The Law Learners 5th National Law Quiz

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  • 1/30 Questions

    Election Commission of India is provided under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

    • 124
    • 224
    • 324
    • 328
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About This Quiz

Gear up everyone as the PRELIMS Rounds are all set to begin. This is the 1st Preliminary Round and the Second Preliminary round shall take place tomorrow. Here is everything you need to know about the QUIZ. This Round consists of 30 Questions. There shall be questions from Constitutional Law, Criminal Law and Legal Awareness. All shall have equal weightage See morei. E. Of 10 marks each. All questions carry 1 mark each. There is no negative marking. The Quiz is time bound and has to be completed within. . . . . . Minutes. If you do not complete the quiz within the required time frame, you shall be disqualified. Thus we request you to submit the quiz with as many questions you have done in the required time frame. TOP 120 PARTICIPANTS from this Round make it into Prelims - 2 which shall take place on 30th November ' 2018. All the very best to everyone. May you pass with flying colours.

The Law Learners 5th National Law Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Annual Financial Statement of India is provided under which Article of the Constitution of India?

    • 112

    • 110

    • 114

    • 116

    Correct Answer
    A. 112
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 112. This article of the Constitution of India provides for the Annual Financial Statement of India. It states that the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year. This statement is commonly known as the Union Budget and is presented by the Finance Minister.

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  • 3. 

    Can the Vice President of India, vote in Presidential Elections?

    • Yes, he is a member of the House.

    • Yes, he is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

    • No, he is a Constitutional body.

    • No, he is not a member of the House.

    Correct Answer
    A. No, he is not a member of the House.
    Explanation
    The Vice President of India cannot vote in Presidential Elections because he is not a member of the House. The Vice President serves as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, which is the upper house of the Parliament of India. Although the Vice President holds a constitutional position, he does not have voting rights in the Presidential Elections.

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  • 4. 

    In case of equality of votes in a Legislative Assembly of a state, who exercises his voting rights?

    • Governor

    • Speaker

    • Deputy Governor

    • Chief Minister

    Correct Answer
    A. Speaker
    Explanation
    In case of equality of votes in a Legislative Assembly of a state, the Speaker exercises his voting rights. The Speaker is the presiding officer of the assembly and is responsible for maintaining order and conducting the proceedings. In such a situation, the Speaker casts the deciding vote to break the tie and make a final decision. This ensures that there is a clear outcome and prevents any deadlock in the decision-making process.

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  • 5. 

    The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was first amended in 1976 by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. When was the 2nd amendment to the Preamble made?

    • 44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978

    • 102nd Constitutional Amendment, 2018

    • Never

    • 71st Constitutional Amendment, 1992

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    The second amendment to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution was never made. This means that there has been no official change or alteration to the language or content of the Preamble since its first amendment in 1976.

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  • 6. 

    Who is the leader of the Lower House of Parliament of India i.e. the Lok Sabha?

    • President

    • Prime Minister

    • Speaker

    • Leader of Opposition

    Correct Answer
    A. Prime Minister
    Explanation
    The leader of the Lower House of Parliament of India, known as the Lok Sabha, is the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is the head of government and holds the highest executive office in the country. They are responsible for leading the government, making policy decisions, and representing the country both domestically and internationally. As the leader of the Lok Sabha, the Prime Minister plays a crucial role in shaping and implementing legislation and policies that affect the nation.

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  • 7. 

    Which ruling witnessed the largest Constitutional bench of the Apex Court?

    • Kesavananda Bharati v. Union of India

    • Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Tamil Nadu

    • Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

    • I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

    Correct Answer
    A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    Explanation
    The largest Constitutional bench of the Apex Court was witnessed in the case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.

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  • 8. 

    By way of which Amendment was Article 21A inserted in the Constitution of India?

    • 44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978

    • 73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992

    • 61st Constitutional Amendment, 1989

    • 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002

    Correct Answer
    A. 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002. This amendment inserted Article 21A in the Constitution of India, which provides for free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14. It aimed to ensure that every child has the right to education and to bridge the gap in access to education across the country.

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  • 9. 

    The States with the highest and lowest Constituencies, respectively are?

    • Uttar Pradesh and Goa

    • Rajasthan and Sikkim

    • Uttar Pradesh and Sikkim

    • Rajasthan and Goa

    Correct Answer
    A. Uttar Pradesh and Sikkim
    Explanation
    Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of constituencies among all states in India, while Sikkim has the lowest number. This can be attributed to the fact that Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in the country, with a large number of people requiring representation. On the other hand, Sikkim is the least populous state, hence requiring fewer constituencies.

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  • 10. 

    Which Article provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

    • 248

    • 124

    • 158

    • 148

    Correct Answer
    A. 148
    Explanation
    Article 148 of the Indian Constitution provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The Comptroller and Auditor General is the supreme audit institution in the country and is responsible for auditing the accounts of the central and state governments, as well as other public authorities. This article establishes the office and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General, ensuring independence and impartiality in the auditing process.

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  • 11. 

    Indian Evidence Act applies to tribunals as well. State the correct option.

