Mock Test 8 - Gs Paper I
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following is not one of the fundamental rights?
- A.
Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
- B.
Freedom from attending religious instructions or worship in certain educational institutions
- C.
Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
The given options are all fundamental rights. Therefore, none of the options is not a fundamental right. The correct answer is "None of the above."Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the given fundamental rights is available only to citizen and not to foreigners?
- A.
Equality before law and equal protection of law.
- B.
Freedom to manage religious affairs
- C.
Protection of language, script and culture of minorities
- D.
Right to elementary education.
Correct Answer
C. Protection of language, script and culture of minoritiesExplanation
The protection of language, script, and culture of minorities is a fundamental right that is available only to citizens and not to foreigners. This right ensures that the cultural and linguistic diversity of minority groups within the country is safeguarded and promoted. It recognizes the importance of preserving and promoting the unique identities and heritage of these minority communities, which is considered essential for the overall cultural fabric of the nation. By restricting this right to citizens, it emphasizes the responsibility of the state towards its own citizens in preserving their cultural and linguistic heritage.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is given the power to implement the Fundamental Right by the Constitution?
- A.
All courts in India
- B.
The Parliament
- C.
The President
- D.
The Supreme Court and High Courts
Correct Answer
D. The Supreme Court and High CourtsExplanation
The Supreme Court and High Courts are given the power to implement the Fundamental Right by the Constitution. This means that they have the authority to ensure that the rights guaranteed to citizens under the Constitution are protected and upheld. The Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority in the country, while the High Courts are the highest judicial authorities at the state level. Together, they play a crucial role in safeguarding the fundamental rights of individuals and ensuring that any violations are addressed and rectified.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following factors was least responsible for the failure of revolt of 1857 mutiny?
- A.
Absence of development of a developed political consciousness among Indians
- B.
Lack of support from the enlightened middle class
- C.
Internal feuds and jealousies among rebels
- D.
Absence of strong leadership among the rebels
Correct Answer
D. Absence of strong leadership among the rebelsExplanation
The absence of strong leadership among the rebels was the least responsible factor for the failure of the revolt of 1857 mutiny. While strong leadership is crucial in any uprising, the other factors mentioned have a greater impact on the failure of the revolt. The absence of a developed political consciousness among Indians meant that there was a lack of unity and coordination among the rebels. The lack of support from the enlightened middle class weakened the revolt's influence and resources. Additionally, internal feuds and jealousies among the rebels further fragmented their efforts. Therefore, although strong leadership is important, it was not the primary reason for the failure of the revolt.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?
- A.
Mandamus
- B.
Habeas Corpus
- C.
Quo Warranto
- D.
Certiorari
Correct Answer
B. Habeas CorpusExplanation
Habeas Corpus is a bulwark of personal freedom because it is a legal action that protects individuals from unlawful detention or imprisonment. It ensures that a person cannot be held in custody without sufficient evidence or justification. Habeas Corpus allows individuals to challenge the legality of their detention and seek release if their rights have been violated. This fundamental principle safeguards personal freedom by preventing arbitrary or unjust imprisonment.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Dalhousie annexed Awadh for the British empire in India through
- A.
Policy of Subsidiary Alliance
- B.
Doctrine of Lapse
- C.
State being mal-administered
- D.
Waging of war
Correct Answer
C. State being mal-administeredExplanation
Awadh was annexed by Dalhousie for the British empire in India because the state was mal-administered. This implies that the British believed that the Awadh state was not being governed effectively or efficiently by its rulers, and therefore they saw it as an opportunity to intervene and take control. Dalhousie used this justification to justify the annexation and assert British control over Awadh.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following articles prohibits censorship?
- A.
Art 19
- B.
Art 22
- C.
Art 32
- D.
None
Correct Answer
B. Art 22Explanation
Article 22 of the Constitution prohibits censorship. This means that the government cannot restrict or control the freedom of speech and expression. Censorship refers to the suppression or control of information, ideas, or artistic expression by the government or other authorities. Article 19 and Article 32 do not specifically address censorship, while the option "None" implies that no article prohibits censorship, which is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is Art 22.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following article empowers the parliament to restrict the fundamental rights of the menbers of armed forces, para-military forces and police forces?
- A.
Articles 22A
- B.
Article 33
- C.
Article 19
- D.
