Year 2 Practice Examination

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Year 2 Practice Examination - Quiz

To all the year 2 students out there who are almost doing their exams and need practice take this quiz. Specifically designed to find out your knowledge in class during the previous semester.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which management style fits well with an organization that is highly decentralized with relatively few levels of management?

    • A.

      A. autocratic

    • B.

      B. bureaucratic

    • C.

      C. democratic

    • D.

      D. theocratic

    Correct Answer
    C. C. democratic
    Explanation
    A highly decentralized organization with relatively few levels of management is best suited for a democratic management style. In this style, decision-making is shared among employees and there is a focus on collaboration and participation. This allows for greater autonomy and empowerment among employees, which aligns well with a decentralized structure. Autocratic management style, where decision-making is centralized and top-down, would not be suitable in this case. Bureaucratic and theocratic management styles are also not appropriate as they involve rigid rules and regulations or religious authority, which may not be conducive to a decentralized organization.

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  • 2. 

    If a company’s organizational structure is flat, then the company:

    • A.

      A. is highly centralized.

    • B.

      B. will have problems responding appropriately in a fast-changing environment.

    • C.

      C. is highly decentralized.

    • D.

      D. none of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. none of the above.
    Explanation
    A flat organizational structure refers to a structure with few hierarchical levels and a wide span of control. It is characterized by a decentralized decision-making process and a more collaborative and flexible approach. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that a flat organizational structure is highly centralized. Additionally, while it is true that a flat structure may face challenges in responding quickly to a fast-changing environment, it is not accurate to say that it will have problems responding appropriately. Hence, the correct answer is "d. none of the above."

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  • 3. 

    Companies wishing to establish strong policies against sexual harassment should not:

    • A.

      A. issue a strong policy statement against sexual harassment.

    • B.

      B. gather facts, and avoid prejudging.

    • C.

      C. forbid the telling of any sexual-related jokes or stories.

    • D.

      D. take remedial action to correct past sexual harassment.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. forbid the telling of any sexual-related jokes or stories.
    Explanation
    Establishing strong policies against sexual harassment is important in creating a safe and respectful work environment. However, forbidding the telling of any sexual-related jokes or stories may not be the most effective approach. While it is important to discourage and address inappropriate behavior, completely banning all sexual-related jokes or stories can be seen as overly restrictive and may hinder open communication and camaraderie among employees. It is more effective to educate employees about what constitutes inappropriate behavior and provide guidelines for maintaining a respectful workplace, rather than imposing a blanket ban on all sexual-related jokes or stories.

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  • 4. 

    Assuming that the other person has little information to offer and dominating a conversation is called:

    • A.

      A. defensiveness.

    • B.

      B. arrogance.

    • C.

      C. status.

    • D.

      D. hidden agendas.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. arrogance.
    Explanation
    Dominating a conversation and assuming that the other person has little information to offer is considered as arrogance. Arrogance is characterized by an excessive sense of self-importance and a disregard for others' opinions or input. In this scenario, the person is not open to hearing the other person's perspective and instead focuses on asserting their own ideas and opinions. This behavior can be seen as dismissive and disrespectful towards the other person, indicating a lack of humility and an inflated sense of superiority.

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  • 5. 

    All but which of the following is an element of the speaking environment?  

    • A.

      A. posture

    • B.

      B. equipment

    • C.

      C. flip charts

    • D.

      D. lighting

    Correct Answer
    A. A. posture
    Explanation
    The speaking environment consists of various elements that contribute to effective communication. Posture, although important for the speaker's body language and presence, is not directly a part of the speaking environment. The other options, equipment, flip charts, and lighting, are all tangible elements that can affect the speaker's delivery and the audience's understanding.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is the document that states the norms and rules for interacting on a team?

    • A.

      A. action plan

    • B.

      B. team agenda

    • C.

      C. code of conduct

    • D.

      D. team mission statement

    Correct Answer
    C. C. code of conduct
    Explanation
    The document that states the norms and rules for interacting on a team is the code of conduct. This document outlines the expected behavior and guidelines for team members to follow in order to maintain a positive and productive working environment. It helps to establish clear expectations and standards for communication, collaboration, and professionalism within the team.

