Security Forces CDC's Vol. 2

100 Questions

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What standard did the US Supreme court established for assessing use of force?
    • A. 

      A. Objective

    • B. 

      B. Subjective

    • C. 

      C. Reasonable

    • D. 

      D. Objective certainly

  • 2. 
    The three essential areas that support "objective reasonableness" are subject action,
    • A. 

      A. Officer response, and force application

    • B. 

      B. Risk perception,and officer response

    • C. 

      C. force application, and level of force

    • D. 

      D. Risk perception, and level of force

  • 3. 
    You response to the base housing area to remove several solicitors. You advised them they can't solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave and they comply. What subject action level in the Use of Force Model is demonstrated to control the situation?
    • A. 

      A. Compliant

    • B. 

      B. Resistant (passive)

    • C. 

      C. Assualtive (bodily harm)

    • D. 

      D. Assaultive (serious bidily harm/death)

  • 4. 
    Upon contact with the solicitor, you recieve proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action level is it?
    • A. 

      A. Verbal controls

    • B. 

      B. Neuromuscular controls

    • C. 

      C. Baton as a leverage device

    • D. 

      D. Military working dog (off leash)

  • 5. 
    You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted area because he or she is not wearing a restricted area badge. What are the risk perception, subject action, and officer response levels?
    • A. 

      A. Professional perception, complaint, and cooperative controls

    • B. 

      B. Tactical perception, resistant(passive, and contact controls

    • C. 

      C. Threshold perception,resistant(active),and compliance techniques

    • D. 

      D. Harmful threat perception, assaultive(bodily harm), and defensive tactics.

  • 6. 
    Deadly force would be authorized to keep
    • A. 

      A. a fleeing thief from escaping

    • B. 

      B. someone from breaking into a house

    • C. 

      C. someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm

    • D. 

      D. a tradfic violator from fleeing out the installation gate

  • 7. 
    Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources
    • A. 

      A. vital to security forces.

    • B. 

      B. vital to national security.

    • C. 

      C. important to the installation.

    • D. 

      D. important to a Major Command.

  • 8. 
    Which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?
    • A. 

      A. Recovery of nuclear weapons.

    • B. 

      B. Keep someone from breaking into house.

    • C. 

      C. Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.

    • D. 

      D. Protect yourself from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.

  • 9. 
    You should response to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your  M-4 rifle at port arms, with the safety selector on
    • A. 

      A. safe and your finger not in the trigger guard.

    • B. 

      B. fire, and your finger not in the trigger guard.

    • C. 

      C. safe, and your finger in the trigger guard.

    • D. 

      D. fire, and your finger in the trigger guard.

  • 10. 
    Once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area, area first action is to
    • A. 

      A. Initiate the verbal challenge by loudly commanding HALT.

    • B. 

      B. Bring your weapon to the raise pistol position and command STOP

    • C. 

      C. Notify SFC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post.

    • D. 

      D. Take cover, charge your weapon and bring it to post arms,and loudly shout HALT.

  • 11. 
    When challenging individual on foot, place the individuals in the final challenge position, instruct them to remove and place their credentials on the grounds, and command them to turn around and walk how many paces away from the credentials?
    • A. 

      A. 3

    • B. 

      B. 5

    • C. 

      C. 7

    • D. 

      D. 9

  • 12. 
    What is the decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals based upon?
    • A. 

      A. Level of cooperation of suspect.

    • B. 

      B. Certain rules and defines criteria.

    • C. 

      C. Whether the person has a weapon.

    • D. 

      D. Sound professional judgement and facts of a specific incident.

  • 13. 
    How can you prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuff?
    • A. 

      A. Apply the handcuff very tighly to restrict movement.

    • B. 

      B. Lock both handcuffs after applying them on the suspect.

    • C. 

      C. Loop the cuffs through the front of the belt just below the smll of the back.

    • D. 

      D. Loop the cuff through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of his or her back.

  • 14. 
    The type of suspect best suited for a prone search is one who
    • A. 

      A. Is cooperative.

    • B. 

      B. Is bigger than you.

    • C. 

      C. doesn't speak English.

    • D. 

      D. Is physically impaired.

  • 15. 
    When using the one hand grab breakaway technique, in STEP 1 you spread the spread the finger wide apart, and rotate our thumb hand how many degree over the suspect's hand?
    • A. 

