Tll 6th National Law Quiz Prelims

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By The LAW
T
The LAW
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 898
| Attempts: 721 | Questions: 100
Please wait...
Question 1 / 100
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?

Explanation

The Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States. As per the Indian Constitution, the Vice President holds the position of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The Vice President has the authority to preside over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha, maintain order, and interpret the rules of procedure. This role ensures that the Vice President, in addition to being the second-highest constitutional authority in the country, also plays a crucial role in the functioning of the upper house of the Indian Parliament.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Tll 6th National Law Quiz Prelims - Quiz

MAXIMUM MARKS PER PARTICIPANT - 50
MARKS PER QUESTION - 1
TIME LIMIT - 10 MINUTES TOTAL

2. Decide the applicability of the Consumer Protection Act 1986

Explanation

The Consumer Protection Act 1986 is applicable to the whole of India, except for the state of Jammu and Kashmir. This means that the Act covers all states and union territories of India, except for Jammu and Kashmir. The Act aims to protect the rights of consumers and provide them with a mechanism to seek redressal for any grievances they may have against unfair trade practices or defective products.

Submit
3. The Indian Contract Act came into force on ?

Explanation

The Indian Contract Act came into force on September 1, 1872. This date marks the official implementation of the Act, which governs contracts and agreements in India. It was enacted to provide a legal framework for the formation and enforcement of contracts, ensuring fairness and protection for parties involved in business transactions.

Submit
4. Which is the Aadhar ruling where Justice D.Y. Chandrachud dissented and was decided by a majority of 4:1

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
5. Which of the following provision of the Indian Penal Code 1860 deals with Dowry Death?

Explanation

Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code 1860 deals with Dowry Death. This section states that if a woman dies within seven years of her marriage and it is shown that her death was a result of cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives for dowry, then it is considered a dowry death. The section provides for punishment of imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life.

Submit
6. Which of the following Judge dissented in the recent Sabarimala judgement?

Explanation

Justice Indu Malhotra dissented in the recent Sabarimala judgement.

Submit
7. Usually, What is the age of majority in Muslim Law?

Explanation

In Muslim Law, the age of majority is considered to be at puberty. This means that a person is considered an adult and is legally responsible for their actions once they reach the age of puberty. This is different from other legal systems where the age of majority is usually set at a specific age, such as 18 or 21. In Muslim Law, the age of majority is determined by physical and biological changes rather than a specific numerical age.

Submit
8. The Constitution of India provides for a lot of Institutions and Bodies, to facilitate the working and development of the nation. Which of these is a non constitutional body?

Explanation

The Planning Commission is a non-constitutional body in India. Unlike the Election Commission and the Union Public Service Commission, which are constitutional bodies mentioned in the Constitution of India, the Planning Commission was not mentioned in the Constitution. It was an extra-constitutional body that was responsible for formulating India's Five-Year Plans and coordinating development initiatives. However, in 2014, the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog, making it no longer existent.

Submit
9.
The Contract Act, 1872 consists of ___ Sections?

Explanation

The correct answer is 238. The Contract Act, 1872 consists of 238 sections.

Submit
10.  Piracy is an offense within the jurisdiction of the 

Explanation

The correct answer is "All States." Piracy is considered an offense within the jurisdiction of all states because it is a violation of international law. Piracy occurs on the high seas, which are considered to be outside the jurisdiction of any particular state. Therefore, any state has the authority to take action against pirates and prosecute them under their own laws. Additionally, there are international agreements and conventions that require states to cooperate in combating piracy, further establishing the jurisdiction of all states in dealing with this offense.

Submit
11. The 44th Constitutional Amendment marked the cessation of a Fundamental Right from Part III of the Constitution. Which of these Articles is the right incorporated under as a mere Constitutional Right?

Explanation

In the 44th Constitutional Amendment, Article 300A was incorporated as a mere Constitutional Right. This means that it is not considered a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution. The amendment marked the cessation of a Fundamental Right, but Article 300A was included to provide protection to individuals in matters of property rights. Therefore, the correct answer is 300A.

Submit
12. Schedule VII presents 3 Lists which are essential for the division of powers amongst the Centre and the State. Which of the following holds the residuary powers in the Indian federation?

Explanation

The Centre holds the residuary powers in the Indian federation. This means that any powers not specifically assigned to the Centre or the State in the Constitution are automatically vested with the Centre. These powers are essential for maintaining the unity and integrity of the country, and they allow the Centre to make decisions and enact laws in areas that are not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.

Submit
13. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:

Explanation

Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes the existence or duration of a human being. This means that any harm or injury caused to a human being that results in the loss of life will be considered a serious offense under the Indian Penal Code. The section does not include animals, therefore the correct answer is "Life of a human being."

Submit
14. Which of the following is a Language included in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

Explanation

Nepali is included in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The 8th Schedule lists the recognized languages of India, and Nepali is one of them. It is recognized as an official language in the Indian state of Sikkim and is spoken by a significant population in the country.

Submit
15. Where a person pledges goods in which he has only a limited interest, the pledge is ?

