Tll 6th National Law Quiz Prelims

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?

    • Speaker
    • President 
    • Vice President
    • None of the Above
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Tll 6th National Law Quiz Prelims - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The Indian Contract Act came into force on ?

    • September 1, 1872

    • December 1, 1872

    • July 1, 1872

    • December 2, 1872

    Correct Answer
    A. September 1, 1872
    Explanation
    The Indian Contract Act came into force on September 1, 1872. This date marks the official implementation of the Act, which governs contracts and agreements in India. It was enacted to provide a legal framework for the formation and enforcement of contracts, ensuring fairness and protection for parties involved in business transactions.

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  • 3. 

    Decide the applicability of the Consumer Protection Act 1986

    • Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir

    • Whole of India

    • Whole of India excluding Nagaland and tribal areas

    • Whole of India excluding Andaman and Lakshwadeep

    Correct Answer
    A. Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir
    Explanation
    The Consumer Protection Act 1986 is applicable to the whole of India, except for the state of Jammu and Kashmir. This means that the Act covers all states and union territories of India, except for Jammu and Kashmir. The Act aims to protect the rights of consumers and provide them with a mechanism to seek redressal for any grievances they may have against unfair trade practices or defective products.

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  • 4. 

    Which is the Aadhar ruling where Justice D.Y. Chandrachud dissented and was decided by a majority of 4:1

    • K.S. Puttaswamy v. State of Tamil Nadu

    • K.S. Puttaswamy v. Ministry of Information

    • K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India

    • K.S. Puttaswamy v. State of Kerala

    Correct Answer
    A. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
  • 5. 

    Which of the following provision of the Indian Penal Code 1860 deals with Dowry Death?

    • 302B

    • 304B

    • 498B

    • 303A

    Correct Answer
    A. 304B
    Explanation
    Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code 1860 deals with Dowry Death. This section states that if a woman dies within seven years of her marriage and it is shown that her death was a result of cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives for dowry, then it is considered a dowry death. The section provides for punishment of imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following Judge dissented in the recent Sabarimala judgement?

    • Justice Indu Malhotra

    • Justice DY Chandrachud

    • Justice Joseph

    • Justice Abdul Nazeer

    Correct Answer
    A. Justice Indu Malhotra
    Explanation
    Justice Indu Malhotra dissented in the recent Sabarimala judgement.

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  • 7. 

    Usually, What is the age of majority in Muslim Law?

    • 18

    • 21, if legal guardian is appointed

    • Puberty

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. Puberty
    Explanation
    In Muslim Law, the age of majority is considered to be at puberty. This means that a person is considered an adult and is legally responsible for their actions once they reach the age of puberty. This is different from other legal systems where the age of majority is usually set at a specific age, such as 18 or 21. In Muslim Law, the age of majority is determined by physical and biological changes rather than a specific numerical age.

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  • 8. 

    The Constitution of India provides for a lot of Institutions and Bodies, to facilitate the working and development of the nation. Which of these is a non constitutional body?

    • Planning Commission

    • Finance Commission

    • Election Commission

    • Union Public Service Commission

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning Commission
    Explanation
    The Planning Commission is a non-constitutional body in India. Unlike the Election Commission and the Union Public Service Commission, which are constitutional bodies mentioned in the Constitution of India, the Planning Commission was not mentioned in the Constitution. It was an extra-constitutional body that was responsible for formulating India's Five-Year Plans and coordinating development initiatives. However, in 2014, the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog, making it no longer existent.

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  • 9. 

    The Contract Act, 1872 consists of ___ Sections?

    • 238

    • 248

    • 228

    • 268

    Correct Answer
    A. 238
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 238. The Contract Act, 1872 consists of 238 sections.

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  • 10. 

    The 44th Constitutional Amendment marked the cessation of a Fundamental Right from Part III of the Constitution. Which of these Articles is the right incorporated under as a mere Constitutional Right?

