Security Forces CDC's Vol. 2

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Melitonr98
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  • 1/100 Questions

    Upon contact with the solicitor, you recieve proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action level is it?

    • A. Verbal controls
    • B. Neuromuscular controls
    • C. Baton as a leverage device
    • D. Military working dog (off leash)
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About This Quiz

Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question.

Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    An effective way of defeating crawling insect is

    • A. not wearing socks.

    • B. spraying your boots with Windex.

    • C. not washing your pants bottom.

    • D. tucking your pants into the top of your socks and boots.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. tucking your pants into the top of your socks and boots.
    Explanation
    Tucking your pants into the top of your socks and boots is an effective way of defeating crawling insects because it creates a barrier that prevents them from crawling up your legs and reaching your body. By securing your pants in this manner, you minimize the chances of insects like ticks, ants, or spiders from accessing your skin and potentially biting or stinging you. This technique is commonly used in outdoor activities such as hiking or camping to protect against insect bites and potential diseases they may carry.

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  • 3. 

    Microorganisms in the blood that cause disease are?

    • A. "A" cells.

    • B. white blood cells.

    • C. cancer causing cells.

    • D. blood borne pathogens.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. blood borne pathogens.
    Explanation
    Microorganisms in the blood that cause disease are referred to as blood borne pathogens. These pathogens can include bacteria, viruses, and parasites that are capable of causing infections and diseases when transmitted through blood or other bodily fluids. It is important to take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of blood borne pathogens, especially in healthcare settings, to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent the transmission of diseases.

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  • 4. 

    What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?

    • A. Finding the right stress medication.

    • B. Recognizing stressor.

    • C. Running daily.

    • D. Relaxing.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Recognizing stressor.
    Explanation
    The first step in finding ways to reduce stress is recognizing the stressor. This means identifying the specific factors or situations that are causing stress. Without recognizing the stressor, it would be difficult to effectively address and manage stress. Once the stressor is identified, individuals can then explore various strategies and techniques to reduce or eliminate the stress-inducing factors from their lives.

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  • 5. 

    Deadly force would be authorized to keep

    • A. a fleeing thief from escaping

    • B. someone from breaking into a house

    • C. someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm

    • D. a tradfic violator from fleeing out the installation gate

    Correct Answer
    A. C. someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm
    Explanation
    Deadly force would be authorized to prevent someone from killing you or causing serious bodily harm. In situations where there is a direct threat to one's life or safety, the use of deadly force may be necessary to protect oneself. This can include situations where there is an imminent danger of being killed or seriously injured by another person. In such cases, the use of deadly force is considered justified as a means of self-defense.

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  • 6. 

    One of the primary Air Force goal in dealing with high-risk situation is to

    • A. let the FBI or CIA take charge and the situation

    • B. prevent or minimize loss of life and property

    • C. nuetralize the perpetrators using deadly force.

    • D. not yield to civilian authorities

    Correct Answer
    A. B. prevent or minimize loss of life and property
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the Air Force in dealing with high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize the loss of life and property. This means that their main focus is on ensuring the safety and security of individuals and their belongings. By prioritizing this goal, the Air Force aims to mitigate any potential harm or damage that may occur during these situations.

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  • 7. 

    There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?

    • A. Personal life and job.

    • B. Personal life and nightclubs.

    • C. Job and recreational activities.

    • D. Job and off-duty employment.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Personal life and job.
    Explanation
    The question asks about the main source of stress among the given options. The correct answer is "a. Personal life and job." This is because personal life and job are two major areas where individuals often experience stress. Personal life can involve various factors such as relationships, finances, health issues, and family responsibilities, which can all contribute to stress. Similarly, job-related stress can arise from factors such as workload, deadlines, conflicts with colleagues, and job insecurity. Therefore, the combination of personal life and job is likely to be the main source of stress for many people.

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  • 8. 

    What is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field?

    • A. fires.

    • B. stress.

    • C. major accident.