Explanation

When a person pledges goods in which he has only a limited interest, the pledge is considered valid to the extent of that interest. This means that the person can pledge and use the goods as collateral for a loan or debt, but only up to the amount or value of their limited interest in the goods. The pledge does not extend beyond that specific interest, so any additional claims or rights to the goods by others may not be affected by the pledge.

Submit
16. Where a contract consists of reciprocal promises and such reciprocal promises are to be simultaneously performed. Decide

Explanation

In a contract consisting of reciprocal promises that are to be simultaneously performed, the promisor is not obligated to perform their part of the promise unless the promisee is ready and willing to perform their reciprocal promise. This means that both parties must be prepared to fulfill their obligations at the same time for the contract to be valid. If the promisee is not ready or willing to perform, the promisor is not required to fulfill their promise.

Submit
17. What is the maximum age limit for a Director of a Private Company?

Explanation

The maximum age limit for a Director of a Private Company is None. This means that there is no specific age limit set for a Director in a Private Company. The company can appoint a person of any age as a Director as long as they meet the other eligibility criteria and qualifications required for the role.

Submit
18. Which of the following is not included under the Designs protected by IPR?

Explanation

Designs protected by IPR include features of shape and composition of lines or colors. However, mode or principle of construction is not considered a design and therefore is not included under the designs protected by IPR.

Submit
19. I set out to the world that 'Necessity is not a defence for the charge of Murder.' I am a well known Landmark decision concerning cannibalism on a ship. Who am I?

Explanation

R v. Dudley and Stephens is the correct answer because it is a landmark decision concerning cannibalism on a ship. In this case, the defendants were stranded at sea and resorted to killing and eating a cabin boy in order to survive. The court ruled that necessity was not a defense for the charge of murder, establishing a precedent that the taking of an innocent life, even in extreme circumstances, is not justified. This case has had a significant impact on the legal understanding of the limits of necessity as a defense in criminal law.

Submit
20. The custody of a Muslim son belongs to whom, until he is the age of 7 years?

Explanation

In Islamic law, the custody of a Muslim son belongs to the mother until he reaches the age of 7 years. This is based on the belief that the mother is best suited to provide care and nurturing to young children. After the age of 7, custody may be transferred to the father or other male relatives depending on the circumstances.

Submit
21. A had an unregistered Geographical Indication which was infringed by B. A bought a suit against B. Which is the most relevant provision of the Geographical Indication of Goods [Registration and Procedure] Act 1999?

Explanation

The most relevant provision of the Geographical Indication of Goods [Registration and Procedure] Act 1999 is 20.

Submit
22. Depositories make the lives of Investors easier. At present, the number of depositories operating in India are?

Explanation

The question asks about the number of depositories operating in India. The correct answer is 2. This means that there are currently two depositories operating in India. Depositories play a crucial role in the financial market by holding securities in electronic form and facilitating their transfer. They provide a secure and efficient way for investors to hold and manage their investments.

Submit
23. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution has to be amended to create a New State in India?

Explanation

Schedule 1 of the Indian Constitution lists the names of the states and union territories of India. To create a new state in India, an amendment would need to be made to this schedule in order to include the name of the new state. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

Submit
24. Generally, A Dying Declaration can be made under

Explanation

A dying declaration is a statement made by a person who believes they are about to die, and it is considered admissible as evidence in court. The rationale behind allowing any person to make a dying declaration is that when someone is on the brink of death, they have no reason to lie or fabricate information. Therefore, the law recognizes that the statement of any person, regardless of their profession or position, can be considered a dying declaration.

Submit
25. In case of breach of contract of sale of some rare article or thing for which there is no substitute in the market, the court may grant?

Explanation

In case of breach of contract of sale of some rare article or thing for which there is no substitute in the market, the court may grant specific performance. This means that the court can order the breaching party to fulfill their obligations under the contract and complete the sale as originally agreed upon. This remedy is typically used when monetary compensation is not sufficient to adequately compensate the non-breaching party due to the unique nature of the item involved.

Submit
26. Santa posts a letter of offer on 15th December, which is received by Banta on 18th December. On 20th December, Banta posts a letter of acceptance, which is received by Santa on 24th December. When does the acceptance of offer complete against Santa?

Explanation

The acceptance of the offer is completed on 20th December because that is the date when Banta posts the letter of acceptance. Posting the acceptance letter signifies Banta's intention to accept the offer, and once the letter is posted, the acceptance is considered complete. The fact that Santa receives the letter on 24th December is not relevant to determining when the acceptance is complete.

Submit
27. A consumer is not satisfied with district forum. In how many days he can challenge the same and approach the State Commission?

Explanation

A consumer who is not satisfied with the district forum can challenge the same and approach the State Commission within 30 days. This time frame allows the consumer to escalate their complaint and seek resolution at a higher level if they feel that their concerns were not adequately addressed by the district forum.

Submit
28. Majorly, How many sub schools does Shia and Sunni have respectively?

Explanation

Shia Islam has three major sub-schools, which are the Zaidi, Ismaili, and Twelver schools. Sunni Islam, on the other hand, has four major sub-schools, which are the Hanafi, Maliki, Shafi'i, and Hanbali schools.

Submit
29. In which year and under which provision were Illegitimate Children given equal Rights as Legitimate Children under the Hindu Marriage Act?

