3a151 Administration Unit 1

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

All 32 URE questions to study for your EOC exam


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Upload your response

  • 2. 

    Which level of career field manager (CFM) has the authority to waive Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements?

    • A.

      Unit Level Training Manager

    • B.

      Base Level Functional Manager

    • C.

      Major Command Functional Manager

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Career Field Manager
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager has the authority to waive Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements. This level of manager oversees the entire career field and has the highest level of authority in making decisions regarding training and education requirements. They have the knowledge and experience to determine when certain requirements can be waived based on individual circumstances or specific needs within the career field. The Unit Level Training Manager, Base Level Functional Manager, and Major Command Functional Manager may have some authority in training and education decisions, but the Air Force Career Field Manager is the ultimate decision-maker in this regard.

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  • 3. 

    Which functional manager assigns collateral responsibility for training, classification, utilization and career developement of enlisted administration personnel?

    • A.

      Unit Level Training Manager

    • B.

      Base Level Functional Manager

    • C.

      Major Command Functional Manager

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Base Level Functional Manager
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Base Level Functional Manager. This manager is responsible for assigning collateral responsibility for training, classification, utilization, and career development of enlisted administration personnel at the base level. They oversee the overall management and development of enlisted personnel in their specific functional area within the base.

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  • 4. 

    Which customer service technique focuses on being postured for scheduled tasks that occur frequently?

    • A.

      Resolve issues in a timely manner

    • B.

      Maintain open lines of communication

    • C.

      The customer is a person and they matter

    • D.

      Anticipate the need of the customer and exceed their expectations

    Correct Answer
    D. Anticipate the need of the customer and exceed their expectations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Anticipate the need of the customer and exceed their expectations." This technique focuses on being proactive and prepared for tasks that occur frequently. By anticipating the needs of the customer, the customer service representative can take preemptive actions and provide solutions before the customer even asks for them. Additionally, by exceeding the customer's expectations, the representative can go above and beyond to provide exceptional service and create a positive experience for the customer.

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  • 5. 

        What should you ask for that will show that you are being attentive to your customers needs?      

    • A.

      Patience

    • B.

      More time

    • C.

      Clarification

    • D.

      Understanding

    Correct Answer
    C. Clarification
    Explanation
    To show that you are being attentive to your customers' needs, it is important to ask for clarification. By asking for clarification, you demonstrate that you are actively listening and seeking to fully understand their needs. This allows you to provide the most accurate and tailored assistance, ensuring customer satisfaction.

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  • 6. 

    The easiest way to determine the type of file you are storing is by the file

    • A.

      Extension

    • B.

      Prefix

    • C.

      Name

    • D.

      Size

    Correct Answer
    A. Extension
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "extension". The file extension refers to the characters that appear after the dot in a file name. It helps to identify the file type and determine which program should be used to open or handle the file. For example, a file with the extension ".docx" is typically associated with Microsoft Word, while a file with the extension ".jpg" is associated with image files. Therefore, by looking at the file extension, you can easily determine the type of file you are storing.

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  • 7. 

    What program is NOT an application of the standard enterprise solution software used in the Air Force today?

    • A.

      Adobe Acrobat

    • B.

      Excel

    • C.

      Word

    • D.

      Outlook

    Correct Answer
    A. Adobe Acrobat
    Explanation
    Adobe Acrobat is not an application of the standard enterprise solution software used in the Air Force today because it is primarily used for creating, editing, and viewing PDF documents, whereas the standard enterprise solution software in the Air Force is likely to include applications that are specifically tailored to the needs of the military, such as logistics management, personnel tracking, or communication systems. Adobe Acrobat does not have the same level of functionality and integration with other military-specific software as the standard enterprise solution software used in the Air Force.

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  • 8. 

    Which Microsoft word function makes it easier for a user to locate and replace words or phrases in a document?

    • A.

      Track Changes

    • B.

      Merging Documents

    • C.

      Search Document

    • D.

      Proof Documents

    Correct Answer
    C. Search Document
    Explanation
    The Microsoft Word function that makes it easier for a user to locate and replace words or phrases in a document is the "Search Document" function. This feature allows users to search for specific words or phrases within a document and then replace them with different words or phrases if desired. It helps users quickly find and modify specific content in their documents, improving efficiency and productivity.

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  • 9. 

    The four viewing options given for displaying document changes when using the Microsoft Word track changes feature are...

    • A.

      Final and show mark-up, final, original and show mark-up, original

    • B.

      Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, and Signatures

    • C.

      Final and show mark-up, Authenticators, Original and show mark up, and Original

    • D.

      Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark-up, and Original Signature

    Correct Answer
    A. Final and show mark-up, final, original and show mark-up, original
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Final and show mark-up, final, original and show mark-up, original. This is because the track changes feature in Microsoft Word allows users to view the document in different modes. "Final and show mark-up" shows the final version of the document with all the changes marked. "Final" shows the final version without any mark-ups. "Original and show mark-up" displays the original version of the document with all the changes marked. "Original" shows the original version without any mark-ups.

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  • 10. 

    Electronic signatures are effective and easy but should NOT be used with a

    • A.

      Word Document

    • B.

      Military Decoration

    • C.

      Merged document

    • D.

      Memorandum for record

    Correct Answer
    B. Military Decoration
    Explanation
    Electronic signatures should not be used with a Military Decoration because it is a physical symbol of honor and recognition for military service. Using an electronic signature would undermine the significance and authenticity of the decoration. Military Decorations are typically presented in a formal ceremony, and a physical signature adds to the ceremonial value and respect associated with the award.

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  • 11. 

    What are the decision quality characteristics of information that are used in our databases?

    • A.

      Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, security.

    • B.

      Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, comparable, highly detailed, brevity, and security

    • C.

      Accuracy, highly detailed, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security

    • D.

      Accuracy, comparable, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and encrypted

    Correct Answer
    A. Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, security.
    Explanation
    The decision quality characteristics of information used in our databases include accuracy, relevance, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security. Accuracy ensures that the information is correct and free from errors. Relevance ensures that the information is applicable and useful for making decisions. Timeliness ensures that the information is up-to-date and current. Usability ensures that the information is easy to understand and navigate. Completeness ensures that all necessary information is included. Brevity ensures that the information is concise and to the point. Security ensures that the information is protected and only accessible to authorized individuals.

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  • 12. 

    Why would you create a tailored database report for your customers?

    • A.

      To allow access to the database

    • B.

      To maintain data's integrity

    • C.

      To allow data searches

    • D.

      To record data structure vulnerabilities

    Correct Answer
    B. To maintain data's integrity
    Explanation
    Creating a tailored database report for customers allows for the maintenance of data's integrity. By providing customers with a customized report, they can easily access and analyze the data they need, ensuring that the information remains accurate and reliable. This helps to prevent any potential errors or inconsistencies in the data, ultimately maintaining the integrity of the database.

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  • 13. 

    While creating a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, you CANNOT add what types of content?

    • A.

      Pivot tables

    • B.

      Formula utilization

    • C.

      Sorting and filtering data

    • D.

      Video clips

    Correct Answer
    D. Video clips
    Explanation
    Microsoft Excel is primarily used for organizing and analyzing data, so it does not support the addition of video clips. It is designed to handle numerical data, perform calculations using formulas, and manipulate data using sorting and filtering techniques. However, it does not have built-in capabilities to directly insert or play video clips within the spreadsheet.

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  • 14. 

    In Microsoft Excel, which tab is used when performing mathematical calculation?

    • A.

      Formulas

    • B.

      Pivot Table

    • C.

      Data Forms

    • D.

      Data Consolidate

    Correct Answer
    A. Formulas
    Explanation
    The Formulas tab in Microsoft Excel is used when performing mathematical calculations. This tab provides various functions, such as SUM, AVERAGE, and COUNT, that allow users to perform calculations on data in the spreadsheet. It also provides access to additional tools, such as the formula builder and the name manager, which can assist in creating and managing complex calculations.

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  • 15. 

    When merging documents in Adobe Acrobat Pro, you can merge which types of files into a single document?

    • A.

      Portable Document format (PDF) with PDF

    • B.

      Microsoft Word documents with PDF

    • C.

      Microsoft PowerPoint documents with PDF

    • D.

      Microsoft Excel documents with PDF

    Correct Answer
    A. Portable Document format (PDF) with PDF
    Explanation
    In Adobe Acrobat Pro, you can merge different types of files into a single document, including Portable Document Format (PDF) files with PDF files. This means that you can combine multiple PDF files together to create one cohesive document. This feature allows for easy organization and consolidation of information, making it convenient for users who need to merge multiple PDF files into a single document. Additionally, merging PDF files can help streamline workflows and improve productivity by reducing the need to open and manage multiple files separately.

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  • 16. 

    Which is an effective method of managing a high volume of email messages in your inbox?

    • A.

      Creating subfolders

    • B.

      Auto deleting messages by date

    • C.

      Storing your messages in other outlook profiles

    • D.

      Saving all inbox emails in .msg format for future reference or use

    Correct Answer
    A. Creating subfolders
    Explanation
    Creating subfolders is an effective method of managing a high volume of email messages in your inbox. By organizing emails into specific subfolders, you can easily categorize and prioritize your messages based on different criteria such as sender, subject, or importance. This helps in reducing clutter in the main inbox and allows for quicker access to important emails. Additionally, subfolders provide a systematic way of archiving and retrieving past emails, making it easier to stay organized and efficient in managing a large number of messages.