    • 299A

    • 300B

    • 300A

    • 19 [1] [h]

    Correct Answer
    A. 300A
    Explanation
    In the 44th Constitutional Amendment, Article 300A was incorporated as a mere Constitutional Right. This means that it is not considered a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution. The amendment marked the cessation of a Fundamental Right, but Article 300A was included to provide protection to individuals in matters of property rights. Therefore, the correct answer is 300A.

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  • 11. 

    Schedule VII presents 3 Lists which are essential for the division of powers amongst the Centre and the State. Which of the following holds the residuary powers in the Indian federation?

    • Centre

    • State

    • Judiciary

    • Case to Case basis

    Correct Answer
    A. Centre
    Explanation
    The Centre holds the residuary powers in the Indian federation. This means that any powers not specifically assigned to the Centre or the State in the Constitution are automatically vested with the Centre. These powers are essential for maintaining the unity and integrity of the country, and they allow the Centre to make decisions and enact laws in areas that are not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.

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  • 12. 

    Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:

    • Life of a human being

    • Life of an Animal

    • Both [a] and [b]

    • Either [a] or [b]

    Correct Answer
    A. Life of a human being
    Explanation
    Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes the existence or duration of a human being. This means that any harm or injury caused to a human being that results in the loss of life will be considered a serious offense under the Indian Penal Code. The section does not include animals, therefore the correct answer is "Life of a human being."

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  • 13. 

     Piracy is an offense within the jurisdiction of the 

    • Flag States

    • Offenders State

    • All States

    • Consenting States

    Correct Answer
    A. All States
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All States." Piracy is considered an offense within the jurisdiction of all states because it is a violation of international law. Piracy occurs on the high seas, which are considered to be outside the jurisdiction of any particular state. Therefore, any state has the authority to take action against pirates and prosecute them under their own laws. Additionally, there are international agreements and conventions that require states to cooperate in combating piracy, further establishing the jurisdiction of all states in dealing with this offense.

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  • 14. 

    Where a person pledges goods in which he has only a limited interest, the pledge is ?

    • Invalid

    • Valid

    • Indeterminable

    • Valid to the extent of that interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Valid to the extent of that interest
    Explanation
    When a person pledges goods in which he has only a limited interest, the pledge is considered valid to the extent of that interest. This means that the person can pledge and use the goods as collateral for a loan or debt, but only up to the amount or value of their limited interest in the goods. The pledge does not extend beyond that specific interest, so any additional claims or rights to the goods by others may not be affected by the pledge.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is a Language included in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

    • Nepali

    • Haryanvi

    • Bhojpuri

    • Gujjari

    Correct Answer
    A. Nepali
    Explanation
    Nepali is included in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The 8th Schedule lists the recognized languages of India, and Nepali is one of them. It is recognized as an official language in the Indian state of Sikkim and is spoken by a significant population in the country.

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  • 16. 

    Where a contract consists of reciprocal promises and such reciprocal promises are to be simultaneously performed. Decide

    • Promisor need not perform his part of promise at all

    • Promisor need not perform his part of promise unless promisee is ready and willing to perform his reciprocal promise

    • Promisor has to compel promisee to perform his promise first

    • There is no valid contract at all

    Correct Answer
    A. Promisor need not perform his part of promise unless promisee is ready and willing to perform his reciprocal promise
    Explanation
    In a contract consisting of reciprocal promises that are to be simultaneously performed, the promisor is not obligated to perform their part of the promise unless the promisee is ready and willing to perform their reciprocal promise. This means that both parties must be prepared to fulfill their obligations at the same time for the contract to be valid. If the promisee is not ready or willing to perform, the promisor is not required to fulfill their promise.

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  • 17. 

    What is the maximum age limit for a Director of a Private Company?

    • 85

    • 70

    • 80

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. None
    Explanation
    The maximum age limit for a Director of a Private Company is None. This means that there is no specific age limit set for a Director in a Private Company. The company can appoint a person of any age as a Director as long as they meet the other eligibility criteria and qualifications required for the role.