Explanation

In 1976, under Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, illegitimate children were given equal rights as legitimate children. This provision aimed to ensure that children born out of wedlock were not discriminated against and had the same rights and privileges as children born within a valid marriage.

Submit
30. Contingent contract to do or not to do anything on the happening of an uncertain future event:

Explanation

A contingent contract refers to a contract where the performance of the contract depends on the occurrence or non-occurrence of a future uncertain event. In this case, the correct answer is that the contract becomes enforceable only on the happening of that event. This means that the parties involved are not obligated to fulfill their obligations until the specified event actually takes place. Until then, the contract remains conditional and cannot be enforced. Once the event occurs, the contract becomes binding and enforceable, and the parties are required to fulfill their respective obligations.

Submit
31. Arbitration is defined under which Section of the Arbitration Act?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2[a]. This means that arbitration is defined under Section 2(a) of the Arbitration Act.

Submit
32. The Law of Torts acts as an essential branch of the law and protects a lot of interests. Which of the following interests is not protected by the law of tort?

Explanation

The law of torts protects various interests, such as the peaceful enjoyment of one's land, physical safety, and reputation. However, loss of commercial profit due to competition is not protected by the law of tort. This means that if a business experiences a decrease in profits due to competition from another company, they cannot seek legal protection or compensation under tort law. Tort law primarily focuses on providing remedies for harm caused by wrongful acts or negligence, rather than addressing economic losses resulting from competition.

Submit
33. As per section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, "complainant" means

Explanation

As per section 2(1)(b) of the Consumer Protection Act 1986, the term "complainant" refers to both a consumer and the Central or State Government. This means that both consumers and the government have the right to file a complaint under this act. The act recognizes the importance of both individual consumers and the government in seeking justice and protection against unfair practices or grievances related to consumer rights.

Submit
34. Goa, Daman and Diu were included in the Indian territory from the Portugal by way of which Amendment?

Explanation

In 1961, Goa, Daman, and Diu were included in the Indian territory from Portugal through an amendment. This suggests that the correct answer is 1961.

Submit
35. Which of the following principles is applicable to trademarks?

Explanation

The principle that is applicable to trademarks is that a trademark should be capable of distinguishing goods or services. This means that a trademark should be unique and distinctive enough to identify and differentiate the goods or services of one company from those of another. It should not be generic or common, as it may lead to confusion among consumers. A strong trademark helps build brand recognition and protects the rights of the trademark owner.

Submit
36. The Constituent Assembly had its first Session on 9th December, 1946. Which city is said to have hosted the first session of the Assembly?

Explanation

The correct answer is Delhi. The Constituent Assembly had its first session in Delhi on 9th December, 1946. This session marked the beginning of the process of drafting the Constitution of India.

Submit
37. If the time fixed for performance of the contract has expired but the time is not essential, what is the remedy of the promisee in this case?

Explanation

If the time fixed for performance of the contract has expired but the time is not essential, the promisee can claim compensation. This means that even though the contract was not performed within the specified time frame, the promisee can still seek financial compensation for any losses or damages incurred due to the delay. This remedy allows the promisee to be compensated for any inconvenience or harm caused by the late performance of the contract.

Submit
38. How many State are parties to the ICJ?

Explanation

The correct answer is 193. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It is composed of 15 judges elected by the UN General Assembly and Security Council. As of now, there are 193 member states in the UN, and all member states are automatically parties to the ICJ.

Submit
39. Before the Amendment that brought in a maximum of 200 Members in a Private Limited Company, what was the maximum number?

Explanation

Before the Amendment that brought in a maximum of 200 Members in a Private Limited Company, the maximum number of members allowed was 50.

Submit
40. Who is the present Solicitor General of India?

Explanation

Tushar Mehta is the present Solicitor General of India.

Submit
41.  If a dispute brought before the consumer forum (consumer dispute/s) arises from an agreement which has an arbitration clause, the consumer forum will be the appropriate forum for hearing the dispute. Which case is it?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
42. How many provisions are/were there in the Companies Act 2013 and the 1956 Act, respectively?

Explanation

The correct answer is 470 and 658. This means that there are/were 470 provisions in the Companies Act 2013 and 658 provisions in the 1956 Act.

Submit
43. Which one of the following-domestic laws of a country is illegal under International Law?

Explanation

A law declaring illegal a transaction between two foreigners concluded to be performed in their respective countries is illegal under International Law because it violates the principle of sovereignty. International Law recognizes the principle of territoriality, which means that each country has jurisdiction over acts committed within its own territory. Therefore, a country cannot declare illegal a transaction between two foreigners that is intended to be carried out in their own respective countries, as it goes against the principle of territorial sovereignty.

Submit
44. There are various functions as performed by the Law of Torts. Which of the following is its Primary function?

Explanation

The primary function of the Law of Torts is to compensate the claimant. This means that when someone suffers harm or loss due to the actions of another party, the law aims to provide financial compensation to the victim. This compensation is intended to help the claimant recover from the harm they have suffered and restore them to the position they were in before the incident occurred. By compensating the claimant, the law seeks to ensure that they are not left to bear the burden of the harm caused by someone else's wrongdoing.

