People's Trainer School Exam
In order to complete your People's Trainer School requirments you must receive atleast a 70 on this multiple choice exam.
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- 1.
What does the acronym ACE stand for?
- A.
American Committee on Exercise
- B.
American Council on Exercise
- C.
Athletic Council on Exercise
- D.
American Committee of Exercise
Correct Answer
B. American Council on ExerciseExplanation
The correct answer is American Council on Exercise. This organization is commonly referred to as ACE and is a leading nonprofit fitness certification, education, and training provider. They offer various certifications and resources for fitness professionals, promoting health and wellness through evidence-based practices.Rate this question:
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- 2.
In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?
- A.
Rapport Stage
- B.
Planning Stage
- C.
Investigation Stage
- D.
Action Stage
Correct Answer
C. Investigation StageExplanation
During the investigation stage of the client-trainer relationship, health-history and lifestyle questionnaires are administered. This stage involves gathering information about the client's current health status, medical history, and lifestyle habits. The questionnaires help the trainer to assess the client's needs, preferences, and any potential limitations or risks. This information is crucial for creating a personalized and effective fitness plan for the client.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which blood vessels carry blood that is rich in oxygen from the lungs back to the heart?
- A.
Coronary arteries
- B.
Pulmonary arteries
- C.
Coronary veins
- D.
Pulmonary veins
Correct Answer
D. Pulmonary veinsExplanation
The pulmonary veins carry blood that is rich in oxygen from the lungs back to the heart. After the blood is oxygenated in the lungs, it is transported back to the heart through the pulmonary veins. From the heart, this oxygen-rich blood is then pumped out to the rest of the body through the systemic circulation. The coronary arteries supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself, while the pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. The coronary veins drain deoxygenated blood from the heart muscle.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?
- A.
Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherance
- B.
Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design
- C.
Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs
- D.
Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals
Correct Answer
B. Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program designExplanation
Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design is within the scope of practice for personal trainers because it involves assessing the clients' physical condition, medical history, and any potential limitations or contraindications for exercise. This information is crucial for personal trainers to design safe and effective exercise programs tailored to the clients' needs and goals. By identifying exercise limitations, personal trainers can ensure that the exercises prescribed are appropriate and will not cause harm or exacerbate any existing conditions.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the MOST important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program?
- A.
Strong support from family and friends
- B.
Convenience of exercise facility
- C.
Readiness to change behavior related to exercise
- D.
Connecting with a personal trainer
Correct Answer
C. Readiness to change behavior related to exerciseExplanation
The most important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program is their readiness to change behavior related to exercise. This means that the individual is mentally prepared and motivated to make the necessary changes in their lifestyle and habits to incorporate regular exercise into their routine. Without this readiness, it would be difficult for the individual to stick to their exercise program and achieve their fitness goals. Strong support from family and friends, convenience of exercise facility, and connecting with a personal trainer can all be helpful factors, but they are not as crucial as the individual's own readiness to change.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which is OUTSIDE of the ACE-certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?
- A.
Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise
- B.
Providing guidance, motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs
- C.
Implementing post-rehabilitative exercise programs for clients following their physicians recommendations
- D.
Conducting a VO2 max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician
Correct Answer
D. Conducting a VO2 max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician -
- 7.
ACE-certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education every two years to maintain their certifications. The PRIMARY reason for this requirement is to help Personal Trainers to ________.
- A.
Earn promotions so they can advance their careers
- B.
Increase their earning potential by adding new speciality certificates to their resumes
- C.
Enhance their resumes to attract more clients
- D.
Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health
Correct Answer
D. Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and healthExplanation
The primary reason for ACE-certified Personal Trainers to complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education every two years is to stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health. This ensures that they have up-to-date knowledge and skills to provide the best possible training and guidance to their clients. It also helps them maintain professional competence and credibility in the field.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients?
- A.
The personal trainer should only recommend those supplements covered under his or her professional liability insurance
- B.
Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements
- C.
The personal trainer should become educated about the specific supplements before making any recommendations
- D.
