Tll 6th National Law Quiz Prelims

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Tll 6th National Law Quiz Prelims - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution has to be amended to create a New State in India?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    B. 1
    Explanation
    Schedule 1 of the Indian Constitution lists the names of the states and union territories of India. To create a new state in India, an amendment would need to be made to this schedule in order to include the name of the new state. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following Writ can be issued against purely Administrative bodies?

    • A.

      Prohibition

    • B.

      Mandamus

    • C.

      Certiorari

    • D.

      Both [a] and [c]

    Correct Answer
    C. Certiorari
    Explanation
    Certiorari is the correct answer because it is a writ that can be issued against purely administrative bodies. This writ is used to review the decisions and actions of administrative bodies to ensure they are within their legal authority and have not acted arbitrarily or unlawfully. It allows the higher court to examine the record of the lower administrative body and determine if any errors were made. Prohibition and Mandamus, on the other hand, are writs that are typically used to control the actions of judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, rather than purely administrative bodies.

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  • 3. 

    The Constituent Assembly had its first Session on 9th December, 1946. Which city is said to have hosted the first session of the Assembly?

    • A.

      Lahore

    • B.

      Kolkata

    • C.

      Jabalpur

    • D.

      Delhi

    Correct Answer
    D. Delhi
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Delhi. The Constituent Assembly had its first session in Delhi on 9th December, 1946. This session marked the beginning of the process of drafting the Constitution of India.

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  • 4. 

    The Constitution of India provides for a lot of Institutions and Bodies, to facilitate the working and development of the nation. Which of these is a non constitutional body?

    • A.

      Planning Commission

    • B.

      Finance Commission

    • C.

      Election Commission

    • D.

      Union Public Service Commission

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning Commission
    Explanation
    The Planning Commission is a non-constitutional body in India. Unlike the Election Commission and the Union Public Service Commission, which are constitutional bodies mentioned in the Constitution of India, the Planning Commission was not mentioned in the Constitution. It was an extra-constitutional body that was responsible for formulating India's Five-Year Plans and coordinating development initiatives. However, in 2014, the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog, making it no longer existent.

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  • 5. 

    The 44th Constitutional Amendment marked the cessation of a Fundamental Right from Part III of the Constitution. Which of these Articles is the right incorporated under as a mere Constitutional Right?

    • A.

      299A

    • B.

      300B

    • C.

      300A

    • D.

      19 [1] [h]

    Correct Answer
    C. 300A
    Explanation
    In the 44th Constitutional Amendment, Article 300A was incorporated as a mere Constitutional Right. This means that it is not considered a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution. The amendment marked the cessation of a Fundamental Right, but Article 300A was included to provide protection to individuals in matters of property rights. Therefore, the correct answer is 300A.

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  • 6. 

    Schedule VII presents 3 Lists which are essential for the division of powers amongst the Centre and the State. Which of the following holds the residuary powers in the Indian federation?

    • A.

      Centre

    • B.

      State

    • C.

      Judiciary

    • D.

      Case to Case basis

    Correct Answer
    A. Centre
    Explanation
    The Centre holds the residuary powers in the Indian federation. This means that any powers not specifically assigned to the Centre or the State in the Constitution are automatically vested with the Centre. These powers are essential for maintaining the unity and integrity of the country, and they allow the Centre to make decisions and enact laws in areas that are not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.

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  • 7. 

    Which among the following landmark ruling overturned the effects of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, brought out by the Government after the landmark 'Kesavananda Bharati' judgement. 

    • A.

      Golaknath v. State of Punjab

    • B.

      S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

    • C.

      Minnerva Mills v. Union of India

    • D.

      Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

    Correct Answer
    C. Minnerva Mills v. Union of India
    Explanation
    The Minnerva Mills v. Union of India ruling overturned the effects of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. This amendment was brought about by the government after the landmark 'Kesavananda Bharati' judgment.

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  • 8. 

    Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?

    • A.

      Speaker

    • B.

      President 

    • C.

      Vice President

    • D.