    • True

    • False

    • Depends on case to case basis

    • Applies with the permission of the Court

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to tribunals. Tribunals have their own set of rules and procedures for gathering and presenting evidence, which may differ from those outlined in the Indian Evidence Act. Therefore, the correct option is False.

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  • 12. 

    What is the minimum number of members required to constitute Criminal Conspiracy?

    • 2

    • 5

    • 1

    • No such requirement.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Criminal conspiracy requires a minimum of two members. This is because conspiracy involves an agreement or plan between two or more individuals to commit a criminal act. It is necessary to have at least two individuals involved in order for there to be a conspiracy.

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  • 13. 

    The rarest of rare doctrine originated in which of the following case?

    • Mukesh v. State for NCT OF Delhi

    • Mathura Rape Case

    • Aarushi Talwar Case

    • Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

    Correct Answer
    A. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
    Explanation
    The rarest of rare doctrine originated in the case of Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab. This case involved the constitutionality of the death penalty in India. The Supreme Court held that the death penalty can only be imposed in the rarest of rare cases where the alternative option of life imprisonment is unquestionably foreclosed. This landmark case established the guidelines for determining the rarest of rare cases and laid the foundation for the application of the death penalty in India.

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  • 14. 

    Which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides for FIR without expressly naming it?

    • 154

    • 164

    • 134

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 154
    Explanation
    Section 154 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides for FIR without expressly naming it. This section states that when information is given to an officer in charge of a police station regarding the commission of a cognizable offense, the officer must record the information in writing. This written document is commonly known as the First Information Report (FIR), even though the term "FIR" is not explicitly mentioned in the section. Therefore, section 154 is the correct answer as it deals with the provision for FIR without expressly naming it.

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  • 15. 

    Inherent power of a Sessions Court is provided under which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code?

    • 482

    • 151

    • 404

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. None
    Explanation
    The inherent power of a Sessions Court is not provided under any specific provision of the Criminal Procedure Code. The inherent power of a court is derived from the general principles of law and is not dependent on any specific provision. Therefore, the correct answer is "None."

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  • 16. 

    Unlawful assembly requires a minimum of how many members?

    • 2

    • 5

    • 4

    • No such requirement

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    An unlawful assembly requires a minimum of 5 members. This means that for an assembly to be considered unlawful, there must be at least 5 people involved. If there are fewer than 5 people, it would not be classified as an unlawful assembly.

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  • 17. 

    In case of a reverse onus clause, the burden of proof lies on?

    • Defense

    • Prosecution

    • Either of them.

    • Victim

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense
    Explanation
    In a reverse onus clause, the burden of proof is shifted from the prosecution to the defense. This means that it is the defense's responsibility to provide evidence and prove their innocence, rather than the prosecution having to prove guilt. The reverse onus clause is often used in specific situations where certain offenses or circumstances are considered to be inherently suspicious or dangerous. By placing the burden of proof on the defense, it aims to ensure that those involved in such cases are able to provide a reasonable explanation or defense for their actions.

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  • 18. 

    What is the maximum punishment for Theft as provided by the Indian Penal Code 1860?

    • 3 years or fine or both.

    • 7 years or fine or both.

    • 1 year or fine or both.

    • 5 years or fine or both.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 years or fine or both.
    Explanation
    The maximum punishment for Theft as provided by the Indian Penal Code 1860 is 3 years or fine or both. This means that a person convicted of theft can be sentenced to imprisonment for a maximum of 3 years, or be fined, or both. The punishment may vary depending on the circumstances of the theft and the discretion of the court.

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  • 19. 

    The Indian Evidence Act was drafted in 1872 by?

    • Macaulay

    • Cornwallis

    • Bebington

    • James Stephen

    Correct Answer
    A. James Stephen
    Explanation
    The Indian Evidence Act was drafted in 1872 by James Stephen. He was a British lawyer and politician who played a major role in the formulation of the Act. James Stephen was a member of the Indian Law Commission and was responsible for drafting various laws in India during the colonial era. His expertise and contribution to the legal system in India are widely recognized, making him the correct answer to this question.

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  • 20. 

    Which is the lowest Court to possess absolute power to order for death penalty?

    • Sessions and District Court

    • Supreme Court

    • High Court

    • Judicial Magistrate Second Class

    Correct Answer
    A. High Court
    Explanation
    The High Court is the lowest court that possesses absolute power to order for the death penalty. This is because the High Court is a superior court with the authority to hear appeals and exercise original jurisdiction over certain cases. It has the power to review and overturn decisions made by lower courts, including the imposition of the death penalty. The Sessions and District Court, Supreme Court, and Judicial Magistrate Second Class do not have the same level of authority as the High Court in this regard.

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  • 21. 

    Who was the lone dissenting judge in the recent Sabarimala verdict of the Apex Court in 2018?

    • D.Y. Chandrachud J.

    • R.F. Nariman J.

    • Ranjan Gogoi J.

    • Indu Malhotra J.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indu Malhotra J.
    Explanation
    Indu Malhotra J. was the lone dissenting judge in the recent Sabarimala verdict of the Apex Court in 2018.

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  • 22. 

    Whom did Advocate Tushar Mehta succeed while being appointed as the Solicitor General of India in October 2018?