Due to potential complications from taking supplements with other medications, personal trainers should recommend only plant-based supplements
Correct Answer
B. Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplementsExplanation
Personal trainers should not recommend supplements unless they have additional credentials like a Registered Dietitian (R.D.) or Medical Doctor (M.D.). This is because recommending supplements involves providing advice on nutrition and health, which requires specialized knowledge and expertise. Without these credentials, personal trainers may not have the necessary qualifications to legally recommend supplements to their clients. It is important for personal trainers to understand their limitations and refer clients to appropriate healthcare professionals for supplement recommendations.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if ______.
- A.
The personal trainer has extensive knowledge about the benefits of massage
- B.
The client gives his or her consent for the massage
- C.
The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist
- D.
The massage therapist is not available and the personal trainer has some training
Correct Answer
C. The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapistExplanation
The correct answer is that the personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist. This means that in order to provide massage to clients with tight or sore muscles, the personal trainer must undergo the necessary training and obtain a license to practice as a massage therapist. This ensures that they have the appropriate knowledge, skills, and qualifications to provide safe and effective massages to their clients.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE-certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?
- A.
Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices
- B.
Providing clients with recipes and shopping lists for four weeks to get them on track with helpful eating
- C.
Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micronutrient deficiencies
- D.
Educating clients about resting metabolic rate (RMR) and the need to consume fewer calories that RMR to lose weight
Correct Answer
A. Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choicesExplanation
The ACE-certified Personal Trainer scope of practice includes helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices. This falls within their role of providing nutritional guidance and education to clients. By helping clients understand portion sizes and make healthier food choices, personal trainers can support their clients in achieving their fitness and wellness goals.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to _____.
- A.
Provide the professional with additional education to enhance his or her knowledge, skills and abilities
- B.
Enhance a professional's resume for employment and/or higher compensation
- C.
Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence
- D.
Confirm a candidate's understanding of key concepts following the completion of a bachelor's degree
Correct Answer
C. Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competenceExplanation
Professional certifications serve the primary purpose of protecting the public from harm by ensuring that candidates meet the minimum levels of competence established by the certification body. This means that individuals who hold these certifications have demonstrated their knowledge, skills, and abilities in their respective fields, providing assurance to the public that they are qualified and capable of performing their professional duties safely and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which muscle or muscle group is MOST important for respiration in humans?
- A.
Internal intercostals
- B.
Diaphragm
- C.
External intercostals
- D.
Transverse abdominis
Correct Answer
B. DiaphragmExplanation
The diaphragm is the most important muscle for respiration in humans. It is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs, separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and allowing the lungs to expand. This creates a pressure difference, causing air to rush into the lungs. During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and forcing air out of the lungs. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in the process of breathing and is essential for efficient respiration.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) can affect a static stretch by causing _____.
- A.
Relaxation of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition
- B.
Contraction of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition
- C.
Relaxation of the antagonist(s) through reciprocal inhibition
- D.
Contraction of the antagonist(s) through reciprocal inhibition
Correct Answer
A. Relaxation of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibitionExplanation
Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) are sensory receptors located in the tendons that connect muscles to bones. They are sensitive to changes in muscle tension. When a muscle is stretched, the GTOs detect the increased tension and send signals to the spinal cord. These signals then cause the muscle to relax through a process called autogenic inhibition. This is a protective mechanism to prevent excessive muscle tension and potential injury. Therefore, the correct answer is relaxation of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What organ is PRIMARILY responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients?
- A.
Stomach
- B.
Pancreas
- C.
Small Intestine
- D.
Large Intestine
Correct Answer
C. Small IntestineExplanation
The small intestine is primarily responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. It is a long, coiled tube located between the stomach and the large intestine. The inner lining of the small intestine contains tiny finger-like projections called villi, which increase the surface area for nutrient absorption. The small intestine receives partially digested food from the stomach and further breaks it down using enzymes produced by the pancreas and its own intestinal enzymes. It absorbs nutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals into the bloodstream, where they are transported to cells throughout the body for energy and other functions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which muscles are prime movers (agonist) for the shoulder joint adduction performed during a wide-grip pull-up?
- A.
Trapezius and Rhomboids
- B.
Deltoid and Latissimus Dorsi
- C.
Teres Major and Serratus Anterior
- D.
