People's Trainer School Exam

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What does the acronym ACE stand for?

    • American Committee on Exercise
    • American Council on Exercise
    • Athletic Council on Exercise
    • American Committee of Exercise
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About This Quiz

In order to complete your People's Trainer School requirments you must receive atleast a 70 on this multiple choice exam.
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  • 2. 

    In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?

    • Rapport Stage

    • Planning Stage

    • Investigation Stage

    • Action Stage

    Correct Answer
    A. Investigation Stage
    Explanation
    During the investigation stage of the client-trainer relationship, health-history and lifestyle questionnaires are administered. This stage involves gathering information about the client's current health status, medical history, and lifestyle habits. The questionnaires help the trainer to assess the client's needs, preferences, and any potential limitations or risks. This information is crucial for creating a personalized and effective fitness plan for the client.

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  • 3. 

    ACE-certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education every two years to maintain their certifications. The PRIMARY reason for this requirement is to help Personal Trainers to ________.

    • Earn promotions so they can advance their careers

    • Increase their earning potential by adding new speciality certificates to their resumes

    • Enhance their resumes to attract more clients

    • Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health

    Correct Answer
    A. Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health
    Explanation
    The primary reason for ACE-certified Personal Trainers to complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education every two years is to stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health. This ensures that they have up-to-date knowledge and skills to provide the best possible training and guidance to their clients. It also helps them maintain professional competence and credibility in the field.

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  • 4. 

    What is the MOST common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program?

    • Limited access to the exercise facility

    • A lack of support

    • Being too old to participate

    • A lack of time

    Correct Answer
    A. A lack of time
    Explanation
    The most common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program is a lack of time. This is a common excuse because people often have busy schedules and find it difficult to prioritize exercise amidst their other commitments and responsibilities. It is easier for individuals to use lack of time as an excuse rather than acknowledging the need to make exercise a priority in their daily lives.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following would MOST likely be seen as a limitation by a client participating in small-group personal training?

    • Another participant in the group who requires constant individual attention from the trainer

    • Social support and encouragement received by others in the group

    • Dissociation from the unpleasant sensations of vigorous exercise due to interaction with others

    • Personal commitment to adhere to the exercise sessions due to group dynamics

    Correct Answer
    A. Another participant in the group who requires constant individual attention from the trainer
    Explanation
    A client participating in small-group personal training would most likely see another participant in the group who requires constant individual attention from the trainer as a limitation. This is because the client may feel that their own needs and goals are not being fully addressed or prioritized if the trainer is constantly focused on one participant. It may also result in less personalized attention and guidance for the client, which can hinder their progress and overall satisfaction with the training experience.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?

    • Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherance

    • Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design

    • Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs

    • Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals

    Correct Answer
    A. Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design
    Explanation
    Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design is within the scope of practice for personal trainers because it involves assessing the clients' physical condition, medical history, and any potential limitations or contraindications for exercise. This information is crucial for personal trainers to design safe and effective exercise programs tailored to the clients' needs and goals. By identifying exercise limitations, personal trainers can ensure that the exercises prescribed are appropriate and will not cause harm or exacerbate any existing conditions.

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  • 7. 

    What organ is PRIMARILY responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients? 

    • Stomach

    • Pancreas

    • Small Intestine

    • Large Intestine

    Correct Answer
    A. Small Intestine
    Explanation
    The small intestine is primarily responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. It is a long, coiled tube located between the stomach and the large intestine. The inner lining of the small intestine contains tiny finger-like projections called villi, which increase the surface area for nutrient absorption. The small intestine receives partially digested food from the stomach and further breaks it down using enzymes produced by the pancreas and its own intestinal enzymes. It absorbs nutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals into the bloodstream, where they are transported to cells throughout the body for energy and other functions.

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  • 8. 

    Which type of exercise program would be expected to have the GREATEST drop-out rate?

    • Small-group personal training

    • Vigorous-intensity exercise program

    • Home-based personal training

    • Moderate-intensity exercise program

    Correct Answer
    A. Vigorous-intensity exercise program
    Explanation
    A vigorous-intensity exercise program would be expected to have the greatest drop-out rate because it involves high-intensity workouts that can be physically demanding and challenging for individuals. This level of intensity may lead to fatigue, muscle soreness, and a higher risk of injury, which could discourage participants from continuing with the program. Additionally, individuals may find it difficult to maintain the motivation and commitment required for such intense workouts over a prolonged period of time, leading to a higher drop-out rate compared to other exercise programs.