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    C. Vice President
    Explanation
    The Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States. As per the Indian Constitution, the Vice President holds the position of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The Vice President has the authority to preside over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha, maintain order, and interpret the rules of procedure. This role ensures that the Vice President, in addition to being the second-highest constitutional authority in the country, also plays a crucial role in the functioning of the upper house of the Indian Parliament.

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  • 9. 

    In case of breach of contract of sale of some rare article or thing for which there is no substitute in the market, the court may grant?

    • A.

      Quantum Meriut

    • B.

      Rescission

    • C.

      Specific Performance

    • D.

      Temporary Injunction

    Correct Answer
    C. Specific Performance
    Explanation
    In case of breach of contract of sale of some rare article or thing for which there is no substitute in the market, the court may grant specific performance. This means that the court can order the breaching party to fulfill their obligations under the contract and complete the sale as originally agreed upon. This remedy is typically used when monetary compensation is not sufficient to adequately compensate the non-breaching party due to the unique nature of the item involved.

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  • 10. 

    If the time fixed for performance of the contract has expired but the time is not essential, what is the remedy of the promisee in this case?

    • A.

      He can rescind the contract

    • B.

      No remedy is available

    • C.

      He can claim compensation

    • D.

      Cannot be determined

    Correct Answer
    C. He can claim compensation
    Explanation
    If the time fixed for performance of the contract has expired but the time is not essential, the promisee can claim compensation. This means that even though the contract was not performed within the specified time frame, the promisee can still seek financial compensation for any losses or damages incurred due to the delay. This remedy allows the promisee to be compensated for any inconvenience or harm caused by the late performance of the contract.

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  • 11. 

    The Contract Act, 1872 consists of ___ Sections?

    • A.

      238

    • B.

      248

    • C.

      228

    • D.

      268

    Correct Answer
    A. 238
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 238. The Contract Act, 1872 consists of 238 sections.

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  • 12. 

    Santa posts a letter of offer on 15th December, which is received by Banta on 18th December. On 20th December, Banta posts a letter of acceptance, which is received by Santa on 24th December. When does the acceptance of offer complete against Santa?

    • A.

      15th December

    • B.

      18th December

    • C.

      20th December

    • D.

      24th December

    Correct Answer
    C. 20th December
    Explanation
    The acceptance of the offer is completed on 20th December because that is the date when Banta posts the letter of acceptance. Posting the acceptance letter signifies Banta's intention to accept the offer, and once the letter is posted, the acceptance is considered complete. The fact that Santa receives the letter on 24th December is not relevant to determining when the acceptance is complete.

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  • 13. 

    Where a person pledges goods in which he has only a limited interest, the pledge is ?

    • A.

      Invalid

    • B.

      Valid

    • C.

      Indeterminable

    • D.

      Valid to the extent of that interest

    Correct Answer
    D. Valid to the extent of that interest
    Explanation
    When a person pledges goods in which he has only a limited interest, the pledge is considered valid to the extent of that interest. This means that the person can pledge and use the goods as collateral for a loan or debt, but only up to the amount or value of their limited interest in the goods. The pledge does not extend beyond that specific interest, so any additional claims or rights to the goods by others may not be affected by the pledge.

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  • 14. 

    The Indian Contract Act came into force on ?

    • A.

      September 1, 1872

    • B.

      December 1, 1872

    • C.

      July 1, 1872

    • D.

      December 2, 1872

    Correct Answer
    A. September 1, 1872
    Explanation
    The Indian Contract Act came into force on September 1, 1872. This date marks the official implementation of the Act, which governs contracts and agreements in India. It was enacted to provide a legal framework for the formation and enforcement of contracts, ensuring fairness and protection for parties involved in business transactions.

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  • 15. 

    A agrees to pay B Rs 15,000 for suing C and in turn seeking 50 per cent share in the proceeds received by B in the suit, This is an example of

    • A.

      Stifling with Prosecution

    • B.

      Champerty

    • C.

      Maintenance

    • D.

      Interfere with course of justice

    Correct Answer
    B. Champerty
    Explanation
    Champerty refers to an agreement where a third party (A) agrees to finance a lawsuit on behalf of another party (B) in exchange for a share of the proceeds. In this case, A agrees to pay B Rs 15,000 for suing C and in return, A seeks a 50% share in the proceeds received by B in the suit. This arrangement falls under champerty as it involves a financial interest in the outcome of the lawsuit.

