Security Forces CDC's Vol. 2

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| By Melitonr98

Melitonr98

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 922

| Attempts: 922

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1/100 Questions

What standard did the US Supreme court established for assessing use of force?
- A. Objective
- B. Subjective
- C. Reasonable
- D. Objective certainly

About This Quiz

Consider all choices carefully, select the best answer to each question.

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2.

The three essential areas that support "objective reasonableness" are subject action,
- A. Officer response, and force application
- B. Risk perception,and officer response
- C. force application, and level of force
- D. Risk perception, and level of force
Correct Answer

A. B. Risk perception,and officer response

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Risk perception and officer response. Risk perception refers to the officer's assessment of the threat or danger posed by the subject's actions. Officer response refers to the actions taken by the officer in response to the perceived risk. These two factors are essential in determining the "objective reasonableness" of the officer's actions, as they help to evaluate whether the officer's response was appropriate given the level of risk perceived.

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3.

You response to the base housing area to remove several solicitors. You advised them they can't solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave and they comply. What subject action level in the Use of Force Model is demonstrated to control the situation?
- A. Compliant
- B. Resistant (passive)
- C. Assualtive (bodily harm)
- D. Assaultive (serious bidily harm/death)
Correct Answer

A. A. Compliant

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Compliant." In this scenario, the individuals were soliciting in the base housing area, which is not allowed. When advised that they cannot solicit in base housing, they complied and left. This demonstrates a compliant subject action level in the Use of Force Model as the individuals willingly followed the instructions given to them.

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4.

Upon contact with the solicitor, you recieve proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action level is it?
- A. Verbal controls
- B. Neuromuscular controls
- C. Baton as a leverage device
- D. Military working dog (off leash)
Correct Answer

A. A. Verbal controls

Explanation

This scenario describes the use of verbal controls as the subject action level. The solicitor is asked to depart the base, and they comply with this instruction when they leave. Verbal controls refer to the use of verbal commands or instructions to manage a situation or control the behavior of individuals. In this case, the solicitor's compliance with the request to leave demonstrates the effectiveness of verbal controls in resolving the situation.

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5.

You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted area because he or she is not wearing a restricted area badge. What are the risk perception, subject action, and officer response levels?
- A. Professional perception, complaint, and cooperative controls
- B. Tactical perception, resistant(passive, and contact controls
- C. Threshold perception,resistant(active),and compliance techniques
- D. Harmful threat perception, assaultive(bodily harm), and defensive tactics.
Correct Answer

A. A. Professional perception, complaint, and cooperative controls
6.

Deadly force would be authorized to keep
- A. a fleeing thief from escaping
- B. someone from breaking into a house
- C. someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm
- D. a tradfic violator from fleeing out the installation gate
Correct Answer

A. C. someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm

Explanation

Deadly force would be authorized to prevent someone from killing you or causing serious bodily harm. In situations where there is a direct threat to one's life or safety, the use of deadly force may be necessary to protect oneself. This can include situations where there is an imminent danger of being killed or seriously injured by another person. In such cases, the use of deadly force is considered justified as a means of self-defense.

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7.

Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources
- A. vital to security forces.
- B. vital to national security.
- C. important to the installation.
- D. important to a Major Command.
Correct Answer

A. B. vital to national security.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. vital to national security. This means that deadly force is authorized for the protection of military resources that are crucial for the overall security of the nation. These resources could include strategic assets, sensitive information, or critical infrastructure that, if compromised, could pose a significant threat to the country's national security.

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8.

Which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?
- A. Recovery of nuclear weapons.
- B. Keep someone from breaking into house.
- C. Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.
- D. Protect yourself from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.
Correct Answer

A. B. Keep someone from breaking into house.

Explanation

Using deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a house would not be authorized because it does not involve protecting oneself or others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm. While it is important to protect one's property, it does not justify the use of deadly force unless there is a threat to life or safety. Deadly force should only be used as a last resort when there is no other reasonable alternative to prevent death or serious harm.

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9.

You should response to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M-4 rifle at port arms, with the safety selector on
- A. safe and your finger not in the trigger guard.
- B. fire, and your finger not in the trigger guard.
- C. safe, and your finger in the trigger guard.
- D. fire, and your finger in the trigger guard.
Correct Answer

A. A. safe and your finger not in the trigger guard.

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is a. safe and your finger not in the trigger guard. This is because when encountering an armed adversary, it is important to prioritize safety and readiness. Keeping the safety selector on safe ensures that the rifle is not accidentally discharged. Additionally, keeping your finger outside the trigger guard minimizes the risk of unintentionally pulling the trigger and firing the weapon. This stance demonstrates a responsible and cautious approach to handling the M-4 rifle in a potentially dangerous situation.

