Security Forces CDC's Vol. 2

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| By Melitonr98
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Melitonr98
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1. An effective way of defeating crawling insect is

Explanation

Tucking your pants into the top of your socks and boots is an effective way of defeating crawling insects because it creates a barrier that prevents them from crawling up your legs and reaching your body. By securing your pants in this manner, you minimize the chances of insects like ticks, ants, or spiders from accessing your skin and potentially biting or stinging you. This technique is commonly used in outdoor activities such as hiking or camping to protect against insect bites and potential diseases they may carry.

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2. Upon contact with the solicitor, you recieve proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action level is it?

Explanation

This scenario describes the use of verbal controls as the subject action level. The solicitor is asked to depart the base, and they comply with this instruction when they leave. Verbal controls refer to the use of verbal commands or instructions to manage a situation or control the behavior of individuals. In this case, the solicitor's compliance with the request to leave demonstrates the effectiveness of verbal controls in resolving the situation.

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3. Microorganisms in the blood that cause disease are?

Explanation

Microorganisms in the blood that cause disease are referred to as blood borne pathogens. These pathogens can include bacteria, viruses, and parasites that are capable of causing infections and diseases when transmitted through blood or other bodily fluids. It is important to take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of blood borne pathogens, especially in healthcare settings, to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent the transmission of diseases.

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4. What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?

Explanation

The first step in finding ways to reduce stress is recognizing the stressor. This means identifying the specific factors or situations that are causing stress. Without recognizing the stressor, it would be difficult to effectively address and manage stress. Once the stressor is identified, individuals can then explore various strategies and techniques to reduce or eliminate the stress-inducing factors from their lives.

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5. One of the primary Air Force goal in dealing with high-risk situation is to

Explanation

The primary goal of the Air Force in dealing with high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize the loss of life and property. This means that their main focus is on ensuring the safety and security of individuals and their belongings. By prioritizing this goal, the Air Force aims to mitigate any potential harm or damage that may occur during these situations.

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6. There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?

Explanation

The question asks about the main source of stress among the given options. The correct answer is "a. Personal life and job." This is because personal life and job are two major areas where individuals often experience stress. Personal life can involve various factors such as relationships, finances, health issues, and family responsibilities, which can all contribute to stress. Similarly, job-related stress can arise from factors such as workload, deadlines, conflicts with colleagues, and job insecurity. Therefore, the combination of personal life and job is likely to be the main source of stress for many people.

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7. What is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field?

Explanation

Stress is considered the most deadly hazard in the security forces career field because it can have severe physical and mental health consequences. The nature of the job, which often involves high-pressure situations, long hours, and exposure to trauma, can lead to chronic stress. This can result in various health issues such as heart problems, depression, anxiety, and even suicide. Additionally, stress can impair decision-making and reaction times, increasing the risk of accidents and mistakes on the job. Therefore, it is crucial for security forces personnel to manage and cope with stress effectively to ensure their well-being and the safety of others.

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8. What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?

Explanation

Waterproof clothing bags can be used to keep clothes dry in the field. These bags are designed to prevent water from seeping through and reaching the clothes inside. By storing clothes in these bags, they are protected from rain, moisture, and other environmental factors that could potentially make them wet. This ensures that the clothes remain dry and wearable, even in wet or damp conditions.

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9. Deadly force would be authorized to keep

Explanation

Deadly force would be authorized to prevent someone from killing you or causing serious bodily harm. In situations where there is a direct threat to one's life or safety, the use of deadly force may be necessary to protect oneself. This can include situations where there is an imminent danger of being killed or seriously injured by another person. In such cases, the use of deadly force is considered justified as a means of self-defense.

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10. Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and

Explanation

Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and time of interview. This information is crucial for maintaining an accurate and organized record of the investigation. The case number helps in identifying and retrieving the specific case file, while the date ensures proper chronological documentation. Including the person interviewed allows for easy reference and accountability. Lastly, noting the time of the interview is essential for establishing the sequence of events and providing a timeline for the investigation.

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11. Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources

Explanation

The correct answer is b. vital to national security. This means that deadly force is authorized for the protection of military resources that are crucial for the overall security of the nation. These resources could include strategic assets, sensitive information, or critical infrastructure that, if compromised, could pose a significant threat to the country's national security.

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12. The principle method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation is through the use of

Explanation

Trained negotiators are the most effective method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation. They possess the skills and expertise needed to communicate and negotiate with individuals involved in the situation, de-escalating tensions and finding a mutually agreeable solution. Their ability to listen, empathize, and understand the underlying issues allows them to build trust and rapport, increasing the likelihood of a peaceful resolution. In contrast, swat teams, special operations, and nuclear weapons are not designed for peaceful resolutions and are typically used in more extreme and dangerous situations.