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  • 7. 

    When team members begin sacrificing valuable differences of opinion for the sake of team unity, they are exhibiting a phenomenon called:

    • A.

      A. timiditis.

    • B.

      B. team conformity.

    • C.

      C. groupthink.

    • D.

      D. dittoism.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. groupthink.
    Explanation
    When team members prioritize maintaining harmony and consensus over expressing their individual opinions and ideas, it is known as groupthink. This phenomenon occurs when the desire for unanimity within the group overrides critical thinking and independent decision-making. In such situations, team members may suppress their own doubts and concerns to avoid conflict, which can lead to poor decision-making and a lack of creativity. Groupthink can hinder innovation and result in a narrow perspective, limiting the team's ability to consider alternative viewpoints and make well-informed choices.

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  • 8. 

    In what way does an internship benefit a student?  

    • A.

      A. opportunity to decide whether he or she wants to work in the industry

    • B.

      B. short-term job allows employer to evaluate student

    • C.

      C. student might get out of class early

    • D.

      D. all of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A. opportunity to decide whether he or she wants to work in the industry
    Explanation
    An internship benefits a student by providing them with the opportunity to decide whether they want to work in the industry. This experience allows them to gain firsthand knowledge and insight into the field, helping them determine if it aligns with their career goals and interests. It also allows them to network with professionals in the industry, gain practical skills, and enhance their resume. The other options (b. short-term job allows employer to evaluate student and c. student might get out of class early) are not accurate explanations of how an internship benefits a student.

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  • 9. 

    What should you bring with you to a job interview?

    • A.

      A. extra resumes

    • B.

      B. paper and pen

    • C.

      C. a positive attitude

    • D.

      D. all of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. all of the above
    Explanation
    When going for a job interview, it is important to be prepared and organized. Bringing extra resumes is essential in case the interviewer asks for additional copies or if there are multiple interviewers. Paper and pen are necessary for taking notes during the interview or jotting down any important information. Lastly, a positive attitude is crucial as it reflects your enthusiasm and eagerness for the job. Therefore, bringing all of the above (extra resumes, paper and pen, and a positive attitude) is recommended for a successful job interview.

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  • 10. 

    In the hospitality industry, the job title of a salesperson is likely to be:    

    • A.

      A. hotel representative.

    • B.

      B. clerk.

    • C.

      C. account manager.

    • D.

      D. market coordinator.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. account manager.
    Explanation
    In the hospitality industry, a salesperson is likely to be called an account manager. This job title implies that the person is responsible for managing client accounts and promoting sales within the industry. The term "hotel representative" is too generic and does not specifically indicate a sales role. "Clerk" typically refers to a front desk or administrative position, which may not involve sales. "Market coordinator" suggests a role in coordinating marketing activities, but may not necessarily involve direct sales responsibilities.

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  • 11. 

    The Four Ps of marketing are:

    • A.

      A. product, planning, personality, and performance.

    • B.

      B. people, places, psychology, and purchase.

    • C.

      C. product, place, price, and promotion.

    • D.

      D. promotion, placement, predominance, and professionalism.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. product, place, price, and promotion.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. product, place, price, and promotion. These are the four fundamental elements of marketing known as the Four Ps. Product refers to the goods or services being offered, place refers to the distribution channels and locations where the product is available, price refers to the pricing strategy and how much customers are willing to pay, and promotion refers to the marketing and advertising activities used to create awareness and generate sales.

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  • 12. 

    Guests in the ___________ segment are typically reimbursed for hotel stays on a fixed, per-diem basis.

    • A.

      A. convention and association group

    • B.

      B. leisure traveler

    • C.

      C. government and military traveler

    • D.

      D. regional getaway guests

    Correct Answer
    C. C. government and military traveler
    Explanation
    Government and military travelers are typically reimbursed for hotel stays on a fixed, per-diem basis. This means that they are given a set amount of money per day to cover their hotel expenses. This is common practice for government and military organizations to ensure consistent and controlled spending on accommodations.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not a recommended means for helping staff become familiar with the area surrounding the hotel?

    • A.

      A. Encourage staff to personally experience local attractions.

    • B.