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10.

Once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area, area first action is to
- A. Initiate the verbal challenge by loudly commanding HALT.
- B. Bring your weapon to the raise pistol position and command STOP
- C. Notify SFC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post.
- D. Take cover, charge your weapon and bring it to post arms,and loudly shout HALT.
Correct Answer

A. C. Notify SFC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Notify SFC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post. This is the most appropriate action to take when detecting an unidentified individual inside a restricted area. Notifying the SFC (Security Force Controller) or MSC (Main Security Center) allows for immediate response and coordination of efforts to address the situation effectively. It ensures that the appropriate authorities are informed and can take necessary actions to handle the security breach.

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11.

When challenging individual on foot, place the individuals in the final challenge position, instruct them to remove and place their credentials on the grounds, and command them to turn around and walk how many paces away from the credentials?
- A. 3
- B. 5
- C. 7
- D. 9
Correct Answer

A. B. 5

Explanation

When challenging an individual on foot, they are instructed to remove and place their credentials on the ground and then turn around. The question asks how many paces the individual should walk away from their credentials. The correct answer is b. 5, which means the individual should walk 5 paces away from their credentials.

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12.

What is the decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals based upon?
- A. Level of cooperation of suspect.
- B. Certain rules and defines criteria.
- C. Whether the person has a weapon.
- D. Sound professional judgement and facts of a specific incident.
Correct Answer

A. D. Sound professional judgement and facts of a specific incident.

Explanation

The decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals is based on sound professional judgement and the facts of a specific incident. This means that law enforcement officers must assess the situation and consider factors such as the behavior and cooperation of the suspect, any defined criteria or rules that may apply, whether the person has a weapon, and any other relevant information. Ultimately, the decision to handcuff or not is made based on the officer's experience, training, and the specific circumstances of the incident.

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13.

How can you prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuff?
- A. Apply the handcuff very tighly to restrict movement.
- B. Lock both handcuffs after applying them on the suspect.
- C. Loop the cuffs through the front of the belt just below the smll of the back.
- D. Loop the cuff through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of his or her back.
Correct Answer

A. D. Loop the cuff through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of his or her back.

Explanation

Looping the handcuff through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of their back prevents them from stepping through the handcuff by restricting their movement. This method adds an extra layer of security and ensures that the suspect cannot easily free themselves from the handcuffs.

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14.

The type of suspect best suited for a prone search is one who
- A. Is cooperative.
- B. Is bigger than you.
- C. doesn't speak English.
- D. Is physically impaired.
Correct Answer

A. D. Is physically impaired.

Explanation

A prone search is a technique used by law enforcement to search a suspect who is lying face down on the ground. This position restricts the suspect's mobility and makes it easier for the officer to maintain control during the search. A suspect who is physically impaired, such as someone with a physical disability or injury, would likely have limited mobility and may not be able to resist or flee effectively, making them an ideal candidate for a prone search.

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15.

When using the one hand grab breakaway technique, in STEP 1 you spread the spread the finger wide apart, and rotate our thumb hand how many degree over the suspect's hand?
- A. 45
- B. 90
- C. 120
- D. 180
Correct Answer

A. D. 180

Explanation

In the one hand grab breakaway technique, in STEP 1, you spread the fingers wide apart and rotate your thumb hand 180 degrees over the suspect's hand. This rotation allows for a secure grip and provides leverage to break free from the suspect's grasp.

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16.

Upon what is your decision to apprehend based?
- A. Circumstances
- B. Suspect's activity
- C. Probable cause
- D. Reasonable doudt
Correct Answer

A. C. Probable cause

Explanation

The decision to apprehend is based on probable cause, which means that there is enough evidence or information to suggest that a crime has been committed or is about to be committed. This standard is higher than mere suspicion but lower than beyond a reasonable doubt, which is required for a conviction. Probable cause is necessary to justify the arrest of a suspect and is often determined by evaluating the circumstances and the suspect's activity.

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17.