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13. Individual weapon training program are outlined in?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. AFI 36-2226 Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons. This is the correct answer because AFI 36-2226 Volume 1 specifically outlines the training programs for combat arms, including individual weapons training. It provides guidance and procedures for the training and qualification of personnel on the use and maintenance of individual weapons.

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14. What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

Explanation

AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, is the correct answer because it is the form used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis. This form is used to document the temporary issue of equipment, including firearms, to individuals for a specific period of time. It serves as a receipt and record of accountability for the temporary issue of firearms, ensuring that proper documentation is maintained and that the responsible individual is aware of their responsibilities while in possession of the firearm.

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15. Most often suicidal person are overwhelmed with

Explanation

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16. What tactics reduce exposure to blood born pathogens on the job?

Explanation

Employee work practices, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping are effective tactics for reducing exposure to bloodborne pathogens on the job. Employee work practices such as proper handling and disposal of contaminated materials, following infection control protocols, and practicing good hygiene can minimize the risk of exposure. Personal protective equipment, such as gloves, masks, and gowns, create a barrier between the employee and potentially infectious materials. Regular housekeeping practices, including cleaning and disinfecting surfaces, help maintain a clean and safe work environment, reducing the chances of exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

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17. Investigators will conduct pretrial presentation with

Explanation

The correct answer is b. The Staff Judge Advocate. In a pretrial presentation, investigators would typically consult with the Staff Judge Advocate who is responsible for providing legal advice and assistance. They would help in reviewing the evidence, determining the strength of the case, and advising on the appropriate legal actions to be taken. The Chief Security Forces may be involved in the investigation process, but they are not specifically mentioned in relation to the pretrial presentation. Witnesses to the case and the victim and suspect may be called upon to provide testimony during the trial, but they are not typically involved in the pretrial presentation.

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18. You response to the base housing area to remove several solicitors. You advised them they can't solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave and they comply. What subject action level in the Use of Force Model is demonstrated to control the situation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Compliant." In this scenario, the individuals were soliciting in the base housing area, which is not allowed. When advised that they cannot solicit in base housing, they complied and left. This demonstrates a compliant subject action level in the Use of Force Model as the individuals willingly followed the instructions given to them.

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19. Which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

Explanation

Using deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a house would not be authorized because it does not involve protecting oneself or others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm. While it is important to protect one's property, it does not justify the use of deadly force unless there is a threat to life or safety. Deadly force should only be used as a last resort when there is no other reasonable alternative to prevent death or serious harm.

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20. The use of proword in radio communication help

Explanation

The use of a proword in radio communication helps to shorten the time it takes to send a message and simplifies clear reception. Prowords are standardized phrases or abbreviations that have specific meanings, allowing for efficient and concise communication. By using prowords, unnecessary words or phrases can be eliminated, reducing the time needed to transmit a message. Additionally, prowords ensure that the message is easily understood by using familiar and standardized language, making reception clearer and reducing the chance of miscommunication.

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21. Which is an example of a protection level 1 (PL1) resource?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. C4 systems of active nuclear mission. This is an example of a protection level 1 (PL1) resource because it involves the control and communication systems used in active nuclear missions. These systems are critical for the success and safety of nuclear missions, and therefore require the highest level of protection.

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22. Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is

Explanation

Neglect refers to the failure of providing a child with the basic necessities of life. It involves the lack of proper care, supervision, and attention to a child's physical, emotional, and educational needs. Neglect can include not providing adequate food, clothing, shelter, medical care, or emotional support. It is different from abuse, which involves intentional harm or violence towards a child. Abandonment refers to the act of deserting or leaving a child without proper care or support. Domestic violence is a separate issue that involves violence or abuse within a family or household.

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23. Stan-Evals will be conducted within?

Explanation

Stan-Evals refers to Standard Evaluations, which are assessments conducted to evaluate an individual's performance and proficiency in their job duties. According to the given answer, Stan-Evals will be conducted 30 days after completing qualification training. This means that individuals will have a month to apply the knowledge and skills they gained during their training before being evaluated. This timeframe allows for a sufficient period to practice and gain practical experience before undergoing an assessment of their abilities.

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24. All personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Receive firearms training based on their arming group (Group A, B, or C). This means that personnel assigned to a specific Unit Type Code manpower position will receive firearms training based on the arming group they belong to. The arming group determines the level of firearms training required for individuals in that group.