Article 41
Correct Answer
B. Article 33Explanation
Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, and police forces. This article allows the parliament to make laws that can limit the exercise of certain fundamental rights by these forces in order to maintain discipline, efficiency, and morale within the forces. It provides the necessary authority to impose restrictions on the fundamental rights of these forces, which may be necessary for the proper functioning and discipline of the armed forces, para-military forces, and police forces.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Assertion: The 1857 mutiny was suppressed by the BritishReason: Except for people like the rani of Jhansi and Tantya tope, few feudal lords participated in the mutiny
- A.
Both A & R are ture and R is the explanation for A
- B.
Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
- C.
Both A & R are false
- D.
A is true, R is false
Correct Answer
B. Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation for AExplanation
Both the assertion and the reason are true. The 1857 mutiny was indeed suppressed by the British. However, the reason provided, stating that only a few feudal lords participated in the mutiny, does not directly explain why the mutiny was suppressed. There were various other factors that contributed to the suppression of the mutiny, such as the superior military strength of the British, their strategic planning, and the lack of unity among the rebels. Therefore, while both statements are true, the reason does not accurately explain the assertion.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following feature of the fundamental right is not correct under Indian constitution?
- A.
They are above ordinary laws
- B.
They are absolute
- C.
They are justiciable
- D.
They are 6 fundamental rights
Correct Answer
B. They are absoluteExplanation
The statement "They are absolute" is not correct under the Indian constitution. Fundamental rights in India are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state in the interest of public order, morality, and the sovereignty of the country. Therefore, they are not absolute and can be limited under certain circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The preventive detention act has a restraining effect on?
- A.
Right to equality
- B.
Right to freedom
- C.
Right to religion
- D.
Right to constitutional remedies
Correct Answer
D. Right to constitutional remediesExplanation
The preventive detention act has a restraining effect on the right to constitutional remedies. This is because under this act, individuals can be detained without trial or without being informed of the charges against them. This limits their ability to seek legal remedies or challenge the legality of their detention, thus infringing upon their right to constitutional remedies.Rate this question:
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- 12.
There were 3 phases (upto 1857) in the early period of resistance to British Rule in India. Find out the incorrect categorization of a phase
- A.
Tribal Rebellions
- B.
Constitutional agitation
- C.
Peasant rebellions and agrarian uprisings
- D.
Civil rebellion
Correct Answer
B. Constitutional agitationExplanation
The incorrect categorization of a phase is "Constitutional agitation." This is because constitutional agitation was not a phase in the early period of resistance to British Rule in India. The other three options, tribal rebellions, peasant rebellions and agrarian uprisings, and civil rebellion, were all significant phases of resistance during this period. Constitutional agitation became more prominent in later years as Indians began to demand political reforms and rights through constitutional means.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the role of Quo-Warranto?
- A.
It prevents illegal usurpation of public offices by a person
- B.
It is issued by a higher court to a lower court to prevent the later from exceeding its jurisdiction
- C.
It is issued by a higher court to a lower court to transfer a case pending with the latter
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. It prevents illegal usurpation of public offices by a personExplanation
Quo-Warranto is a legal action taken to prevent the illegal seizure or usurpation of public offices by an individual. It serves as a means to challenge the authority and legitimacy of someone holding a public position without the proper qualifications or legal right to do so. By initiating a Quo-Warranto action, the court can investigate and potentially remove individuals who have wrongfully assumed public offices, ensuring that only qualified and lawful individuals hold positions of power.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following was NOT one of the causes of the revolt of 1857?
- A.
The discipline in the army had become very lax on account of the system of promotion by seniority only, as well as by the transfer of able military officers to civil posts
- B.
The wooing of high caste Hindu sepoys by 'white' officers was grweatly resented
- C.
Lord Cannings General Services Enlistment Act,1856, imposed on the sepoys the obligation to serve wherever required
- D.
The sad blunder of the 'greased catridges' fanned the smouldering discontent into a devouring flame
Correct Answer
B. The wooing of high caste Hindu sepoys by 'white' officers was grweatly resentedExplanation
The correct answer is "The wooing of high caste Hindu sepoys by 'white' officers was greatly resented." This answer suggests that the wooing of high caste Hindu sepoys by 'white' officers was not one of the causes of the revolt of 1857. This implies that the resentment towards this practice did not contribute to the uprising.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Freedom of speech under Indian constitution is subjected to reasonable restriction on the grounds of protection of?
- A.
A) Soverginity and integrity of the country
- B.