    • Mukul Rohatgi

    • K.K. Venugopal

    • K.T.S Tulsi

    • Ranjit Kumar

    Correct Answer
    A. Ranjit Kumar
    Explanation
    Advocate Tushar Mehta succeeded Ranjit Kumar while being appointed as the Solicitor General of India in October 2018.

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  • 23. 

    Which case partially struck down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code in 2018?

    • Suresh Kaushal v. Union of India

    • Naz Foundation v. Union of India

    • K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India

    • Navtej Johar v. Union of India

    Correct Answer
    A. Navtej Johar v. Union of India
    Explanation
    Navtej Johar v. Union of India is the correct answer because this case partially struck down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code in 2018. This landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India decriminalized consensual same-sex relationships between adults, stating that homosexuality is a natural variation of human sexuality and that discrimination against LGBTQ+ individuals is unconstitutional. The court recognized the rights of LGBTQ+ individuals to live with dignity and enjoy equal protection under the law, marking a significant step towards LGBTQ+ rights in India.

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  • 24. 

    The Supreme Court verdict of 2017 which held that Triple Talaq is unconstitutional was given by a 5 judges bench. What was the ratio of the judgement?

    • 3:2

    • Unanimous

    • 4:1

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 3:2
    Explanation
    The Supreme Court verdict on Triple Talaq being unconstitutional was given by a 5-judge bench. The ratio of the judgement was 3:2, indicating that 3 out of the 5 judges agreed with the decision while 2 judges dissented or had a different opinion. This suggests that the verdict was not unanimous, with a slight majority in favor of declaring Triple Talaq as unconstitutional.

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  • 25. 

    In which landmark ruling did the Apex Court held that sexual intercourse with minor wife is rape with regard to Exception 2 of Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code.

    • Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan

    • Mitthu Singh v. State of Punjab

    • Independent Thought v. Union of India

    • Centre for Civil Society v. Union of India

    Correct Answer
    A. Independent Thought v. Union of India
    Explanation
    In the case of Independent Thought v. Union of India, the Apex Court held that sexual intercourse with a minor wife is considered rape under Exception 2 of Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code. This landmark ruling recognized the importance of protecting the rights and well-being of minor girls, acknowledging that consent cannot be given by a child who is not capable of understanding the consequences of such an act. The judgment aimed to address the issue of child marriage and provide legal protection to underage girls from sexual exploitation within marriage.

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  • 26. 

    Which judge and of which High Court had to go through a lot of controversy as the Centre has returned his name for appointment to the Supreme Court?

    • Hemant Gupta - Madhya Pradesh HC

    • R. Subhash Reddy - Gujarat HC

    • Kurien Joseph - Rajasthan HC

    • KM Joseph J. - Uttarakhand HC

    Correct Answer
    A. KM Joseph J. - Uttarakhand HC
    Explanation
    KM Joseph J. of Uttarakhand High Court had to go through a lot of controversy as the Centre returned his name for appointment to the Supreme Court. This suggests that there were objections or issues raised by the government regarding his appointment to the highest court in the country. The controversy surrounding his appointment could be due to various reasons such as political differences, concerns about his suitability for the position, or conflicts of interest.

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  • 27. 

    What is the present day strength of the Apex Court?

    • 28

    • 26

    • 24

    • 27

    Correct Answer
    A. 28
    Explanation
    The present day strength of the Apex Court is 28.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following High Court does not share its jurisdiction with another state?

    • Hyderabad HC

    • Bombay HC

    • Punjab HC

    • Allahabad HC

    Correct Answer
    A. Allahabad HC
    Explanation
    The Allahabad High Court does not share its jurisdiction with another state. This means that it has exclusive jurisdiction over the state of Uttar Pradesh and does not have to share its authority or decision-making power with any other state. In contrast, the other options mentioned (Hyderabad HC, Bombay HC, and Punjab HC) may have shared jurisdiction with other states, meaning they have to consider cases and legal matters from multiple states.

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  • 29. 

    Who was the lone dissenting judge in the recent judgement of the Apex Court validating Aadhaar card with some guidelines?

    • Jasti Chelameshwar J.

    • D.Y. Chandrachud J.

    • Ranjan Gogoi J.

    • Kurien Joseph J.

    Correct Answer
    A. D.Y. Chandrachud J.
    Explanation
    D.Y. Chandrachud J. was the lone dissenting judge in the recent judgement of the Apex Court validating Aadhaar card with some guidelines.

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  • 30. 

    Rajesh Sharma v. State of Uttar Pradesh was one of the judgement which remained in the limelight for a long time. Which provision did it deal with?

    • 138, Negotiable Instruments Act

    • 66A, Information Technology Act

    • 498A, Indian Penal Code

    • 21, Indian Evidence Act

    Correct Answer
    A. 498A, Indian Penal Code
    Explanation
    Rajesh Sharma v. State of Uttar Pradesh dealt with Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code. This section deals with cruelty towards a married woman by her husband or his relatives. The judgment in this case had significant implications as it addressed issues related to misuse of this section and the need for safeguards to protect innocent individuals from false accusations.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
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  • Nov 28, 2018
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