Submit
45. According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is the act of:

Explanation

According to the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is an acid attack. This means that if someone is being subjected to an acid attack, they have the right to defend themselves by causing harm or even death to the attacker. The law recognizes the severity and life-threatening nature of acid attacks, allowing victims to protect themselves by any means necessary.

Submit
46. Which of the following is not held Vicariously Liable?

Explanation

Vicarious liability refers to the legal responsibility of one person for the actions or omissions of another person. In this context, an agent is someone who acts on behalf of another person or entity, and therefore can be held vicariously liable for their actions. However, partners and masters can also be held vicariously liable for the actions of their agents. Therefore, the correct answer is "Agent" as they can be held vicariously liable.

Submit
47. Which of the following ground has been removed by the Indian government as a ground of Divorce?

Explanation

The Indian government has removed leprosy as a ground for divorce. This means that having leprosy is no longer considered a valid reason for a spouse to seek a divorce. This change reflects a shift in societal attitudes towards leprosy, recognizing that it is a curable disease and should not be a basis for ending a marriage.

Submit
48. What is the minimum subscription amount required by a Company?

Explanation

The minimum subscription amount required by a company is 90 percent. This means that when a company issues shares to the public, at least 90 percent of the shares must be subscribed for by the public. This requirement ensures that there is sufficient public interest and investment in the company, and helps to protect the interests of shareholders.

Submit
49. Fast track procedure is provided under Section ______ of the Arbitration Act?

Explanation

The correct answer is 29B. The fast track procedure is provided under Section 29B of the Arbitration Act. This section allows for the expedited resolution of disputes through arbitration. It sets out specific rules and procedures that must be followed in order to qualify for the fast track procedure. This option is the correct answer because it accurately identifies the section of the Act that governs the fast track procedure.

Submit
50. The term of Judges of the International Court of Judges is ?

Explanation

The term of Judges of the International Court of Justice is 9 years. This allows for a sufficient amount of time for judges to serve on the court and contribute to its work. It also ensures a regular turnover of judges, allowing for fresh perspectives and expertise to be brought to the court. This length of term strikes a balance between providing stability and continuity while also allowing for new judges to be appointed periodically.

Submit
51. The UN Charter came into force on 24th October 1945. It is celebrated as the United Nations day worldwide. When was the UN Charter signed?

Explanation

The correct answer is 26 June 1945. This is the date when the UN Charter was signed. The UN Charter is a treaty that established the United Nations as an international organization. It was signed by 50 countries at the San Francisco Conference, and it came into force on 24th October 1945. The signing of the UN Charter marked an important milestone in international cooperation and the promotion of peace and security worldwide.

Submit
52. Consent plays an important role when it comes to Mediation. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Consent is mandatory to refer to mediation." This means that in order for a case to be referred to mediation, all parties involved must give their consent. Mediation is a voluntary process, so without the consent of all parties, the case cannot be referred to mediation. This is in accordance with Section 89, which states that the consent of parties is mandatory for mediation.

Submit
53. Which of the following high courts has recently allowed that Section 354A of Indian Penal Code can be used by transgenders to register complaints of sexual harassment in December 2018?

Explanation

The Delhi High Court has recently allowed that Section 354A of the Indian Penal Code can be used by transgenders to register complaints of sexual harassment in December 2018.

Submit
54. Appointment of an Arbitrator is a Judicial Act. Which case held the same?

Explanation

In the case of SBP v. Patel Engineering, it was held that the appointment of an arbitrator is a judicial act. This means that the court has the authority to appoint an arbitrator in case of a dispute, and this appointment is considered a judicial act. This decision clarifies the role of the court in the arbitration process and establishes the court's power to ensure a fair and impartial arbitration process.

Submit
55. 4 Stages of a Crime are - Intention, Preparation, Attempt and Commission of the Offence. Which of the them is punishable in the LEAST cases?

Explanation

Intention is the stage of a crime where a person forms the purpose or desire to commit the offense. It is the initial thought or plan to engage in illegal activity. In most cases, intention alone is not punishable as it does not involve any overt action or harm caused to others. Punishment is usually reserved for the later stages of preparation, attempt, or commission, where there is a more direct involvement in carrying out the crime or causing harm to others. Therefore, intention is punishable in the least cases compared to the other stages of a crime.

Submit
56. Which of the following cases best reflect the principle of Injuria sine damnum and damnum sine injuria, respectively?

Explanation

The principle of Injuria sine damnum refers to a legal principle where there is an injury caused without any actual damage or loss. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir reflects this principle as it involves a violation of fundamental rights without any tangible harm or loss suffered. On the other hand, the principle of damnum sine injuria refers to a legal principle where there is actual damage or loss suffered without any legal injury. Gloucester Grammar School reflects this principle as it involves actual harm or damage suffered by the school without any legal injury being caused.

Submit
57. Which Constitutional Amendment provided for 10 percent reservation for Economically weak classes recently?

Explanation

The correct answer is 103. This amendment provided for 10 percent reservation for Economically weak classes recently.

Submit
58. Copyrights carry a lot of rights which are protected once you obtain it. It acts as an umbrella for the copyright holder. What kind of a right is Copyright?

