People's Trainer School Exam

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 35

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School Quizzes & Trivia

In order to complete your People's Trainer School requirments you must receive atleast a 70 on this multiple choice exam. http://www. Revolutionaryfitness. Org


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What does the acronym ACE stand for?
    • A. 

      American Committee on Exercise

    • B. 

      American Council on Exercise

    • C. 

      Athletic Council on Exercise

    • D. 

      American Committee of Exercise

  • 2. 
    In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?
    • A. 

      Rapport Stage

    • B. 

      Planning Stage

    • C. 

      Investigation Stage

    • D. 

      Action Stage

  • 3. 
    Which blood vessels carry blood that is rich in oxygen from the lungs back to the heart?
    • A. 

      Coronary arteries

    • B. 

      Pulmonary arteries

    • C. 

      Coronary veins

    • D. 

      Pulmonary veins

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?
    • A. 

      Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherance

    • B. 

      Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design

    • C. 

      Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs

    • D. 

      Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals

  • 5. 
    What is the MOST important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program?
    • A. 

      Strong support from family and friends

    • B. 

      Convenience of exercise facility

    • C. 

      Readiness to change behavior related to exercise

    • D. 

      Connecting with a personal trainer

  • 6. 
    Which is OUTSIDE of the ACE-certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?
    • A. 

      Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise

    • B. 

      Providing guidance, motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs

    • C. 

      Implementing post-rehabilitative exercise programs for clients following their physicians recommendations

    • D. 

      Conducting a VO2 max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician

  • 7. 
    ACE-certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education every two years to maintain their certifications. The PRIMARY reason for this requirement is to help Personal Trainers to ________.
    • A. 

      Earn promotions so they can advance their careers

    • B. 

      Increase their earning potential by adding new speciality certificates to their resumes

    • C. 

      Enhance their resumes to attract more clients

    • D. 

      Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients?
    • A. 

      The personal trainer should only recommend those supplements covered under his or her professional liability insurance

    • B. 

      Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements

    • C. 

      The personal trainer should become educated about the specific supplements before making any recommendations

    • D. 

      Due to potential complications from taking supplements with other medications, personal trainers should recommend only plant-based supplements

  • 9. 
    A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if ______.
    • A. 

      The personal trainer has extensive knowledge about the benefits of massage

    • B. 

      The client gives his or her consent for the massage

    • C. 

      The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist

    • D. 

      The massage therapist is not available and the personal trainer has some training

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE-certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?
    • A. 

      Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices

    • B. 

      Providing clients with recipes and shopping lists for four weeks to get them on track with helpful eating

    • C. 

      Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micronutrient deficiencies

    • D. 

      Educating clients about resting metabolic rate (RMR) and the need to consume fewer calories that RMR to lose weight

  • 11. 
    The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to _____.
    • A. 

      Provide the professional with additional education to enhance his or her knowledge, skills and abilities

    • B. 

      Enhance a professional's resume for employment and/or higher compensation

    • C. 

      Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence

    • D. 

      Confirm a candidate's understanding of key concepts following the completion of a bachelor's degree

  • 12. 
    Which muscle or muscle group is MOST important for respiration in humans?
    • A. 

      Internal intercostals

    • B. 

      Diaphragm

    • C. 

      External intercostals

    • D. 

      Transverse abdominis

  • 13. 
    Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) can affect a static stretch by causing _____.
    • A. 

      Relaxation of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition

    • B. 

      Contraction of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition

    • C. 

      Relaxation of the antagonist(s) through reciprocal inhibition

    • D. 

      Contraction of the antagonist(s) through reciprocal inhibition

  • 14. 
    What organ is PRIMARILY responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients? 
    • A. 

      Stomach

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Small Intestine

    • D. 

      Large Intestine

  • 15. 
    Which muscles are prime movers (agonist) for the shoulder joint adduction performed during a wide-grip pull-up?
    • A. 

      Trapezius and Rhomboids

    • B. 

      Deltoid and Latissimus Dorsi

    • C. 

      Teres Major and Serratus Anterior

    • D. 

      Pectoralis Major and Latissimus Dorsi

  • 16. 
    How does the pancreas help regulate blood glucose levels?
    • A. 

      It secretes glucagon to increase blood glucose levels and insulin to increase glucose uptake by the cells

    • B. 

      It releases glucocorticoids that aid in the utilization of glucose and metabolism of fatty acids

    • C. 

      It secretes insulin to increase blood glucose levels and stimulate uptake of the glucose by the cells

    • D. 

      It releases pancreatic enzymes into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of protein, carbohydrates and fat

  • 17. 
    What is the primary energy system utilized during events lasting approximately 2 to 3 minutes, such as the 800-meter dash or 200-meter freestyle swim?
    • A. 

      Stored ATP

    • B. 

      Phosphagen

    • C. 

      Anaerobic glycolysis

    • D. 

      Aerobic glycolysis

  • 18. 
    Which training program would be MOST effective for improving the capabilities of slow-twitch muscle fibers?
    • A. 

      Circuit training with 90-second work and 30-second recovery intervals

    • B. 

      Short-duration low-to-moderate intensity cardiorespiratory exercise

    • C. 

      High-intensity interval training with 15-second work and 60-second recovery intervals

    • D. 

      Long-duration moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise

  • 19. 
    Why does resistance training result in greater hypertrophy gains for men than for women?
    • A. 

      Men usually exercise more vigorously than women

    • B. 

      Women have less testosterone than men

    • C. 

      Men have greater endurance than women

    • D. 

      Women typically use machines for resistance training

  • 20. 
    Which of the following exercise adjustments would create INCREASED stability and balance?
    • A. 

      Moving from a position with feet at shoulder width to a position with feet together

    • B. 

      Progressing double-leg balance exercises from a wood floor to a foam balance pad

    • C. 

      Switching from a forearm plank to a plank in a push-up position

    • D. 

      Putting one hand on a bench during a single-arm bent-over row exercise

  • 21. 
    Which muscle provides the GREATEST amount of activity and force production during powerful hip extension movements such as those seen during sprinting, kettlebell swings and running up stairs?
    • A. 

      Gluteus medius

    • B. 

      Semitendinosus

    • C. 

      Gluteus maximus

    • D. 

      Semimembranosus

  • 22. 
    The postural deviation most commonly associated with weak abdominal and hip extensor muscles coupled with tight hip flexors and back extensors in _____.
    • A. 

      Scoliosis

    • B. 

      Lordosis

    • C. 

      Sway-back

    • D. 

      Kyphosis

  • 23. 
    What is the agonist (prime mover) and the type of muscle contraction performed when lowering the chest to the floor after performing a prone trunk (back) hyperextension?
    • A. 

      Erector Spinae; eccentric contraction

    • B. 

      Rectus abdominis; eccentric contraction

    • C. 

      Internal oblique; concentric contraction

    • D. 

      Quadratus lumborum; concentric contraction

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is a common obesity-related change that affects biomechanics?
    • A. 

      Increased pain in weightbearing joints

    • B. 

      Decreased step frequency (fewer steps to walk across an area)

    • C. 

      Increased stride length during walking

    • D. 

      Decreased anterior displacement of the center of gravity (COG)

  • 25. 
    How many kilocalories (kcal) are in a food that contains 4 grams of protein, 12 grams of carbohydrates and 2 grams of fat?
    • A. 

      72 kcal

    • B. 

      82 kcal

    • C. 

      92 kcal

    • D. 

      102 kcal

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