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  • 9. 

    What are the five primary movements that are the focus of the movement-training phase?

    • Squatting, lunging, swinging, throwing and arching movements

    • Jumping, hopping, pushing, pulling and arching movements

    • Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling and rotational movements

    • Lunging, Pulling, Squatting, Pushing and core movements

    Correct Answer
    A. Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling and rotational movements
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling and rotational movements. These five movements are the primary focus of the movement-training phase. Squatting and lunging movements help to strengthen the lower body and improve stability. Pushing and pulling movements target the upper body muscles and improve strength and coordination. Rotational movements help to improve core strength and stability, which is important for overall movement and performance. By focusing on these five movements, individuals can improve their overall functional fitness and movement capabilities.

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  • 10. 

    Which is OUTSIDE of the ACE-certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?

    • Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise

    • Providing guidance, motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs

    • Implementing post-rehabilitative exercise programs for clients following their physicians recommendations

    • Conducting a VO2 max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician

    Correct Answer
    A. Conducting a VO2 max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician
  • 11. 

    Which of the following training scenarios would MOST likely result in overtraining syndrome for an endurance athlete?

    • Increasing the intensity of zone 3 intervals by 10% from one week to the next

    • Decreasing the number of recovery days per week to accommodate additional interval work

    • Increasing the duration of zone 1 training by 20% over the course of three weeks

    • Decreasing the total time spent doing zone 2 interval work when increasing the intensity

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreasing the number of recovery days per week to accommodate additional interval work
    Explanation
    Decreasing the number of recovery days per week to accommodate additional interval work would likely result in overtraining syndrome for an endurance athlete. Recovery days are essential for the body to repair and adapt to the stress of training. By reducing the number of recovery days, the athlete does not have enough time to recover fully, leading to accumulated fatigue and increased risk of injury. This can eventually lead to overtraining syndrome, characterized by decreased performance, persistent fatigue, mood disturbances, and increased susceptibility to illness. It is important to strike a balance between training and recovery to avoid overtraining.

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  • 12. 

    You are designing an exercise program for a new client who has type 2 diabetes and a physician's release for exercise as tolerated to lose weight and improve blood glucose regulation. During the initial session, you learn that she has been sedentary for the past few years. What initial cardiorespiratory program would be most appropriate for her?

    • Walking 5-6 days per week for 40 minutes at an RPE of 11-13, working up to 60 minutes

    • Cycling 3-4 days per week for 40 minutes at an RPE of 13-15, working up to 60 minutes

    • Walking 5-6 days per week for 10-20 minutes at an RPE of 11-13, working up to 40-60 minutes

    • Cycling 3-4 days per week for 10-20 minutes at an RPE of 13-15, working up to 40-60 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. Walking 5-6 days per week for 10-20 minutes at an RPE of 11-13, working up to 40-60 minutes
    Explanation
    The most appropriate initial cardiorespiratory program for a new client with type 2 diabetes and a sedentary lifestyle would be walking 5-6 days per week for 10-20 minutes at an RPE (Rate of Perceived Exertion) of 11-13, gradually increasing the duration to 40-60 minutes. This program allows for a low-impact activity that can be easily tolerated by someone who has been sedentary. Starting with shorter durations and gradually increasing the time helps to prevent overexertion and allows the client to adapt to the exercise routine. The target RPE range ensures that the intensity of the exercise is appropriate for the client's fitness level and health condition.

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  • 13. 

    What is an advantage of selling personal training programs that have a specific outcome focus such as weight loss or preparation for a specific event?

    • They increase client motivation because they generally guarantee success

    • They help weed out clients who are unlikely to commit to a long-term training program

    • They allow personal trainers to put multiple clients on the same program to save time and effort

    • They foster program adherence, as clients begin the program with a specific goal in mind

    Correct Answer
    A. They foster program adherence, as clients begin the program with a specific goal in mind
    Explanation
    Selling personal training programs with a specific outcome focus, such as weight loss or preparation for a specific event, fosters program adherence because clients start the program with a specific goal in mind. This helps them stay motivated and committed to the program, increasing their chances of success. By having a clear objective, clients are more likely to stick to the program and follow through with their training, leading to better results. This approach also allows personal trainers to tailor the program to meet the specific needs and goals of each client, enhancing their overall experience and satisfaction.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following weekly training plans would have a session RPE of 450 points?

