3P071 Volume EOC UREs 2017
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Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
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Flight member.
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Flight supervisor.
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Flight commander.
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Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Supply.
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UREs directly out of Volume 1 and 2 Security Forces 3P071 CDCs
Quiz Preview
- 2.
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
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Analysis.
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Feedback.
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Evaluation.
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Cross-feed.
Correct Answer
A. Feedback.Explanation
Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it allows them to receive information about their performance, decisions, and actions. Feedback provides valuable insights and perspectives from others, enabling commanders to identify areas of improvement, make informed decisions, and enhance their leadership skills. It helps them understand the impact of their actions on their subordinates, the mission, and overall effectiveness. By utilizing feedback, commanders can continuously learn, adapt, and improve their decision-making processes, ultimately leading to better outcomes and success in their roles.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
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Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.
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Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller.
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Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions.
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Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty.
Correct Answer
A. Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.Explanation
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This process ensures that individuals are adequately qualified and capable of carrying out their assigned duties effectively. It helps to assess the skills, knowledge, and experience of individuals and ensures that only qualified individuals are selected for specific duty positions.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?
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Deep cuts.
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Bloody nose.
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Fractured bones.
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Damaged internal organs.
Correct Answer
A. Bloody nose.Explanation
A bloody nose is not considered grievous bodily harm because it is a common injury that does not typically cause serious or long-term harm. Deep cuts, fractured bones, and damaged internal organs, on the other hand, can result in severe pain, disability, or even death.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminaryinvestigation search the scene?
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It allows for additional flight members to gain experience.
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It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training.
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It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.
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It could possibly destroy your hard work, contaminate the scene, and violate the chain of evidence requirements.
Correct Answer
A. It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.Explanation
Having a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it allows for a fresh perspective. This patrolman will not have any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects, which can help in identifying important evidence or details that may have been overlooked. Additionally, this approach helps to ensure that the integrity of the crime scene is maintained, as involving someone who is not directly involved in the investigation reduces the risk of contaminating the scene or violating chain of evidence requirements.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
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As long as it takes to obtain a confession.
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No more than 30 minutes.
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No more than 60 minutes.
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There is no time limit.
Correct Answer
A. There is no time limit.Explanation
The correct answer is "There is no time limit." This means that there is no specific duration set for suspect interviews. The lack of a time limit allows law enforcement to conduct thorough investigations and gather all necessary information without feeling rushed or pressured to obtain a confession within a certain timeframe. This ensures that the interview process is fair and comprehensive.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?
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Physical barriers.
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Night vision device.
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Infrared imaging device.
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Closed-circuit television.
Correct Answer
A. Physical barriers.Explanation
Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders by creating obstacles and obstacles that make it difficult for them to access a secure area. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, locks, and other physical structures that prevent or slow down unauthorized entry. By delaying intruders, security forces have more time to assess the threat, classify it, and respond accordingly. Physical barriers also act as a deterrent, as they make it clear that unauthorized access is not easily achievable, which can discourage potential intruders from attempting to breach the security measures in place.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Range is given in what unit of measurement?
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Feet.
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Yards.
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Meters.
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Kilometers.
Correct Answer
A. Meters.Explanation
The correct answer is meters because meters is the most commonly used unit of measurement for range. Range is typically used to measure the distance between two points, and meters is the standard unit for measuring distance in the metric system. Feet, yards, and kilometers are also units of measurement for distance, but meters is the most widely used unit in scientific and everyday applications.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
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Code 1.
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Code 2.
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Code 3.
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Code 4.
Correct Answer
A. Code 4.Explanation
The given question asks for an alarm response code that is not included in the options. Among the given options, Code 4 is the only one that is not an alarm response code.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?
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The nature of the dispute.
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The location of the dispute.
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The responding patrol’s attitude.
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Whether or not children are present.
Correct Answer
A. The responding patrol’s attitude.Explanation
The attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute are determined by the responding patrol's attitude. The way the patrol handles the situation, communicates, and shows empathy can greatly influence the behavior and willingness of the individuals involved in the dispute to cooperate and resolve the issue amicably. A positive and respectful attitude from the patrol can help create a conducive environment for resolving the dispute peacefully. Conversely, a negative or confrontational attitude can escalate tensions and hinder cooperation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?