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25. Correction staff personnel should complete or be schedule to attend

Explanation

The correct answer is a. service correction course (or civilian equivalent). This means that correction staff personnel should either complete a service correction course or a civilian equivalent course. This indicates that the personnel need to have specific training and knowledge in correctional services, whether it is through a military course or a civilian course that provides the same level of expertise.

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26. What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it?

Explanation

If you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it, the correct course of action is to record it in your notes and report it. This is important because it ensures that there is a record of your interaction with the evidence and allows for transparency and accountability in the investigation process. By reporting it, you are providing accurate information about the potential contamination of the evidence, which can be crucial in maintaining the integrity of the investigation.

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27. What are the types of interview approaches?

Explanation

The types of interview approaches are alternating, direct, and indirect. Alternating interviews involve switching between different interview styles or methods throughout the interview process. Direct interviews involve straightforward questioning and seeking specific information from the interviewee. Indirect interviews involve using more subtle or indirect methods to gather information, such as through observations or hypothetical scenarios.

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28. The goal of the Air force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide what?

Explanation

The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide prompt police information through the use of technology. This means that the program aims to use technology to quickly deliver relevant and timely information to law enforcement personnel, enabling them to effectively carry out their duties. The AFLETS program is not focused on providing the same capabilities as civilian police, introducing new technology or computers specifically for law enforcement, but rather on leveraging technology to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of law enforcement operations.

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29. What are the responsibilities of The Chief of Security Forces (CSF)?

Explanation

The Chief of Security Forces (CSF) is responsible for selecting and training personnel who operate the AFLETS program. AFLETS stands for Automated Flight Following (AFF) and Law Enforcement Tracking System, which is used by security forces to track and monitor flights and law enforcement activities. This responsibility ensures that the personnel operating the AFLETS program are properly trained and capable of effectively utilizing the system to enhance security and law enforcement efforts. Managing the local NLETS and NCIC programs are not mentioned as responsibilities of the CSF in the given options.

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30. All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either

Explanation

The correct answer is a. The question asks for the possible classifications of inmates, and option a provides three classifications: pretrial detainee, post-trial inmate, or casual. Option b only provides two classifications, option c provides only two classifications but with different terms, and option d provides two classifications but with different terms as well. Therefore, option a is the correct answer as it provides all the possible classifications mentioned in the question.

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31. What method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required?

Explanation

"Pie-ing" is a term commonly used in tactical training and refers to the technique of gradually exposing oneself to a corner or doorway in order to minimize the risk of being surprised by an attacker. This method involves slowly peeking around the corner, allowing the person to assess the situation and react accordingly. It is a method used when speed is required, as it allows for quick assessment and decision-making while minimizing exposure to potential threats.

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32. The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?

Explanation

Blood is the single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace because it can carry various pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B and C, and other bloodborne diseases. Contact with infected blood, through cuts, needlestick injuries, or other means, can lead to the transmission of these diseases. Therefore, proper precautions and safety measures should be taken to prevent contact with blood and to minimize the risk of disease transmission in the workplace.

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33. You should response to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your  M-4 rifle at port arms, with the safety selector on

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is a. safe and your finger not in the trigger guard. This is because when encountering an armed adversary, it is important to prioritize safety and readiness. Keeping the safety selector on safe ensures that the rifle is not accidentally discharged. Additionally, keeping your finger outside the trigger guard minimizes the risk of unintentionally pulling the trigger and firing the weapon. This stance demonstrates a responsible and cautious approach to handling the M-4 rifle in a potentially dangerous situation.

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34. Secure PL1 resources by

Explanation

The correct answer is a. providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area. This means that in order to secure PL1 resources, there should be specific response elements assigned to the task of protecting the resources both inside and outside the restricted area. This ensures that there is a dedicated team responsible for responding to any threats or breaches, both within and around the restricted area, providing a comprehensive security approach.

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35. Where would you sketch in magnetic north date on your range card?

Explanation

In order to quickly locate magnetic north date on a range card, it is typically sketched in the marginal data section. This section is specifically designated for important information that aids in navigation and orientation, such as magnetic north date. By placing it in this section, it ensures that the information is easily accessible and readily available for reference during operations.

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36. Some optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksman and sharpshooter teams are

Explanation

The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksman and sharpshooter teams include response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. This means that these teams are able to quickly respond to threats, provide cover and support from a distance, protect and screen friendly forces, and gather information on enemy positions and movements. These capabilities make them valuable assets in combat situations, as they can effectively engage targets with precision and provide crucial support to the overall mission.