      A. 45

    • B. 

      B. 90

    • C. 

      C. 120

    • D. 

      D. 180

  • 16. 
    Upon what is your decision to apprehend based?
    • A. 

      A. Circumstances

    • B. 

      B. Suspect's activity

    • C. 

      C. Probable cause

    • D. 

      D. Reasonable doudt

  • 17. 
    What are the two most important factors to keep in mind when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension?
    • A. 

      A. Suspect's position and attitude.

    • B. 

      B. Your position and attitude.

    • C. 

      C. Assisting members overwatch position.

    • D. 

      D. Your position and availablecover and concealment.

  • 18. 
    The IKKYO grip is aplied with two directions of pressure. In STEP 3 you apply downward pressure to the elbow with your weak hand while rotating the elbow joint
    • A. 

      A. Forward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand.

    • B. 

      B. Reaward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand.

    • C. 

      C. Inward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand.

    • D. 

      D. Outward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand.

  • 19. 
    In STEP 2 of the standing arm bar, what do you place into the small of the suspect's back as you move your inside foot to the rear of the suspects feet and step to the left/right?
    • A. 

      A. shoulder

    • B. 

      B. forearm.

    • C. 

      C. elbow

    • D. 

      D. hand

  • 20. 
    To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep suspect's
    • A. 

      A. elbow extended out toward the ground

    • B. 

      B. arm straight and toward the ground

    • C. 

      C. elbow parallel to the ground

    • D. 

      D. arm parallel to the ground

  • 21. 
    The baton primarily is used as what type of weapon?
    • A. 

      A. Non-physical.

    • B. 

      B. Psychological.

    • C. 

      C. Impact

    • D. 

      D. Lethal

  • 22. 
    For how many minutes can the effects and symtoms of OC pepper spray last when left untreated?
    • A. 

      A. 15

    • B. 

      B. 30

    • C. 

      C. 45

    • D. 

      D. 90

  • 23. 
    For rifle fighting techniques to be effective they must be applied with
    • A. 

      A. suprise and accuracy

    • B. 

      B. speed and accuracy

    • C. 

      C. speed and surprise

    • D. 

      D. speed and quickness

  • 24. 
    Which rifle fighting technique is used to disarmed an opponent?
    • A. 

      A. Slash

    • B. 

      B. Smash

    • C. 

      C. Thrust

    • D. 

      D. Butt stroke

  • 25. 
    What is an example of a rough grid coordinate?
    • A. 

      A. 3/B

    • B. 

      B. B/3

    • C. 

      C. E3/4.2

    • D. 

      D. 4.2/E3

  • 26. 
    What is an incident involving nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      A. Broken Arrow

    • B. 

      B. Bent Spear

    • C. 

      C. Dull Sword

    • D. 

      D. Nucflash

  • 27. 
    The intial Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters is notified of a grave situation by the
    • A. 

      A. security reporting and alerting system

    • B. 

      B. intra-base disaster notification system

    • C. 

      C. base's estaablished notification direction

    • D. 

      D. accident response force telephone system

  • 28. 
    How are withdrawal actions accomplished at the scene of a major disaster?
    • A. 

      A. Downwind or crosswind direction

    • B. 

      B. Downwind and upwind direction

    • C. 

      C. Upwind or crosswind direction

    • D. 

      D. As fast as possible

  • 29. 
    What major incident phase is a complex and time-consuming operatio?
    • A. 

      A. Notification

    • B. 

      B. Withdrawal

    • C. 

      C. Response

    • D. 

      D. Recovery

  • 30. 
    What is the cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      A. 1500 feet

    • B. 

      B. 2000 feet

    • C. 

      C. 1500 feet upwind and crosswind and 1 mile downwind

    • D. 

      D. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind and 1 mile downwind

  • 31. 
    What is the size of an accident involving biological agent?
    • A. 

      A. 1500 feet upwind and crosswind

    • B. 

      B. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind

    • C. 

      C. 1500 feet upwind and crosswind and 1.5 miles downwind

    • D. 

      D. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind and 1.5 miles downwind

  • 32. 
    Regardless of the size, who establishes and control on-base cordons?
    • A. 

      A. SF personnel

    • B. 

      B. Fire Chief

    • C. 

