IAS Prelims 2014: Gs Paper I: Polity And Governance: Previous Year Questions

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Quizzes Created: 491 | Total Attempts: 1,781,791

Questions: 40 | Attempts: 920 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
- A.
  
  The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
- B.
  
  The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
- C.
  
  The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
- D.
  
  The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Correct Answer
A. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

Explanation
If a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. This means that the Lok Sabha has the power to either accept the amendments made by the Rajya Sabha or reject them and continue with the original version of the Bill. The final decision lies with the Lok Sabha, and they can choose to pass the Bill with or without the amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha.

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2.

Which one of the following statements is correct?
- A.
  
  In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
- B.
  
  The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
- C.
  
  No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
- D.
  
  In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
Correct Answer
D. In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
3.

Consider the following statements 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 only
- C.
  
  Both 1 and 2
- D.
  
  Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation
Both statements are incorrect. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by either House of Parliament, i.e., the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Additionally, if an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, it requires a special majority in Parliament, not the ratification of the state legislatures. Therefore, the correct answer is "Neither 1 nor 2".

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4.

Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha 3. speak in the Lok Sabha 4. vote in the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 4
- C.
  
  1, 2 and 3
- D.
  
  1 and 3 only
Correct Answer
C. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation
The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer in the country and acts as the legal advisor to the government. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha, be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha, and speak in the Lok Sabha. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. However, the Attorney General does not have the right to vote in the Lok Sabha, so statement 4 is incorrect.

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5.

Which of the following bodies does not / do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning Commission 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
  
  1 and 2 only
- B.
  
  2 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
6.

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
- A.
  
  With the consent of all the States
- B.
  
  With the consent of the majority of States
- C.
  
  With the consent of the States concerned
- D.
  
  Without the consent of any State
Correct Answer
D. Without the consent of any State

Explanation
The correct answer is "without the consent of any State." This means that the Parliament has the power to make laws for the entire country or any specific part of it in order to implement international treaties, without requiring the consent of any individual state. This gives the Parliament the authority to enact legislation that aligns with the obligations and commitments made by India through international treaties, regardless of whether the states agree or not.

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7.

Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC) (1) consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha (2) scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of Government (3) Examines the report of CAG. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation
The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. This is because statement 1 is incorrect as the Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts consists of not more than 22 Members of the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct as the PAC scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government. Statement 3 is also correct as the PAC examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

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8.

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
- A.
  
  To provide self-governance
- B.
  
  To recognize traditional rights
- C.
  
  To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
- D.
  
  To free tribal people from exploitation
Correct Answer
C. To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

Explanation
The objective of the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, enacted by the Government in 1996, is to provide self-governance, recognize traditional rights, and free tribal people from exploitation. However, creating autonomous regions in tribal areas is not identified as an objective of this act.

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9.

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
- A.
  
  State Forest Department
- B.
  
  District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
- C.
  
  Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer
- D.
  
  Gram Sabha
Correct Answer
D. Gram Sabha

Explanation
The Gram Sabha is the correct answer because under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha is given the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both. The Gram Sabha is a village-level democratic institution that represents the entire village community and is responsible for making decisions on matters related to the village, including forest rights. The Act recognizes the importance of involving the local community in the decision-making process regarding forest rights, hence giving the authority to the Gram Sabha.

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10.

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
- A.
  
  Fundamental Rights
- B.
  
  Fundamental Duties
- C.
  
  Directive Principles of State Policy
- D.
  
  Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Correct Answer
C. Directive Principles of State Policy

Explanation
According to the Constitution of India, Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental for the governance of the country. These principles provide guidance to the government in making laws and policies to promote the welfare of the people, establish a just society, and ensure social, economic, and political justice. They are not legally enforceable like Fundamental Rights, but they are considered fundamental in shaping the governance and development of the country.

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11.

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament. 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
  
  1 and 2 only
- B.
  
  3 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation
In the parliamentary government system in India, the principles implied institutionally are that members of the Cabinet are also members of the Parliament and ministers hold their office as long as they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. The Cabinet is not headed by the Head of the State, so option 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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12.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation. Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1,2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Council of Ministers in the Centre is collectively responsible to the President, not the Parliament. Statement 2 is correct as Union Ministers do hold office at the pleasure of the President. Statement 3 is correct as the Prime Minister is responsible for communicating proposals for legislation to the President. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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13.

‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
- A.
  
  The Preamble and Fundamental Rights
- B.
  
  The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
- C.
  
  The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
B. The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy

Explanation
The correct answer is the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution sets out the ideals and objectives of the Constitution, including the objective of securing economic justice. The Directive Principles of State Policy, on the other hand, are a set of guidelines for the government to achieve social and economic justice. Together, the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy emphasize the importance of economic justice in the Indian Constitution.

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14.

Consider the following statements: 1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission. 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1,2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation
The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Development Council is not an organ of the Planning Commission. Statement 2 is correct because economic and social planning is indeed kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. Statement 3 is also correct because the Constitution of India does prescribe that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

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15.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 only
- C.
  
  Both 1 and 2
- D.
  
  Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer
B. 2 only

Explanation
The correct answer is "2 only." This is because statement 1 is incorrect. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are indeed members of that House. However, statement 2 is correct. Nominated members of the two Houses of Parliament do not have voting rights in the presidential election, but they do have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

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16.

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? 1. The Prime Minister 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet 4. Chief Ministers of the States Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
  
  1, 2 and 3 only
- B.
  
  1, 3 and 4 only
- C.
  
  2 and 4 only
- D.
  
  1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer
B. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation
The National Development Council (NDC) consists of the Prime Minister, Ministers of the Union Cabinet, and Chief Ministers of the States. The Chairman of the Finance Commission is not a part of the NDC. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

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17.

With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: 1.Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. 2.It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 only
- C.
  
  Both 1 and 2
- D.
  
  Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer
C. Both 1 and 2

Explanation
The correct answer is "Both 1 and 2". Statement 1 is correct because the objective of the National Legal Services Authority is indeed to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society on the basis of equal opportunity. Statement 2 is also correct because the National Legal Services Authority does issue guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement legal programs and schemes throughout the country.

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18.

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the constitution of India? 1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21 2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1). 3. Power and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243 (A) Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 only

Explanation
The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with the provision of the constitution of India that recognizes the right to a healthy environment as a part of the Right to life under Article 21. This means that individuals have the right to live in a clean and pollution-free environment, and the National Green Tribunal Act was established to protect and enforce this right. The Act provides for the establishment of a specialized tribunal to handle environmental cases and ensure the effective implementation of environmental laws.

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19.

In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
- A.
  
  To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
- B.
  
  To let opposition members collect information from the ministers
- C.
  
  To allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
- D.
  
  To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behavior on the part of some members
Correct Answer
A. To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

Explanation
The purpose of an adjournment motion in the Parliament of India is to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance. This means that if a topic arises that requires immediate attention and discussion, an adjournment motion can be moved to suspend the normal business of the House and allow for a detailed debate on the urgent matter. This ensures that important issues can be addressed promptly and thoroughly, allowing for democratic discourse and decision-making.

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20.

Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code 2. Organisation village Panchayats 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas 4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
- A.
  
  1, 2 and 4 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1, 3 and 4 only
- D.
  
  1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation
The Gandhian Principles reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy are the organization of village Panchayats (2) and the promotion of cottage industries in rural areas (3). These principles align with Mahatma Gandhi's vision of empowering local communities and promoting self-sufficiency through decentralized governance and rural development. The other options (1 and 4) do not directly correspond to specific Gandhian principles.

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21.

In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the Role/power of Gram Sabha? 1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. 2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce. 3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 only

Explanation
In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, the Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. This means that the Gram Sabha has the authority to stop the transfer or sale of land in these areas. Additionally, the Gram Sabha also has ownership of minor forest produce, which includes non-timber forest products like fruits, nuts, and medicinal plants. However, the recommendation of the Gram Sabha is not required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas, so statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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22.

Consider the following statements:1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.2. It is within the preview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3
- C.
  
  1 and 3
- D.
  
  None
Correct Answer
D. None

Explanation
The correct answer is "None" because all three statements are incorrect. Union Territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha, election disputes are adjudicated by the Election Commission of India, and the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President.

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23.