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  • 17. 

    Email profiles are verified by...

    • A.

      Establishing subfolders

    • B.

      A .msg file that has a history of member's profiles

    • C.

      Certificates that reside on the members' identification card

    • D.

      The .pst file that is created and saved to the individuals account profile only

    Correct Answer
    C. Certificates that reside on the members' identification card
    Explanation
    Email profiles are verified by certificates that reside on the members' identification card. This means that the email profiles are authenticated and validated using digital certificates that are stored on the identification cards of the members. These certificates provide a secure and trusted way to verify the identity of the email account holder, ensuring that the email communication is secure and coming from a legitimate source. The use of certificates adds an extra layer of security to the email verification process.

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  • 18. 

    When digitally signing an electronic mail message, the signature indicates the message is...

    • A.

      Authentic

    • B.

      Encrypted

    • C.

      Authenticated and encrypted

    • D.

      Official and private

    Correct Answer
    A. Authentic
    Explanation
    When digitally signing an electronic mail message, the signature indicates that the message is authentic. This means that the message has not been altered or tampered with during transmission and that it can be trusted to have originated from the claimed sender. The digital signature provides a way to verify the integrity and authenticity of the message, ensuring that it has not been modified by unauthorized parties.

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  • 19. 

    Which Microsoft Outlook function generates a pop-up message to alert the user to dismiss or snooze the action?

    • A.

      Cancel appointments

    • B.

      Manage appointments

    • C.

      Schedule appointments

    • D.

      Appointment reminders

    Correct Answer
    D. Appointment reminders
    Explanation
    The correct answer is appointment reminders. Appointment reminders in Microsoft Outlook generate pop-up messages to alert the user to either dismiss or snooze the action. This feature helps users stay organized and remember important appointments or events.

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  • 20. 

    The main reason to use an In-Turn memorandum is to allow...

    • A.

      Addressees to get their own copy

    • B.

      The sender to see action office coordination

    • C.

      The last action office to see coordination of the sender

    • D.

      The final addressee to see the coordination of all addressees

    Correct Answer
    D. The final addressee to see the coordination of all addressees
    Explanation
    An In-Turn memorandum is used to ensure that the final addressee can see the coordination and communication between all the other addressees. This allows the final addressee to have a comprehensive understanding of the actions and decisions made by all parties involved. By including all relevant parties in the memorandum, the final addressee can have a clear picture of the coordination process and make informed decisions based on this information.

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  • 21. 

    Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking and the tasking is accurate?

    • A.

      Taskee

    • B.

      Tasker

    • C.

      Sender

    • D.

      Reciever

    Correct Answer
    C. Sender
    Explanation
    The sender has the responsibility to ensure that the intended receiver receives the tasking and that the tasking is accurate. As the one initiating the task, it is the sender's duty to effectively communicate and transmit the task to the receiver. They must also ensure that the information provided is accurate and clear, so that the receiver can understand and carry out the task correctly.

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  • 22. 

    Which collaboration tool is used as an aid when providing content management, distributing information recourses in a protective environment?

    • A.

      Access

    • B.

      Outlook

    • C.

      SharePoint

    • D.

      Task Management Tool

    Correct Answer
    C. SharePoint
    Explanation
    SharePoint is the correct answer because it is a collaboration tool that is commonly used for content management and distributing information resources in a secure environment. It allows users to create, store, organize, and share documents, as well as collaborate on projects and workflows. SharePoint also provides features such as version control, document tracking, and access permissions, making it an ideal tool for managing and distributing content in a protected environment.

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  • 23. 

    Which type of SharePoint site is open to all members of the organization for content contribution?

    • A.

      Team

    • B.

      Internal Organization

    • C.

      External Organization

    • D.

      Administrative organization

    Correct Answer
    B. Internal Organization
    Explanation
    Internal Organization SharePoint sites are open to all members of the organization for content contribution. This means that any employee within the organization can access and contribute to the content on these sites. It promotes collaboration and allows for easy sharing of information among team members. External Organization sites are restricted to members outside of the organization, while Administrative Organization sites are typically limited to administrators and IT personnel. Team sites, on the other hand, are specific to a particular team or group within the organization.

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  • 24. 

    Which type of SharePoint site grants permissions to users across MULTIPLE organizations?

    • A.

      My site

    • B.

      Team site

    • C.

      Internal organization site

    • D.

      External organization site

    Correct Answer
    B. Team site
    Explanation
    A team site in SharePoint grants permissions to users across multiple organizations. This type of site allows users from different organizations to collaborate and share information within a single platform. It provides a centralized location for teams to work together, share documents, and communicate effectively, regardless of their organizational boundaries.