Explanation

Copyright is a positive right because it grants the copyright holder the exclusive right to use and exploit their work. This means that they have the power to control how their work is used, reproduced, distributed, and displayed. It is also an exclusive right because it is only granted to the copyright holder and no one else without their permission. This exclusivity allows the copyright holder to benefit financially from their work and prevent others from using it without authorization.

Submit
59. A agrees to pay B Rs 15,000 for suing C and in turn seeking 50 per cent share in the proceeds received by B in the suit, This is an example of

Explanation

Champerty refers to an agreement where a third party (A) agrees to finance a lawsuit on behalf of another party (B) in exchange for a share of the proceeds. In this case, A agrees to pay B Rs 15,000 for suing C and in return, A seeks a 50% share in the proceeds received by B in the suit. This arrangement falls under champerty as it involves a financial interest in the outcome of the lawsuit.

Submit
60. Which among the following landmark ruling overturned the effects of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, brought out by the Government after the landmark 'Kesavananda Bharati' judgement. 

Explanation

The Minnerva Mills v. Union of India ruling overturned the effects of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. This amendment was brought about by the government after the landmark 'Kesavananda Bharati' judgment.

Submit
61. Sapinda relationship & Prohibited relationship

Explanation

The correct answer is "May overlap each other." This means that sapinda relationship and prohibited relationship can have some common elements or characteristics, but they are not completely the same. They may share certain aspects but also have distinct features that differentiate them from each other.

Submit
62. A contracts to marry B. Before the agreed date of marriage, A marries C. Here, B is entitled to sue A for

Explanation

In this scenario, A had a contract to marry B, but before the agreed date of marriage, A married C. This action by A can be considered as an actual breach of the contract in an express manner. A explicitly violated the terms of the contract by marrying someone else instead of B. Therefore, B is entitled to sue A for actual breach in an express manner.

Submit
63. Which provision of the Arbitration Act provides for the definition of Public Policy?

Explanation

None of the provisions of the Arbitration Act provide for the definition of Public Policy.

Submit
64. Which Judge was not a part of the famous BALCO Judgement 2016?

Explanation

KM Joseph was not a part of the famous BALCO Judgement 2016. This can be inferred from the fact that the other three options, Anil Dave, Kurien Joseph, and Amitava Roy, were all judges who were involved in the judgement. Therefore, KM Joseph is the correct answer.

Submit
65. An Arbitration Agreement can be written or oral but it should be in the form of a separate document or as part of the same contract. Is the statement true?

Explanation

The statement that an arbitration agreement can be written or oral but it should be in the form of a separate document or as part of the same contract is false. An arbitration agreement can be valid and enforceable even if it is not in writing or in a separate document. It can be implied or inferred from the conduct of the parties involved. Therefore, the statement is incorrect.

Submit
66. Muta marriage is a _________ Marriage, recognized by _______ school?

Explanation

Muta marriage is considered illegal and is recognized by the Ithna Asharias school. Muta marriage, also known as temporary marriage, is a controversial practice in Shia Islam where a man and a woman enter into a temporary contractual marriage for a fixed period of time. However, this practice is not accepted by Sunni Muslims and is considered illegal in many countries. The Ithna Asharias school, also known as the Twelver Shia school, is one of the main branches of Shia Islam that recognizes and allows muta marriage.

Submit
67. The phrase "quid pro quo" is one of the most used phrases in the arena of one of the Intellectual Property Laws. In the mentioned maxim, what does "quo" stand for?

Explanation

The phrase "quid pro quo" refers to a reciprocal exchange or a trade-off. In the context of Intellectual Property Laws, "quo" stands for the monopoly granted for the term of the patent. This means that the patent holder has exclusive rights to their invention for a certain period of time, during which they can prevent others from making, selling, or using the invention without their permission.

Submit
68. In which ruling did the Apex Court modify its earlier judgement in Rajesh Sharma v. State of U.P. ?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
69. When was the Indian Patent and Design Act enacted?

Explanation

The Indian Patent and Design Act was enacted in 1911. This legislation was put in place to protect intellectual property rights related to patents and designs in India. It provided a legal framework for inventors and designers to secure their creations and prevent unauthorized use or reproduction. The Act has since undergone several amendments to align with international standards and address emerging issues in the field of intellectual property.

Submit
70. When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the same wife, they are said to be related to each other ?

Explanation

When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the same wife, they are said to be related to each other by full blood. This means that they share a direct blood relationship through their common ancestor and the same biological mother. This term is used to distinguish this type of relationship from other types, such as half blood or step relationships, which may involve only partial or non-biological connections.

Submit
71. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

Explanation

The statement that International Law is positive morality of state having no force is incorrect. International Law is not just a moral code, but it also has legal force and is binding on states. It is a set of rules and principles that govern the conduct of states in their relations with each other. States are obligated to comply with International Law and can be held accountable for violations. Therefore, International Law is not solely based on morality but also has legal consequences and enforcement mechanisms.

Submit
72. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

Explanation

The Nicaragua case is incorrectly matched with the issue of nationality. The Nicaragua case actually dealt with the issue of armed attacks and intervention in the affairs of another state. The case was brought before the International Court of Justice by Nicaragua against the United States, alleging that the US had supported armed groups in Nicaragua and violated its sovereignty. The issue of nationality was not the main focus of this case.