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  • 16. 

    A contracts to marry B. Before the agreed date of marriage, A marries C. Here, B is entitled to sue A for

    • A.

      Actual Breach in an express manner

    • B.

      Anticipatory Breach in an express manner

    • C.

      Actual Breach in an implied manner

    • D.

      Anticipatory Breach in an implied manner

    Correct Answer
    A. Actual Breach in an express manner
    Explanation
    In this scenario, A had a contract to marry B, but before the agreed date of marriage, A married C. This action by A can be considered as an actual breach of the contract in an express manner. A explicitly violated the terms of the contract by marrying someone else instead of B. Therefore, B is entitled to sue A for actual breach in an express manner.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following provision of the Indian Penal Code 1860 deals with Dowry Death?

    • A.

      302B

    • B.

      304B

    • C.

      498B

    • D.

      303A

    Correct Answer
    B. 304B
    Explanation
    Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code 1860 deals with Dowry Death. This section states that if a woman dies within seven years of her marriage and it is shown that her death was a result of cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives for dowry, then it is considered a dowry death. The section provides for punishment of imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life.

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  • 18. 

    According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is the act of:

    • A.

      Stalking

    • B.

      Acid Attack

    • C.

      Voyeurism

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    B. Acid Attack
    Explanation
    According to the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is an acid attack. This means that if someone is being subjected to an acid attack, they have the right to defend themselves by causing harm or even death to the attacker. The law recognizes the severity and life-threatening nature of acid attacks, allowing victims to protect themselves by any means necessary.

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  • 19. 

    Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:

    • A.

      Life of a human being

    • B.

      Life of an Animal

    • C.

      Both [a] and [b]

    • D.

      Either [a] or [b]

    Correct Answer
    A. Life of a human being
    Explanation
    Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes the existence or duration of a human being. This means that any harm or injury caused to a human being that results in the loss of life will be considered a serious offense under the Indian Penal Code. The section does not include animals, therefore the correct answer is "Life of a human being."

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  • 20. 

    Indian Penal Code 1960 provides for Murder under which provision?

    • A.

      302

    • B.

      303

    • C.

      300

    • D.

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the Above
    Explanation
    The given question is incorrect as there is no Indian Penal Code (IPC) in 1960. The Indian Penal Code was enacted in 1860 and has not been revised since then. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the Above" as none of the options provided are valid provisions under the IPC.

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  • 21. 

    Imagine a situation, where the trial of a criminal case has been completed. The Judge, after perusal of the facts, precedents, arguments, witnesses and evidences has finally written his judgement. However, the Judge dies before delivering the judgement. 

    • A.

      The judgement is Final, if it is signed by the judge. 

    • B.

      The judgement shall be final, if delivered by another Judge. 

    • C.

      The judgement shall not be final. 

    • D.

      The judgement shall be referred to the higher Court.

    Correct Answer
    C. The judgement shall not be final. 
    Explanation
    If the judge dies before delivering the judgment, the judgment shall not be final. This is because the judge's signature is necessary to make the judgment final. Since the judge did not have the opportunity to sign the judgment, it cannot be considered final.

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  • 22. 

    The inherent powers of a Sessions Court are provided under which provision of CrPC?

    • A.

      482

    • B.

      151

    • C.

      462

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. None
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None" because the inherent powers of a Sessions Court are not provided under any specific provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). The inherent powers of the court are derived from the general principles of justice and fairness, allowing it to pass any orders necessary to secure the ends of justice. These powers are not explicitly mentioned in any specific provision of the CrPC.

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  • 23. 

    Generally, A Dying Declaration can be made under

    • A.

      Magistrate

    • B.

      Police officer

    • C.

      Government Officials

    • D.

      Any Person

    Correct Answer
    D. Any Person
    Explanation
    A dying declaration is a statement made by a person who believes they are about to die, and it is considered admissible as evidence in court. The rationale behind allowing any person to make a dying declaration is that when someone is on the brink of death, they have no reason to lie or fabricate information. Therefore, the law recognizes that the statement of any person, regardless of their profession or position, can be considered a dying declaration.