What are the two most important factors to keep in mind when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension?
- A. Suspect's position and attitude.
- B. Your position and attitude.
- C. Assisting members overwatch position.
- D. Your position and availablecover and concealment.
Correct Answer

A. A. Suspect's position and attitude.

Explanation

When approaching a suspect to make an apprehension, it is crucial to consider the suspect's position and attitude. The suspect's position refers to their physical location and proximity to you, which can affect the safety and effectiveness of the apprehension. Their attitude, on the other hand, refers to their behavior and demeanor, which can indicate their level of cooperation or potential resistance. Understanding both factors helps law enforcement officers assess the situation, determine the appropriate approach, and take necessary precautions to ensure a successful and safe apprehension.

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18.

The IKKYO grip is aplied with two directions of pressure. In STEP 3 you apply downward pressure to the elbow with your weak hand while rotating the elbow joint
- A. Forward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand.
- B. Reaward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand.
- C. Inward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand.
- D. Outward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand.
Correct Answer

A. B. Reaward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand.

Explanation

The IKKYO grip is applied with two directions of pressure. In STEP 3, you apply downward pressure to the elbow with your weak hand while rotating the elbow joint. The correct answer, "Reaward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand," suggests that the pressure is applied in a backward direction while also pushing inward on the suspect's hand. This explanation aligns with the given information about the IKKYO grip and the specific action described in STEP 3.

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19.

In STEP 2 of the standing arm bar, what do you place into the small of the suspect's back as you move your inside foot to the rear of the suspects feet and step to the left/right?
- A. shoulder
- B. forearm.
- C. elbow
- D. hand
Correct Answer

A. C. elbow

Explanation

In the standing arm bar technique, as the inside foot moves to the rear of the suspect's feet and steps to the left/right, the elbow is placed into the small of the suspect's back. This helps to control and immobilize the suspect by applying pressure and leverage on their upper body. Placing the elbow in this position provides stability and control during the maneuver.

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20.

To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep suspect's
- A. elbow extended out toward the ground
- B. arm straight and toward the ground
- C. elbow parallel to the ground
- D. arm parallel to the ground
Correct Answer

A. D. arm parallel to the ground

Explanation

When applying the IKKYO takedown, it is important to keep the suspect's arm parallel to the ground. This position allows for better control and leverage during the takedown, reducing the risk of injury to both the suspect and the person applying the technique. By keeping the arm parallel to the ground, the force exerted during the takedown is distributed more evenly, making it easier to control the suspect's movements and ensure a safer takedown.

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21.

The baton primarily is used as what type of weapon?
- A. Non-physical.
- B. Psychological.
- C. Impact
- D. Lethal
Correct Answer

A. C. Impact

Explanation

The baton is primarily used as an impact weapon. It is a long, cylindrical tool usually made of metal or wood, and it is used by law enforcement officers and security personnel to deliver strikes and control combative individuals. The baton's main purpose is to create impact force, allowing the user to subdue or incapacitate an attacker without causing lethal harm.

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22.

For how many minutes can the effects and symtoms of OC pepper spray last when left untreated?
- A. 15
- B. 30
- C. 45
- D. 90
Correct Answer

A. C. 45

Explanation

The effects and symptoms of OC pepper spray can last for up to 45 minutes when left untreated. This includes intense burning pain, temporary blindness, difficulty breathing, and inflammation of the skin and eyes. It is important to seek immediate treatment and rinse the affected area with water to alleviate the symptoms.

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23.

For rifle fighting techniques to be effective they must be applied with
- A. suprise and accuracy
- B. speed and accuracy
- C. speed and surprise
- D. speed and quickness
Correct Answer

A. C. speed and surprise

Explanation

Rifle fighting techniques need to be applied with speed and surprise in order to be effective. Speed allows the shooter to quickly react and engage the target, while surprise catches the opponent off guard, giving the shooter an advantage. By combining these two elements, the shooter can effectively execute their techniques and increase their chances of success in a rifle fight.

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24.

Which rifle fighting technique is used to disarmed an opponent?
- A. Slash
- B. Smash
- C. Thrust
- D. Butt stroke
Correct Answer

A. D. Butt stroke

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Butt stroke. The butt stroke is a rifle fighting technique used to disarm an opponent. It involves striking the opponent with the butt of the rifle, which can be a powerful and effective way to incapacitate them and take control of the situation. This technique is often used in close quarters combat or when the opponent is too close for other methods of attack.

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25.