Submit
73. Which of the following is India's oldest ratified convention for Patent Protection?

Explanation

The Paris Convention is India's oldest ratified convention for Patent Protection. This international treaty was established in 1883 and aims to protect intellectual property rights, including patents, trademarks, and industrial designs. It provides a framework for cooperation among countries and establishes basic principles for patent protection, such as national treatment and the right of priority. The Paris Convention has played a crucial role in harmonizing patent laws globally and promoting innovation and creativity.

Submit
74. Section 377 is Unconstitutional - Decide?

Explanation

Section 377 refers to a law in India that criminalized consensual homosexual acts. The statement "Partly Unconstitutional" suggests that while some aspects of the law may be deemed unconstitutional, there may be certain elements that are still considered valid. This could mean that certain provisions of Section 377 may violate constitutional rights, while other provisions may not. The answer implies that a complete repeal of the law may not be necessary, but rather a modification or removal of specific unconstitutional elements.

Submit
75. A company has decided to invest in outer shape design of bottle in which they would fill the perfume produced by them, and which is distinctive, and they wish to ensure that they have sole use.

Explanation

The correct answer is Industrial Design. Industrial design refers to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of a product, including its shape, pattern, or color. In this case, the company wants to invest in the outer shape design of the bottle to make it distinctive and ensure that they have sole use of it. By obtaining an industrial design right, they can protect their unique bottle design from being copied or used by others without permission. This allows them to establish a recognizable and exclusive brand identity for their perfume.

Submit
76. A Prospectus which does not have details of either price, number, or amount of issue, and was issued merely to test the market is known as a ?

Explanation

A red herring prospectus is a type of prospectus that is issued by a company before the actual public offering of securities. It contains all the necessary information about the company and the securities being offered, except for the details of the price, number, or amount of the issue. This prospectus is used to gauge investor interest and generate buzz about the upcoming offering. It is called a "red herring" because it contains a disclaimer stating that the information is not complete and may be subject to change.

Submit
77. Who can be the right holder of IPR?

Explanation

The right holder of intellectual property refers to the person or entity that owns the intellectual property rights. This can include the original creator or inventor of the intellectual property, as well as any subsequent owners who have legally acquired the rights. A licensee unauthorized by the owner and a successor in adverse title of the owner would not be considered the right holder, as they do not have legal ownership of the intellectual property. Therefore, the correct answer is the owner of the intellectual property.

Submit
78. Can an unpublished written work be protected under Indian Copyright Act?

Explanation

An unpublished written work can be protected under the Indian Copyright Act. This means that even if a work has not been published or registered, it is still eligible for copyright protection. The act recognizes the rights of authors and creators to have control over their unpublished works and prevents others from copying or using them without permission. Therefore, it is not necessary for the work to be published or registered for it to be protected under the Indian Copyright Act.

Submit
79. The law of contract is different from the law of tort in which way?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the law of contract generally concerns a relationship between two parties only. This means that contracts are typically formed between two individuals or entities, and the rights and obligations under the contract are enforceable between these parties. In contrast, the law of tort involves actions that cause harm or injury to others, and the injured party can seek compensation or damages from the party responsible for the harm. Tort law is not limited to a specific relationship between two parties and can involve multiple parties.

Submit
80. Which of the following is Generally Non revocable?

Explanation

A waqf is generally non-revocable, meaning once it is established, it cannot be canceled or revoked. Waqf is a legal Islamic concept where a person dedicates a property or asset for charitable or religious purposes. The dedicated property or asset becomes permanently owned by the waqf and its benefits are used for the specified purposes. This ensures that the waqf remains in perpetuity and cannot be revoked by the person who established it or anyone else. Therefore, among the options given, waqf is the generally non-revocable concept.

Submit
81. Alienation by the Karta without any legal necessity shall be ?

Explanation

When an alienation (transfer) is made by the Karta (head of a Hindu Undivided Family) without any legal necessity, it is considered voidable. This means that the transfer can be challenged by the other members of the family and can be declared invalid if it is found to be against their interests or in violation of the law. However, until it is challenged and declared void, the transfer remains valid.

Submit
82. The Liabilities under Torts Act 1999, provides for a maximum Compensation amount of ?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
83. Imagine if there is a conflict between two nations who are party to a Treaty. There is a conflict within the treaty and customary law. 

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is that the treaty law overrides the customary law. This is because treaties are considered binding agreements between nations and take precedence over customary law, which is based on long-standing practices and beliefs. When there is a conflict between the two, the specific provisions of the treaty will prevail over any conflicting customary law.

Submit
84. The recent Amendment lifted the Unlimited cap of Members from a Public Company to a maximum of 1000. Which Amendment is it?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
85. In which landmark ruling did the Supreme Court ruled down Exception 2 to Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 ? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Independent Thought v. Union of India 2017. This landmark ruling by the Supreme Court of India struck down Exception 2 to Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code 1860, which allowed for sexual intercourse with a wife who is above the age of 15 but below 18 years, even without her consent. The court declared that sexual intercourse with a minor wife, regardless of her age, would amount to rape. This decision was a significant step towards protecting the rights and well-being of minor girls in India.