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  • 24. 

    I set out to the world that 'Necessity is not a defence for the charge of Murder.' I am a well known Landmark decision concerning cannibalism on a ship. Who am I?

    • A.

      The Grand Shipman case

    • B.

      R v. Dudley and Stephens

    • C.

      R v. Queen

    • D.

      R v. Sussex

    Correct Answer
    B. R v. Dudley and Stephens
    Explanation
    R v. Dudley and Stephens is the correct answer because it is a landmark decision concerning cannibalism on a ship. In this case, the defendants were stranded at sea and resorted to killing and eating a cabin boy in order to survive. The court ruled that necessity was not a defense for the charge of murder, establishing a precedent that the taking of an innocent life, even in extreme circumstances, is not justified. This case has had a significant impact on the legal understanding of the limits of necessity as a defense in criminal law.

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  • 25. 

    Majorly, How many sub schools does Shia and Sunni have respectively?

    • A.

      3 and 4

    • B.

      4 and 5

    • C.

      4 and 3

    • D.

      5 and 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 and 4
    Explanation
    Shia Islam has three major sub-schools, which are the Zaidi, Ismaili, and Twelver schools. Sunni Islam, on the other hand, has four major sub-schools, which are the Hanafi, Maliki, Shafi'i, and Hanbali schools.

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  • 26. 

    When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the same wife, they are said to be related to each other ?

    • A.

      Step relationship

    • B.

      By half blood

    • C.

      By uterine blood

    • D.

      By full blood

    Correct Answer
    D. By full blood
    Explanation
    When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the same wife, they are said to be related to each other by full blood. This means that they share a direct blood relationship through their common ancestor and the same biological mother. This term is used to distinguish this type of relationship from other types, such as half blood or step relationships, which may involve only partial or non-biological connections.

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  • 27. 

    Alienation by the Karta without any legal necessity shall be ?

    • A.

      Valid

    • B.

      Void

    • C.

      Voidable 

    • D.

      Void ab initio

    Correct Answer
    C. Voidable 
    Explanation
    When an alienation (transfer) is made by the Karta (head of a Hindu Undivided Family) without any legal necessity, it is considered voidable. This means that the transfer can be challenged by the other members of the family and can be declared invalid if it is found to be against their interests or in violation of the law. However, until it is challenged and declared void, the transfer remains valid.

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  • 28. 

    Sapinda relationship & Prohibited relationship

    • A.

      Are dependent on each other

    • B.

      Are mutually exclusive

    • C.

      May overlap each other

    • D.

      None of the above is correct.

    Correct Answer
    C. May overlap each other
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "May overlap each other." This means that sapinda relationship and prohibited relationship can have some common elements or characteristics, but they are not completely the same. They may share certain aspects but also have distinct features that differentiate them from each other.

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  • 29. 

    Muta marriage is a _________ Marriage, recognized by _______ school?

    • A.

      Ilegal and Ithna Asharias

    • B.

      Temporary and Ithna Asharias

    • C.

      Permanent and Sunni

    • D.

      Joint venture and Sunni

    Correct Answer
    A. Ilegal and Ithna Asharias
    Explanation
    Muta marriage is considered illegal and is recognized by the Ithna Asharias school. Muta marriage, also known as temporary marriage, is a controversial practice in Shia Islam where a man and a woman enter into a temporary contractual marriage for a fixed period of time. However, this practice is not accepted by Sunni Muslims and is considered illegal in many countries. The Ithna Asharias school, also known as the Twelver Shia school, is one of the main branches of Shia Islam that recognizes and allows muta marriage.

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  • 30. 

    The custody of a Muslim son belongs to whom, until he is the age of 7 years?

    • A.

      Father

    • B.

      Paternal uncle

    • C.

      Grandfather

    • D.

      Mother

    Correct Answer
    D. Mother
    Explanation
    In Islamic law, the custody of a Muslim son belongs to the mother until he reaches the age of 7 years. This is based on the belief that the mother is best suited to provide care and nurturing to young children. After the age of 7, custody may be transferred to the father or other male relatives depending on the circumstances.