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States 2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State 3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory 4. A dispute between two or more States Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
  
  1 and 2
- B.
  
  2 and 3
- C.
  
  1 and 4
- D.
  
  3 and 4
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 4

Explanation
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court refers to the types of cases that can be directly heard by the Supreme Court without going through lower courts. According to the given answer, the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes disputes between the Government of India and one or more States (option 1) and disputes between two or more States (option 4). This means that if there is a legal dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between two or more States, it can be directly brought to the Supreme Court for resolution.

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24.

Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: 1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President. 2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election. 3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 and 2 only
- B.
  
  3 only
- C.
  
  1, 2 and 3
- D.
  
  None
Correct Answer
B. 3 only

Explanation
The correct answer is 3 only. This is because statement 1 is incorrect - the Lok Sabha Speaker does not hold office at the pleasure of the President, but rather holds office until they resign or are removed by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct, as the Speaker does not need to be a member of the House at the time of election but must become a member within six months. Statement 3 is also correct, as if the Speaker intends to resign, the resignation letter should be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

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25.

With reference to consumers' rights / privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. 2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid. 3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 3 only

Explanation
Consumers in India have certain rights and privileges under the law. The first statement is correct because consumers are empowered to take samples of food for testing to ensure its quality and safety. The second statement is incorrect because when a consumer files a complaint in a consumer forum, a fee is required to be paid. The third statement is correct because in the case of the death of a consumer, their legal heir can file a complaint on their behalf in the consumer forum. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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26.

The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? 1. Constitution of District Planning Committees. 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections. 3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  2 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 only

Explanation
The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992 provides for the establishment of State Finance Commissions, which are responsible for reviewing the financial position of Panchayati Raj Institutions and making recommendations on the distribution of financial resources between the state government and the Panchayats. Additionally, the Act also provides for State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections, ensuring fair and impartial elections at the local level. Therefore, options 2 and 3 are the correct choices as they accurately reflect the provisions of the amendment.

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27.

Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission? 1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design 2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend 3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 only

Explanation
The Thirteenth Finance Commission's recommendations include a design for the Goods and Services Tax (GST) and a compensation package that is linked to adherence to this proposed design. This means that the commission has provided a plan for implementing the GST and has also suggested that adherence to this plan will result in a compensation package. The other options, such as the creation of jobs and devolution of central taxes to local bodies, are not mentioned in the given answer.

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28.

Which of the following are the methods of parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statements before the parliament 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
  
  1, 2, 3 and 5 only
- B.
  
  1, 2 and 4 only
- C.
  
  3, 4 and 5 only
- D.
  
  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation
The methods of parliamentary control over public finance in India include placing Annual Financial Statements before the parliament, withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill, provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account, a periodic or at least a mid-year review of the programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office, and introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.

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29.

Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
- A.
  
  To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
- B.
  
  To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
- C.
  
  To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
- D.
  
  To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
Correct Answer
B. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

Explanation
The Rajya Sabha has been conferred with the power to pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services. This means that the Rajya Sabha can authorize the Parliament to legislate on matters that are typically under the jurisdiction of the states, and can also establish services that operate at the national level. This power is significant as it allows the Rajya Sabha to play a role in shaping legislation and policies that affect the entire country, beyond its own legislative functions.

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30.

In India, if a religious sect / community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to? 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha. 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister's 15-Point Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 3 only

Explanation
If a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority in India, it is entitled to two special advantages. Firstly, it can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. This means that they can have their own schools and colleges to cater to the educational needs of their community. Secondly, they can derive benefits from the Prime Minister's 15-Point Programme. This program includes various schemes and initiatives aimed at the overall development of minority communities, such as scholarships, skill development programs, and financial assistance for entrepreneurship. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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31.

India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to' them under the law? 1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools. 2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business. 3. Ramps in public buildings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. Persons with disabilities in India are entitled to free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools, preferential allotment of land for setting up a business, and the provision of ramps in public buildings. These benefits are provided under the law to ensure equal opportunities and accessibility for persons with disabilities in various aspects of their lives.

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32.

The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
- A.
  
  The President of India
- B.
  
  The Parliament of India
- C.
  
  The Prime Minister of India
- D.
  