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  • 18. 

    I set out to the world that 'Necessity is not a defence for the charge of Murder.' I am a well known Landmark decision concerning cannibalism on a ship. Who am I?

    • The Grand Shipman case

    • R v. Dudley and Stephens

    • R v. Queen

    • R v. Sussex

    Correct Answer
    A. R v. Dudley and Stephens
    Explanation
    R v. Dudley and Stephens is the correct answer because it is a landmark decision concerning cannibalism on a ship. In this case, the defendants were stranded at sea and resorted to killing and eating a cabin boy in order to survive. The court ruled that necessity was not a defense for the charge of murder, establishing a precedent that the taking of an innocent life, even in extreme circumstances, is not justified. This case has had a significant impact on the legal understanding of the limits of necessity as a defense in criminal law.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is not included under the Designs protected by IPR?

    • Features of shape

    • Composition of lines or colours

    • Mode or principle of construction

    • None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Mode or principle of construction
    Explanation
    Designs protected by IPR include features of shape and composition of lines or colors. However, mode or principle of construction is not considered a design and therefore is not included under the designs protected by IPR.

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  • 20. 

    The custody of a Muslim son belongs to whom, until he is the age of 7 years?

    • Father

    • Paternal uncle

    • Grandfather

    • Mother

    Correct Answer
    A. Mother
    Explanation
    In Islamic law, the custody of a Muslim son belongs to the mother until he reaches the age of 7 years. This is based on the belief that the mother is best suited to provide care and nurturing to young children. After the age of 7, custody may be transferred to the father or other male relatives depending on the circumstances.

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  • 21. 

    A had an unregistered Geographical Indication which was infringed by B. A bought a suit against B. Which is the most relevant provision of the Geographical Indication of Goods [Registration and Procedure] Act 1999?

    • 24

    • 20

    • 19

    • 25

    Correct Answer
    A. 20
    Explanation
    The most relevant provision of the Geographical Indication of Goods [Registration and Procedure] Act 1999 is 20.

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  • 22. 

    Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution has to be amended to create a New State in India?

    • 6

    • 1

    • 3

    • 2

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Schedule 1 of the Indian Constitution lists the names of the states and union territories of India. To create a new state in India, an amendment would need to be made to this schedule in order to include the name of the new state. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

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  • 23. 

    Generally, A Dying Declaration can be made under

    • Magistrate

    • Police officer

    • Government Officials

    • Any Person

    Correct Answer
    A. Any Person
    Explanation
    A dying declaration is a statement made by a person who believes they are about to die, and it is considered admissible as evidence in court. The rationale behind allowing any person to make a dying declaration is that when someone is on the brink of death, they have no reason to lie or fabricate information. Therefore, the law recognizes that the statement of any person, regardless of their profession or position, can be considered a dying declaration.

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  • 24. 

    Depositories make the lives of Investors easier. At present, the number of depositories operating in India are?

    • 5

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The question asks about the number of depositories operating in India. The correct answer is 2. This means that there are currently two depositories operating in India. Depositories play a crucial role in the financial market by holding securities in electronic form and facilitating their transfer. They provide a secure and efficient way for investors to hold and manage their investments.

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  • 25. 

    In case of breach of contract of sale of some rare article or thing for which there is no substitute in the market, the court may grant?

    • Quantum Meriut

    • Rescission

    • Specific Performance

    • Temporary Injunction

    Correct Answer
    A. Specific Performance
    Explanation
    In case of breach of contract of sale of some rare article or thing for which there is no substitute in the market, the court may grant specific performance. This means that the court can order the breaching party to fulfill their obligations under the contract and complete the sale as originally agreed upon. This remedy is typically used when monetary compensation is not sufficient to adequately compensate the non-breaching party due to the unique nature of the item involved.

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  • 26. 