      C. On scene commander

    • D. 

      D. Installation commander

  • 33. 
    One of the primary Air Force goal in dealing with high-risk situation is to
    • A. 

      A. let the FBI or CIA take charge and the situation

    • B. 

      B. prevent or minimize loss of life and property

    • C. 

      C. nuetralize the perpetrators using deadly force.

    • D. 

      D. not yield to civilian authorities

  • 34. 
    What is the lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occurring off the installation?
    • A. 

      A. Federal Bureau of Investigation

    • B. 

      B. Air Office of Special Intalligence.

    • C. 

      C. Central Intalligence Agency

    • D. 

      D. Department of Justice

  • 35. 
    The principle method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation is through the use of
    • A. 

      A. trained negotiators

    • B. 

      B. swat teams

    • C. 

      C. special operation

    • D. 

      D. nuclear weapons

  • 36. 
    Once the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene established by Security Forces personnel, who is allowed inside?
    • A. 

      A. Medical emergency services personnel

    • B. 

      B. Base fire department personnel

    • C. 

      C. Negotiation teams

    • D. 

      D. Base chaplin

  • 37. 
    What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident called?
    • A. 

      A. Abuse

    • B. 

      B. Neglect

    • C. 

      C. Abandonment

    • D. 

      D. Domestic Violence

  • 38. 
    Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is
    • A. 

      A. abuse

    • B. 

      B. neglect

    • C. 

      C. abandonment

    • D. 

      D. domestic violence

  • 39. 
    What form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension?
    • A. 

      A. AF form 3545, incident Report

    • B. 

      B. AF form 1364, Consent for search and seizure

    • C. 

      C. Af form 1168, statement of suspect/witness/complainant

    • D. 

      D. AF form 1176, authority to search and seize

  • 40. 
    Before conducting a vehicle search, you must have probable cause,
    • A. 

      A. suspect, search authority, and the owners consent.

    • B. 

      B. suspect, and consent of the person controlling vehicle.

    • C. 

      C. proper search authority, and written consent of the person driving vehicle

    • D. 

      D. proper search authority, and consent of the person controlling vehicle.

  • 41. 
    Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas?
    • A. 

      A. Concentric circle

    • B. 

      B. Item-to-item

    • C. 

      C. Zone or sector

    • D. 

      D. Strip and grid

  • 42. 
    What must evidence be to be admissible in court?
    • A. 

      A. Real and relevant.

    • B. 

      B. Relevant and direct.

    • C. 

      C. Direct and competent.

    • D. 

      D. Competent and relevant

  • 43. 
    What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it?
    • A. 

      A. Just wipe your prints off.

    • B. 

      B. Disregard it completely.

    • C. 

      C. Inform your supervisor or leader.

    • D. 

      D. Record it in your notes and report.

  • 44. 
    What type of barrier is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/framentation around entry control piont and approach avenues?
    • A. 

      A. Sandbags.

    • B. 

      B. Earth-filled barriers.

    • C. 

      C. Jersey and Bitburg barriers.

    • D. 

      D. Water or sand filled plastic barriers.

  • 45. 
    Which is an example of a protection level 1 (PL1) resource?
    • A. 

      A. Non-nuclear alert forces

    • B. 

      B. C4 systems of active nuclear mission

    • C. 

      C. Selected C3 facilities, systems,and equipment

    • D. 

      D. Fuels and Liquids Oxygen storage areas.

  • 46. 
    Secure PL1 resources by
    • A. 

      A. providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.

    • B. 

      B. posting sentries when IDS is not installed or operational.

    • C. 

      C. ensuring proper trining of assigned personnel.

    • D. 

      D. posting external response force elements.

  • 47. 
    What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn't fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or a military department?
    • A. 

      A. Controlled.

    • B. 

      B. Restricted.

    • C. 

      C. Disaster response.

    • D. 

      D. National Defense.

  • 48. 
    Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes?
    • A. 

      A. Security Forces Investigations.

    • B. 

      B. Office Special Investigation.

    • C. 

      C. Installation Security Council.

    • D. 

      D. Resource Protection Committee.

  • 49. 
    What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibits on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at atleast a 0.10 BAC?
    • A. 

      A. 2.

    • B. 

      B. 4.

    • C. 

      C. 6.

    • D. 