    • 4 sessions x 25 minutes at an RPE of 5

    • 2 sessions x 30 minutes at an RPE of 5 and 2 sessions x 20 minutes at an RPE of 3

    • 3 sessions x 30 minutes at an RPE of 5

    • 2 sessions x 30 minutes at an RPE of 4 and 3 sessions 20 minutes at an RPE of 4.5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 sessions x 30 minutes at an RPE of 5
    Explanation
    The session RPE (Rating of Perceived Exertion) is a measure of how hard an individual perceives their training session to be. A higher RPE value indicates a higher level of perceived exertion. In this case, the only option that has a session RPE of 450 points is "3 sessions x 30 minutes at an RPE of 5". This means that the individual perceives each of these sessions to be at a high level of exertion, resulting in a total of 450 points. The other options either have a lower RPE value or a different number of sessions, making them incorrect.

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  • 15. 

    A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if ______.

    • The personal trainer has extensive knowledge about the benefits of massage

    • The client gives his or her consent for the massage

    • The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist

    • The massage therapist is not available and the personal trainer has some training

    Correct Answer
    A. The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist. This means that in order to provide massage to clients with tight or sore muscles, the personal trainer must undergo the necessary training and obtain a license to practice as a massage therapist. This ensures that they have the appropriate knowledge, skills, and qualifications to provide safe and effective massages to their clients.

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  • 16. 

    Why does resistance training result in greater hypertrophy gains for men than for women?

    • Men usually exercise more vigorously than women

    • Women have less testosterone than men

    • Men have greater endurance than women

    • Women typically use machines for resistance training

    Correct Answer
    A. Women have less testosterone than men
    Explanation
    Testosterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in muscle growth and hypertrophy. Men naturally have higher levels of testosterone compared to women, which gives them an advantage in terms of muscle development. This hormone promotes protein synthesis and enhances muscle recovery, leading to greater gains in muscle size and strength. Therefore, the lower levels of testosterone in women make it more challenging for them to achieve the same level of hypertrophy gains as men in resistance training.

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  • 17. 

    What is the purpose of stability and mobility training?

    • Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations

    • Teaching correct squat, lunge, push, pull and rotational movement patterns

    • To prepare the body for sports conditioning and performance training

    • Rehabilitative exercise to restore function following injury or surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations
    Explanation
    Stability and mobility training is aimed at restoring and improving posture and movement compensations. This type of exercise focuses on correcting imbalances, weaknesses, and faulty movement patterns in order to enhance overall movement quality. By targeting specific muscle groups and joints, stability and mobility training helps to improve body alignment, reduce pain, and prevent injuries. This type of exercise is particularly beneficial for individuals with postural issues, movement dysfunctions, or those recovering from injuries or surgeries.

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  • 18. 

    Strength gains during the first several weeks of a resistance-training program are primarily due to ______.

    • Muscle hypertrophy

    • Improved neuromuscular function

    • Enhanced mitochondrial density

    • Increased myofibrils

    Correct Answer
    A. Improved neuromuscular function
    Explanation
    During the first several weeks of a resistance-training program, strength gains are primarily due to improved neuromuscular function. This means that the initial increase in strength is not primarily due to muscle hypertrophy (increase in muscle size) or other structural changes in the muscle, but rather to improvements in the coordination and efficiency of the nervous system in activating the muscles. This includes better recruitment of muscle fibers and synchronization of muscle contractions, leading to increased strength output. Enhanced neuromuscular function allows individuals to generate more force and perform exercises more effectively, resulting in strength gains.

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  • 19. 

    What is one potential disadvantage of the direct-employee business model for personal trainers?

    • The trainer often receives benefits such as medical insurance, paid vacation days and contributions towards retirement

    • The employer covers all marketing costs and efforts

    • The trainer can earn a competitive per-session wage, but generally less than independent contractor per-session wages

    • The employer pays for equipment purchases and maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. The trainer can earn a competitive per-session wage, but generally less than independent contractor per-session wages
    Explanation
    One potential disadvantage of the direct-employee business model for personal trainers is that they can earn a competitive per-session wage, but generally less than independent contractor per-session wages. This means that personal trainers who are direct employees may not have the same earning potential as those who work as independent contractors.

