Technology Act
- C.
498A, Indian Penal Code
- D.
21, Indian Evidence Act
Correct Answer
C. 498A, Indian Penal CodeExplanation
Rajesh Sharma v. State of Uttar Pradesh dealt with Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code. This section deals with cruelty towards a married woman by her husband or his relatives. The judgment in this case had significant implications as it addressed issues related to misuse of this section and the need for safeguards to protect innocent individuals from false accusations.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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