      D. 8.

  • 50. 
    After writting a report, the next step would be to
    • A. 

      A. organize the facts.

    • B. 

      B. evaluate the report.

    • C. 

      C. proofread the report.

    • D. 

      D. put the report together.

  • 51. 
    Which report is an official/permanent record of event?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 3545, Incident Report.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 1315, Vehicle Accident Report.

    • C. 

      C. DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant.

  • 52. 
    If your report is non-opinionated, fair, and impartial, you are fullfilling which characteristic of a well written report?
    • A. 

      A. Consise.

    • B. 

      B. Accurate.

    • C. 

      C. Objective.

    • D. 

      D. Complete.

  • 53. 
    What is used on AF Form 3545, Incident Report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual or racially motivated?
    • A. 

      A. Offense codes.

    • B. 

      B. Involvement codes.

    • C. 

      C. Bias motivation codes.

    • D. 

      D. Offense Statutory basis.

  • 54. 
    When should hard wire lines inspected?
    • A. 

      A. Before installation and daily when installed.

    • B. 

      B. Twicwe daily after installation.

    • C. 

      C. Four times a week.

    • D. 

      D. Before burial.

  • 55. 
    What is a Hot Loop?
    • A. 

      A. Special line designated for emergency only.

    • B. 

      B. Special line established for the command post.

    • C. 

      C. Continuous line of field wire laid out on the perimeter.

    • D. 

      D. Continuous line connected to every phone and switchboard.

  • 56. 
    Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications?
    • A. 

      A. Brevity codes.

    • B. 

      B. Authentic transmissions.

    • C. 

      C. Localized decoding procedures.

    • D. 

      D. Localized encoding procedures.

  • 57. 
    One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet is to
    • A. 

      A. transmit letters and numbers.

    • B. 

      B. always transmit letters, not numbers

    • C. 

      C. remember the last letter you recieve must be even and set.

    • D. 

      D. remember that the first three letters you pass or recieve must be set letters.

  • 58. 
    Where would you sketch in magnetic north date on your range card?
    • A. 

      A. Part one.

    • B. 

      B. Regional date block.

    • C. 

      C. Marginal data section.

    • D. 

      D. Where you can locate it quickly.

  • 59. 
    Under what condition would you use MK19 ammunition in M203?
    • A. 

      A. Under no circumstance.

    • B. 

      B. When directed.

    • C. 

      C. Emergency.

    • D. 

      D. Last resort.

  • 60. 
    Some optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksman and sharpshooter teams are
    • A. 

      A. squad leader.

    • B. 

      B. support element sniper.

    • C. 

      C. reconnaissance and close precision support.

    • D. 

      D. response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance.

  • 61. 
    What is the lead agency for terrorist incident that occurs outside the US?
    • A. 

      A. Department of State

    • B. 

      B. Department of Justice

    • C. 

      C. Department of Defense

    • D. 

      D. Federal Bureau Of Investigation

  • 62. 
    Which terrorist group operates independently?
    • A. 

      A. State-supported.

    • B. 

      B. Nonstate-supported.

    • C. 

      C. State-directed.

    • D. 

      D. Independent crusaders.

  • 63. 
    Which terroist group operates autonomously?
    • A. 

      A. State-directed.

    • B. 

      B. State-supported.

    • C. 

      C. Non-state supported.

    • D. 

      D. independent crusaders.

  • 64. 
    The centerpiece of Operations Security ( OPSEC) is
    • A. 

      A. threat analysis.

    • B. 

      B. Risk management.

    • C. 

      C. Communication safety.

    • D. 

      D. Information security

  • 65. 
    When did the US ratify the Geneva Convention for the Protection of War Victims?
    • A. 

      A. 12 August 1952.

    • B. 

      B. 12 August 1951.

    • C. 

      C. 12 August 1950.

    • D. 

      D. 12 August 1949.

  • 66. 
    What is the fifth step in captives, detainee, and prisoners (CDP's) processing?
    • A. 

      A. Safeguard.

    • B. 

      B. Silence.

    • C. 

      C. Segregate.

    • D. 

      D. Speed.

  • 67. 
    When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripod is fully extended, it is 20 feet high and the legs are approximately?
    • A. 

      A. 10 feet qpqrt at the base.

    • B. 

      B. 20 feet apart at the base.

    • C. 