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  • 20. 

    Strength gains during the first several weeks of resistance-training program are primarily due to _____.

    • Muscle hypertrophy

    • Improved nueromuscular function

    • Enhanced mitochondrial density

    • Increased myofibrils

    Correct Answer
    A. Improved nueromuscular function
    Explanation
    During the first several weeks of a resistance-training program, strength gains are primarily due to improved neuromuscular function. This means that the nervous system becomes more efficient at activating the muscles, resulting in increased strength. This improvement in neuromuscular function allows individuals to recruit more muscle fibers and generate more force, even before significant muscle hypertrophy or changes in mitochondrial density occur.

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  • 21. 

    What is the MOST important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program?

    • Strong support from family and friends

    • Convenience of exercise facility

    • Readiness to change behavior related to exercise

    • Connecting with a personal trainer

    Correct Answer
    A. Readiness to change behavior related to exercise
    Explanation
    The most important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program is their readiness to change behavior related to exercise. This means that the individual is mentally prepared and motivated to make the necessary changes in their lifestyle and habits to incorporate regular exercise into their routine. Without this readiness, it would be difficult for the individual to stick to their exercise program and achieve their fitness goals. Strong support from family and friends, convenience of exercise facility, and connecting with a personal trainer can all be helpful factors, but they are not as crucial as the individual's own readiness to change.

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  • 22. 

    What nerve is commonly compressed due to carpal tunnel syndrome?

    • Median nerve

    • Ulnar nerve

    • Radial nerve

    • Musculocutaneous nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Median nerve
    Explanation
    The median nerve is commonly compressed due to carpal tunnel syndrome. Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve, which runs through the carpal tunnel in the wrist, becomes compressed or squeezed. This compression can result in symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers. The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and half of the ring finger. Therefore, compression of this nerve can lead to a loss of sensation and impaired hand function.

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  • 23. 

    The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to _____.

    • Provide the professional with additional education to enhance his or her knowledge, skills and abilities

    • Enhance a professional's resume for employment and/or higher compensation

    • Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence

    • Confirm a candidate's understanding of key concepts following the completion of a bachelor's degree

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence
    Explanation
    Professional certifications serve the primary purpose of protecting the public from harm by ensuring that candidates meet the minimum levels of competence established by the certification body. This means that individuals who hold these certifications have demonstrated their knowledge, skills, and abilities in their respective fields, providing assurance to the public that they are qualified and capable of performing their professional duties safely and effectively.

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  • 24. 

    Which muscle provides the GREATEST amount of activity and force production during powerful hip extension movements such as those seen during sprinting, kettlebell swings and running up stairs?

    • Gluteus medius

    • Semitendinosus

    • Gluteus maximus

    • Semimembranosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Gluteus maximus
    Explanation
    The gluteus maximus is the largest and most powerful muscle in the gluteal region. It is responsible for hip extension, which is a key movement in activities such as sprinting, kettlebell swings, and running up stairs. The gluteus maximus generates the greatest amount of activity and force production during these movements, making it the correct answer.

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  • 25. 

    Which muscle or muscle group is MOST important for respiration in humans?

    • Internal intercostals

    • Diaphragm

    • External intercostals

    • Transverse abdominis

    Correct Answer
    A. Diaphragm
    Explanation
    The diaphragm is the most important muscle for respiration in humans. It is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs, separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and allowing the lungs to expand. This creates a pressure difference, causing air to rush into the lungs. During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and forcing air out of the lungs. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in the process of breathing and is essential for efficient respiration.

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  • 26. 

    "Hitting the wall" during a marathon or other endurance event is PRIMARILY associated with _____.

    • Severe amino acids depletion

    • Depleted free fatty acid in the blood

    • Severe glycogen depletion

    • Depleted free fatty acids and dehydration

    Correct Answer
    A. Severe glycogen depletion
    Explanation
    During a marathon or other endurance event, "hitting the wall" refers to a point where the body's glycogen stores are severely depleted. Glycogen is the primary source of energy during intense exercise, and when it runs out, the body is unable to maintain the same level of performance. This can lead to extreme fatigue, weakness, and a feeling of "hitting the wall." Severe glycogen depletion is therefore primarily associated with this phenomenon.