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37. A person who exercises control over property given to them for safekeeping may

Explanation

When a person is entrusted with the responsibility of safeguarding someone else's property, they have the authority to grant consent for that specific property to be searched. This means that they can give permission for others, such as law enforcement officials, to search the property they are responsible for. However, this authority does not extend to granting consent for other people's property or allowing someone else to grant consent. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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38. The baton primarily is used as what type of weapon?

Explanation

The baton is primarily used as an impact weapon. It is a long, cylindrical tool usually made of metal or wood, and it is used by law enforcement officers and security personnel to deliver strikes and control combative individuals. The baton's main purpose is to create impact force, allowing the user to subdue or incapacitate an attacker without causing lethal harm.

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39. What major incident phase is a complex and time-consuming operatio?

Explanation

The major incident phase that is complex and time-consuming is the recovery phase. This phase involves restoring the affected systems, processes, and infrastructure to their normal state after an incident has occurred. It requires extensive planning, coordination, and resources to recover from the incident and minimize the impact on the organization. The recovery phase may involve activities such as data restoration, system repairs, and implementing preventive measures to avoid future incidents.

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40. Under what condition would you use MK19 ammunition in M203?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Under no circumstance. This means that there is never a situation where you would use MK19 ammunition in M203. The M203 is a single-shot grenade launcher, while the MK19 is an automatic grenade launcher. They are designed for different purposes and using the wrong ammunition could lead to dangerous and unintended consequences. It is important to always use the correct ammunition for the specific weapon to ensure safety and effectiveness.

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41. How can you prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuff?

Explanation

Looping the handcuff through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of their back prevents them from stepping through the handcuff by restricting their movement. This method adds an extra layer of security and ensures that the suspect cannot easily free themselves from the handcuffs.

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42. Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas?

Explanation

Strip and grid search method is often used in large outdoor areas because it allows for systematic coverage of the area. This method involves dividing the search area into strips or grids and thoroughly searching each strip or grid before moving on to the next one. It is an efficient way to ensure that no area is missed during the search and is commonly used in search and rescue operations, law enforcement, and exploration activities.

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43. Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are document in what federal system?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy act of 1974. This is because the question is asking about the document in a federal system, and the Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are records that are controlled under the Privacy act of 1974.

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44. What is the responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM)?

Explanation

The responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM) is to ensure that all security forces personnel receive education and training throughout their entire career. This includes both mandatory requirements that are necessary for their job and desirable requirements that enhance their skills and knowledge. The SFM is responsible for managing the life-cycle education and training of security forces personnel, ensuring that they are adequately prepared and continuously improving their capabilities.

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45. Once the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene established by Security Forces personnel, who is allowed inside?

Explanation

After the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene is established by Security Forces personnel, negotiation teams are allowed inside. This is because negotiation teams are trained to communicate and negotiate with individuals involved in the high-risk situation, such as hostage takers or barricaded suspects. Their presence is crucial in attempting to peacefully resolve the situation and ensure the safety of everyone involved. Medical emergency services personnel, base fire department personnel, and the base chaplain may have important roles in other aspects of the incident response, but they are not specifically trained for negotiation and therefore would not be allowed inside the inner perimeter.

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46. What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident called?

Explanation

Physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident, is commonly referred to as abuse. Abuse can take various forms, such as physical, emotional, sexual, or even financial. It involves intentionally causing harm or distress to another person, often with the intention of exerting power and control over them. This can occur in various settings, including domestic relationships, institutions, or even within communities. It is important to recognize and address abuse to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals affected by it.

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47. Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications?

Explanation

Brevity codes are necessary for effective communications because they allow for concise and efficient transmission of information. By using standardized codes and abbreviations, communication can be streamlined, reducing the chance of misunderstandings or errors. Brevity codes also save time and resources, as they enable quick and clear communication in situations where every second counts.

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48. Which report is an official/permanent record of event?

Explanation

The AF Form 3545, Incident Report, is the correct answer because it is an official and permanent record of an event. This form is used to document any incidents that occur in the Air Force, such as accidents, injuries, property damage, or any other significant events. It provides a detailed account of what happened, who was involved, and any actions taken. This report is essential for record-keeping, analysis, and future reference, making it an official and permanent record of the event.

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49. When should hard wire lines inspected?

Explanation

Hard wire lines should be inspected before installation to ensure that they are in good condition and free from any defects or damage. This is important to prevent any potential issues or failures once the lines are installed and in use. Additionally, hard wire lines should be inspected daily after installation to monitor their performance and identify any issues that may arise over time. Regular inspections help to ensure the safety and reliability of the hard wire lines.