Submit
86. When was the Triple Talaq Bill passed and given assent by the President of India?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
87. The inherent powers of a Sessions Court are provided under which provision of CrPC?

Explanation

The correct answer is "None" because the inherent powers of a Sessions Court are not provided under any specific provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). The inherent powers of the court are derived from the general principles of justice and fairness, allowing it to pass any orders necessary to secure the ends of justice. These powers are not explicitly mentioned in any specific provision of the CrPC.

Submit
88. When was the 26th High Court established in India?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
89. Observer State concept is a unique concept of the United Nations. Currently, Holy See and the Palestine are the observer States of the UN. Which of the following has never been the Observer State of the United Nations?

Explanation

China has never been an Observer State of the United Nations. While Spain, North Korea, and Japan have all held the status of Observer State at some point, China has not. Observer States are non-member states that have been granted permission to participate in UN General Assembly meetings and activities.

Submit
90. The term company is defined under which sec of the Companies Act 2013?

Explanation

The correct answer is Section 3 (1). Section 3 (1) of the Companies Act 2013 defines the term "company". This section states that a company is a legal entity formed and registered under this Act or any previous company law. It specifies the requirements and conditions for a business to be considered a company under the Act.

Submit
91. Minimum Subscription should be received within a maximum of ?

Explanation

The minimum subscription should be received within a maximum of 120 days. This means that the company or organization requires customers or clients to make their subscription payment within a period of 120 days at the latest. This timeframe allows the company to ensure timely payments and maintain a steady cash flow.

Submit
92. The following is not a consumer

Explanation

The correct answer is Insurance Company. An insurance company is not considered a consumer because it is a business entity that provides financial protection to individuals or other businesses in exchange for premiums. Consumers, on the other hand, are individuals or households that purchase goods or services for personal use. Therefore, an insurance company does not fit the definition of a consumer.

Submit
93. Imagine a situation, where the trial of a criminal case has been completed. The Judge, after perusal of the facts, precedents, arguments, witnesses and evidences has finally written his judgement. However, the Judge dies before delivering the judgement. 

Explanation

If the judge dies before delivering the judgment, the judgment shall not be final. This is because the judge's signature is necessary to make the judgment final. Since the judge did not have the opportunity to sign the judgment, it cannot be considered final.

Submit
94. A, a Hindu, created a will at the age in 1957. However, he rescinded the will in 1966. He again created a will in 1976, but later revoked and created another will in 2005 and then died. Apparently, there seemed to be a conflict in his will and the prevailing law of succession. Decide ?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The Will shall prevail over the Hindu Succession Act." This is because a will is a legal document that expresses a person's final wishes regarding the distribution of their property after death. As long as the will was validly executed and not revoked, it takes precedence over the general laws of succession. In this case, although there were multiple wills and revocations, the last will created in 2005 would be considered the most recent expression of the individual's wishes and would therefore prevail over the Hindu Succession Act.

Submit
95. Court referred Mediation takes place under which Section of the Civil Procedure Code 1909?

Explanation

The question is asking about the section of the Civil Procedure Code 1909 under which Court referred Mediation takes place. However, the correct answer is "None," indicating that Court referred Mediation does not take place under any specific section of the Civil Procedure Code 1909. This suggests that Court referred Mediation may be governed by separate rules or regulations outside of the Civil Procedure Code.

Submit
96. What is the minimum paid up capital requirement for Public and Private Company, respectively?

Explanation

The correct answer is "None for both [2015 Amendment]". This means that according to the 2015 Amendment, there is no minimum paid-up capital requirement for both Public and Private Companies. This implies that companies are not required to have a specific amount of capital to be registered as either a Public or Private Company.

Submit
97. UN Charter was signed in 1945 at the San Francisco Conference. Who was the first signatory of the UN Charter?

Explanation

China was the first signatory of the UN Charter. The UN Charter was signed in 1945 at the San Francisco Conference, and China was one of the original 51 founding member states of the United Nations. As a founding member, China played a significant role in the establishment of the UN and was one of the first countries to sign the Charter, solidifying its commitment to the principles and goals of the organization.

Submit
98. Which of the following Writ can be issued against purely Administrative bodies?

Explanation

Certiorari is the correct answer because it is a writ that can be issued against purely administrative bodies. This writ is used to review the decisions and actions of administrative bodies to ensure they are within their legal authority and have not acted arbitrarily or unlawfully. It allows the higher court to examine the record of the lower administrative body and determine if any errors were made. Prohibition and Mandamus, on the other hand, are writs that are typically used to control the actions of judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, rather than purely administrative bodies.

Submit
99. If there is a failure in a Lok Adalat proceeding, parties are advised to?

Explanation

In the event of a failure in a Lok Adalat proceeding, the parties involved are advised to refer their case to another bench. This implies that if the current bench is unable to resolve the dispute through the Lok Adalat process, the parties should seek the assistance of a different bench in order to explore alternative avenues for dispute resolution.

Submit
100. Indian Penal Code 1960 provides for Murder under which provision?