Pectoralis Major and Latissimus Dorsi
Correct Answer
D. Pectoralis Major and Latissimus DorsiExplanation
The pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi muscles are prime movers for shoulder joint adduction during a wide-grip pull-up. The pectoralis major is a large muscle located in the chest that helps to bring the arm across the body. The latissimus dorsi is a broad muscle in the back that helps to pull the arm down and back. Together, these muscles work to adduct the shoulder joint and perform the movement required for a wide-grip pull-up.Rate this question:
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- 16.
How does the pancreas help regulate blood glucose levels?
- A.
It secretes glucagon to increase blood glucose levels and insulin to increase glucose uptake by the cells
- B.
It releases glucocorticoids that aid in the utilization of glucose and metabolism of fatty acids
- C.
It secretes insulin to increase blood glucose levels and stimulate uptake of the glucose by the cells
- D.
It releases pancreatic enzymes into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of protein, carbohydrates and fat
Correct Answer
A. It secretes glucagon to increase blood glucose levels and insulin to increase glucose uptake by the cellsExplanation
The pancreas helps regulate blood glucose levels by secreting glucagon to increase blood glucose levels and insulin to increase glucose uptake by the cells. Glucagon stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream. Insulin, on the other hand, allows cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream for energy or storage. Together, these hormones maintain a balance in blood glucose levels, ensuring that cells have enough glucose for energy while preventing excessive levels that could be harmful.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the primary energy system utilized during events lasting approximately 2 to 3 minutes, such as the 800-meter dash or 200-meter freestyle swim?
- A.
Stored ATP
- B.
Phosphagen
- C.
Anaerobic glycolysis
- D.
Aerobic glycolysis
Correct Answer
C. Anaerobic glycolysisExplanation
Anaerobic glycolysis is the primary energy system utilized during events lasting approximately 2 to 3 minutes, such as the 800-meter dash or 200-meter freestyle swim. Anaerobic glycolysis involves the breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen to produce ATP. This energy system is able to provide energy quickly but is not sustainable for longer durations. Stored ATP and phosphagen systems provide energy for shorter bursts of activity, while aerobic glycolysis relies on oxygen and is more suited for longer duration activities.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which training program would be MOST effective for improving the capabilities of slow-twitch muscle fibers?
- A.
Circuit training with 90-second work and 30-second recovery intervals
- B.
Short-duration low-to-moderate intensity cardiorespiratory exercise
- C.
High-intensity interval training with 15-second work and 60-second recovery intervals
- D.
Long-duration moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise
Correct Answer
D. Long-duration moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exerciseExplanation
Long-duration moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise would be most effective for improving the capabilities of slow-twitch muscle fibers. Slow-twitch muscle fibers are responsible for endurance activities and they are best trained through sustained, moderate-intensity exercise over a longer duration. This type of exercise helps to improve the endurance and efficiency of slow-twitch muscle fibers, allowing them to better utilize oxygen and generate energy for prolonged periods of time. Circuit training and high-intensity interval training are more effective for fast-twitch muscle fibers, which are responsible for power and strength activities. Short-duration low-to-moderate intensity cardiorespiratory exercise may have some benefits, but it may not provide enough stimulus to significantly improve the capabilities of slow-twitch muscle fibers.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Why does resistance training result in greater hypertrophy gains for men than for women?
- A.
Men usually exercise more vigorously than women
- B.
Women have less testosterone than men
- C.
Men have greater endurance than women
- D.
Women typically use machines for resistance training
Correct Answer
B. Women have less testosterone than menExplanation
Testosterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in muscle growth and hypertrophy. Men naturally have higher levels of testosterone compared to women, which gives them an advantage in terms of muscle development. This hormone promotes protein synthesis and enhances muscle recovery, leading to greater gains in muscle size and strength. Therefore, the lower levels of testosterone in women make it more challenging for them to achieve the same level of hypertrophy gains as men in resistance training.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following exercise adjustments would create INCREASED stability and balance?
- A.
Moving from a position with feet at shoulder width to a position with feet together
- B.
Progressing double-leg balance exercises from a wood floor to a foam balance pad
- C.
Switching from a forearm plank to a plank in a push-up position
- D.