What is an example of a rough grid coordinate?
- A. 3/B
- B. B/3
- C. E3/4.2
- D. 4.2/E3
Correct Answer

A. A. 3/B

Explanation

An example of a rough grid coordinate is "3/B". This format follows the convention of using a number followed by a letter to represent a specific location on a grid. The number indicates the vertical position, while the letter represents the horizontal position. In this case, "3" refers to the vertical position and "B" refers to the horizontal position.

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26.

What is an incident involving nuclear weapons?
- A. Broken Arrow
- B. Bent Spear
- C. Dull Sword
- D. Nucflash
Correct Answer

A. B. Bent Spear

Explanation

An incident involving nuclear weapons is referred to as a "Bent Spear." This term is used to describe situations where there are accidents, mishaps, or errors related to the handling, storage, transportation, or deployment of nuclear weapons. It can include incidents such as unauthorized movement, loss, damage, or any other situation that may compromise the safety and security of nuclear weapons.

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27.

The intial Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters is notified of a grave situation by the
- A. security reporting and alerting system
- B. intra-base disaster notification system
- C. base's estaablished notification direction
- D. accident response force telephone system
Correct Answer

A. C. base's estaablished notification direction

Explanation

The correct answer is c. base's established notification direction. This means that the initial Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters are notified of a grave situation by following the established notification direction within the base. This implies that there is a predetermined protocol or procedure in place for notifying the relevant authorities in case of a serious situation.

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28.

How are withdrawal actions accomplished at the scene of a major disaster?
- A. Downwind or crosswind direction
- B. Downwind and upwind direction
- C. Upwind or crosswind direction
- D. As fast as possible
Correct Answer

A. C. Upwind or crosswind direction

Explanation

Withdrawal actions at the scene of a major disaster are accomplished by moving in the upwind or crosswind direction. This is done to avoid exposure to hazardous materials or dangerous conditions, such as smoke, fumes, or debris, that may be present at the scene. Moving in the upwind or crosswind direction helps to minimize the risk of inhaling harmful substances or being affected by the disaster's impact.

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29.

What major incident phase is a complex and time-consuming operatio?
- A. Notification
- B. Withdrawal
- C. Response
- D. Recovery
Correct Answer

A. D. Recovery

Explanation

The major incident phase that is complex and time-consuming is the recovery phase. This phase involves restoring the affected systems, processes, and infrastructure to their normal state after an incident has occurred. It requires extensive planning, coordination, and resources to recover from the incident and minimize the impact on the organization. The recovery phase may involve activities such as data restoration, system repairs, and implementing preventive measures to avoid future incidents.

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30.

What is the cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons?
- A. 1500 feet
- B. 2000 feet
- C. 1500 feet upwind and crosswind and 1 mile downwind
- D. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind and 1 mile downwind
Correct Answer

A. B. 2000 feet

Explanation

The cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons is 2000 feet. This means that an area with a radius of 2000 feet around the accident site needs to be cordoned off for safety purposes. This distance is necessary to protect people from the potential hazards and risks associated with nuclear weapons accidents.

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31.

What is the size of an accident involving biological agent?
- A. 1500 feet upwind and crosswind
- B. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind
- C. 1500 feet upwind and crosswind and 1.5 miles downwind
- D. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind and 1.5 miles downwind
Correct Answer

A. B. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind
32.

Regardless of the size, who establishes and control on-base cordons?
- A. SF personnel
- B. Fire Chief
- C. On scene commander
- D. Installation commander
Correct Answer

A. A. SF personnel

Explanation

SF personnel refers to Security Forces personnel, who are responsible for establishing and controlling on-base cordons regardless of their size. They are trained and equipped to handle security matters and maintain order within military installations. This includes setting up cordons to restrict access to certain areas, conducting security checks, and ensuring the safety and security of the base and its personnel. The Fire Chief, on scene commander, and installation commander may have their respective roles and responsibilities, but establishing and controlling on-base cordons falls under the purview of SF personnel.

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33.

One of the primary Air Force goal in dealing with high-risk situation is to
- A. let the FBI or CIA take charge and the situation
- B. prevent or minimize loss of life and property
- C. nuetralize the perpetrators using deadly force.
- D. not yield to civilian authorities
Correct Answer

A. B. prevent or minimize loss of life and property

Explanation

The primary goal of the Air Force in dealing with high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize the loss of life and property. This means that their main focus is on ensuring the safety and security of individuals and their belongings. By prioritizing this goal, the Air Force aims to mitigate any potential harm or damage that may occur during these situations.