      C. 30 feet apart at the base.

    • D. 

      D. 40 feet apart at the base.

  • 68. 
    What component do we use to adjust the elevation on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?
    • A. 

      A. Diopter focus ring.

    • B. 

      B. Eyepiece assembly.

    • C. 

      C. Reticle adjustments.

    • D. 

      D. Objective focus ring.

  • 69. 
    What position should you assume to observe around corners of buildings?
    • A. 

      A. Crouching.

    • B. 

      B. Standing.

    • C. 

      C. Kneeling.

    • D. 

      D. Prone.

  • 70. 
    What method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required?
    • A. 

      A. Cornering.

    • B. 

      B. Skipping.

    • C. 

      C. Bursting.

    • D. 

      D. Pie-ing.

  • 71. 
    Factors we use to determine movement technique are control, dispersion, speed, and
    • A. 

      A. Cover.

    • B. 

      B. Security.

    • C. 

      C. Fire support.

    • D. 

      D. Concealment.

  • 72. 
    What is a Retrograde operation?
    • A. 

      A. disengaging away from the enemy.

    • B. 

      B. Retreating to a safe place on the flank.

    • C. 

      C. Organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.

    • D. 

      D. Unorganized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.

  • 73. 
    Likelihood of enemy contact we divide into three categories;
    • A. 

      A. expected, possible and likely.

    • B. 

      B. likely, expected and observed.

    • C. 

      C. not likely, possible and expected.

    • D. 

      D. threat analysis, not likely and ambushes.

  • 74. 
    Which rally pointis tentative until the objective is pinpointed?
    • A. 

      A. Objective.

    • B. 

      B. Reentry.

    • C. 

      C. Enroute.

    • D. 

      D. Initial

  • 75. 
    One advantage to pulling vehicle to the shoulder is the road in a herringbone pattern is
    • A. 

      A. convoy is stopped on an open road.

    • B. 

      B. better chance against an enemy attack.

    • C. 

      C. volume and density of small arms fire redued.

    • D. 

      D. volume and density of organic weapon is higher.

  • 76. 
    What is the responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM)?
    • A. 

      A. Mandatory education and training requirements only.

    • B. 

      B. On duty life-cycle education and training requirements.

    • C. 

      C. Just in time education and training requirements, both on and off duty.

    • D. 

      D. Life-cycle education and training requirements, both mandatory and desirable.

  • 77. 
    Stan-Evals will be conducted within?
    • A. 

      A. 120 duty days after an individual completes qualification training.

    • B. 

      B. 90 duty days after an individual completes qualification training.

    • C. 

      C. 60 duty days after an individual completes qualification training.

    • D. 

      D. 30 days after completeing qualification traning.

  • 78. 
    The goal of the Air force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide what?
    • A. 

      A. The same capabilities as all civilian police.

    • B. 

      B. Law enforcement with new technology.

    • C. 

      C. Law enforcement with new computers.

    • D. 

      D. Prompt police information through the use of technology.

  • 79. 
    What are the responsibilities of The Chief of Security Forces (CSF)?
    • A. 

      A. Selecting/training civilian officials on the AFLETS program.

    • B. 

      B. Selecting/training of personnel operating th AFLETS program.

    • C. 

      C. Managing the local NLETS program.

    • D. 

      D. Managing the local NCIC program.

  • 80. 
    Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are document in what federal system?
    • A. 

      A. Log controlled under the Privacy act 1972.

    • B. 

      B. A federal system of logs controlled under the Privacy act 1973.

    • C. 

      C. A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy act of 1974.

    • D. 

      D. A federal system of record controlled under the Privacy act of 1975.

  • 81. 
    Individual weapon training program are outlined in?
    • A. 

      A. AFI 31-201, Security Police Procedure

    • B. 

      B. AFI 31-101, Installation Security Programs.

    • C. 

      C. AFMAN 31-201 Volume 1, Security Forces History and Organization.

    • D. 

      D. AFI 36-2226 Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons.

  • 82. 
    All personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will
    • A. 

      A. Receive firearms training based their duty tasking.

    • B. 

      B. Receive firearms training based their rank and status.

    • C. 

      C. Receive firearms training based on use of force requirement.

    • D. 

      D. Receive firearms training based their arming group (Group A,B, or C).

  • 83. 
    What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 522, Ground Weapon Training Data.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 629, Small Arms Hands Receipt.