Putting one hand on a bench during a single-arm bent-over row exercise
Correct Answer
D. Putting one hand on a bench during a single-arm bent-over row exerciseExplanation
Putting one hand on a bench during a single-arm bent-over row exercise would create increased stability and balance. By placing one hand on a bench, it provides additional support and stability to the body during the exercise. This adjustment helps to distribute the weight and maintain proper alignment, reducing the risk of falling or losing balance. It also allows the individual to focus more on engaging the targeted muscles, improving overall stability and balance.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which muscle provides the GREATEST amount of activity and force production during powerful hip extension movements such as those seen during sprinting, kettlebell swings and running up stairs?
- A.
Gluteus medius
- B.
Semitendinosus
- C.
Gluteus maximus
- D.
Semimembranosus
Correct Answer
C. Gluteus maximusExplanation
The gluteus maximus is the largest and most powerful muscle in the gluteal region. It is responsible for hip extension, which is a key movement in activities such as sprinting, kettlebell swings, and running up stairs. The gluteus maximus generates the greatest amount of activity and force production during these movements, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The postural deviation most commonly associated with weak abdominal and hip extensor muscles coupled with tight hip flexors and back extensors in _____.
- A.
Scoliosis
- B.
Lordosis
- C.
Sway-back
- D.
Kyphosis
Correct Answer
B. LordosisExplanation
Lordosis is a postural deviation characterized by an excessive inward curvature of the spine, commonly known as "swayback." Weak abdominal and hip extensor muscles, along with tight hip flexors and back extensors, can contribute to this condition. This imbalance in muscle strength and flexibility leads to an exaggerated arch in the lower back, causing the pelvis to tilt forward. Consequently, the excessive curve in the spine is formed, resulting in lordosis.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is the agonist (prime mover) and the type of muscle contraction performed when lowering the chest to the floor after performing a prone trunk (back) hyperextension?
- A.
Erector Spinae; eccentric contraction
- B.
Rectus abdominis; eccentric contraction
- C.
Internal oblique; concentric contraction
- D.
Quadratus lumborum; concentric contraction
Correct Answer
A. Erector Spinae; eccentric contractionExplanation
The erector spinae is the prime mover or agonist muscle responsible for lowering the chest to the floor after performing a prone trunk hyperextension. This muscle group runs along the spine and helps to extend and stabilize the back. Eccentric contraction refers to the lengthening of a muscle while it is under tension. In this case, the erector spinae is contracting eccentrically as it controls the descent of the chest to the floor.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following is a common obesity-related change that affects biomechanics?
- A.
Increased pain in weightbearing joints
- B.
Decreased step frequency (fewer steps to walk across an area)
- C.
Increased stride length during walking
- D.
Decreased anterior displacement of the center of gravity (COG)
Correct Answer
A. Increased pain in weightbearing jointsExplanation
Obesity can lead to increased stress on weightbearing joints such as the knees and hips. This increased stress can result in inflammation and damage to the joint structures, leading to pain. Therefore, increased pain in weightbearing joints is a common obesity-related change that affects biomechanics.Rate this question:
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- 25.
How many kilocalories (kcal) are in a food that contains 4 grams of protein, 12 grams of carbohydrates and 2 grams of fat?
- A.
72 kcal
- B.
82 kcal
- C.
92 kcal
- D.
102 kcal
Correct Answer
B. 82 kcalExplanation
The given food contains 4 grams of protein, 12 grams of carbohydrates, and 2 grams of fat. Each gram of protein and carbohydrates provides 4 kilocalories, while each gram of fat provides 9 kilocalories. Therefore, the total kilocalories in the food can be calculated as follows: (4 grams of protein x 4 kcal/gram) + (12 grams of carbohydrates x 4 kcal/gram) + (2 grams of fat x 9 kcal/gram) = 16 kcal + 48 kcal + 18 kcal = 82 kcal.Rate this question:
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- 26.
According to current dietary guidelines, a 30-year-old moderately active man who consumes 2,500 calories per day requires _____ of daily protein.
- A.
45-150 g
- B.
54-175 g
- C.
63-218 g
- D.