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34.

What is the lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occurring off the installation?
- A. Federal Bureau of Investigation
- B. Air Office of Special Intalligence.
- C. Central Intalligence Agency
- D. Department of Justice
Correct Answer

A. A. Federal Bureau of Investigation

Explanation

The lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occurring off the installation is the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI). The FBI is the primary federal law enforcement agency in the United States and has jurisdiction over counterterrorism investigations. They work closely with other agencies and departments to gather intelligence, conduct investigations, and apprehend individuals involved in terrorist activities. Their expertise and resources make them the appropriate agency to handle terrorist incidents occurring outside of military installations.

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35.

The principle method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation is through the use of
- A. trained negotiators
- B. swat teams
- C. special operation
- D. nuclear weapons
Correct Answer

A. A. trained negotiators

Explanation

Trained negotiators are the most effective method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation. They possess the skills and expertise needed to communicate and negotiate with individuals involved in the situation, de-escalating tensions and finding a mutually agreeable solution. Their ability to listen, empathize, and understand the underlying issues allows them to build trust and rapport, increasing the likelihood of a peaceful resolution. In contrast, swat teams, special operations, and nuclear weapons are not designed for peaceful resolutions and are typically used in more extreme and dangerous situations.

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36.

Once the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene established by Security Forces personnel, who is allowed inside?
- A. Medical emergency services personnel
- B. Base fire department personnel
- C. Negotiation teams
- D. Base chaplin
Correct Answer

A. C. Negotiation teams

Explanation

After the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene is established by Security Forces personnel, negotiation teams are allowed inside. This is because negotiation teams are trained to communicate and negotiate with individuals involved in the high-risk situation, such as hostage takers or barricaded suspects. Their presence is crucial in attempting to peacefully resolve the situation and ensure the safety of everyone involved. Medical emergency services personnel, base fire department personnel, and the base chaplain may have important roles in other aspects of the incident response, but they are not specifically trained for negotiation and therefore would not be allowed inside the inner perimeter.

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37.

What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident called?
- A. Abuse
- B. Neglect
- C. Abandonment
- D. Domestic Violence
Correct Answer

A. A. Abuse

Explanation

Physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident, is commonly referred to as abuse. Abuse can take various forms, such as physical, emotional, sexual, or even financial. It involves intentionally causing harm or distress to another person, often with the intention of exerting power and control over them. This can occur in various settings, including domestic relationships, institutions, or even within communities. It is important to recognize and address abuse to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals affected by it.

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38.

Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is
- A. abuse
- B. neglect
- C. abandonment
- D. domestic violence
Correct Answer

A. B. neglect

Explanation

Neglect refers to the failure of providing a child with the basic necessities of life. It involves the lack of proper care, supervision, and attention to a child's physical, emotional, and educational needs. Neglect can include not providing adequate food, clothing, shelter, medical care, or emotional support. It is different from abuse, which involves intentional harm or violence towards a child. Abandonment refers to the act of deserting or leaving a child without proper care or support. Domestic violence is a separate issue that involves violence or abuse within a family or household.

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39.

What form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension?
- A. AF form 3545, incident Report
- B. AF form 1364, Consent for search and seizure
- C. Af form 1168, statement of suspect/witness/complainant
- D. AF form 1176, authority to search and seize
Correct Answer

A. A. AF form 3545, incident Report

Explanation

The correct answer is a. AF form 3545, incident Report. This form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension because it is used to document the details of the incident, including the nature of the apprehension, the individuals involved, and any evidence or property seized. It serves as an official record of the incident and is used for investigative and legal purposes.

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40.

Before conducting a vehicle search, you must have probable cause,
- A. suspect, search authority, and the owners consent.
- B. suspect, and consent of the person controlling vehicle.
- C. proper search authority, and written consent of the person driving vehicle
- D. proper search authority, and consent of the person controlling vehicle.
Correct Answer

A. D. proper search authority, and consent of the person controlling vehicle.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. proper search authority, and consent of the person controlling vehicle. This answer is correct because before conducting a vehicle search, it is necessary to have proper search authority, which could be obtained through a search warrant or other legal authorization. Additionally, consent from the person who has control over the vehicle is also required. This means that if the driver or person in charge of the vehicle does not give consent, the search cannot be conducted.