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50. All inmates will have initial confinement examonation within

Explanation

All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within 24 hours. This means that as soon as an inmate is admitted to the facility, they will undergo a medical examination within the first 24 hours. This is important to ensure that any immediate medical needs or conditions are addressed and that the inmate's health and well-being are taken care of. It also helps in identifying any potential risks or contagious diseases that could affect other inmates or staff members. The promptness of the examination within 24 hours reflects the importance placed on the health and safety of the inmates.

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51. What is the decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals based upon?

Explanation

The decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals is based on sound professional judgement and the facts of a specific incident. This means that law enforcement officers must assess the situation and consider factors such as the behavior and cooperation of the suspect, any defined criteria or rules that may apply, whether the person has a weapon, and any other relevant information. Ultimately, the decision to handcuff or not is made based on the officer's experience, training, and the specific circumstances of the incident.

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52. Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Office Special Investigation. This agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes.

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53. What is a Retrograde operation?

Explanation

A retrograde operation refers to an organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy. This means that the military forces are strategically withdrawing from their current position or disengaging from the enemy in a planned and coordinated manner. It involves moving in an organized and controlled manner to ensure the safety and efficiency of the operation. This could be done for various reasons such as regrouping, repositioning, or avoiding a superior enemy force.

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54. Upon what is your decision to apprehend based?

Explanation

The decision to apprehend is based on probable cause, which means that there is enough evidence or information to suggest that a crime has been committed or is about to be committed. This standard is higher than mere suspicion but lower than beyond a reasonable doubt, which is required for a conviction. Probable cause is necessary to justify the arrest of a suspect and is often determined by evaluating the circumstances and the suspect's activity.

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55. What is the lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occurring off the installation?

Explanation

The lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occurring off the installation is the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI). The FBI is the primary federal law enforcement agency in the United States and has jurisdiction over counterterrorism investigations. They work closely with other agencies and departments to gather intelligence, conduct investigations, and apprehend individuals involved in terrorist activities. Their expertise and resources make them the appropriate agency to handle terrorist incidents occurring outside of military installations.

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56. When challenging individual on foot, place the individuals in the final challenge position, instruct them to remove and place their credentials on the grounds, and command them to turn around and walk how many paces away from the credentials?

Explanation

When challenging an individual on foot, they are instructed to remove and place their credentials on the ground and then turn around. The question asks how many paces the individual should walk away from their credentials. The correct answer is b. 5, which means the individual should walk 5 paces away from their credentials.

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57. For how many minutes can the effects and symtoms of OC pepper spray last when left untreated?

Explanation

The effects and symptoms of OC pepper spray can last for up to 45 minutes when left untreated. This includes intense burning pain, temporary blindness, difficulty breathing, and inflammation of the skin and eyes. It is important to seek immediate treatment and rinse the affected area with water to alleviate the symptoms.

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58. To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep suspect's

Explanation

When applying the IKKYO takedown, it is important to keep the suspect's arm parallel to the ground. This position allows for better control and leverage during the takedown, reducing the risk of injury to both the suspect and the person applying the technique. By keeping the arm parallel to the ground, the force exerted during the takedown is distributed more evenly, making it easier to control the suspect's movements and ensure a safer takedown.

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59. What is used on AF Form 3545, Incident Report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual or racially motivated?

Explanation

On AF Form 3545, the bias motivation codes are used to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual, or racially motivated. These codes provide a way to categorize and document the underlying motivations behind the incident, helping to identify and address any potential bias-related issues.

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60. What is the fifth step in captives, detainee, and prisoners (CDP's) processing?

Explanation

The fifth step in captives, detainee, and prisoners (CDP's) processing is to safeguard them. This means ensuring their safety and well-being while they are in custody. This step involves taking measures to protect them from harm, providing them with necessary medical care, and ensuring that their basic needs are met. Safeguarding is an essential part of the processing of captives, detainees, and prisoners to uphold their human rights and prevent any mistreatment or abuse.

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61. What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibits on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at atleast a 0.10 BAC?

Explanation

The minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at least a 0.10 BAC is 2. This suggests that there are specific indicators or behaviors that are commonly associated with a high level of alcohol intoxication, and if a suspect displays at least 2 of these clues during the test, it can be considered as evidence of impairment.

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62. The three essential areas that support "objective reasonableness" are subject action,

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Risk perception and officer response. Risk perception refers to the officer's assessment of the threat or danger posed by the subject's actions. Officer response refers to the actions taken by the officer in response to the perceived risk. These two factors are essential in determining the "objective reasonableness" of the officer's actions, as they help to evaluate whether the officer's response was appropriate given the level of risk perceived.