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  • 27. 

    Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen would MOST likely be due to ______.

    • Weak core and low back

    • Scapulothoracic joint instability

    • Curved thoracic spine

    • Strong serratus anterior

    Correct Answer
    A. Scapulothoracic joint instability
    Explanation
    Scapular winging refers to the protrusion or abnormal movement of the scapula (shoulder blade) during certain movements. Scapulothoracic joint instability is the most likely cause of scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen. This instability occurs when there is a lack of proper control or coordination of the muscles that stabilize the scapula. This can lead to abnormal movement and positioning of the scapula, resulting in winging. Weakness or dysfunction in the muscles surrounding the scapula, such as the serratus anterior, can contribute to scapulothoracic joint instability.

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  • 28. 

    How can a personal trainer MOST effectively incorporate mind-body exercise into personal training sessions for clients?

    • Including some Iyengar poses and yogic-breathing during the cool-down

    • Enhancing power training though slow, controlled yogic breathing

    • Adding yogic breathing to high-intensity intervals to facilitate greater minute ventilation (Ve)

    • Incorporating inverted poses as part of a comprehensive warm-up

    Correct Answer
    A. Including some Iyengar poses and yogic-breathing during the cool-down
  • 29. 

    Which training program would be MOST effective for improving the capabilities of slow-twitch muscle fibers?

    • Circuit training with 90-second work and 30-second recovery intervals

    • Short-duration low-to-moderate intensity cardiorespiratory exercise

    • High-intensity interval training with 15-second work and 60-second recovery intervals

    • Long-duration moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise

    Correct Answer
    A. Long-duration moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise
    Explanation
    Long-duration moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise would be most effective for improving the capabilities of slow-twitch muscle fibers. Slow-twitch muscle fibers are responsible for endurance activities and they are best trained through sustained, moderate-intensity exercise over a longer duration. This type of exercise helps to improve the endurance and efficiency of slow-twitch muscle fibers, allowing them to better utilize oxygen and generate energy for prolonged periods of time. Circuit training and high-intensity interval training are more effective for fast-twitch muscle fibers, which are responsible for power and strength activities. Short-duration low-to-moderate intensity cardiorespiratory exercise may have some benefits, but it may not provide enough stimulus to significantly improve the capabilities of slow-twitch muscle fibers.

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  • 30. 

    What is the agonist (prime mover) and the type of muscle contraction performed when lowering the chest to the floor after performing a prone trunk (back) hyperextension?

    • Erector Spinae; eccentric contraction

    • Rectus abdominis; eccentric contraction

    • Internal oblique; concentric contraction

    • Quadratus lumborum; concentric contraction

    Correct Answer
    A. Erector Spinae; eccentric contraction
    Explanation
    The erector spinae is the prime mover or agonist muscle responsible for lowering the chest to the floor after performing a prone trunk hyperextension. This muscle group runs along the spine and helps to extend and stabilize the back. Eccentric contraction refers to the lengthening of a muscle while it is under tension. In this case, the erector spinae is contracting eccentrically as it controls the descent of the chest to the floor.

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  • 31. 

    During the bend and lift screen, which observations would indicate that the client has tight plantarflexors?

    • Hamstrings touch the calves

    • Squat initiated at knees

    • Knees fall inward

    • Heels raise off the floor

    Correct Answer
    A. Heels raise off the floor
    Explanation
    If the client's heels raise off the floor during the bend and lift screen, it indicates that they have tight plantarflexors. Plantarflexors are the muscles responsible for pointing the foot downward, and if they are tight, it can restrict the client's ability to keep their heels on the ground during the movement. This observation suggests that the client may have limited ankle mobility or flexibility in the calf muscles.

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  • 32. 

    During the hurdle step screen, you observe a client exhibiting an anterior pelvic tilt and a forward torso lean as he steps forward. What is this compensation MOST indicative of?

    • Weak gluteus medius and maximus

    • Tight stance-leg hip flexors

    • Weak stance-leg hip adductors

    • Tight ankle plantarflexors

    Correct Answer
    A. Tight stance-leg hip flexors
    Explanation
    The client exhibiting an anterior pelvic tilt and a forward torso lean during the hurdle step screen is most indicative of tight stance-leg hip flexors. Tight hip flexors can cause an anterior pelvic tilt, which is characterized by the pelvis rotating forward and the lower back arching excessively. This can lead to a forward torso lean as the client tries to maintain balance. Weak gluteus medius and maximus, weak stance-leg hip adductors, and tight ankle plantarflexors are not directly related to the observed compensation.