      B. Suggest that staff occasionally accompany guests to local attractions.

    • C.

      C. Hold training sessions on local attractions.

    • D.

      D. Encourage employees to stay up-to-date on area events and attractions.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Suggest that staff occasionally accompany guests to local attractions.
    Explanation
    Encouraging staff to personally experience local attractions, holding training sessions on local attractions, and encouraging employees to stay up-to-date on area events and attractions are all recommended means for helping staff become familiar with the area surrounding the hotel. However, suggesting that staff occasionally accompany guests to local attractions is not recommended as it may interfere with their regular duties and responsibilities at the hotel.

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  • 14. 

    Upgrading or upselling is an example of a _____________ approach to sales.

    • A.

      A. suggestive-selling

    • B.

      B. team-driven

    • C.

      C. high-pressure

    • D.

      D. benefits-oriented

    Correct Answer
    D. D. benefits-oriented
    Explanation
    Upgrading or upselling involves highlighting the benefits of a higher-priced product or service to the customer. This approach focuses on demonstrating how the customer will benefit from the upgrade, such as improved features, enhanced performance, or additional services. The goal is to show the customer the value and advantages they will gain by choosing the higher-priced option. Therefore, upgrading or upselling is a benefits-oriented approach to sales.

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  • 15. 

    The best time of day for salespeople to call clients or prospects is:

    • A.

      A. during the early-morning hours.

    • B.

      B. in the middle of the workday.

    • C.

      C. during the late-afternoon hours.

    • D.

      D. anytime during the workday.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. in the middle of the workday.
    Explanation
    During the middle of the workday is the best time for salespeople to call clients or prospects because it is when they are most likely to be available and not busy with other tasks or meetings. Calling in the early-morning hours may catch people off guard or interrupt their morning routine. Calling during the late-afternoon hours may be less effective as people may be wrapping up their workday and less receptive to sales calls. Calling anytime during the workday may still be effective, but the middle of the workday is generally considered the optimal time for reaching potential clients or prospects.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following types of outgoing sales calls is made in order to develop client satisfaction and loyalty?

    • A.

      A. a prospect call

    • B.

      B. a service call

    • C.

      C. a promotional call

    • D.

      D. a public relations call

    Correct Answer
    B. B. a service call
    Explanation
    A service call is made in order to develop client satisfaction and loyalty. This type of outgoing sales call focuses on addressing any issues or concerns that the client may have, providing support and assistance, and ensuring that the client's needs are met. By providing excellent service and going above and beyond to meet the client's expectations, the company can build trust and loyalty, leading to long-term client relationships.

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  • 17. 

    “Marrying” coffee stations refers to:

    • A.

      A. assigning specific staff to oversee specific stations.

    • B.

      B. providing a more extensive selection of food and beverages than is usual, often involving gourmet cheeses, specialty breads, select coffees, and bottled juices.

    • C.

      C. placing two stations side by side to create a refreshment “island” that helps to establish a more relaxed atmosphere.

    • D.

      D. combining the food and beverages of two or more stations into one.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. combining the food and beverages of two or more stations into one.
  • 18. 

    Which of the following setups has chairs in straight rows (with aisles) parallel to the head table, stage, or speaker’s podium?

    • A.

      A. theater setup

    • B.

      B. banquet setup

    • C.

      C. schoolroom setup

    • D.

      D. hollow-square setup

    Correct Answer
    A. A. theater setup
    Explanation
    In a theater setup, chairs are arranged in straight rows with aisles parallel to the head table, stage, or speaker's podium. This setup is commonly used for presentations, performances, and conferences where the focus is on the stage or podium. The straight rows allow for clear sightlines and easy access to the aisles for attendees. The other setups listed (banquet setup, schoolroom setup, hollow-square setup) do not necessarily have chairs arranged in straight rows parallel to the head table or stage.

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  • 19. 

    As part of a marketing audit, the hotel’s marketing team assesses the strengths and weaknesses of other hotels in the local area as part of a:

    • A.

      A. property analysis.

    • B.

      B. competition analysis.

    • C.

      C. situation analysis.

    • D.