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63. Once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area, area first action is to

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Notify SFC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post. This is the most appropriate action to take when detecting an unidentified individual inside a restricted area. Notifying the SFC (Security Force Controller) or MSC (Main Security Center) allows for immediate response and coordination of efforts to address the situation effectively. It ensures that the appropriate authorities are informed and can take necessary actions to handle the security breach.

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64. The type of suspect best suited for a prone search is one who

Explanation

A prone search is a technique used by law enforcement to search a suspect who is lying face down on the ground. This position restricts the suspect's mobility and makes it easier for the officer to maintain control during the search. A suspect who is physically impaired, such as someone with a physical disability or injury, would likely have limited mobility and may not be able to resist or flee effectively, making them an ideal candidate for a prone search.

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65. What type of barrier is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/framentation around entry control piont and approach avenues?

Explanation

Jersey and Bitburg barriers are typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues. These barriers are made of concrete and are designed to provide protection and prevent unauthorized access. They are commonly used in military and security applications to enhance perimeter security and control access points.

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66. You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted area because he or she is not wearing a restricted area badge. What are the risk perception, subject action, and officer response levels?

Explanation

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67. When using the one hand grab breakaway technique, in STEP 1 you spread the spread the finger wide apart, and rotate our thumb hand how many degree over the suspect's hand?

Explanation

In the one hand grab breakaway technique, in STEP 1, you spread the fingers wide apart and rotate your thumb hand 180 degrees over the suspect's hand. This rotation allows for a secure grip and provides leverage to break free from the suspect's grasp.

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68. What form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. AF form 3545, incident Report. This form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension because it is used to document the details of the incident, including the nature of the apprehension, the individuals involved, and any evidence or property seized. It serves as an official record of the incident and is used for investigative and legal purposes.

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69. Before conducting a vehicle search, you must have probable cause,

Explanation

The correct answer is d. proper search authority, and consent of the person controlling vehicle. This answer is correct because before conducting a vehicle search, it is necessary to have proper search authority, which could be obtained through a search warrant or other legal authorization. Additionally, consent from the person who has control over the vehicle is also required. This means that if the driver or person in charge of the vehicle does not give consent, the search cannot be conducted.

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70. What is the size of an accident involving biological agent?

Explanation

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71. What is a Hot Loop?

Explanation

A hot loop refers to a continuous line that is connected to every phone and switchboard. This line allows for immediate communication and is used in emergency situations or when urgent messages need to be relayed quickly. It ensures that all phones and switchboards are connected and able to receive and transmit messages effectively.

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72. What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn't fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or a military department?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. National Defense. This type of area refers to federal government resources that are located off military lands and are not under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense (DOD) or any military department. These resources are specifically related to national defense and are managed separately from military operations.

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73. What is the cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons is 2000 feet. This means that an area with a radius of 2000 feet around the accident site needs to be cordoned off for safety purposes. This distance is necessary to protect people from the potential hazards and risks associated with nuclear weapons accidents.

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74. In STEP 2 of the standing arm bar, what do you place into the small of the suspect's back as you move your inside foot to the rear of the suspects feet and step to the left/right?

Explanation

In the standing arm bar technique, as the inside foot moves to the rear of the suspect's feet and steps to the left/right, the elbow is placed into the small of the suspect's back. This helps to control and immobilize the suspect by applying pressure and leverage on their upper body. Placing the elbow in this position provides stability and control during the maneuver.

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75. Which rifle fighting technique is used to disarmed an opponent?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Butt stroke. The butt stroke is a rifle fighting technique used to disarm an opponent. It involves striking the opponent with the butt of the rifle, which can be a powerful and effective way to incapacitate them and take control of the situation. This technique is often used in close quarters combat or when the opponent is too close for other methods of attack.

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76. Regardless of the size, who establishes and control on-base cordons?

Explanation

SF personnel refers to Security Forces personnel, who are responsible for establishing and controlling on-base cordons regardless of their size. They are trained and equipped to handle security matters and maintain order within military installations. This includes setting up cordons to restrict access to certain areas, conducting security checks, and ensuring the safety and security of the base and its personnel. The Fire Chief, on scene commander, and installation commander may have their respective roles and responsibilities, but establishing and controlling on-base cordons falls under the purview of SF personnel.

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77. What is the lead agency for terrorist incident that occurs outside the US?