    Santa posts a letter of offer on 15th December, which is received by Banta on 18th December. On 20th December, Banta posts a letter of acceptance, which is received by Santa on 24th December. When does the acceptance of offer complete against Santa?

    • 15th December

    • 18th December

    • 20th December

    • 24th December

    Correct Answer
    A. 20th December
    Explanation
    The acceptance of the offer is completed on 20th December because that is the date when Banta posts the letter of acceptance. Posting the acceptance letter signifies Banta's intention to accept the offer, and once the letter is posted, the acceptance is considered complete. The fact that Santa receives the letter on 24th December is not relevant to determining when the acceptance is complete.

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  • 27. 

    A consumer is not satisfied with district forum. In how many days he can challenge the same and approach the State Commission?

    • 60

    • 30

    • 31

    • 180

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    A consumer who is not satisfied with the district forum can challenge the same and approach the State Commission within 30 days. This time frame allows the consumer to escalate their complaint and seek resolution at a higher level if they feel that their concerns were not adequately addressed by the district forum.

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  • 28. 

    Majorly, How many sub schools does Shia and Sunni have respectively?

    • 3 and 4

    • 4 and 5

    • 4 and 3

    • 5 and 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 and 4
    Explanation
    Shia Islam has three major sub-schools, which are the Zaidi, Ismaili, and Twelver schools. Sunni Islam, on the other hand, has four major sub-schools, which are the Hanafi, Maliki, Shafi'i, and Hanbali schools.

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  • 29. 

    In which year and under which provision were Illegitimate Children given equal Rights as Legitimate Children under the Hindu Marriage Act?

    • 1937, Section 14

    • 1976, Section 16

    • 1976, Section 15

    • 1955, Section 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 1976, Section 16
    Explanation
    In 1976, under Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, illegitimate children were given equal rights as legitimate children. This provision aimed to ensure that children born out of wedlock were not discriminated against and had the same rights and privileges as children born within a valid marriage.

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  • 30. 

    Contingent contract to do or not to do anything on the happening of an uncertain future event:

    • Is never enforceable

    • Is enforceable since the time of making it

    • Becomes enforceable in the immediate possibility of happening of that event

    • Becomes enforceable only on the happening of that event

    Correct Answer
    A. Becomes enforceable only on the happening of that event
    Explanation
    A contingent contract refers to a contract where the performance of the contract depends on the occurrence or non-occurrence of a future uncertain event. In this case, the correct answer is that the contract becomes enforceable only on the happening of that event. This means that the parties involved are not obligated to fulfill their obligations until the specified event actually takes place. Until then, the contract remains conditional and cannot be enforced. Once the event occurs, the contract becomes binding and enforceable, and the parties are required to fulfill their respective obligations.

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  • 31. 

    Arbitration is defined under which Section of the Arbitration Act?

    • 2[a]

    • Not defined

    • 3[a]

    • 2[c]

    Correct Answer
    A. 2[a]
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2[a]. This means that arbitration is defined under Section 2(a) of the Arbitration Act.

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  • 32. 

    The Law of Torts acts as an essential branch of the law and protects a lot of interests. Which of the following interests is not protected by the law of tort?

    • Peaceful enjoyment of one's land

    • Physical safety

    • Reputation

    • Loss of commercial profit due to competition

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of commercial profit due to competition
    Explanation
    The law of torts protects various interests, such as the peaceful enjoyment of one's land, physical safety, and reputation. However, loss of commercial profit due to competition is not protected by the law of tort. This means that if a business experiences a decrease in profits due to competition from another company, they cannot seek legal protection or compensation under tort law. Tort law primarily focuses on providing remedies for harm caused by wrongful acts or negligence, rather than addressing economic losses resulting from competition.

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  • 33. 

    The Constituent Assembly had its first Session on 9th December, 1946. Which city is said to have hosted the first session of the Assembly?