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  • 25. 

    What type of SharePoint content dictate the overall look and feel of a SharePoint page?

    • A.

      Links

    • B.

      Graphics

    • C.

      Dashboard

    • D.

      Site Layout

    Correct Answer
    D. Site Layout
    Explanation
    Site layout dictates the overall look and feel of a SharePoint page. It includes the arrangement of web parts, navigation elements, headers, footers, and other visual elements that define the structure and design of the page. The site layout determines the positioning and styling of content, as well as the overall user experience.

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  • 26. 

    Within the SharePoint gallery, which link section contains links to pages where you can modify administrative settings for a site?

    • A.

      Users and Permissions

    • B.

      Galleries

    • C.

      Site Administration

    • D.

      Site Collection Administrators

    Correct Answer
    C. Site Administration
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Site Administration" because this link section within the SharePoint gallery contains links to pages where you can modify administrative settings for a site. This section is specifically dedicated to managing and configuring various administrative aspects of the site, such as site features, site collection administrators, site quotas, and more.

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  • 27. 

    Which SharePoint application is used to build and customize SharePoint site and data-rich pages?

    • A.

      Designer

    • B.

      Workflow activation

    • C.

      Site navigation

    • D.

      Site collection features

    Correct Answer
    A. Designer
    Explanation
    SharePoint Designer is the correct answer because it is a powerful tool that allows users to build and customize SharePoint sites and data-rich pages. With SharePoint Designer, users can create workflows, design and customize site pages, manage site navigation, and access advanced features and functionality. It is a valuable tool for developers and power users who want to enhance and customize their SharePoint sites.

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  • 28. 

    Which Air Force Portal responsibility can deploy content items, topics, and port lets to the production portal?

    • A.

      Content Manager

    • B.

      Content publisher

    • C.

      Wing/Group/Unit Air Force Portal content manager

    • D.

      Major Command (MAJCOM) lead content manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Content Manager
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Content Manager. The Content Manager is responsible for deploying content items, topics, and portlets to the production portal. They have the authority to manage and publish content on the Air Force Portal. The Content Manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that the portal is updated with relevant and accurate information for users.

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  • 29. 

      Which network maintains the network bridges that each video teleconference site must use?

    • A.

      Defense Video Services

    • B.

      Integrated Services Digital

    • C.

      Defense Information System

    • D.

      Program Management Office

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense Information System
    Explanation
    The Defense Information System maintains the network bridges that each video teleconference site must use.

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  • 30. 

    A unit's unique video teleconference (VTC) address is called

    • A.

      Site ID

    • B.

      Coder-Decoder (CODEC)

    • C.

      Certification

    • D.

      Accreditation

    Correct Answer
    A. Site ID
    Explanation
    A unit's unique video teleconference (VTC) address is called a Site ID. This identifier is used to connect and communicate with the unit during video teleconferencing sessions. It helps in ensuring that the communication is directed to the correct unit and avoids any confusion or miscommunication.

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  • 31. 

    What type of service is NOT available when using the defense collaboration services (DCS)

    • A.

      Briefing

    • B.

      Screen sharing

    • C.

      Video Teleconference

    • D.

      File storage

    Correct Answer
    D. File storage
    Explanation
    The defense collaboration services (DCS) provide various features for collaboration and communication, such as briefing, screen sharing, and video teleconference. However, file storage is not available as a service when using DCS. This means that users cannot store files or documents within the DCS platform for easy access and sharing.

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  • 32. 

    Which is NOT a defense collaboration services pod that is available for conferences?

    • A.

      Text chat

    • B.

      User comments

    • C.

      Video teleconferencing

    • D.

      Remote computer access

    Correct Answer
    D. Remote computer access
    Explanation
    Remote computer access is not a defense collaboration services pod that is available for conferences. Defense collaboration services pods are typically used for communication and collaboration during conferences, and they include features such as text chat, user comments, and video teleconferencing. However, remote computer access is not a feature that is typically included in these pods. It allows users to access and control a computer from a remote location, but it is not directly related to conference collaboration.

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  • 33. 

    What types of lines are used to provide telecommunications?

    • A.

      Ground

    • B.

      Internet

    • C.

      Cellular

    • D.

      Telephone

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground
    Explanation
    Ground lines are used to provide telecommunications. These lines are physical cables that are buried underground and used for transmitting signals for telephone, internet, and other communication services. Ground lines are a reliable and secure means of communication as they are less susceptible to interference and damage from external factors like weather conditions. They are commonly used for long-distance communication and provide a stable connection for telecommunications services.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 21, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Adspecv
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