Explanation

The given question is incorrect as there is no Indian Penal Code (IPC) in 1960. The Indian Penal Code was enacted in 1860 and has not been revised since then. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the Above" as none of the options provided are valid provisions under the IPC.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 20, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    The LAW
Cancel
  • All
    All (100)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?
Decide the applicability of the Consumer Protection Act 1986
The Indian Contract Act came into force on ?
Which is the Aadhar ruling where Justice D.Y. Chandrachud dissented...
Which of the following provision of the Indian Penal Code 1860 deals...
Which of the following Judge dissented in the recent Sabarimala...
Usually, What is the age of majority in Muslim Law?
The Constitution of India provides for a lot of Institutions and...
The Contract Act, 1872 consists of ___ Sections?
 Piracy is an offense within the jurisdiction of the 
The 44th Constitutional Amendment marked the cessation of a...
Schedule VII presents 3 Lists which are essential for the division of...
Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:
Which of the following is a Language included in the 8th Schedule of...
Where a person pledges goods in which he has only a limited interest,...
Where a contract consists of reciprocal promises and such reciprocal...
What is the maximum age limit for a Director of a Private Company?
Which of the following is not included under the Designs protected by...
I set out to the world that 'Necessity is not a defence for the...
The custody of a Muslim son belongs to whom, until he is the age of 7...
A had an unregistered Geographical Indication which was infringed by...
Depositories make the lives of Investors easier. At present, the...
Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution has to be amended to create...
Generally, A Dying Declaration can be made under
In case of breach of contract of sale of some rare article or thing...
Santa posts a letter of offer on 15th December, which is received by...
A consumer is not satisfied with district forum. In how many days he...
Majorly, How many sub schools does Shia and Sunni have respectively?
In which year and under which provision were Illegitimate Children...
Contingent contract to do or not to do anything on the happening of an...
Arbitration is defined under which Section of the Arbitration Act?
The Law of Torts acts as an essential branch of the law and protects a...
As per section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986,...
Goa, Daman and Diu were included in the Indian territory from the...
Which of the following principles is applicable to trademarks?
The Constituent Assembly had its first Session on 9th December, 1946....
If the time fixed for performance of the contract has expired but the...
How many State are parties to the ICJ?
Before the Amendment that brought in a maximum of 200 Members in a...
Who is the present Solicitor General of India?
 If a dispute brought before the consumer forum (consumer...
How many provisions are/were there in the Companies Act 2013 and the...
Which one of the following-domestic laws of a country is illegal under...
There are various functions as performed by the Law of Torts. Which of...
According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private...
Which of the following is not held Vicariously Liable?
Which of the following ground has been removed by the Indian...
What is the minimum subscription amount required by a Company?
Fast track procedure is provided under Section ______ of the...
The term of Judges of the International Court of Judges is ?
The UN Charter came into force on 24th October 1945. It is celebrated...
Consent plays an important role when it comes to Mediation. Which of...
Which of the following high courts has recently allowed that Section...
Appointment of an Arbitrator is a Judicial Act. Which case held the...
4 Stages of a Crime are - Intention, Preparation, Attempt and...
Which of the following cases best reflect the principle of Injuria...
Which Constitutional Amendment provided for 10 percent reservation for...
Copyrights carry a lot of rights which are protected once you obtain...
A agrees to pay B Rs 15,000 for suing C and in turn seeking 50 per...
Which among the following landmark ruling overturned the effects of...
Sapinda relationship & Prohibited relationship
A contracts to marry B. Before the agreed date of marriage, A marries...
Which provision of the Arbitration Act provides for the definition of...
Which Judge was not a part of the famous BALCO Judgement 2016?
An Arbitration Agreement can be written or oral but it should be in...
Muta marriage is a _________ Marriage, recognized by _______ school?
The phrase "quid pro quo" is one of the most used phrases in the arena...
In which ruling did the Apex Court modify its earlier judgement in...
When was the Indian Patent and Design Act enacted?
When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the same...
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Which of the following is India's oldest ratified convention for...
Section 377 is Unconstitutional - Decide?
A company has decided to invest in outer shape design of bottle in...
A Prospectus which does not have details of either price, number, or...
Who can be the right holder of IPR?
Can an unpublished written work be protected under Indian Copyright...
The law of contract is different from the law of tort in which way?
Which of the following is Generally Non revocable?
Alienation by the Karta without any legal necessity shall be ?
The Liabilities under Torts Act 1999, provides for a maximum...
Imagine if there is a conflict between two nations who are party to a...
The recent Amendment lifted the Unlimited cap of Members from a Public...
In which landmark ruling did the Supreme Court ruled down Exception 2...
When was the Triple Talaq Bill passed and given assent by the...
The inherent powers of a Sessions Court are provided under which...
When was the 26th High Court established in India?
Observer State concept is a unique concept of the United Nations....
The term company is defined under which sec of the Companies Act 2013?
Minimum Subscription should be received within a maximum of ?
The following is not a consumer
Imagine a situation, where the trial of a criminal case has been...
A, a Hindu, created a will at the age in 1957. However, he rescinded...
Court referred Mediation takes place under which Section of the Civil...
What is the minimum paid up capital requirement for Public and Private...
UN Charter was signed in 1945 at the San Francisco Conference. Who was...
Which of the following Writ can be issued against purely...
If there is a failure in a Lok Adalat proceeding, parties are advised...
Indian Penal Code 1960 provides for Murder under which provision?
Alert!

Advertisement