    • Lahore

    • Kolkata

    • Jabalpur

    • Delhi

    Correct Answer
    A. Delhi
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Delhi. The Constituent Assembly had its first session in Delhi on 9th December, 1946. This session marked the beginning of the process of drafting the Constitution of India.

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  • 34. 

    If the time fixed for performance of the contract has expired but the time is not essential, what is the remedy of the promisee in this case?

    • He can rescind the contract

    • No remedy is available

    • He can claim compensation

    • Cannot be determined

    Correct Answer
    A. He can claim compensation
    Explanation
    If the time fixed for performance of the contract has expired but the time is not essential, the promisee can claim compensation. This means that even though the contract was not performed within the specified time frame, the promisee can still seek financial compensation for any losses or damages incurred due to the delay. This remedy allows the promisee to be compensated for any inconvenience or harm caused by the late performance of the contract.

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  • 35. 

    As per section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, "complainant" means

    • A Consumer

    • Central or State Government

    • Consumer's family members

    • [a] and [b] Both

    Correct Answer
    A. [a] and [b] Both
    Explanation
    As per section 2(1)(b) of the Consumer Protection Act 1986, the term "complainant" refers to both a consumer and the Central or State Government. This means that both consumers and the government have the right to file a complaint under this act. The act recognizes the importance of both individual consumers and the government in seeking justice and protection against unfair practices or grievances related to consumer rights.

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  • 36. 

    Goa, Daman and Diu were included in the Indian territory from the Portugal by way of which Amendment?

    • 1963

    • 1965

    • 1961

    • 1969

    Correct Answer
    A. 1961
    Explanation
    In 1961, Goa, Daman, and Diu were included in the Indian territory from Portugal through an amendment. This suggests that the correct answer is 1961.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following principles is applicable to trademarks?

    • A trademark should be distinctive

    • A trademark should be capable of distinguishing goods or services

    • A trademark should not cause confusion with previous trademarks

    • A trademark should not be deceptive

    Correct Answer
    A. A trademark should be capable of distinguishing goods or services
    Explanation
    The principle that is applicable to trademarks is that a trademark should be capable of distinguishing goods or services. This means that a trademark should be unique and distinctive enough to identify and differentiate the goods or services of one company from those of another. It should not be generic or common, as it may lead to confusion among consumers. A strong trademark helps build brand recognition and protects the rights of the trademark owner.

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  • 38. 

    How many State are parties to the ICJ?

    • 192

    • 196

    • 194

    • 193

    Correct Answer
    A. 193
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 193. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It is composed of 15 judges elected by the UN General Assembly and Security Council. As of now, there are 193 member states in the UN, and all member states are automatically parties to the ICJ.

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  • 39. 

    Before the Amendment that brought in a maximum of 200 Members in a Private Limited Company, what was the maximum number?

    • 100

    • 50

    • 200

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Before the Amendment that brought in a maximum of 200 Members in a Private Limited Company, the maximum number of members allowed was 50.

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  • 40. 

     If a dispute brought before the consumer forum (consumer dispute/s) arises from an agreement which has an arbitration clause, the consumer forum will be the appropriate forum for hearing the dispute. Which case is it?

    • SBP v. Patel Engineering

    • Emaar MGF v. Aftab Singh

    • Essar v. ONGC

    • Emkay Global v. Girdhar

    Correct Answer
    A. Emaar MGF v. Aftab Singh
  • 41. 

    Who is the present Solicitor General of India?

    • Gopal Subramaniam

    • Ranjit Kumar

    • K.K. Venugopal

    • Tushar Mehta

    Correct Answer
    A. Tushar Mehta
    Explanation
    Tushar Mehta is the present Solicitor General of India.

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  • 42. 

    How many provisions are/were there in the Companies Act 2013 and the 1956 Act, respectively?

    • 470 and 500

    • 400 and 650

    • 470 and 658

    • 450 and 687

    Correct Answer
    A. 470 and 658
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 470 and 658. This means that there are/were 470 provisions in the Companies Act 2013 and 658 provisions in the 1956 Act.