      D. positioning analysis.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. competition analysis.
    Explanation
    The hotel's marketing team is assessing the strengths and weaknesses of other hotels in the local area, which indicates that they are analyzing the competition. This type of analysis helps the hotel understand its competitive landscape, identify opportunities for differentiation, and develop effective marketing strategies to gain a competitive advantage. Therefore, the correct answer is b. competition analysis.

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  • 20. 

    Implementing marketing action plans at a large firm is the responsibility of:

    • A.

      A. the vice president of marketing and sales.

    • B.

      B. the director of sales.

    • C.

      C. the general manager.

    • D.

      D. the department managers.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. the department managers.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. the department managers. In a large firm, implementing marketing action plans requires coordination and involvement from various departments. The department managers are responsible for executing the marketing strategies within their respective departments and ensuring that the plans are effectively implemented. This ensures that all aspects of the marketing plan are covered and that the actions are aligned with the overall objectives of the firm. The vice president of marketing and sales may oversee the process, but it is the department managers who have the direct responsibility for implementation.

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  • 21. 

    Internet advertising is:

    • A.

      A. an excellent saturation medium that can enhance a message with visuals.

    • B.

      B. used to get a message to a number of prospects at the same time.

    • C.

      C. a system in which the hospitality firm gives selected travel intermediaries or other target markets a special fax number they may call to receive its latest information at any time.

    • D.

      D. a high-quality presence that can quickly provide new information to consumers.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. a high-quality presence that can quickly provide new information to consumers.
  • 22. 

    What is pulsing?  

    • A.

      A. Scheduling ads evenly over a period of time

    • B.

      B. Determining the target market for a series of ads

    • C.

      C. Scheduling ads in an uneven distribution

    • D.

      D. Advertising only as needed

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Scheduling ads in an uneven distribution
    Explanation
    Pulsing refers to scheduling ads in an uneven distribution. This means that the ads are not spread evenly over a period of time, but rather are concentrated in specific time periods. This strategy is often used when advertisers want to create a sense of urgency or maximize the impact of their ads during certain times or events. By pulsing their ads, advertisers can generate higher levels of awareness and engagement during these targeted periods.

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  • 23. 

    _______________ are sometimes referred to as “linking pins.”  

    • A.

      A. Chefs

    • B.

      B. Supervisors

    • C.

      C. Middle managers

    • D.

      D. Top managers

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Supervisors
    Explanation
    Supervisors are sometimes referred to as "linking pins" because they play a crucial role in connecting the lower-level employees with the higher-level management. They act as a bridge between the two levels, ensuring effective communication and coordination. Supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of the employees, providing guidance and support, and relaying important information from the top management to the lower-level employees. Their role as "linking pins" highlights their importance in maintaining a smooth flow of information and operations within an organization.

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  • 24. 

    Joanne is converting a recipe to produce a greater number of portions for a banquet she will be serving.  She’s calculated the adjustment factor to be 5. The original recipe calls for 14 pounds of bananas.  How many pounds of bananas will she need to prepare the new number of portions?    

    • A.

      A. 2.8 pounds

    • B.

      B. 70 pounds

    • C.

      C. .35 pounds

    • D.

      D. Cannot be determined from the information given

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 70 pounds
    Explanation
    Joanne is converting the recipe to produce a greater number of portions, and she has calculated the adjustment factor to be 5. This means that she needs to multiply the original amount of 14 pounds of bananas by the adjustment factor of 5. Therefore, she will need 70 pounds of bananas to prepare the new number of portions.

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  • 25. 

    The unit of measurement that describes the size of a menu’s typeface is:  

    • A.

      A. font.

    • B.

      B. point.

    • C.

      C. case.

    • D.

      D. bold.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. point.
    Explanation
    The unit of measurement that describes the size of a menu's typeface is point. Point is a standard unit of measurement used in typography to determine the size of fonts. Fonts are the different styles and designs of typefaces, but the size of the font is measured in points. Therefore, the correct answer is b. point.

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  • 26. 

    The primary course selected by the guest is the:  

    • A.

      A. du jour.

    • B.

      B. entrée.

    • C.

      C. prix fixe.

    • D.