  The Union Finance Minister
Correct Answer
B. The Parliament of India

Explanation
The correct answer is The Parliament of India. The Consolidated Fund of India is the main account of the government where all revenues received and expenses made by the government are recorded. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from this account must come from the Parliament of India, as it is the supreme legislative body responsible for making financial decisions and approving the budget. The President, Prime Minister, and Union Finance Minister may have roles in the budgetary process, but the ultimate authority lies with the Parliament.

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33.

All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
- A.
  
  Contingency Fund of India
- B.
  
  Public Account
- C.
  
  Consolidated Fund of India
- D.
  
  Deposits and Advances Fund
Correct Answer
C. Consolidated Fund of India

Explanation
All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India. The Consolidated Fund of India is the main account of the government where all revenues, loans raised, and money received from external sources are deposited. It is under the control of the Parliament and can be utilized for any government expenditure, subject to the approval of the Parliament. It is different from the Contingency Fund of India, which is a reserve fund used for unforeseen emergencies, and the Public Account and Deposits and Advances Fund, which are used for specific purposes.

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34.

Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the "Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?
- A.
  
  Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
- B.
  
  Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
- C.
  
  Adult members of households of all backward communities
- D.
  
  Adult members of any household
Correct Answer
D. Adult members of any household

Explanation
The "Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act" is a social security scheme that guarantees 100 days of employment per year to adult members of any household. This means that all adult members of any household, regardless of their caste, tribe, or economic status, are eligible to benefit from this act.

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35.

When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,
- A.
  
  The Budget is modified and presented again
- B.
  
  The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
- C.
  
  The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
- D.
  
  The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Correct Answer
D. The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

Explanation
When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha, it indicates a lack of confidence in the government's financial policies and decisions. In such a scenario, the Prime Minister submits the resignation of the Council of Ministers as a way to accept responsibility for the failure to pass the budget. This resignation serves as a political consequence and allows for the formation of a new government or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha to hold fresh elections.

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36.

Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
- A.
  
  To vote in public elections
- B.
  
  To develop the scientific temper
- C.
  
  To safeguard public property
- D.
  
  To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Correct Answer
A. To vote in public elections

Explanation
Under the Constitution of India, voting in public elections is not listed as a fundamental duty. Fundamental duties are a set of moral obligations that every citizen of India is expected to fulfill, and they are enshrined in Article 51A of the Constitution. These duties include developing a scientific temper, safeguarding public property, and abiding by the Constitution and respecting its ideals. However, the duty to vote in public elections is not explicitly mentioned as a fundamental duty in the Constitution.

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37.

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
- A.
  
  It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
- B.
  
  It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
- C.
  
  It ensures transparency in financial administration
- D.
  
  None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.
Correct Answer
D. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

Explanation
The correct answer is "None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context." This means that none of the statements mentioned in the options are correct with regards to the Finance Commission of India.

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38.

Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee? 1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India. 2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area. 3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
- A.
  
  1 and 2 only
- B.
  
  2 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. This means that statement 1, which states that a Metropolitan Planning Committee is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India, is correct. Additionally, statement 2, which states that the committee prepares the draft development plans for the metropolitan area, is also correct. However, statement 3, which claims that the committee has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area, is incorrect.

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39.

What is the difference between "vote- on-account" and "interim budget”? 1. The provision of a "vote-on- account" is used by a regular Government, while an "interim budget" is a provision used by a caretaker Government. 2. A "vote-an-account" only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 only
- C.
  
  Both 1 and 2
- D.
  
  Neither 1 or 2
Correct Answer
C. Both 1 and 2

Explanation
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 1 explains that a "vote-on-account" is used by a regular government, while an "interim budget" is used by a caretaker government. Statement 2 states that a "vote-on-account" only deals with the expenditure in the government's budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts. Therefore, both statements provide accurate distinctions between the two terms.

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40.

Consider the following: 1. Right to education. 2. Right to equal access to public service. 3. Right to food. Which of the above is/ are Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights"?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  1 and 2 only
- C.
  
  3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights includes all three rights mentioned in the question. The right to education, the right to equal access to public service, and the right to food are all recognized as human rights under this declaration.

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Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Jun 11, 2014

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