    • D. traffic accident.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. stress.
    Explanation
    Stress is considered the most deadly hazard in the security forces career field because it can have severe physical and mental health consequences. The nature of the job, which often involves high-pressure situations, long hours, and exposure to trauma, can lead to chronic stress. This can result in various health issues such as heart problems, depression, anxiety, and even suicide. Additionally, stress can impair decision-making and reaction times, increasing the risk of accidents and mistakes on the job. Therefore, it is crucial for security forces personnel to manage and cope with stress effectively to ensure their well-being and the safety of others.

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  • 9. 

    What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?

    • A.Waterproof clothing bags.

    • B. Change them frequently.

    • C. Tree branches.

    • D. Mosquito nets.

    Correct Answer
    A. A.Waterproof clothing bags.
    Explanation
    Waterproof clothing bags can be used to keep clothes dry in the field. These bags are designed to prevent water from seeping through and reaching the clothes inside. By storing clothes in these bags, they are protected from rain, moisture, and other environmental factors that could potentially make them wet. This ensures that the clothes remain dry and wearable, even in wet or damp conditions.

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  • 10. 

    Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources

    • A. vital to security forces.

    • B. vital to national security.

    • C. important to the installation.

    • D. important to a Major Command.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. vital to national security.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. vital to national security. This means that deadly force is authorized for the protection of military resources that are crucial for the overall security of the nation. These resources could include strategic assets, sensitive information, or critical infrastructure that, if compromised, could pose a significant threat to the country's national security.

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  • 11. 

    Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and

    • A. location of incident.

    • B. other investigators name.

    • C. time of interview.

    • D. room number.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. time of interview.
    Explanation
    Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and time of interview. This information is crucial for maintaining an accurate and organized record of the investigation. The case number helps in identifying and retrieving the specific case file, while the date ensures proper chronological documentation. Including the person interviewed allows for easy reference and accountability. Lastly, noting the time of the interview is essential for establishing the sequence of events and providing a timeline for the investigation.

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  • 12. 

    The principle method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation is through the use of

    • A. trained negotiators

    • B. swat teams

    • C. special operation

    • D. nuclear weapons

    Correct Answer
    A. A. trained negotiators
    Explanation
    Trained negotiators are the most effective method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation. They possess the skills and expertise needed to communicate and negotiate with individuals involved in the situation, de-escalating tensions and finding a mutually agreeable solution. Their ability to listen, empathize, and understand the underlying issues allows them to build trust and rapport, increasing the likelihood of a peaceful resolution. In contrast, swat teams, special operations, and nuclear weapons are not designed for peaceful resolutions and are typically used in more extreme and dangerous situations.

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  • 13. 

    Individual weapon training program are outlined in?

    • A. AFI 31-201, Security Police Procedure

    • B. AFI 31-101, Installation Security Programs.

    • C. AFMAN 31-201 Volume 1, Security Forces History and Organization.

    • D. AFI 36-2226 Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. AFI 36-2226 Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. AFI 36-2226 Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons. This is the correct answer because AFI 36-2226 Volume 1 specifically outlines the training programs for combat arms, including individual weapons training. It provides guidance and procedures for the training and qualification of personnel on the use and maintenance of individual weapons.

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  • 14. 

    What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

    • A. AF Form 522, Ground Weapon Training Data.

    • B. AF Form 629, Small Arms Hands Receipt.

    • C. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

    • D. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
    Explanation
    AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, is the correct answer because it is the form used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis. This form is used to document the temporary issue of equipment, including firearms, to individuals for a specific period of time. It serves as a receipt and record of accountability for the temporary issue of firearms, ensuring that proper documentation is maintained and that the responsible individual is aware of their responsibilities while in possession of the firearm.

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  • 15. 

    Most often suicidal person are overwhelmed with

    • A. too much money, divorce, and work problems.

    • B. pending legal action, work problems, or having fun.

    • C. loss of a love one, mental health, and divorce.