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  • 31. 

    A, a Hindu, created a will at the age in 1957. However, he rescinded the will in 1966. He again created a will in 1976, but later revoked and created another will in 2005 and then died. Apparently, there seemed to be a conflict in his will and the prevailing law of succession. Decide ?

    • A.

      The Hindu Succession Act shall prevail as the first will was made in 1957

    • B.

      Hindu Succession Act shall prevail as the last will was created in 2005

    • C.

      The Hindu Succession Act shall prevail as 3 wills cannot be created. 

    • D.

      The Will shall prevail over the Hindu Succession Act.

    Correct Answer
    D. The Will shall prevail over the Hindu Succession Act.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The Will shall prevail over the Hindu Succession Act." This is because a will is a legal document that expresses a person's final wishes regarding the distribution of their property after death. As long as the will was validly executed and not revoked, it takes precedence over the general laws of succession. In this case, although there were multiple wills and revocations, the last will created in 2005 would be considered the most recent expression of the individual's wishes and would therefore prevail over the Hindu Succession Act.

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  • 32. 

    Usually, What is the age of majority in Muslim Law?

    • A.

      18

    • B.

      21, if legal guardian is appointed

    • C.

      Puberty

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    C. Puberty
    Explanation
    In Muslim Law, the age of majority is considered to be at puberty. This means that a person is considered an adult and is legally responsible for their actions once they reach the age of puberty. This is different from other legal systems where the age of majority is usually set at a specific age, such as 18 or 21. In Muslim Law, the age of majority is determined by physical and biological changes rather than a specific numerical age.

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  • 33. 

    In which year and under which provision were Illegitimate Children given equal Rights as Legitimate Children under the Hindu Marriage Act?

    • A.

      1937, Section 14

    • B.

      1976, Section 16

    • C.

      1976, Section 15

    • D.

      1955, Section 14

    Correct Answer
    B. 1976, Section 16
    Explanation
    In 1976, under Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, illegitimate children were given equal rights as legitimate children. This provision aimed to ensure that children born out of wedlock were not discriminated against and had the same rights and privileges as children born within a valid marriage.

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  • 34. 

    The term of Judges of the International Court of Judges is ?

    • A.

      6 years

    • B.

      5 years

    • C.

      9 years

    • D.

      10 years

    Correct Answer
    C. 9 years
    Explanation
    The term of Judges of the International Court of Justice is 9 years. This allows for a sufficient amount of time for judges to serve on the court and contribute to its work. It also ensures a regular turnover of judges, allowing for fresh perspectives and expertise to be brought to the court. This length of term strikes a balance between providing stability and continuity while also allowing for new judges to be appointed periodically.

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  • 35. 

     Piracy is an offense within the jurisdiction of the 

    • A.

      Flag States

    • B.

      Offenders State

    • C.

      All States

    • D.

      Consenting States

    Correct Answer
    C. All States
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All States." Piracy is considered an offense within the jurisdiction of all states because it is a violation of international law. Piracy occurs on the high seas, which are considered to be outside the jurisdiction of any particular state. Therefore, any state has the authority to take action against pirates and prosecute them under their own laws. Additionally, there are international agreements and conventions that require states to cooperate in combating piracy, further establishing the jurisdiction of all states in dealing with this offense.

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  • 36. 

    Observer State concept is a unique concept of the United Nations. Currently, Holy See and the Palestine are the observer States of the UN. Which of the following has never been the Observer State of the United Nations?

    • A.

      Spain

    • B.

      North Korea

    • C.

      Japan

    • D.

      China

    Correct Answer
    D. China
    Explanation
    China has never been an Observer State of the United Nations. While Spain, North Korea, and Japan have all held the status of Observer State at some point, China has not. Observer States are non-member states that have been granted permission to participate in UN General Assembly meetings and activities.

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  • 37. 

    The UN Charter came into force on 24th October 1945. It is celebrated as the United Nations day worldwide. When was the UN Charter signed?

    • A.

      26 May 1944

    • B.

      26 July 1945

    • C.

      26 June 1945

    • D.