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  • 33. 

    You are working with a client who weighs 180 lbs with  a body-fat percentage of 20%. What will his approximate weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body-fat, assuming that his lean body mass remains constant. 

    • 144 lbs

    • 149 lbs

    • 169 lbs

    • 175 lbs

    Correct Answer
    A. 169 lbs
    Explanation
    The client's goal is to reach a body-fat percentage of 15% while keeping his lean body mass constant. This means that the weight loss will come from reducing fat mass. Since his current weight is 180 lbs with a body-fat percentage of 20%, we can calculate his current fat mass as 180 lbs * 20% = 36 lbs.

    To reach a body-fat percentage of 15%, the client needs to lose 5% of his total weight in fat mass. We can calculate this as 180 lbs * 5% = 9 lbs.

    Therefore, his approximate weight when he reaches his goal will be his current weight minus the fat mass loss: 180 lbs - 9 lbs = 171 lbs.

    The closest answer choice to 171 lbs is 169 lbs.

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  • 34. 

    Tightness in which of the following structures can be a cause of patellofemoral pain syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella?

    • IT band complex

    • Hamstrings

    • Peroneus longus

    • Bicep femoris

    Correct Answer
    A. IT band complex
    Explanation
    The IT band complex can cause patellofemoral pain syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella. This tightness can lead to improper tracking of the patella, causing pain and discomfort in the knee joint.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients?

    • The personal trainer should only recommend those supplements covered under his or her professional liability insurance

    • Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements

    • The personal trainer should become educated about the specific supplements before making any recommendations

    • Due to potential complications from taking supplements with other medications, personal trainers should recommend only plant-based supplements

    Correct Answer
    A. Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements
    Explanation
    Personal trainers should not recommend supplements unless they have additional credentials like a Registered Dietitian (R.D.) or Medical Doctor (M.D.). This is because recommending supplements involves providing advice on nutrition and health, which requires specialized knowledge and expertise. Without these credentials, personal trainers may not have the necessary qualifications to legally recommend supplements to their clients. It is important for personal trainers to understand their limitations and refer clients to appropriate healthcare professionals for supplement recommendations.

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  • 36. 

    How many kilocalories (kcal) are in a food that contains 4 grams of protein, 12 grams of carbohydrates and 2 grams of fat?

    • 72 kcal

    • 82 kcal

    • 92 kcal

    • 102 kcal

    Correct Answer
    A. 82 kcal
    Explanation
    The given food contains 4 grams of protein, 12 grams of carbohydrates, and 2 grams of fat. Each gram of protein and carbohydrates provides 4 kilocalories, while each gram of fat provides 9 kilocalories. Therefore, the total kilocalories in the food can be calculated as follows: (4 grams of protein x 4 kcal/gram) + (12 grams of carbohydrates x 4 kcal/gram) + (2 grams of fat x 9 kcal/gram) = 16 kcal + 48 kcal + 18 kcal = 82 kcal.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following if a SMART goal?

    • "I will improve my cholesterol and blood pressure through better eating and exercise"

    • "I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months."

    • "I will lose 20 lb (9 kg) for my trip to Hawaii in 2 months by exercising seven days a week to maximize results."

    • "I will try a new group exercise class each week to avoid boredom."

    Correct Answer
    A. "I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months."
    Explanation
    The answer "I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months" is a SMART goal because it is specific (running 4 days per week, gradually increasing run time), measurable (from 10 to 40 minutes), achievable (preparing for a 5K in four months), relevant (related to improving fitness and achieving a specific event goal), and time-bound (four months). This goal includes all the elements of a SMART goal and is well-defined and realistic.

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  • 38. 

    A new personal training client tells you that she has little experience with exercise, but has signed up for eight weeks of personal training because she is ready to get fit and lost weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to help her to become regularly active and work toward her goals?