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  • 43. 

    According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is the act of:

    • Stalking

    • Acid Attack

    • Voyeurism

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Acid Attack
    Explanation
    According to the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is an acid attack. This means that if someone is being subjected to an acid attack, they have the right to defend themselves by causing harm or even death to the attacker. The law recognizes the severity and life-threatening nature of acid attacks, allowing victims to protect themselves by any means necessary.

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  • 44. 

    Which one of the following-domestic laws of a country is illegal under International Law?

    • A law declaring an act of a citizen illegal, regardless of the place where it is committed

    • A law declaring a contract between a national and foreigner concluded within the country, illegal

    • A law declaring illegal a transaction between two foreigners concluded to be performed in their respective countries

    • Law declaring illegal an act on board a national aircraft or a national vessel

    Correct Answer
    A. A law declaring illegal a transaction between two foreigners concluded to be performed in their respective countries
    Explanation
    A law declaring illegal a transaction between two foreigners concluded to be performed in their respective countries is illegal under International Law because it violates the principle of sovereignty. International Law recognizes the principle of territoriality, which means that each country has jurisdiction over acts committed within its own territory. Therefore, a country cannot declare illegal a transaction between two foreigners that is intended to be carried out in their own respective countries, as it goes against the principle of territorial sovereignty.

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  • 45. 

    There are various functions as performed by the Law of Torts. Which of the following is its Primary function?

    • Spreading of losses throughout the society

    • Punish the wrongdoer

    • Imposition of moral blame

    • Compensate the claimant

    Correct Answer
    A. Compensate the claimant
    Explanation
    The primary function of the Law of Torts is to compensate the claimant. This means that when someone suffers harm or loss due to the actions of another party, the law aims to provide financial compensation to the victim. This compensation is intended to help the claimant recover from the harm they have suffered and restore them to the position they were in before the incident occurred. By compensating the claimant, the law seeks to ensure that they are not left to bear the burden of the harm caused by someone else's wrongdoing.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is not held Vicariously Liable?

    • Principle

    • Agent

    • Partner

    • Master

    Correct Answer
    A. Agent
    Explanation
    Vicarious liability refers to the legal responsibility of one person for the actions or omissions of another person. In this context, an agent is someone who acts on behalf of another person or entity, and therefore can be held vicariously liable for their actions. However, partners and masters can also be held vicariously liable for the actions of their agents. Therefore, the correct answer is "Agent" as they can be held vicariously liable.

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  • 47. 

    What is the minimum subscription amount required by a Company?

    • 80 percent

    • 75 percent

    • 51 percent

    • 90 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 percent
    Explanation
    The minimum subscription amount required by a company is 90 percent. This means that when a company issues shares to the public, at least 90 percent of the shares must be subscribed for by the public. This requirement ensures that there is sufficient public interest and investment in the company, and helps to protect the interests of shareholders.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following ground has been removed by the Indian government as a ground of Divorce?

    • Adultery

    • Conversion

    • Leprosy

    • Venereal disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Leprosy
    Explanation
    The Indian government has removed leprosy as a ground for divorce. This means that having leprosy is no longer considered a valid reason for a spouse to seek a divorce. This change reflects a shift in societal attitudes towards leprosy, recognizing that it is a curable disease and should not be a basis for ending a marriage.

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  • 49. 

    Fast track procedure is provided under Section ______ of the Arbitration Act?

    • 29

    • 29A

    • 29B

    • 30A

    Correct Answer
    A. 29B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 29B. The fast track procedure is provided under Section 29B of the Arbitration Act. This section allows for the expedited resolution of disputes through arbitration. It sets out specific rules and procedures that must be followed in order to qualify for the fast track procedure. This option is the correct answer because it accurately identifies the section of the Act that governs the fast track procedure.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 20, 2019
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