    • D. relationship difficulties, divorce, and going on vacation.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. loss of a love one, mental health, and divorce.
  • 16. 

    You response to the base housing area to remove several solicitors. You advised them they can't solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave and they comply. What subject action level in the Use of Force Model is demonstrated to control the situation?

    • A. Compliant

    • B. Resistant (passive)

    • C. Assualtive (bodily harm)

    • D. Assaultive (serious bidily harm/death)

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Compliant
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a. Compliant." In this scenario, the individuals were soliciting in the base housing area, which is not allowed. When advised that they cannot solicit in base housing, they complied and left. This demonstrates a compliant subject action level in the Use of Force Model as the individuals willingly followed the instructions given to them.

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  • 17. 

    Which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

    • A. Recovery of nuclear weapons.

    • B. Keep someone from breaking into house.

    • C. Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.

    • D. Protect yourself from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Keep someone from breaking into house.
    Explanation
    Using deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a house would not be authorized because it does not involve protecting oneself or others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm. While it is important to protect one's property, it does not justify the use of deadly force unless there is a threat to life or safety. Deadly force should only be used as a last resort when there is no other reasonable alternative to prevent death or serious harm.

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  • 18. 

    What tactics reduce exposure to blood born pathogens on the job?

    • A. Employee work practices, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping.

    • B. Hapatitis B vaccine,misuse of personal protective equipment.

    • C. Personal protective equipment, unsanitary housekeeping.

    • D. Unsafe work practices, hepatitis B vaccine.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Employee work practices, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping.
    Explanation
    Employee work practices, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping are effective tactics for reducing exposure to bloodborne pathogens on the job. Employee work practices such as proper handling and disposal of contaminated materials, following infection control protocols, and practicing good hygiene can minimize the risk of exposure. Personal protective equipment, such as gloves, masks, and gowns, create a barrier between the employee and potentially infectious materials. Regular housekeeping practices, including cleaning and disinfecting surfaces, help maintain a clean and safe work environment, reducing the chances of exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

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  • 19. 

    Investigators will conduct pretrial presentation with

    • A. The Chief Security Forces.

    • B. The Staff Judge Advocate.

    • C. Witness to the Case.

    • D. The Victim and Suspect.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. The Staff Judge Advocate.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. The Staff Judge Advocate. In a pretrial presentation, investigators would typically consult with the Staff Judge Advocate who is responsible for providing legal advice and assistance. They would help in reviewing the evidence, determining the strength of the case, and advising on the appropriate legal actions to be taken. The Chief Security Forces may be involved in the investigation process, but they are not specifically mentioned in relation to the pretrial presentation. Witnesses to the case and the victim and suspect may be called upon to provide testimony during the trial, but they are not typically involved in the pretrial presentation.

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  • 20. 

    The use of proword in radio communication help

    • A. aids in transmitting and reception.

    • B. clarify understanding of the message being sent.

    • C. distract and confuse unauthorized listeners.

    • D. shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception.
    Explanation
    The use of a proword in radio communication helps to shorten the time it takes to send a message and simplifies clear reception. Prowords are standardized phrases or abbreviations that have specific meanings, allowing for efficient and concise communication. By using prowords, unnecessary words or phrases can be eliminated, reducing the time needed to transmit a message. Additionally, prowords ensure that the message is easily understood by using familiar and standardized language, making reception clearer and reducing the chance of miscommunication.

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  • 21. 

    Which is an example of a protection level 1 (PL1) resource?

    • A. Non-nuclear alert forces

    • B. C4 systems of active nuclear mission

    • C. Selected C3 facilities, systems,and equipment

    • D. Fuels and Liquids Oxygen storage areas.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. C4 systems of active nuclear mission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. C4 systems of active nuclear mission. This is an example of a protection level 1 (PL1) resource because it involves the control and communication systems used in active nuclear missions. These systems are critical for the success and safety of nuclear missions, and therefore require the highest level of protection.

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  • 22. 

    Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is

    • A. abuse

    • B. neglect

    • C. abandonment

    • D. domestic violence

    Correct Answer
    A. B. neglect
    Explanation
    Neglect refers to the failure of providing a child with the basic necessities of life. It involves the lack of proper care, supervision, and attention to a child's physical, emotional, and educational needs. Neglect can include not providing adequate food, clothing, shelter, medical care, or emotional support. It is different from abuse, which involves intentional harm or violence towards a child. Abandonment refers to the act of deserting or leaving a child without proper care or support. Domestic violence is a separate issue that involves violence or abuse within a family or household.

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  • 23. 

    Stan-Evals will be conducted within?

    • A. 120 duty days after an individual completes qualification training.

    • B. 90 duty days after an individual completes qualification training.

    • C. 60 duty days after an individual completes qualification training.

    • D. 30 days after completeing qualification traning.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 30 days after completeing qualification traning.
    Explanation
    Stan-Evals refers to Standard Evaluations, which are assessments conducted to evaluate an individual's performance and proficiency in their job duties. According to the given answer, Stan-Evals will be conducted 30 days after completing qualification training. This means that individuals will have a month to apply the knowledge and skills they gained during their training before being evaluated. This timeframe allows for a sufficient period to practice and gain practical experience before undergoing an assessment of their abilities.

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  • 24. 

    All personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will

    • A. Receive firearms training based their duty tasking.

    • B. Receive firearms training based their rank and status.

    • C. Receive firearms training based on use of force requirement.

    • D. Receive firearms training based their arming group (Group A,B, or C).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Receive firearms training based their arming group (Group A,B, or C).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Receive firearms training based on their arming group (Group A, B, or C). This means that personnel assigned to a specific Unit Type Code manpower position will receive firearms training based on the arming group they belong to. The arming group determines the level of firearms training required for individuals in that group.

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  • 25. 

    Correction staff personnel should complete or be schedule to attend

    • A. service correction course(or civilian equivalent).

    • B. civilian correction course only.

    • C. base correction course only.

    • D. state correction certification course.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. service correction course(or civilian equivalent).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. service correction course (or civilian equivalent). This means that correction staff personnel should either complete a service correction course or a civilian equivalent course. This indicates that the personnel need to have specific training and knowledge in correctional services, whether it is through a military course or a civilian course that provides the same level of expertise.

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  • 26. 

    What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it?

    • A. Just wipe your prints off.

    • B. Disregard it completely.

    • C. Inform your supervisor or leader.

    • D. Record it in your notes and report.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Record it in your notes and report.
    Explanation
    If you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it, the correct course of action is to record it in your notes and report it. This is important because it ensures that there is a record of your interaction with the evidence and allows for transparency and accountability in the investigation process. By reporting it, you are providing accurate information about the potential contamination of the evidence, which can be crucial in maintaining the integrity of the investigation.

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  • 27. 

    What are the types of interview approaches?

    • A. Indirect, alternating.

    • B. Reverse, direct, indirect.

    • C. Direct, Indirect, and reverse

    • D. Alternating, Direct, and Indirect.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Alternating, Direct, and Indirect.
    Explanation
    The types of interview approaches are alternating, direct, and indirect. Alternating interviews involve switching between different interview styles or methods throughout the interview process. Direct interviews involve straightforward questioning and seeking specific information from the interviewee. Indirect interviews involve using more subtle or indirect methods to gather information, such as through observations or hypothetical scenarios.

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  • 28. 

    The goal of the Air force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide what?

    • A. The same capabilities as all civilian police.

    • B. Law enforcement with new technology.

    • C. Law enforcement with new computers.

    • D. Prompt police information through the use of technology.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Prompt police information through the use of technology.
    Explanation
    The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide prompt police information through the use of technology. This means that the program aims to use technology to quickly deliver relevant and timely information to law enforcement personnel, enabling them to effectively carry out their duties. The AFLETS program is not focused on providing the same capabilities as civilian police, introducing new technology or computers specifically for law enforcement, but rather on leveraging technology to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of law enforcement operations.