Explanation

The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US. This is because the Department of State is responsible for handling foreign policy and diplomatic relations, which includes addressing and responding to international security threats such as terrorism. The Department of State works closely with other agencies and foreign governments to gather intelligence, coordinate efforts, and take appropriate action to prevent and respond to terrorist incidents occurring outside the US.

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78. Likelihood of enemy contact we divide into three categories;

Explanation

The correct answer is c. not likely, possible and expected. This answer accurately categorizes the likelihood of enemy contact into three categories. "Not likely" indicates a low probability of enemy contact, "possible" suggests that there is a chance of enemy contact, and "expected" implies a high likelihood of enemy contact. This categorization helps in assessing the level of preparedness and response required in different scenarios.

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79. After writting a report, the next step would be to

Explanation

After writing a report, the next logical step would be to evaluate the report. This involves critically analyzing the content, structure, and overall effectiveness of the report. By evaluating the report, one can identify any errors, inconsistencies, or areas that need improvement. This step is crucial in ensuring that the report meets its intended purpose and effectively communicates the desired message to the intended audience. Organizing the facts, proofreading, and putting the report together are important steps in the report writing process, but they typically occur before the evaluation stage.

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80. What is an example of a rough grid coordinate?

Explanation

An example of a rough grid coordinate is "3/B". This format follows the convention of using a number followed by a letter to represent a specific location on a grid. The number indicates the vertical position, while the letter represents the horizontal position. In this case, "3" refers to the vertical position and "B" refers to the horizontal position.

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81. Which rally pointis tentative until the objective is pinpointed?

Explanation

The rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed because the rally point serves as a meeting point for a group, but its location may change depending on the specific objective or target that needs to be reached. Once the objective is identified and its precise location is determined, the rally point can be finalized and established. Therefore, the objective is the correct answer as it is the determining factor for the finalization of the rally point.

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82. What is an incident involving nuclear weapons?

Explanation

An incident involving nuclear weapons is referred to as a "Bent Spear." This term is used to describe situations where there are accidents, mishaps, or errors related to the handling, storage, transportation, or deployment of nuclear weapons. It can include incidents such as unauthorized movement, loss, damage, or any other situation that may compromise the safety and security of nuclear weapons.

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83. What position should you assume to observe around corners of buildings?

Explanation

To observe around corners of buildings, assuming a prone position is the most suitable. By lying flat on the ground, you can minimize your exposure and make it harder for others to detect your presence. This position also allows for a lower profile, making it easier to remain hidden and maintain a tactical advantage. Additionally, being prone provides stability and a steady aim if you need to engage in a firefight or take defensive actions.

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84. Which terroist group operates autonomously?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Non-state supported. This means that the terrorist group operates independently without any support or backing from a recognized state or government. They are self-funded and self-directed, making their actions and operations autonomous.

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85. When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripod is fully extended, it is 20 feet high and the legs are approximately?

Explanation

When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripod is fully extended to a height of 20 feet, the legs are approximately 20 feet apart at the base. This means that the distance between the legs of the tripod is equal to the height of the tripod. This arrangement provides stability and support for the tripod, ensuring that it remains upright and secure while in use.

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86. If your report is non-opinionated, fair, and impartial, you are fullfilling which characteristic of a well written report?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Objective. A well-written report should be objective, meaning it presents information without bias or personal opinions. Being non-opinionated, fair, and impartial are all characteristics of an objective report. Consise refers to being brief and concise, accurate refers to providing correct and factual information, and complete refers to including all necessary information. While these characteristics are important, they do not specifically address the need for objectivity in a report.

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87. One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet is to

Explanation

The correct answer is b. always transmit letters, not numbers. This means that when using the Authentication Sheet, you should only transmit letters and not numbers. This rule ensures consistency and accuracy in the transmission process, as numbers may cause confusion or errors. By transmitting only letters, the communication remains clear and avoids any potential misunderstandings.

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88. For rifle fighting techniques to be effective they must be applied with

Explanation

Rifle fighting techniques need to be applied with speed and surprise in order to be effective. Speed allows the shooter to quickly react and engage the target, while surprise catches the opponent off guard, giving the shooter an advantage. By combining these two elements, the shooter can effectively execute their techniques and increase their chances of success in a rifle fight.

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89. What component do we use to adjust the elevation on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?

Explanation

The reticle adjustments are used to adjust the elevation on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle. The reticle is a crosshair or aiming point that helps the user align the device with the target. By making adjustments to the reticle, the user can change the elevation, allowing for more accurate targeting and aiming. The other options listed, such as the diopter focus ring, eyepiece assembly, and objective focus ring, are not specifically used for adjusting the elevation on the night vision goggle.