B) Dignity of the office of the prime minister
- C.
C) A & b
- D.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer
A. A) Soverginity and integrity of the countryExplanation
The correct answer is a) Sovereignty and integrity of the country. The Indian constitution guarantees freedom of speech but also imposes reasonable restrictions to protect the sovereignty and integrity of the country. This means that individuals are allowed to express their opinions and ideas, but they cannot use their freedom of speech to threaten the unity or security of the nation. This restriction ensures that freedom of speech is balanced with the need to maintain national security and stability.Rate this question:
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- 16.
One of the immediate results of the Mutiny was that it led to
- A.
The founding of the Indian National Congress
- B.
Expansion of the military powers of the East India Company
- C.
Assumption of direct responsibility for administration of India by the Crown
- D.
Lack of essential unity was one of the reason for the failure of the revolt
Correct Answer
D. Lack of essential unity was one of the reason for the failure of the revoltExplanation
The immediate result of the Mutiny was the assumption of direct responsibility for the administration of India by the Crown. This means that the British government took over the control and governance of India directly, instead of through the East India Company. The lack of essential unity among the rebels was one of the reasons for the failure of the revolt. This suggests that the rebels were not able to effectively coordinate their efforts and lacked a unified front, which weakened their resistance against the British forces.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Identify the reason why Bombay and Madras failed to rise in revolt like the northern provinces?
- A.
Their administrators were highly tolerant and enlightened
- B.
The seat of administration, which was in Calcutta was far away from them
- C.
They were denuded of required leadership by the Ryotwari settlement
- D.
They were excluded from annexations and confiscations
Correct Answer
C. They were denuded of required leadership by the Ryotwari settlementExplanation
The reason why Bombay and Madras failed to rise in revolt like the northern provinces is because they were denuded of required leadership by the Ryotwari settlement. This settlement system, which was implemented by the British, directly dealt with the peasants or ryots, bypassing the traditional landed intermediaries. As a result, the local leadership that could have potentially organized and led a revolt was weakened or eliminated. This lack of strong leadership hindered the ability of Bombay and Madras to mobilize and revolt against British rule.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The Word ‘Hindus’ in Article 25 of the Constitution of India does not include?
- A.
Buddhists
- B.
Jains
- C.
Sikhs
- D.
Parsees
Correct Answer
D. ParseesExplanation
The word "Hindus" in Article 25 of the Constitution of India refers to a specific religious group, which includes Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs. However, Parsees, who follow the Zoroastrian religion, are not included in this definition. This means that while Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs are considered as part of the Hindu religious group for the purposes of Article 25, Parsees are not included.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which article in part III of the constitution emphasizes its secular character?
- A.
Art 8 to 11
- B.
Art 25 to 28
- C.
Art 45 to 48A
- D.
Art 14 to 19
Correct Answer
B. Art 25 to 28Explanation
Articles 25 to 28 of the constitution emphasize its secular character. These articles guarantee the freedom of religion and the right to practice, profess, and propagate any religion. They also ensure that every religious denomination has the right to manage its own affairs and establish and maintain religious institutions. These articles promote religious tolerance and equality among all citizens, highlighting the constitution's commitment to a secular state where individuals are free to follow their own religious beliefs.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The immediate cause of Sepoy Mutiny of 1857 was
- A.
Introduction of cartridges greased with cow's fats
- B.
Dalhousie's Doctrine of Lapse
- C.
Wide disparity between the salaries native sepoys and British Soldiers
- D.
Bid to convert the Indians to Christiany
Correct Answer
A. Introduction of cartridges greased with cow's fatsExplanation
The immediate cause of the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857 was the introduction of cartridges greased with cow's fats. This sparked outrage among the Indian sepoys as it violated their religious beliefs. The cartridges had to be bitten open before use, and since cows were considered sacred in Hinduism and pigs were considered unclean in Islam, this offended both Hindu and Muslim sepoys. The introduction of these cartridges was seen as a deliberate attempt to undermine Indian religious sentiments and led to widespread unrest and rebellion among the sepoys, ultimately escalating into the Sepoy Mutiny.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following statement best explains the nature of the revolt of 1857?
- A.
The last effort of the old political order to regain power
- B.
Mutiny of a section of sepoys of the british army
- C.
A struggle of the common people to over through foreign rule
- D.