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  • 29. 

    What are the responsibilities of The Chief of Security Forces (CSF)?

    • A. Selecting/training civilian officials on the AFLETS program.

    • B. Selecting/training of personnel operating th AFLETS program.

    • C. Managing the local NLETS program.

    • D. Managing the local NCIC program.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Selecting/training of personnel operating th AFLETS program.
    Explanation
    The Chief of Security Forces (CSF) is responsible for selecting and training personnel who operate the AFLETS program. AFLETS stands for Automated Flight Following (AFF) and Law Enforcement Tracking System, which is used by security forces to track and monitor flights and law enforcement activities. This responsibility ensures that the personnel operating the AFLETS program are properly trained and capable of effectively utilizing the system to enhance security and law enforcement efforts. Managing the local NLETS and NCIC programs are not mentioned as responsibilities of the CSF in the given options.

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  • 30. 

    All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either

    • A. pretrial detainee, post-trial inmate or casual.

    • B. pretrial detainee, post-trial detainee.

    • C. post-trial inmate or trial inmate.

    • D. pretrial casual, or casual.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. pretrial detainee, post-trial inmate or casual.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. The question asks for the possible classifications of inmates, and option a provides three classifications: pretrial detainee, post-trial inmate, or casual. Option b only provides two classifications, option c provides only two classifications but with different terms, and option d provides two classifications but with different terms as well. Therefore, option a is the correct answer as it provides all the possible classifications mentioned in the question.

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  • 31. 

    What method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required?

    • A. Cornering.

    • B. Skipping.

    • C. Bursting.

    • D. Pie-ing.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Pie-ing.
    Explanation
    "Pie-ing" is a term commonly used in tactical training and refers to the technique of gradually exposing oneself to a corner or doorway in order to minimize the risk of being surprised by an attacker. This method involves slowly peeking around the corner, allowing the person to assess the situation and react accordingly. It is a method used when speed is required, as it allows for quick assessment and decision-making while minimizing exposure to potential threats.

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  • 32. 

    You should response to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your  M-4 rifle at port arms, with the safety selector on

    • A. safe and your finger not in the trigger guard.

    • B. fire, and your finger not in the trigger guard.

    • C. safe, and your finger in the trigger guard.

    • D. fire, and your finger in the trigger guard.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. safe and your finger not in the trigger guard.
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is a. safe and your finger not in the trigger guard. This is because when encountering an armed adversary, it is important to prioritize safety and readiness. Keeping the safety selector on safe ensures that the rifle is not accidentally discharged. Additionally, keeping your finger outside the trigger guard minimizes the risk of unintentionally pulling the trigger and firing the weapon. This stance demonstrates a responsible and cautious approach to handling the M-4 rifle in a potentially dangerous situation.

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  • 33. 

    The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?

    • A. sweat.

    • B. blood

    • C. syringes.

    • D. body fluids.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. blood
    Explanation
    Blood is the single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace because it can carry various pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B and C, and other bloodborne diseases. Contact with infected blood, through cuts, needlestick injuries, or other means, can lead to the transmission of these diseases. Therefore, proper precautions and safety measures should be taken to prevent contact with blood and to minimize the risk of disease transmission in the workplace.

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  • 34. 

    The baton primarily is used as what type of weapon?

    • A. Non-physical.

    • B. Psychological.

    • C. Impact

    • D. Lethal

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Impact
    Explanation
    The baton is primarily used as an impact weapon. It is a long, cylindrical tool usually made of metal or wood, and it is used by law enforcement officers and security personnel to deliver strikes and control combative individuals. The baton's main purpose is to create impact force, allowing the user to subdue or incapacitate an attacker without causing lethal harm.

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  • 35. 

    What major incident phase is a complex and time-consuming operatio?