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard.

  • 84. 
    The use of proword in radio communication help
    • A. 

      A. aids in transmitting and reception.

    • B. 

      B. clarify understanding of the message being sent.

    • C. 

      C. distract and confuse unauthorized listeners.

    • D. 

      D. shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception.

  • 85. 
    What tactics reduce exposure to blood born pathogens on the job?
    • A. 

      A. Employee work practices, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping.

    • B. 

      B. Hapatitis B vaccine,misuse of personal protective equipment.

    • C. 

      C. Personal protective equipment, unsanitary housekeeping.

    • D. 

      D. Unsafe work practices, hepatitis B vaccine.

  • 86. 
    The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?
    • A. 

      A. sweat.

    • B. 

      B. blood

    • C. 

      C. syringes.

    • D. 

      D. body fluids.

  • 87. 
    Microorganisms in the blood that cause disease are?
    • A. 

      A. "A" cells.

    • B. 

      B. white blood cells.

    • C. 

      C. cancer causing cells.

    • D. 

      D. blood borne pathogens.

  • 88. 
    Most often suicidal person are overwhelmed with
    • A. 

      A. too much money, divorce, and work problems.

    • B. 

      B. pending legal action, work problems, or having fun.

    • C. 

      C. loss of a love one, mental health, and divorce.

    • D. 

      D. relationship difficulties, divorce, and going on vacation.

  • 89. 
    What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
    • A. 

      A. Finding the right stress medication.

    • B. 

      B. Recognizing stressor.

    • C. 

      C. Running daily.

    • D. 

      D. Relaxing.

  • 90. 
    There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?
    • A. 

      A. Personal life and job.

    • B. 

      B. Personal life and nightclubs.

    • C. 

      C. Job and recreational activities.

    • D. 

      D. Job and off-duty employment.

  • 91. 
    What is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field?
    • A. 

      A. fires.

    • B. 

      B. stress.

    • C. 

      C. major accident.

    • D. 

      D. traffic accident.

  • 92. 
    What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?
    • A. 

      A.Waterproof clothing bags.

    • B. 

      B. Change them frequently.

    • C. 

      C. Tree branches.

    • D. 

      D. Mosquito nets.

  • 93. 
    An effective way of defeating crawling insect is
    • A. 

      A. not wearing socks.

    • B. 

      B. spraying your boots with Windex.

    • C. 

      C. not washing your pants bottom.

    • D. 

      D. tucking your pants into the top of your socks and boots.

  • 94. 
    All inmates will have initial confinement examonation within
    • A. 

      A. 24 hours.

    • B. 

      B. 48 hours.

    • C. 

      C. 72 hours.

    • D. 

      D. 24 hours, or the next duty day.

  • 95. 
    All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either
    • A. 

      A. pretrial detainee, post-trial inmate or casual.

    • B. 

      B. pretrial detainee, post-trial detainee.

    • C. 

      C. post-trial inmate or trial inmate.

    • D. 

      D. pretrial casual, or casual.

  • 96. 
    Correction staff personnel should complete or be schedule to attend
    • A. 

      A. service correction course(or civilian equivalent).

    • B. 

      B. civilian correction course only.

    • C. 

      C. base correction course only.

    • D. 

      D. state correction certification course.

  • 97. 
    What are the types of interview approaches?
    • A. 

      A. Indirect, alternating.

    • B. 

      B. Reverse, direct, indirect.

    • C. 

      C. Direct, Indirect, and reverse

    • D. 

      D. Alternating, Direct, and Indirect.

  • 98. 
    Investigators will conduct pretrial presentation with
    • A. 

      A. The Chief Security Forces.

    • B. 

      B. The Staff Judge Advocate.

    • C. 

      C. Witness to the Case.

    • D. 

      D. The Victim and Suspect.

  • 99. 
    A person who exercises control over property given to them for safekeeping may
    • A. 

      A. not give consent to search.

    • B. 

      B. grant consent to search that property.

    • C. 

      C. may give consent to their property only.

    • D. 

      D. may allow another person to grant consent.

  • 100. 
    Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and
    • A. 

      A. location of incident.

    • B. 

      B. other investigators name.

    • C. 

      C. time of interview.

    • D. 

      D. room number.