An effort to establish a limited Indian nation
Correct Answer
A. The last effort of the old political order to regain powerExplanation
The statement "The last effort of the old political order to regain power" best explains the nature of the revolt of 1857. This implies that the revolt was led by the traditional ruling elites who were trying to reclaim their authority and resist the British colonial rule. It suggests that the revolt was not a widespread movement of the common people, but rather a last-ditch attempt by the existing political order to maintain their control and influence.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following was NOT one of the administrative and economic causes of the rebellion of 1857?
- A.
The Indian aristocracy was deprived of power and position since all high posts, civil and military, were reserved for the Europeans
- B.
The administration of Awadh after its annexation received popular acclaim and aroused the jealousy of other ruling princes
- C.
The land revenue policy was most unpopular
- D.
To the Indian mind ,the British system of justice being time consuming and expensive, was a deliberate method to impoverish the people
Correct Answer
B. The administration of Awadh after its annexation received popular acclaim and aroused the jealousy of other ruling princesExplanation
The administration of Awadh after its annexation received popular acclaim and aroused the jealousy of other ruling princes. This statement suggests that the administration of Awadh was actually a cause of the rebellion of 1857. The rebellion was fueled by various administrative and economic factors, such as the deprivation of power and position for the Indian aristocracy, the unpopular land revenue policy, and the perception that the British system of justice was deliberately impoverishing the people. The popularity and jealousy surrounding the administration of Awadh would not be a cause for rebellion, but rather a potential source of support for the British rule.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which fundamental right is concerned with abolition of social distinctions?
- A.
Right to equality
- B.
Right against exploitation
- C.
Right to life and liberty
- D.
Cultural and educational rights
Correct Answer
A. Right to equalityExplanation
The right to equality is concerned with the abolition of social distinctions. This fundamental right ensures that all individuals are treated equally before the law, regardless of their caste, religion, race, sex, or place of birth. It prohibits any form of discrimination and promotes equal opportunities for all. By guaranteeing equal treatment, the right to equality aims to eliminate social hierarchies and create a more inclusive and just society.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which one is not an important characteristic of the himalayan rivers?
- A.
They have a great capacity for erosion
- B.
They have a perennial flow
- C.
They do not form gorges
- D.
Many of them have their sources in the inner himalaya
Correct Answer
C. They do not form gorgesExplanation
The correct answer is "They do not form gorges". This means that the characteristic of not forming gorges is not important for Himalayan rivers. The other three characteristics mentioned - having a great capacity for erosion, having a perennial flow, and many of them having their sources in the inner Himalaya - are all important characteristics of Himalayan rivers.Rate this question:
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- 25.
through which states does the river chambal flow?
- A.
UP, MP, Rajasthan
- B.
MP, Gujarat, UP
- C.
Rajasthan, MP, Bihar
- D.
Gujarat, MP, Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer
A. UP, MP, RajasthanExplanation
The river Chambal flows through the states of Uttar Pradesh (UP), Madhya Pradesh (MP), and Rajasthan.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which one of the tributaries of the Ganga river system flow northwards
- A.
Kosi
- B.
Ghaghara
- C.
Son
- D.
Gandak
Correct Answer
C. SonExplanation
The Son river is the correct answer because it is the only tributary of the Ganga river system that flows northwards. The Kosi, Ghaghara, and Gandak rivers all flow southwards and eventually join the Ganga river, but the Son river flows in the opposite direction, from south to north, before merging with the Ganga.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Most rivers flowing west from the western ghats do not form delta because of:
- A.
Lack of eroded material
- B.
High gradient
- C.
Lack of vegetation free area
- D.
Low velocity
Correct Answer
B. High gradientExplanation
Most rivers flowing west from the western ghats do not form deltas because of their high gradient. A high gradient means that the river has a steep slope, causing the water to flow quickly and forcefully. As a result, the river does not have enough time to deposit the eroded material and form a delta. Deltas are typically formed in areas where the river's velocity decreases, allowing sediment to settle and accumulate. However, due to the high gradient, these rivers in the western ghats do not have the necessary conditions for delta formation.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following is incorrect in context with Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act?
- A.
Its main objective was to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India.
- B.
Recent amendment has been made where in damage to the monetary stability of the country by way of production or smuggling of high quality fake Indian paper currency has been declared as a terrorist act
- C.