      D. appetizer.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. entrée.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. entrée. In a restaurant, the primary course selected by the guest is typically referred to as the entrée. This is the main course of the meal, usually consisting of a larger portion of meat, fish, or vegetarian dish. The other options listed are not typically used to describe the main course, with "du jour" meaning "of the day", "prix fixe" referring to a fixed-price menu, and "appetizer" being a smaller dish served before the main course.

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  • 27. 

    Russian service is also known as _______ service.  

    • A.

      A. European

    • B.

      B. family-style

    • C.

      C. platter

    • D.

      D. cart

    Correct Answer
    C. C. platter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. platter. The term "Russian service" refers to a style of dining where food is served on a large platter and then portioned out onto individual plates at the table. This style of service is often associated with Russian cuisine and is known for its communal and generous nature. Therefore, the correct term to describe this style of service is "platter."

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is an example of the “loose station” variety of team service?  

    • A.

      A. Team members are assigned one dining room or territory.

    • B.

      B. Team members have more authority than do servers in “tight station” team service.

    • C.

      C. Whoever is available to deliver an order does so.

    • D.

      D. Managers do not perform the duties of servers.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Whoever is available to deliver an order does so.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Whoever is available to deliver an order does so. This is an example of the "loose station" variety of team service because in this system, there are no assigned roles or territories for team members. Instead, anyone who is available and able to deliver an order can do so, regardless of their specific job title or responsibilities. This allows for more flexibility and adaptability within the team, as everyone is able to contribute to the overall service.

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  • 29. 

    The act of listening to a complaining guest at a food service operation has two main goals. One is to learn about the events or circumstance that upset the guest. The other is to:  

    • A.

      A. allow the guest to vent his or her frustration.

    • B.

      B. help the guest understand the operation’s viewpoint.

    • C.

      C. improve the operation’s policies.

    • D.

      D. practice memorization skills.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. allow the guest to vent his or her frustration.
    Explanation
    The act of listening to a complaining guest at a food service operation is important because it allows the guest to express their frustration and vent their feelings. This can be beneficial for both the guest and the operation. By allowing the guest to vent, it helps them feel heard and understood, which can potentially diffuse their anger and frustration. It also gives the operation an opportunity to gather information about the events or circumstances that upset the guest, which can help them identify areas for improvement and make necessary changes to enhance the guest experience.

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  • 30. 

    Cara and Tina had several glasses of wine with their dinner at the hotel’s restaurant. They then went to a brewery down the street to have several beers before driving to a concert downtown. On the way, they sideswiped a passenger car, injuring themselves and the driver of the other car. Under ________________ the driver of the other car could sue the hotel and its employees.    

    • A.

      A. dram shop acts

    • B.

      B. common law

    • C.

      C. joint and several liability laws

    • D.

      D. none of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. C. joint and several liability laws
    Explanation
    Under joint and several liability laws, the driver of the other car could sue the hotel and its employees. Joint and several liability means that multiple parties can be held responsible for the same harm and can be sued for the full amount of damages. In this case, the hotel and its employees could be held liable for serving alcohol to Cara and Tina, knowing that they were going to drive afterwards, which contributed to the accident and resulting injuries.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statements is true?  

    • A.

      A. “Mystery shoppers” are more effective in retail businesses than in food service operations.

    • B.

      B. Guest feedback is only helpful if it is used properly.

    • C.

      C. Telephone follow-up is generally not recommended for getting guest feedback.

    • D.

      D. Negative comments are of little value to a food service operation.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Guest feedback is only helpful if it is used properly.
    Explanation
    Guest feedback is only helpful if it is used properly. This statement implies that simply collecting guest feedback is not enough; it needs to be utilized effectively in order to be beneficial. This suggests that the value of guest feedback lies in how it is utilized and acted upon by the business. It emphasizes the importance of using guest feedback as a tool for improvement and making necessary changes to enhance the guest experience.

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  • 32. 

    Contracts usually call for the client to state before the event the final number of attendees he or she expects to attend the event. This number is called the:  

    • A.

      A. guarantee.

    • B.

      B. function statement.

    • C.

      C. tentative total.

    • D.

      D. estimate.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. guarantee.
    Explanation
    Contracts typically require the client to provide an anticipated number of attendees for an event. This number is referred to as the "guarantee" because it represents the final and binding commitment from the client regarding the expected attendance. The guarantee is important for planning purposes as it helps the event organizers in making arrangements such as seating, catering, and logistics based on the expected number of attendees.