      26 August 1945

    Correct Answer
    C. 26 June 1945
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 26 June 1945. This is the date when the UN Charter was signed. The UN Charter is a treaty that established the United Nations as an international organization. It was signed by 50 countries at the San Francisco Conference, and it came into force on 24th October 1945. The signing of the UN Charter marked an important milestone in international cooperation and the promotion of peace and security worldwide.

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  • 38. 

    Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

    • A.

      Customary rules of International Law are diminishing and are being replaced by law making treaties and conventions

    • B.

      States do not deny the existence of International Law. On the contrary, they interpret International Law making so as to justify their conduct.

    • C.

      A great limitation of International Law is that it can not intervene in matters which are with in the domestic jurisdiction of states

    • D.

      International Law is positive morality of state having no force

    Correct Answer
    D. International Law is positive morality of state having no force
    Explanation
    The statement that International Law is positive morality of state having no force is incorrect. International Law is not just a moral code, but it also has legal force and is binding on states. It is a set of rules and principles that govern the conduct of states in their relations with each other. States are obligated to comply with International Law and can be held accountable for violations. Therefore, International Law is not solely based on morality but also has legal consequences and enforcement mechanisms.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

    • A.

      Reparation for Injuries case - UN's Legal Personality

    • B.

      Nicaragua case - Issue of Nationality

    • C.

      Genocide Convention case - Reservation

    • D.

      Pinochet case - Extradition and Immunity

    Correct Answer
    B. Nicaragua case - Issue of Nationality
    Explanation
    The Nicaragua case is incorrectly matched with the issue of nationality. The Nicaragua case actually dealt with the issue of armed attacks and intervention in the affairs of another state. The case was brought before the International Court of Justice by Nicaragua against the United States, alleging that the US had supported armed groups in Nicaragua and violated its sovereignty. The issue of nationality was not the main focus of this case.

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  • 40. 

    Which one of the following-domestic laws of a country is illegal under International Law?

    • A.

      A law declaring an act of a citizen illegal, regardless of the place where it is committed

    • B.

      A law declaring a contract between a national and foreigner concluded within the country, illegal

    • C.

      A law declaring illegal a transaction between two foreigners concluded to be performed in their respective countries

    • D.

      Law declaring illegal an act on board a national aircraft or a national vessel

    Correct Answer
    C. A law declaring illegal a transaction between two foreigners concluded to be performed in their respective countries
    Explanation
    A law declaring illegal a transaction between two foreigners concluded to be performed in their respective countries is illegal under International Law because it violates the principle of sovereignty. International Law recognizes the principle of territoriality, which means that each country has jurisdiction over acts committed within its own territory. Therefore, a country cannot declare illegal a transaction between two foreigners that is intended to be carried out in their own respective countries, as it goes against the principle of territorial sovereignty.

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  • 41. 

    Imagine if there is a conflict between two nations who are party to a Treaty. There is a conflict within the treaty and customary law. 

    • A.

       the rules of customary law become jus cogens 

    • B.

      Both the treaty law and the customary law co-exist

    • C.

      The customary law overrides the treaty law

    • D.

      The treaty law overrides the customary law 

    Correct Answer
    D. The treaty law overrides the customary law 
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is that the treaty law overrides the customary law. This is because treaties are considered binding agreements between nations and take precedence over customary law, which is based on long-standing practices and beliefs. When there is a conflict between the two, the specific provisions of the treaty will prevail over any conflicting customary law.

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  • 42. 

    How many State are parties to the ICJ?

    • A.

      192

    • B.

      196

    • C.

      194

    • D.

      193

    Correct Answer
    D. 193
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 193. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It is composed of 15 judges elected by the UN General Assembly and Security Council. As of now, there are 193 member states in the UN, and all member states are automatically parties to the ICJ.

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  • 43. 

    The Law of Torts acts as an essential branch of the law and protects a lot of interests. Which of the following interests is not protected by the law of tort?

    • A.

      Peaceful enjoyment of one's land

    • B.

      Physical safety

    • C.

      Reputation

    • D.