76-253 g
Correct Answer
C. 63-218 gExplanation
According to current dietary guidelines, a moderately active 30-year-old man who consumes 2,500 calories per day requires 63-218 grams of daily protein. This range is based on the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for protein, which suggests that individuals should consume 10-35% of their daily calories from protein. As the man's caloric intake is known, the range of protein intake can be calculated using this percentage range.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Your client would like to lose 20 pounds (9kg) over the next 15 weeks. What daily caloric deficit is needed to achieve this goal?
- A.
525 kcal
- B.
667 kcal
- C.
750 kcal
- D.
833 kcal
Correct Answer
B. 667 kcalExplanation
To lose weight, a caloric deficit is required. The caloric deficit is the difference between the calories consumed and the calories burned. To calculate the daily caloric deficit needed to lose 20 pounds over 15 weeks, we divide the total caloric deficit (20 pounds x 3500 calories per pound) by the number of days in 15 weeks (105 days). This gives us a daily caloric deficit of approximately 667 kcal. Therefore, the correct answer is 667 kcal.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Kristin is a varsity crew athlete who is now beginning her pre-season training in preparation for the upcoming season. If she weighs 155 pounds (70.45 kg), how many grams of carbohydrates per hour will she need to maintain her blood glucose levels during her training sessions?
- A.
10-30 g
- B.
20-35 g
- C.
30-60 g
- D.
60-75 g
Correct Answer
C. 30-60 gExplanation
During intense physical activity like pre-season training for varsity crew, the body relies heavily on carbohydrates for energy. Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is used by the muscles as fuel. To maintain her blood glucose levels during training, Kristin will need to consume a sufficient amount of carbohydrates. The range of 30-60 grams per hour is appropriate because it provides an adequate supply of glucose to meet the energy demands of her training sessions without overwhelming her digestive system. This range ensures that her blood glucose levels remain stable, allowing her to perform at her best.Rate this question:
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- 29.
"Hitting the wall" during a marathon or other endurance event is PRIMARILY associated with _____.
- A.
Severe amino acids depletion
- B.
Depleted free fatty acid in the blood
- C.
Severe glycogen depletion
- D.
Depleted free fatty acids and dehydration
Correct Answer
C. Severe glycogen depletionExplanation
During a marathon or other endurance event, "hitting the wall" refers to a point where the body's glycogen stores are severely depleted. Glycogen is the primary source of energy during intense exercise, and when it runs out, the body is unable to maintain the same level of performance. This can lead to extreme fatigue, weakness, and a feeling of "hitting the wall." Severe glycogen depletion is therefore primarily associated with this phenomenon.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Contracting the hip flexors during a supine hamstring stretch is an example of which stretching principle?
- A.
Reciprocal inhibition
- B.
Active isolated stretching
- C.
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
- D.
Autogenic inhibition
Correct Answer
A. Reciprocal inhibitionExplanation
Contracting the hip flexors during a supine hamstring stretch is an example of reciprocal inhibition. Reciprocal inhibition is a stretching principle that involves contracting the antagonist muscle to relax the target muscle. In this case, contracting the hip flexors (antagonist) helps to relax the hamstring muscles (target) during the stretch. This principle helps to improve flexibility and range of motion by allowing the target muscle to stretch more effectively.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is the MOST common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program?
- A.
Limited access to the exercise facility
- B.
A lack of support
- C.
Being too old to participate
- D.
A lack of time
Correct Answer
D. A lack of timeExplanation
The most common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program is a lack of time. This is a common excuse because people often have busy schedules and find it difficult to prioritize exercise amidst their other commitments and responsibilities. It is easier for individuals to use lack of time as an excuse rather than acknowledging the need to make exercise a priority in their daily lives.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate regularly in an exercise program _____.
- A.
Has good self-efficacy related to exercise
- B.
Is in the contemplation stage of behavior change
- C.
Has very strong self-esteem
- D.
Is completely intrinsically motivated
Correct Answer
D. Is completely intrinsically motivatedExplanation
A person who is completely intrinsically motivated to participate regularly in an exercise program is confident in their ability to do so. They are internally driven and find personal satisfaction and enjoyment in engaging in physical activity. This motivation comes from within themselves rather than external factors. This individual does not rely on external rewards or incentives to maintain their exercise routine, but rather they have a strong internal desire to be active and stay committed to their fitness goals.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which type of exercise program would be expected to have the GREATEST drop-out rate?