Both a & b
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
The given statement is correct. The main objective of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act is to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India. Additionally, a recent amendment has been made to include the damage to the monetary stability of the country by way of production or smuggling of high-quality fake Indian paper currency as a terrorist act. Therefore, both statements (a and b) are correct, and the answer is "None of the above."Rate this question:
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- 29.
Recently, which among the following countries has launched the “Yaogan XX” a remote sensing satellite to carry out scientific experiment and provide early ALERTS about natural disasters?
- A.
Japan
- B.
Russia
- C.
China
- D.
USA
Correct Answer
C. ChinaExplanation
China has launched the "Yaogan XX" remote sensing satellite to carry out scientific experiments and provide early alerts about natural disasters. This indicates that China is actively investing in technology and infrastructure to monitor and respond to natural disasters.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Recently, the World Health Organisations has issued an International health emergency over Ebola outbreak. Ebola virus was first discovered in which country?
- A.
Guinea
- B.
Democratic Republic of Congo
- C.
Nigeria
- D.
Ghana
Correct Answer
B. Democratic Republic of CongoExplanation
The correct answer is Democratic Republic of Congo. The question asks about the country where the Ebola virus was first discovered. The Ebola virus was first identified in 1976 in what is now the Democratic Republic of Congo, specifically in the village of Yambuku. This outbreak was the first recorded occurrence of the Ebola virus, and since then, there have been multiple outbreaks in different countries. The recent International health emergency declared by the World Health Organization is in response to the ongoing Ebola outbreak in the Democratic Republic of Congo.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants, India had agreed to phase out use of Endosulfan by the year ___?
- A.
2015
- B.
2017
- C.
2018
- D.
2020
Correct Answer
B. 2017Explanation
India had agreed to phase out the use of Endosulfan by the year 2017 under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants. The Stockholm Convention is an international treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs) that pose a threat to human health and the environment. Endosulfan is a highly toxic pesticide that has been linked to a range of health and environmental problems. By agreeing to phase out its use, India demonstrated its commitment to reducing the harmful effects of this pesticide and protecting its citizens and the environment.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When the moon is in its full moon stage and its closet point to earth on its elliptical orbits then the phenomenon is called _____?
- A.
Supermoon
- B.
Blue Moon
- C.
New Moon
- D.
Lunar Eclipse
Correct Answer
A. SupermoonExplanation
When the moon is in its full moon stage and its closest point to Earth on its elliptical orbit, the phenomenon is called a supermoon. During this time, the moon appears larger and brighter in the night sky compared to other full moons. This occurs because the moon's orbit is not a perfect circle, causing it to be closer to Earth at certain points in its orbit. The term "supermoon" was coined by astrologer Richard Nolle in 1979 and has since been widely used to describe this phenomenon.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Recently, which among the following countries has planned “Lights Out” event to mark the centenary of World War I?
- A.
Germany
- B.
Britain
- C.
France
- D.
USA
Correct Answer
B. BritainExplanation
Britain has planned a "Lights Out" event to mark the centenary of World War I. This event involves turning off the lights in homes, public buildings, and landmarks for one hour to remember the millions of lives lost during the war. This event is a way to pay tribute to the sacrifices made by the soldiers and to create awareness about the history and significance of World War I.Rate this question:
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- 34.
In the state economy:I.government takes the sole responsibility of supplying goods and servicesII.In this system goods and services are made available in the market on the basis of demand their demand and supplyIII.this system is based on priced mechanismIV.such economy is also known as centralised economy
- A.
Both I & II
- B.
Both II & III
- C.
Both I & IV
- D.
All the above
Correct Answer
C. Both I & IVExplanation
In a state economy, the government takes the sole responsibility of supplying goods and services (statement I). This means that the government controls the production and distribution of goods and services in the economy. Additionally, this system is also known as a centralized economy (statement IV), as the government centralizes the decision-making power and controls the economy. Therefore, both statements I and IV are correct.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The most appropriate measure of a country's economic growth is its
- A.
Gross Domestic Product
- B.
Net Domestic Product
- C.
Net National Product
- D.
Per Capita Real Income
Correct Answer
D. Per Capita Real IncomeExplanation
Per Capita Real Income is the most appropriate measure of a country's economic growth because it takes into account the average income per person adjusted for inflation. This measure provides a better understanding of the standard of living and economic well-being of the population. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders, but it does not consider population size or income distribution. Net Domestic Product (NDP) and Net National Product (NNP) are similar to GDP but deduct depreciation and income earned by foreign residents respectively, making them less suitable for measuring economic growth on an individual level.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In which of the following types of economy are the factors of production owned individually?