    • Design a challenging program so she can experience the positive benefits of exercise

    • Inform her about different types of exercise and invite her to your group strength class

    • Provide her with initial positive exercise experiences and help her focus on consistency

    • Educate her about the risks of being inactive and commend her on her new commitment

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide her with initial positive exercise experiences and help her focus on consistency
    Explanation
    The most effective way to help the new personal training client become regularly active and work towards her goals would be to provide her with initial positive exercise experiences and help her focus on consistency. This approach acknowledges her lack of experience and focuses on building a solid foundation by starting with positive experiences. By doing so, it will encourage her to continue exercising and develop a consistent routine, which is essential for achieving long-term fitness and weight loss goals.

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  • 39. 

    Personal trainers can use the talk test as an upper limit for exercise intensity to determine if a client is exercising below which of the following cardiorespiratory markers?

    • VO2max

    • The second ventilatory threshold (VT2)

    • Anaerobic threshold

    • The first ventilatory threshold (VT1)

    Correct Answer
    A. The first ventilatory threshold (VT1)
    Explanation
    The talk test is a simple and practical method used by personal trainers to assess exercise intensity. It involves monitoring the ability of a client to carry on a conversation while exercising. If a client can comfortably talk during exercise, it indicates that they are exercising below their first ventilatory threshold (VT1). VT1 is the point at which the body starts to rely more on aerobic metabolism and less on anaerobic metabolism. It is an important marker for determining exercise intensity and can help trainers ensure that their clients are working at an appropriate level for their fitness goals.

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  • 40. 

    Your new client is a 57-year old woman who plays golf, tennis, and squash avidly. Her health-risk appraisal reveals only one positive risk factor (age) and that she has a heart murmur. According to the ACSM risk stratifications, what is the client's level of risk?

    • Low risk

    • Moderate risk

    • High risk

    • Very high risk

    Correct Answer
    A. High risk
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, the client is a 57-year old woman with only one positive risk factor (age) and a heart murmur. According to the ACSM risk stratifications, individuals with one positive risk factor are classified as moderate risk. However, having a heart murmur is considered a significant cardiovascular condition, which increases the risk level. Therefore, the client's level of risk is high.

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  • 41. 

    A lack of hip-joint mobility is MOST likely to lead to which of the following?

    • Hypermobility in the scapulothoracic joints and thoracic spine

    • Compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine

    • Hypermobility in the knee, ankle and foot joints

    • Compromised mobility in the knees and lumbar spine

    Correct Answer
    A. Compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine
    Explanation
    A lack of hip-joint mobility can lead to compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine. The hip joint plays a crucial role in providing stability and support to the lower body. When there is a lack of mobility in the hip joint, it can cause compensatory movements and increased stress on the knees and lumbar spine. This can result in reduced stability in these areas, making them more prone to injuries and compromised mobility.

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  • 42. 

    You are working with a new client who wants to begin resistance training in preparation for a one-month backpacking trip he will be taking through the Rocky Mountains. Which of the following training sets and repetition ranges would be BEST for helping him prepare for the rigors of this multi-day trip?

    • 1-2 sets of 8-10 repetitions

    • 2-4 sets of 4-6 repetitions

    • 2-3 sets of 12-16 repetitions

    • 3-5 sets of 6-12 repetitions

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-3 sets of 12-16 repetitions
    Explanation
    The best training set and repetition range for the client would be 2-3 sets of 12-16 repetitions. This range focuses on muscular endurance, which is important for sustaining strength and power over a longer duration. It will help the client build muscular endurance and stamina, which will be beneficial for the physical demands of a multi-day backpacking trip through the Rocky Mountains.

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  • 43. 

    When working with a client who has a history of iliotibial (IT) band syndrome, which muscle group acting on the hip joint is MOST likely to be weak?

    • Hip flexors

    • Hip extensors

    • Hip adductors

    • Hip Abductors

    Correct Answer
    A. Hip Abductors
    Explanation
    When a client has a history of iliotibial (IT) band syndrome, the hip abductor muscles are most likely to be weak. The IT band is a thick band of connective tissue that runs along the outside of the thigh and is involved in stabilizing the hip and knee during movement. Weak hip abductors can lead to an imbalance in the muscles surrounding the hip joint, causing increased stress on the IT band. Strengthening the hip abductors can help to alleviate this imbalance and reduce the risk of IT band syndrome.

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  • 44. 

    The forward-backward movements of the arms and legs during walking occur in which plane of movement?