- A.
Small-group personal training
- B.
Vigorous-intensity exercise program
- C.
Home-based personal training
- D.
Moderate-intensity exercise program
Correct Answer
B. Vigorous-intensity exercise programExplanation
A vigorous-intensity exercise program would be expected to have the greatest drop-out rate because it involves high-intensity workouts that can be physically demanding and challenging for individuals. This level of intensity may lead to fatigue, muscle soreness, and a higher risk of injury, which could discourage participants from continuing with the program. Additionally, individuals may find it difficult to maintain the motivation and commitment required for such intense workouts over a prolonged period of time, leading to a higher drop-out rate compared to other exercise programs.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following would help a trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial session?
- A.
Looking away from the client frequency to prevent staring while sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean
- B.
Speaking in a soft, friendly voice while leaning against the chair armrest with forearms crossed calmly
- C.
Direct, friendly eye contact while always maintaining a smile and enthusiasm
- D.
Speaking in a firm voice with confidence, using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hand while listening
Correct Answer
D. Speaking in a firm voice with confidence, using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hand while listening -
- 35.
Providing a more detailed description of the process by which resistance training helps to preserve bone density would be MOST effective with which personality style?
- A.
Delibartor
- B.
DIrector
- C.
Collaborator
- D.
Expressor
Correct Answer
D. ExpressorExplanation
An Expressor personality style would be most effective in providing a more detailed description of the process by which resistance training helps to preserve bone density. Expressors are known for their ability to communicate effectively and express their thoughts and ideas clearly. They are often enthusiastic and passionate about sharing information, which would make them well-suited to explain the intricacies of resistance training and its impact on bone density to others.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following if a SMART goal?
- A.
"I will improve my cholesterol and blood pressure through better eating and exercise"
- B.
"I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months."
- C.
"I will lose 20 lb (9 kg) for my trip to Hawaii in 2 months by exercising seven days a week to maximize results."
- D.
"I will try a new group exercise class each week to avoid boredom."
Correct Answer
B. "I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months."Explanation
The answer "I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months" is a SMART goal because it is specific (running 4 days per week, gradually increasing run time), measurable (from 10 to 40 minutes), achievable (preparing for a 5K in four months), relevant (related to improving fitness and achieving a specific event goal), and time-bound (four months). This goal includes all the elements of a SMART goal and is well-defined and realistic.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What would be MOST effective in helping a client to develop program adherence?
- A.
Providing the client with regular feedback about exercise form
- B.
Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal
- C.
Implementing a reward system for client goal attainment
- D.
Conducting fitness assessments every other week to measure progress
Correct Answer
B. Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journalExplanation
Keeping an exercise journal allows the client to track their progress and monitor their adherence to the program. By recording their workouts, they can identify patterns, set goals, and hold themselves accountable. This self-monitoring technique helps the client stay motivated and committed to the program, as they can visually see their improvements over time. Regular feedback about exercise form, implementing a reward system, and conducting fitness assessments can also be helpful, but self-monitoring through an exercise journal is the most effective way to develop program adherence.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10K and half-marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running, she has not been active since her children were born two years ago. Now that they are in daycare three days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, what stages of change has she gone through from pre-pregnancy to meeting with you today?
- A.
Action --> Precontemplation --> Action
- B.
Maintenance --> Contemplation --> Action
- C.
Action --> Maintenance --> Preparation
- D.
Maintenance --> Contemplation --> Preparation
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance --> Contemplation --> PreparationExplanation
The client's statement indicates that she used to participate in running events before having twins, indicating that she was in the Maintenance stage. However, after giving birth, she has not been active, suggesting that she entered the Contemplation stage. Now that she has started walking and wants to begin running again, she is in the Preparation stage as she is making plans and taking steps towards her goal of completing a marathon. Therefore, the correct answer is Maintenance --> Contemplation --> Preparation.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Using reinforcement to help a client progress from doing a quarter lunge to performing a full lunge and then eventually adding resistance is an example of which process?
- A.
Shaping
- B.
Operant conditioning
- C.
Cognitions and behavior
- D.