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90. When did the US ratify the Geneva Convention for the Protection of War Victims?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. 12 August 1949. The Geneva Convention for the Protection of War Victims was ratified by the US on this date.

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91. How are withdrawal actions accomplished at the scene of a major disaster?

Explanation

Withdrawal actions at the scene of a major disaster are accomplished by moving in the upwind or crosswind direction. This is done to avoid exposure to hazardous materials or dangerous conditions, such as smoke, fumes, or debris, that may be present at the scene. Moving in the upwind or crosswind direction helps to minimize the risk of inhaling harmful substances or being affected by the disaster's impact.

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92. What must evidence be to be admissible in court?

Explanation

Evidence must be both competent and relevant to be admissible in court. Competent evidence means that it is legally acceptable and meets the requirements set by the rules of evidence. Relevant evidence means that it is directly related to the case and has the potential to prove or disprove a fact in question. Both competency and relevance are essential criteria for evidence to be considered admissible in court.

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93. The centerpiece of Operations Security ( OPSEC) is

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Risk management. Operations Security (OPSEC) involves identifying and managing risks that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information. By implementing risk management practices, organizations can assess potential threats and vulnerabilities, develop mitigation strategies, and prioritize resources to protect critical assets. This includes analyzing potential threats, assessing their potential impact, and implementing measures to reduce or eliminate those risks. Therefore, risk management is the centerpiece of OPSEC as it focuses on identifying and managing risks to ensure the security of operations and sensitive information.

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94. What are the two most important factors to keep in mind when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension?

Explanation

When approaching a suspect to make an apprehension, it is crucial to consider the suspect's position and attitude. The suspect's position refers to their physical location and proximity to you, which can affect the safety and effectiveness of the apprehension. Their attitude, on the other hand, refers to their behavior and demeanor, which can indicate their level of cooperation or potential resistance. Understanding both factors helps law enforcement officers assess the situation, determine the appropriate approach, and take necessary precautions to ensure a successful and safe apprehension.

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95. What standard did the US Supreme court established for assessing use of force?

Explanation

The US Supreme Court established the standard of objective assessment for the use of force. This means that the court evaluates the use of force based on an objective viewpoint, considering what a reasonable person in the same situation would do. This standard focuses on the facts and circumstances surrounding the use of force, rather than the subjective intentions or beliefs of the individual involved.

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96. The IKKYO grip is aplied with two directions of pressure. In STEP 3 you apply downward pressure to the elbow with your weak hand while rotating the elbow joint

Explanation

The IKKYO grip is applied with two directions of pressure. In STEP 3, you apply downward pressure to the elbow with your weak hand while rotating the elbow joint. The correct answer, "Reaward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand," suggests that the pressure is applied in a backward direction while also pushing inward on the suspect's hand. This explanation aligns with the given information about the IKKYO grip and the specific action described in STEP 3.

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97. Factors we use to determine movement technique are control, dispersion, speed, and

Explanation

The factors mentioned, control, dispersion, speed, and security, are all important considerations when determining movement technique. Control refers to maintaining command and coordination during movement, dispersion involves spreading out to minimize vulnerability, and speed is crucial for efficiency. However, security is the most relevant factor as it pertains to protecting the unit from enemy threats and ensuring their safety during movement.

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98. One advantage to pulling vehicle to the shoulder is the road in a herringbone pattern is

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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99. The intial Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters is notified of a grave situation by the

Explanation

The correct answer is c. base's established notification direction. This means that the initial Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters are notified of a grave situation by following the established notification direction within the base. This implies that there is a predetermined protocol or procedure in place for notifying the relevant authorities in case of a serious situation.

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100. Which terrorist group operates independently?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. State-supported. This means that the terrorist group operates with the backing and support of a state or government. They may receive funding, training, and resources from a state actor, allowing them to carry out their activities independently. This support can provide the group with a significant advantage and make them more dangerous and capable of carrying out attacks.

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What is the cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons?
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Which rifle fighting technique is used to disarmed an opponent?
Regardless of the size, who establishes and control on-base cordons?
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After writting a report, the next step would be to
What is an example of a rough grid coordinate?
Which rally pointis tentative until the objective is pinpointed?
What is an incident involving nuclear weapons?
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Which terroist group operates autonomously?
When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripod is fully...
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One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet...
For rifle fighting techniques to be effective they must be applied...
What component do we use to adjust the elevation on the AN/PVS 7 night...
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The centerpiece of Operations Security ( OPSEC) is
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The intial Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters is notified...
Which terrorist group operates independently?
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