- A.
Capitalist
- B.
Socialist
- C.
Mixed
- D.
Both A and B
Correct Answer
A. CapitalistExplanation
In a capitalist economy, the factors of production, such as land, labor, and capital, are owned individually. This means that individuals or private entities have the right to own and control these resources for their own benefit. In contrast, in a socialist economy, the factors of production are owned collectively or by the state, with the aim of promoting equality and social welfare. Therefore, the correct answer is capitalist.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Who prints and supplies the CURRENCY notes in India?
- A.
Security Press, Noida
- B.
Security Press, Mumbai
- C.
RBI, Delhi
- D.
Security Press, Nasik
Correct Answer
C. RBI, DelhiExplanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is responsible for printing and supplying currency notes in India. The RBI is the central banking institution of the country and has the authority to issue and manage the Indian rupee. It ensures the availability of an adequate quantity of currency notes to meet the demand of the economy. The printing of currency notes is carried out at various printing presses across the country, including the press in Delhi.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Sudden decrease of birth rate would cause
- A.
Increase in per capita income
- B.
Increase in INVESTMENT
- C.
Increase in savings
- D.
Increase in loan requests
Correct Answer
A. Increase in per capita incomeExplanation
A sudden decrease in birth rate would cause an increase in per capita income because with fewer children being born, the population would decrease over time. This would result in a decrease in the number of people that need to be supported by the economy, leading to a higher per capita income for the remaining population.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Economic liberalization in India started with
- A.
Substantial changes in industrial licensing policy
- B.
The convertibility of Indian rupee
- C.
Doing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct INVESTMENT
- D.
Significant reduction in tax rates
Correct Answer
A. Substantial changes in industrial licensing policyExplanation
Economic liberalization in India started with substantial changes in industrial licensing policy. This means that the process of obtaining licenses to start and operate industries was made easier and less restrictive. This allowed for more competition and growth in the industrial sector. This policy change was one of the first steps taken towards opening up the Indian economy and attracting foreign investment. It laid the foundation for further liberalization measures and played a crucial role in transforming India's economy.Rate this question:
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- 40.
National Income is the
- A.
Net national product at MARKET price
- B.
Net national product at factor cost
- C.
Net domestic product at MARKET price
- D.
Net domestic product at factor cost
Correct Answer
D. Net domestic product at factor costExplanation
The correct answer is "Net domestic product at factor cost." Net domestic product at factor cost refers to the total value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific time period, after deducting depreciation and indirect taxes, but before deducting subsidies. It measures the income earned by domestic factors of production (such as labor and capital) in the production process. This measure provides a more accurate representation of the income generated within a country's economy.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The 'Bombay Plan' drafted by GD Birla and JRD Tata emphasized
- A.
That the economy should be left to the dynamic INVESTMENTS by the private sector in heavy industries
- B.
The public sector INVESTMENTS in infrastructure and heavy industries
- C.
Annual planning
- D.
That the private sector should foot the bill for intensive and low return INVESTMENTS in the industrial sector
Correct Answer
B. The public sector INVESTMENTS in infrastructure and heavy industriesExplanation
The correct answer is the public sector investments in infrastructure and heavy industries. The Bombay Plan, drafted by GD Birla and JRD Tata, emphasized the importance of government investment in infrastructure and heavy industries. This approach suggests that the government should take an active role in promoting economic development by investing in sectors that are crucial for the growth of the economy. By investing in infrastructure and heavy industries, the government can create a solid foundation for industrial growth and stimulate overall economic progress.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Economic Survey is published by
- A.
Governments of India
- B.
Indian Statistical Institute
- C.
Ministry of Finance
- D.
Planning Commission
Correct Answer
C. Ministry of FinanceExplanation
The Economic Survey is published by the Ministry of Finance. This annual document provides a comprehensive analysis of the Indian economy, including its current state, future prospects, and policy recommendations. It is prepared by a team of economists and experts within the Ministry of Finance, and serves as a valuable resource for policymakers, researchers, and the general public in understanding the economic trends and challenges facing the country.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Development means economic growth plus
- A.
Inflation
- B.
Deflation
- C.
Price stability
- D.