Observational learning
Correct Answer
A. ShapingExplanation
Shaping is the correct answer because it involves using reinforcement to gradually shape and guide a client's behavior towards a desired outcome. In this case, the client is progressing from doing a quarter lunge to performing a full lunge and then adding resistance. By providing reinforcement at each stage of progress, the client is motivated to continue improving and reaching the next level. Shaping is a technique commonly used in operant conditioning, where behaviors are shaped through reinforcement and positive reinforcement is used to encourage desired behaviors.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A new personal training client tells you that she has little experience with exercise, but has signed up for eight weeks of personal training because she is ready to get fit and lost weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to help her to become regularly active and work toward her goals?
- A.
Design a challenging program so she can experience the positive benefits of exercise
- B.
Inform her about different types of exercise and invite her to your group strength class
- C.
Provide her with initial positive exercise experiences and help her focus on consistency
- D.
Educate her about the risks of being inactive and commend her on her new commitment
Correct Answer
C. Provide her with initial positive exercise experiences and help her focus on consistencyExplanation
The most effective way to help the new personal training client become regularly active and work towards her goals would be to provide her with initial positive exercise experiences and help her focus on consistency. This approach acknowledges her lack of experience and focuses on building a solid foundation by starting with positive experiences. By doing so, it will encourage her to continue exercising and develop a consistent routine, which is essential for achieving long-term fitness and weight loss goals.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following strategies should a personal trainer AVOID when trying to promote program ownership on the part of the client?
- A.
Having clients journal their thoughts, experiences, and emotions related to the program
- B.
Giving clients the information needed to determine the outcome of their programs
- C.
Helping clients to reinforce their own behaviors through internal encouragement
- D.
Providing clients with increasing amounts of external feedback as the program progresses
Correct Answer
D. Providing clients with increasing amounts of external feedback as the program progressesExplanation
Providing clients with increasing amounts of external feedback as the program progresses should be avoided when trying to promote program ownership on the part of the client. This is because excessive external feedback can create a dependency on the trainer rather than empowering the client to take ownership of their own progress. Instead, strategies such as having clients journal their thoughts and experiences, giving them the information needed to determine outcomes, and helping them reinforce their own behaviors through internal encouragement can promote program ownership and self-accountability.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What foundational element is the ACE IFT Model built upon?
- A.
Health improvment
- B.
Functional fitness
- C.
Developing rapport
- D.
Cardiorespiratory fitness
Correct Answer
C. Developing rapportExplanation
The ACE IFT Model is built upon developing rapport. This means that establishing a strong and positive relationship between the fitness professional and the client is considered a foundational element. By building rapport, the fitness professional can better understand the client's needs, goals, and preferences, which in turn allows for more effective and personalized training programs. Developing rapport also helps to create a supportive and motivating environment for the client, enhancing their overall experience and increasing adherence to the program.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What are the five primary movements that are the focus of the movement-training phase?
- A.
Squatting, lunging, swinging, throwing and arching movements
- B.
Jumping, hopping, pushing, pulling and arching movements
- C.
Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling and rotational movements
- D.
Lunging, Pulling, Squatting, Pushing and core movements
Correct Answer
C. Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling and rotational movementsExplanation
The correct answer is Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling and rotational movements. These five movements are the primary focus of the movement-training phase. Squatting and lunging movements help to strengthen the lower body and improve stability. Pushing and pulling movements target the upper body muscles and improve strength and coordination. Rotational movements help to improve core strength and stability, which is important for overall movement and performance. By focusing on these five movements, individuals can improve their overall functional fitness and movement capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 44.
In what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis, limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders and performs resistance-training workouts four days per week?
- A.
Phase 1: Stability and mobility training
- B.
Phase 2: Movement training
- C.
Phase 3: Load training
- D.
Phase 4: Performance training
Correct Answer
A. Phase 1: Stability and mobility trainingExplanation
Based on the given information, the person has lumbar lordosis, limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders, and performs resistance-training workouts four days per week. These characteristics suggest that the person needs to focus on improving stability and mobility in order to address the issues with their posture and range of motion. Therefore, they would be categorized in Phase 1: Stability and mobility training, which aims to improve core stability, balance, and flexibility before progressing to more complex movements and heavier loads.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under which functional movement and resistance training phase of the ACE IFT Model?