    • Frontal

    • Sagittal

    • Longitudinal

    • Transverse

    Correct Answer
    A. Sagittal
    Explanation
    The forward-backward movements of the arms and legs during walking occur in the sagittal plane of movement. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements in this plane occur along the anterior-posterior axis. In walking, the arms and legs swing forward and backward in a coordinated manner, which is a characteristic movement in the sagittal plane. The other planes mentioned in the options (frontal, longitudinal, and transverse) do not specifically describe the direction of movement during walking.

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  • 45. 

    Which blood vessels carry blood that is rich in oxygen from the lungs back to the heart?

    • Coronary arteries

    • Pulmonary arteries

    • Coronary veins

    • Pulmonary veins

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary veins
    Explanation
    The pulmonary veins carry blood that is rich in oxygen from the lungs back to the heart. After the blood is oxygenated in the lungs, it is transported back to the heart through the pulmonary veins. From the heart, this oxygen-rich blood is then pumped out to the rest of the body through the systemic circulation. The coronary arteries supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself, while the pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. The coronary veins drain deoxygenated blood from the heart muscle.

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  • 46. 

    When working with a client who has a history of plantar fasciitis, it would be MOST important to include stretching exercises for the _____.

    • Gastronemius, soleus and plantar fascia

    • Plantar fascia, peroneus longus and peroneus brevis

    • Gastronemius, tibialis posterior and tibialis anterior

    • Plantar fascia, tibialis anterior and flexor digitorum longus

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastronemius, soleus and plantar fascia
    Explanation
    When working with a client who has a history of plantar fasciitis, it is important to include stretching exercises for the Gastronemius, soleus, and plantar fascia. The Gastronemius and soleus muscles are located in the calf and play a significant role in foot and ankle movement. Stretching these muscles can help alleviate tension and tightness that can contribute to plantar fasciitis. The plantar fascia is a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot and connects the heel bone to the toes. Stretching the plantar fascia can help improve flexibility and reduce strain on the foot.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following statements reflects the recommended fluid intake guidelines prior to exercise for an athletic event?

    • Drink no more than 12 ounces of fluids 2 hours prior to exercise

    • Drink a minimum of 17 ounces of fluids 2-3 hours prior to exercise

    • Drink 8 ounces of fluid 1--2 hours prior to exercise

    • Drink 24 ounces of fluid 4 hours prior to exercise

    Correct Answer
    A. Drink a minimum of 17 ounces of fluids 2-3 hours prior to exercise
    Explanation
    The recommended fluid intake guidelines prior to exercise for an athletic event suggest drinking a minimum of 17 ounces of fluids 2-3 hours before exercising. This allows enough time for the body to absorb and distribute the fluids, ensuring proper hydration during the workout. Drinking less than 17 ounces may not provide adequate hydration, while drinking more than 17 ounces may cause discomfort or the need for frequent bathroom breaks during exercise.

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  • 48. 

    Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) can affect a static stretch by causing _____.

    • Relaxation of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition

    • Contraction of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition

    • Relaxation of the antagonist(s) through reciprocal inhibition

    • Contraction of the antagonist(s) through reciprocal inhibition

    Correct Answer
    A. Relaxation of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition
    Explanation
    Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) are sensory receptors located in the tendons that connect muscles to bones. They are sensitive to changes in muscle tension. When a muscle is stretched, the GTOs detect the increased tension and send signals to the spinal cord. These signals then cause the muscle to relax through a process called autogenic inhibition. This is a protective mechanism to prevent excessive muscle tension and potential injury. Therefore, the correct answer is relaxation of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition.

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  • 49. 

    Your client would like to lose 20 pounds (9kg) over the next 15 weeks. What daily caloric deficit is needed to achieve this goal?

    • 525 kcal

    • 667 kcal

    • 750 kcal

    • 833 kcal

    Correct Answer
    A. 667 kcal
    Explanation
    To lose weight, a caloric deficit is required. The caloric deficit is the difference between the calories consumed and the calories burned. To calculate the daily caloric deficit needed to lose 20 pounds over 15 weeks, we divide the total caloric deficit (20 pounds x 3500 calories per pound) by the number of days in 15 weeks (105 days). This gives us a daily caloric deficit of approximately 667 kcal. Therefore, the correct answer is 667 kcal.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 26, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Sverdlov2005

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