Social change
Correct Answer
D. Social changeExplanation
Development encompasses more than just economic growth. It also involves social change, which refers to the transformation and improvement of societal conditions, institutions, and relationships. This includes advancements in education, healthcare, gender equality, human rights, and other aspects that contribute to the overall well-being and progress of a society. Therefore, social change is an essential component of development, alongside economic growth and other factors.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The nucleus of an atom consists of
- A.
Electrons and neutrons
- B.
Electrons and protons
- C.
Protons and neutrons
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Protons and neutronsExplanation
The nucleus of an atom consists of protons and neutrons. Electrons, on the other hand, are found in the electron cloud surrounding the nucleus. Protons have a positive charge, neutrons have no charge, and electrons have a negative charge. The protons and neutrons in the nucleus are responsible for the mass of the atom, while the electrons determine its chemical properties. Therefore, the correct answer is protons and neutrons.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The term National Income represents
- A.
Gross national product at MARKET prices minus depreciation
- B.
Gross national product at MARKET prices minus depreciation plus net factor income from abroad
- C.
Gross national product at MARKET prices minus depreciation and indirect taxes plus subsidies
- D.
Gross national product at MARKET prices minus net factor income from abroad
Correct Answer
A. Gross national product at MARKET prices minus depreciationExplanation
The correct answer is "gross national product at MARKET prices minus depreciation." National income represents the gross national product (GNP) at market prices, which is the total value of all goods and services produced by a country's residents in a given period. Depreciation refers to the wear and tear of capital goods over time, and it is subtracted from the GNP to calculate the national income. This adjustment accounts for the fact that capital goods lose value as they are used in production.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called
- A.
Smelting
- B.
Roasting
- C.
Calcinations
- D.
Froth floatation
Correct Answer
A. SmeltingExplanation
Smelting is the correct answer because it refers to the metallurgical process of extracting a metal from its ore by heating it to a high temperature in a furnace. This process involves the use of heat and a reducing agent to separate the desired metal from the impurities present in the ore, resulting in the metal being obtained in a fused or molten state. Roasting, calcinations, and froth floatation are different processes used in metallurgy but do not specifically involve obtaining a metal in a fused state.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The luster of a metal is due to
- A.
Its high density
- B.
Its high polishing
- C.
Its chemical inertness
- D.
Presence of free electrons
Correct Answer
D. Presence of free electronsExplanation
The luster of a metal is due to the presence of free electrons. When light falls on a metal surface, the free electrons in the metal absorb and re-emit the light, giving the metal its characteristic shine. This phenomenon is known as metallic bonding. The presence of free electrons allows metals to conduct electricity and heat effectively as well. High density, high polishing, and chemical inertness may contribute to the appearance of a metal, but they are not the primary reason for its luster.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The mass number of a nucleus is
- A.
Always less than its atomic number
- B.
The sum of the number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus
- C.
Always more than the atomic weight
- D.
A fraction
Correct Answer
B. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleusExplanation
The mass number of a nucleus is defined as the sum of the number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus. This is because the mass number represents the total number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) in the nucleus. The atomic number, on the other hand, represents the number of protons in the nucleus. The atomic weight is the average mass of all the isotopes of an element, which may not necessarily be equal to the mass number of a specific nucleus.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The material which can be deformed permanently by heat and pressure is called a
- A.
Thermoplastic
- B.
Thermoset
- C.
Chemical compound
- D.
Polymer
Correct Answer
B. ThermosetExplanation
A thermoset is a material that can be permanently deformed by heat and pressure. Unlike thermoplastics, which can be melted and reshaped multiple times, thermosets undergo a chemical reaction when heated and become rigid and hard, making them unable to be reformed. This property makes thermosets ideal for applications where durability and resistance to high temperatures are required, such as in electrical insulation, automotive parts, and construction materials.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The high reactivity of fluorine is due to
- A.
Its high electro negativity
- B.
Small size of fluorine atom
- C.
Availability of d-orbitals
- D.
Strong F - F bond
Correct Answer
A. Its high electro negativityExplanation
The high reactivity of fluorine is due to its high electronegativity. Electronegativity is the measure of an atom's ability to attract electrons towards itself in a chemical bond. Fluorine has the highest electronegativity among all the elements, which means it strongly attracts electrons towards itself. This high electronegativity makes fluorine highly reactive as it readily accepts or shares electrons with other atoms to achieve a stable electron configuration. Therefore, the correct answer is its high electronegativity.Rate this question:
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Aug 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 16, 2014Quiz Created by
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