      Loss of commercial profit due to competition

    Correct Answer
    D. Loss of commercial profit due to competition
    Explanation
    The law of torts protects various interests, such as the peaceful enjoyment of one's land, physical safety, and reputation. However, loss of commercial profit due to competition is not protected by the law of tort. This means that if a business experiences a decrease in profits due to competition from another company, they cannot seek legal protection or compensation under tort law. Tort law primarily focuses on providing remedies for harm caused by wrongful acts or negligence, rather than addressing economic losses resulting from competition.

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  • 44. 

    A consumer is not satisfied with district forum. In how many days he can challenge the same and approach the State Commission?

    • A.

      60

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      31

    • D.

      180

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    A consumer who is not satisfied with the district forum can challenge the same and approach the State Commission within 30 days. This time frame allows the consumer to escalate their complaint and seek resolution at a higher level if they feel that their concerns were not adequately addressed by the district forum.

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  • 45. 

    As per section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, "complainant" means

    • A.

      A Consumer

    • B.

      Central or State Government

    • C.

      Consumer's family members

    • D.

      [a] and [b] Both

    Correct Answer
    D. [a] and [b] Both
    Explanation
    As per section 2(1)(b) of the Consumer Protection Act 1986, the term "complainant" refers to both a consumer and the Central or State Government. This means that both consumers and the government have the right to file a complaint under this act. The act recognizes the importance of both individual consumers and the government in seeking justice and protection against unfair practices or grievances related to consumer rights.

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  • 46. 

    The following is not a consumer

    • A.

      Insurance Company

    • B.

      Licensee to run a phone

    • C.

      Lottery ticket holder

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Insurance Company
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Insurance Company. An insurance company is not considered a consumer because it is a business entity that provides financial protection to individuals or other businesses in exchange for premiums. Consumers, on the other hand, are individuals or households that purchase goods or services for personal use. Therefore, an insurance company does not fit the definition of a consumer.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following cases best reflect the principle of Injuria sine damnum and damnum sine injuria, respectively?

    • A.

      Donoghue v. Stevenson and Gloucester Grammar School

    • B.

      Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir and Gloucester Grammar School

    • C.

      Gloucester Grammar School  and Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir

    • D.

      Kasturia Ram v. State of Jammu and Kashmir and Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir

    Correct Answer
    B. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir and Gloucester Grammar School
    Explanation
    The principle of Injuria sine damnum refers to a legal principle where there is an injury caused without any actual damage or loss. Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir reflects this principle as it involves a violation of fundamental rights without any tangible harm or loss suffered. On the other hand, the principle of damnum sine injuria refers to a legal principle where there is actual damage or loss suffered without any legal injury. Gloucester Grammar School reflects this principle as it involves actual harm or damage suffered by the school without any legal injury being caused.

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  • 48. 

    The Liabilities under Torts Act 1999, provides for a maximum Compensation amount of ?

    • A.

      20 Lakh

    • B.

      1 Crore

    • C.

      1 Lakh

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. None
  • 49. 

    Decide the applicability of the Consumer Protection Act 1986

    • A.

      Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir

    • B.

      Whole of India

    • C.

      Whole of India excluding Nagaland and tribal areas

    • D.

      Whole of India excluding Andaman and Lakshwadeep

    Correct Answer
    A. Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir
    Explanation
    The Consumer Protection Act 1986 is applicable to the whole of India, except for the state of Jammu and Kashmir. This means that the Act covers all states and union territories of India, except for Jammu and Kashmir. The Act aims to protect the rights of consumers and provide them with a mechanism to seek redressal for any grievances they may have against unfair trade practices or defective products.

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  • 50. 

    The law of contract is different from the law of tort in which way?

    • A.

      It is actionable in both the civil and criminal courts

    • B.

      Contracts are always written

    • C.

      Tort is made up predominantly of statute law

    • D.

      It generally concerns a relationship between two parties only

    Correct Answer
    D. It generally concerns a relationship between two parties only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the law of contract generally concerns a relationship between two parties only. This means that contracts are typically formed between two individuals or entities, and the rights and obligations under the contract are enforceable between these parties. In contrast, the law of tort involves actions that cause harm or injury to others, and the injured party can seek compensation or damages from the party responsible for the harm. Tort law is not limited to a specific relationship between two parties and can involve multiple parties.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 20, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    The LAW
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