- A.
Phase 1: Stability and Mobility training
- B.
Phase 2: Movement training
- C.
Phase 3: Load training
- D.
Phase 4: Performance training
Correct Answer
C. Phase 3: Load trainingExplanation
Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance involve the use of resistance to increase the load on the muscles. This phase of the ACE IFT Model, known as Load training, focuses on progressively increasing the resistance or load to improve muscular strength and endurance. It is aimed at challenging the muscles to adapt and become stronger over time.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A regular group exercise participants with no competitive goals would be classified in which phase of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT Model?
- A.
Phase 1: Aerobic-base training
- B.
Phase 2: Aerobic-efficiency training
- C.
Phase 3: Anaerobic-endurance training
- D.
Phase 4: Anaerobic-power training
Correct Answer
B. Phase 2: Aerobic-efficiency trainingExplanation
Regular group exercise participants with no competitive goals would be classified in Phase 2: Aerobic-efficiency training. This phase focuses on improving the efficiency of the cardiovascular system by increasing the body's ability to use oxygen during exercise. It aims to enhance aerobic capacity and endurance through longer duration, lower intensity workouts. Participants in this phase would typically engage in activities such as steady-state cardio exercises, circuit training, or interval training at a moderate intensity level. This phase is suitable for individuals who have already established a solid aerobic base in Phase 1 and are looking to further improve their cardiovascular fitness.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Personal trainers can use the talk test as an upper limit for exercise intensity to determine if a client is exercising below which of the following cardiorespiratory markers?
- A.
VO2max
- B.
The second ventilatory threshold (VT2)
- C.
Anaerobic threshold
- D.
The first ventilatory threshold (VT1)
Correct Answer
D. The first ventilatory threshold (VT1)Explanation
The talk test is a simple and practical method used by personal trainers to assess exercise intensity. It involves monitoring the ability of a client to carry on a conversation while exercising. If a client can comfortably talk during exercise, it indicates that they are exercising below their first ventilatory threshold (VT1). VT1 is the point at which the body starts to rely more on aerobic metabolism and less on anaerobic metabolism. It is an important marker for determining exercise intensity and can help trainers ensure that their clients are working at an appropriate level for their fitness goals.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is the name of the essential attribute of successful relationships that is described as "the ability to respect another person regardless of his or her uniqueness?"
- A.
Empathy
- B.
Warmth
- C.
Genuinesness
- D.
Honesty
Correct Answer
B. WarmthExplanation
Warmth is the correct answer because it refers to the essential attribute of successful relationships, which is the ability to respect another person regardless of their uniqueness. Warmth implies showing kindness, understanding, and acceptance towards others, creating a positive and supportive environment for the relationship to thrive. It involves being open-minded and non-judgmental, allowing individuals to feel valued and appreciated for who they are. Warmth fosters trust, connection, and emotional intimacy, making it a crucial aspect of successful relationships.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Your new client is a 57-year old woman who plays golf, tennis, and squash avidly. Her health-risk appraisal reveals only one positive risk factor (age) and that she has a heart murmur. According to the ACSM risk stratifications, what is the client's level of risk?
- A.
Low risk
- B.
Moderate risk
- C.
High risk
- D.
Very high risk
Correct Answer
C. High riskExplanation
Based on the information provided, the client is a 57-year old woman with only one positive risk factor (age) and a heart murmur. According to the ACSM risk stratifications, individuals with one positive risk factor are classified as moderate risk. However, having a heart murmur is considered a significant cardiovascular condition, which increases the risk level. Therefore, the client's level of risk is high.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that he or she has been educated about, and understands, the risks associated with being active.
- A.
Agreement and release of liability waiver
- B.
Medical release
- C.
Exercise history and attitude questionnaire
- D.
Informed consent
Correct Answer
A. Agreement and release of liability waiverExplanation
The correct answer is "Agreement and release of liability waiver". This form is signed by the client to acknowledge that they have been educated about and understand the risks associated with being active. By signing this form, the client agrees to release the organization or individual from any liability or responsibility for any injuries or damages that may occur during the activity. This form is commonly used in situations where there may be a higher risk of injury, such as sports or physical activities.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 26, 2014Quiz Created by
Sverdlov2005
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