    • A. Notification

    • B. Withdrawal

    • C. Response

    • D. Recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Recovery
    Explanation
    The major incident phase that is complex and time-consuming is the recovery phase. This phase involves restoring the affected systems, processes, and infrastructure to their normal state after an incident has occurred. It requires extensive planning, coordination, and resources to recover from the incident and minimize the impact on the organization. The recovery phase may involve activities such as data restoration, system repairs, and implementing preventive measures to avoid future incidents.

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  • 36. 

    Secure PL1 resources by

    • A. providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.

    • B. posting sentries when IDS is not installed or operational.

    • C. ensuring proper trining of assigned personnel.

    • D. posting external response force elements.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area. This means that in order to secure PL1 resources, there should be specific response elements assigned to the task of protecting the resources both inside and outside the restricted area. This ensures that there is a dedicated team responsible for responding to any threats or breaches, both within and around the restricted area, providing a comprehensive security approach.

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  • 37. 

    Where would you sketch in magnetic north date on your range card?

    • A. Part one.

    • B. Regional date block.

    • C. Marginal data section.

    • D. Where you can locate it quickly.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Marginal data section.
    Explanation
    In order to quickly locate magnetic north date on a range card, it is typically sketched in the marginal data section. This section is specifically designated for important information that aids in navigation and orientation, such as magnetic north date. By placing it in this section, it ensures that the information is easily accessible and readily available for reference during operations.

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  • 38. 

    Some optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksman and sharpshooter teams are

    • A. squad leader.

    • B. support element sniper.

    • C. reconnaissance and close precision support.

    • D. response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance.
    Explanation
    The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksman and sharpshooter teams include response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. This means that these teams are able to quickly respond to threats, provide cover and support from a distance, protect and screen friendly forces, and gather information on enemy positions and movements. These capabilities make them valuable assets in combat situations, as they can effectively engage targets with precision and provide crucial support to the overall mission.

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  • 39. 

    A person who exercises control over property given to them for safekeeping may

    • A. not give consent to search.

    • B. grant consent to search that property.

    • C. may give consent to their property only.

    • D. may allow another person to grant consent.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. grant consent to search that property.
    Explanation
    When a person is entrusted with the responsibility of safeguarding someone else's property, they have the authority to grant consent for that specific property to be searched. This means that they can give permission for others, such as law enforcement officials, to search the property they are responsible for. However, this authority does not extend to granting consent for other people's property or allowing someone else to grant consent. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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  • 40. 

    How can you prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuff?

    • A. Apply the handcuff very tighly to restrict movement.

    • B. Lock both handcuffs after applying them on the suspect.

    • C. Loop the cuffs through the front of the belt just below the smll of the back.

    • D. Loop the cuff through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of his or her back.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Loop the cuff through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of his or her back.
    Explanation
    Looping the handcuff through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of their back prevents them from stepping through the handcuff by restricting their movement. This method adds an extra layer of security and ensures that the suspect cannot easily free themselves from the handcuffs.

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  • 41. 

    Under what condition would you use MK19 ammunition in M203?

    • A. Under no circumstance.

    • B. When directed.

    • C. Emergency.

    • D. Last resort.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Under no circumstance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Under no circumstance. This means that there is never a situation where you would use MK19 ammunition in M203. The M203 is a single-shot grenade launcher, while the MK19 is an automatic grenade launcher. They are designed for different purposes and using the wrong ammunition could lead to dangerous and unintended consequences. It is important to always use the correct ammunition for the specific weapon to ensure safety and effectiveness.

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  • 42. 

    Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas?

    • A. Concentric circle

    • B. Item-to-item

    • C. Zone or sector

    • D. Strip and grid

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Strip and grid
    Explanation
    Strip and grid search method is often used in large outdoor areas because it allows for systematic coverage of the area. This method involves dividing the search area into strips or grids and thoroughly searching each strip or grid before moving on to the next one. It is an efficient way to ensure that no area is missed during the search and is commonly used in search and rescue operations, law enforcement, and exploration activities.

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  • 43. 

    Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are document in what federal system?