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41.

Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas?
- A. Concentric circle
- B. Item-to-item
- C. Zone or sector
- D. Strip and grid
Correct Answer

A. D. Strip and grid

Explanation

Strip and grid search method is often used in large outdoor areas because it allows for systematic coverage of the area. This method involves dividing the search area into strips or grids and thoroughly searching each strip or grid before moving on to the next one. It is an efficient way to ensure that no area is missed during the search and is commonly used in search and rescue operations, law enforcement, and exploration activities.

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42.

What must evidence be to be admissible in court?
- A. Real and relevant.
- B. Relevant and direct.
- C. Direct and competent.
- D. Competent and relevant
Correct Answer

A. D. Competent and relevant

Explanation

Evidence must be both competent and relevant to be admissible in court. Competent evidence means that it is legally acceptable and meets the requirements set by the rules of evidence. Relevant evidence means that it is directly related to the case and has the potential to prove or disprove a fact in question. Both competency and relevance are essential criteria for evidence to be considered admissible in court.

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43.

What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it?
- A. Just wipe your prints off.
- B. Disregard it completely.
- C. Inform your supervisor or leader.
- D. Record it in your notes and report.
Correct Answer

A. D. Record it in your notes and report.

Explanation

If you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it, the correct course of action is to record it in your notes and report it. This is important because it ensures that there is a record of your interaction with the evidence and allows for transparency and accountability in the investigation process. By reporting it, you are providing accurate information about the potential contamination of the evidence, which can be crucial in maintaining the integrity of the investigation.

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44.

What type of barrier is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/framentation around entry control piont and approach avenues?
- A. Sandbags.
- B. Earth-filled barriers.
- C. Jersey and Bitburg barriers.
- D. Water or sand filled plastic barriers.
Correct Answer

A. C. Jersey and Bitburg barriers.

Explanation

Jersey and Bitburg barriers are typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues. These barriers are made of concrete and are designed to provide protection and prevent unauthorized access. They are commonly used in military and security applications to enhance perimeter security and control access points.

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45.

Which is an example of a protection level 1 (PL1) resource?
- A. Non-nuclear alert forces
- B. C4 systems of active nuclear mission
- C. Selected C3 facilities, systems,and equipment
- D. Fuels and Liquids Oxygen storage areas.
Correct Answer

A. B. C4 systems of active nuclear mission

Explanation

The correct answer is b. C4 systems of active nuclear mission. This is an example of a protection level 1 (PL1) resource because it involves the control and communication systems used in active nuclear missions. These systems are critical for the success and safety of nuclear missions, and therefore require the highest level of protection.

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46.

Secure PL1 resources by
- A. providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.
- B. posting sentries when IDS is not installed or operational.
- C. ensuring proper trining of assigned personnel.
- D. posting external response force elements.
Correct Answer

A. A. providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area. This means that in order to secure PL1 resources, there should be specific response elements assigned to the task of protecting the resources both inside and outside the restricted area. This ensures that there is a dedicated team responsible for responding to any threats or breaches, both within and around the restricted area, providing a comprehensive security approach.

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47.

What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn't fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or a military department?
- A. Controlled.
- B. Restricted.
- C. Disaster response.
- D. National Defense.
Correct Answer

A. D. National Defense.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. National Defense. This type of area refers to federal government resources that are located off military lands and are not under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense (DOD) or any military department. These resources are specifically related to national defense and are managed separately from military operations.

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48.

Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes?
- A. Security Forces Investigations.
- B. Office Special Investigation.
- C. Installation Security Council.
- D. Resource Protection Committee.
Correct Answer

A. B. Office Special Investigation.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Office Special Investigation. This agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes.

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49.

What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibits on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at atleast a 0.10 BAC?
- A. 2.
- B. 4.
- C. 6.
- D. 8.
Correct Answer

A. A. 2.

Explanation

The minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at least a 0.10 BAC is 2. This suggests that there are specific indicators or behaviors that are commonly associated with a high level of alcohol intoxication, and if a suspect displays at least 2 of these clues during the test, it can be considered as evidence of impairment.

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Oct 06, 2011

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Security Forces CDC's Vol. 2

What standard did the US Supreme court established for assessing use of force?

Quiz Preview

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Secure PL1 resources by

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Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes?

What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibits on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at atleast a 0.10 BAC?