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  • 33. 

    Andre is preparing to set up for a wedding reception and needs to know how many tables should be set up. Where might he find this information?  

    • A.

      A. function book

    • B.

      B. function sheet

    • C.

      C. contract

    • D.

      D. none of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. B. function sheet
    Explanation
    Andre can find the information on how many tables should be set up in the function sheet. The function sheet typically contains all the details and arrangements for the event, including the number of tables needed for the wedding reception.

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  • 34. 

    Food safety hazards can be:  

    • A.

      A. biological

    • B.

      B. chemical

    • C.

      C. physical

    • D.

      D. all of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. all of the above
    Explanation
    Food safety hazards can be biological, chemical, or physical. Biological hazards refer to microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites that can cause foodborne illnesses. Chemical hazards include substances such as pesticides, cleaning agents, and food additives that can contaminate food and pose health risks. Physical hazards are foreign objects like glass, metal, or hair that can cause injury if consumed. The correct answer is d. all of the above because all three types of hazards can potentially compromise the safety of food.

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  • 35. 

    ________ are bacteria, viruses, and parasites that are too small to see.  

    • A.

      A. Contaminants

    • B.

      B. Microbes

    • C.

      C. Pesticides

    • D.

      D. Food poisons

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Microbes
    Explanation
    Microbes are bacteria, viruses, and parasites that are too small to see. They can cause various diseases and infections in humans and animals. Contaminants, pesticides, and food poisons are not specifically related to being too small to see, so they are not the correct answer.

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  • 36. 

    Which restaurant chain was one of the first to ban smoking in response to the Working Group onTobacco’s recommendation?    

    • A.

      A. TGI Fridays

    • B.

      B. Arby’s

    • C.

      C. Taco Bell

    • D.

      D. McDonald’s

    Correct Answer
    D. D. McDonald’s
    Explanation
    McDonald's was one of the first restaurant chains to ban smoking in response to the Working Group on Tobacco's recommendation. This means that they implemented a policy that prohibited smoking in their restaurants. This decision was likely made in order to promote a healthier environment for their customers and employees, as smoking has been proven to have numerous negative health effects. By being one of the first to take this step, McDonald's demonstrated their commitment to the well-being of their patrons and set a precedent for other restaurants to follow.

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  • 37. 

    Safe food is food that is free from:  

    • A.

      A. danger.

    • B.

      B. contamination.

    • C.

      C. microbes.

    • D.

      D. bacteria.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. danger.
    Explanation
    Safe food is food that is free from danger because danger refers to anything that can cause harm or injury. In the context of food, danger can include contamination, microbes, bacteria, or any other harmful substances. Therefore, ensuring that food is free from danger means that it is safe to consume and will not cause any harm to the consumer.

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  • 38. 

    A manager who makes decisions by enforcing rules and regulations that are already in place, who resists change and acts as caretaker of the status quo, is a(n) ___________ manager.    

    • A.

      A. autocratic

    • B.

      B. democratic

    • C.

      C. bureaucratic

    • D.

      D. theocratic

    Correct Answer
    C. C. bureaucratic
    Explanation
    A manager who enforces existing rules and regulations, resists change, and maintains the status quo is referred to as a bureaucratic manager. This type of manager focuses on following established procedures and maintaining order and stability within the organization. They may prioritize adherence to rules over innovation or flexibility.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following statements about cover letters is true?  

    • A.

      A. You should not limit your audience by addressing the letter to a particular person by name.

    • B.

      B. You should make sure you answer this question for the reader, “Why should I see you?”

    • C.

      C. You should not request an interview.

    • D.

      D. You should copy phrases and formats from other cover letters.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. You should make sure you answer this question for the reader, “Why should I see you?”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. You should make sure you answer this question for the reader, “Why should I see you?” This statement is true because a cover letter is meant to persuade the reader to consider the applicant for a job or interview. It is important to highlight the qualifications, skills, and experiences that make the applicant a strong candidate and explain why they should be selected for further consideration.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 10, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Aoht
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