    • A. Log controlled under the Privacy act 1972.

    • B. A federal system of logs controlled under the Privacy act 1973.

    • C. A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy act of 1974.

    • D. A federal system of record controlled under the Privacy act of 1975.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy act of 1974.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy act of 1974. This is because the question is asking about the document in a federal system, and the Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are records that are controlled under the Privacy act of 1974.

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  • 44. 

    What is the responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM)?

    • A. Mandatory education and training requirements only.

    • B. On duty life-cycle education and training requirements.

    • C. Just in time education and training requirements, both on and off duty.

    • D. Life-cycle education and training requirements, both mandatory and desirable.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Life-cycle education and training requirements, both mandatory and desirable.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM) is to ensure that all security forces personnel receive education and training throughout their entire career. This includes both mandatory requirements that are necessary for their job and desirable requirements that enhance their skills and knowledge. The SFM is responsible for managing the life-cycle education and training of security forces personnel, ensuring that they are adequately prepared and continuously improving their capabilities.

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  • 45. 

    Once the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene established by Security Forces personnel, who is allowed inside?

    • A. Medical emergency services personnel

    • B. Base fire department personnel

    • C. Negotiation teams

    • D. Base chaplin

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Negotiation teams
    Explanation
    After the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene is established by Security Forces personnel, negotiation teams are allowed inside. This is because negotiation teams are trained to communicate and negotiate with individuals involved in the high-risk situation, such as hostage takers or barricaded suspects. Their presence is crucial in attempting to peacefully resolve the situation and ensure the safety of everyone involved. Medical emergency services personnel, base fire department personnel, and the base chaplain may have important roles in other aspects of the incident response, but they are not specifically trained for negotiation and therefore would not be allowed inside the inner perimeter.

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  • 46. 

    What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident called?

    • A. Abuse

    • B. Neglect

    • C. Abandonment

    • D. Domestic Violence

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Abuse
    Explanation
    Physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident, is commonly referred to as abuse. Abuse can take various forms, such as physical, emotional, sexual, or even financial. It involves intentionally causing harm or distress to another person, often with the intention of exerting power and control over them. This can occur in various settings, including domestic relationships, institutions, or even within communities. It is important to recognize and address abuse to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals affected by it.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications?

    • A. Brevity codes.

    • B. Authentic transmissions.

    • C. Localized decoding procedures.

    • D. Localized encoding procedures.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Brevity codes.
    Explanation
    Brevity codes are necessary for effective communications because they allow for concise and efficient transmission of information. By using standardized codes and abbreviations, communication can be streamlined, reducing the chance of misunderstandings or errors. Brevity codes also save time and resources, as they enable quick and clear communication in situations where every second counts.

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  • 48. 

    What is the decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals based upon?

    • A. Level of cooperation of suspect.

    • B. Certain rules and defines criteria.

    • C. Whether the person has a weapon.

    • D. Sound professional judgement and facts of a specific incident.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Sound professional judgement and facts of a specific incident.
    Explanation
    The decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals is based on sound professional judgement and the facts of a specific incident. This means that law enforcement officers must assess the situation and consider factors such as the behavior and cooperation of the suspect, any defined criteria or rules that may apply, whether the person has a weapon, and any other relevant information. Ultimately, the decision to handcuff or not is made based on the officer's experience, training, and the specific circumstances of the incident.

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  • 49. 

    Which report is an official/permanent record of event?

    • A. AF Form 3545, Incident Report.

    • B. AF Form 1315, Vehicle Accident Report.

    • C. DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report.

    • D. AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. AF Form 3545, Incident Report.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 3545, Incident Report, is the correct answer because it is an official and permanent record of an event. This form is used to document any incidents that occur in the Air Force, such as accidents, injuries, property damage, or any other significant events. It provides a detailed account of what happened, who was involved, and any actions taken. This report is essential for record-keeping, analysis, and future reference, making it an official and permanent record of the event.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 06, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Melitonr98
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