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Rape.
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Assault.
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Adultery.
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Child Abuse.
Correct Answer
A. Rape.Explanation
Rape is considered one of the most serious crimes that will be investigated, excluding homicide. It involves non-consensual sexual intercourse or penetration, which causes severe physical and psychological harm to the victim. Rape is a violent crime that violates a person's autonomy, dignity, and basic human rights. It is a grave offense that often leads to long-lasting trauma for the survivor. The investigation of rape cases requires careful examination of evidence, testimonies, and forensic analysis to ensure justice is served and the perpetrator is held accountable.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program?
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Mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim.
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Ensure best efforts are made to accord victims certain rights.
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Foster cooperation of victims and witnesses.
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Prosecute the accused.
Correct Answer
A. Prosecute the accused.Explanation
The Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program aims to support and assist victims and witnesses of crime. It focuses on mitigating the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim, ensuring that victims are accorded certain rights, and fostering their cooperation. However, prosecuting the accused is not considered an objective of the VWAP program. The program's main goal is to provide support and assistance to victims and witnesses, rather than focusing on the prosecution of the accused.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, orfootprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?
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It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.
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It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.
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It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.
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It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found faster.
Correct Answer
A. It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.Explanation
Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because the destruction or alteration of evidence can make it difficult to accurately reconstruct what happened at the scene. It may lead the investigator to make incorrect assumptions or miss important details, potentially leading to a flawed investigation and incorrect identification of suspects.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?
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It allows photographs to be taken.
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It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene.
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It allows responding patrols to better piece together events.
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It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found.
Correct Answer
A. It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found.Explanation
Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because any changes or disturbances to the crime scene could potentially compromise the evidence and hinder the investigation. By preserving the scene, the investigator can gather accurate information, identify potential leads, and make informed decisions based on the evidence collected. This ensures that the investigation is thorough and increases the chances of successfully solving the crime.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?
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Speaking to the witnesses.
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Consulting with the defense counsel.
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Arranging and reviewing original notes.
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Returning to the crime scene to recall the events.
Correct Answer
A. Arranging and reviewing original notes.Explanation
Arranging and reviewing original notes aids in recalling all the details of the case prior to the trial. This process allows the individual to organize and refresh their memory by going through the written records and evidence collected during the investigation. It helps to ensure that all the relevant information is properly understood and can be effectively presented during the trial. Speaking to the witnesses, consulting with the defense counsel, and returning to the crime scene may also provide additional insights, but the most reliable and comprehensive source of information would be the original notes.Rate this question:
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- 16.
“To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders” is the mission of the
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Army.
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Navy.
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Air Force.
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Marine Corps.
Correct Answer
A. Army.Explanation
The given statement describes the mission of the Army, which is to fight and win the nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across all military operations and conflicts. This aligns with the Army's primary role of land warfare and its responsibility to support combatant commanders in various operations. The Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps have their own distinct missions and roles within the military, but this statement specifically pertains to the Army.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the Navy’s largest formation?
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Fleet.
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Flotilla.
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Task Force.
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Strike Group.
Correct Answer
A. Fleet.Explanation
The Navy's largest formation is called a fleet. A fleet is a large group of naval vessels, including aircraft carriers, submarines, destroyers, and support ships, that are organized and deployed together for specific missions or operations. Fleets are typically commanded by an admiral and are responsible for maintaining maritime security, projecting power, and conducting military operations in a specific region or theater of operations.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
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Non-state-supported.
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State-supported.
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State-organized.
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Stated-directed.
Correct Answer
A. State-supported.Explanation
The term "state-supported" refers to a terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments. This means that the group is not directly controlled or organized by the government, but it receives assistance, whether it be financial, logistical, or other forms of support. The term "non-state-supported" would imply that the group does not receive any support from governments, which is not the case here. "State-organized" and "state-directed" suggest a higher level of control and involvement by the government, which is not indicated in the question. Therefore, the most appropriate term is "state-supported."Rate this question:
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- 19.
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
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Arson.
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Bombing.
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Hijacking.
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Assassination.
Correct Answer
A. Bombing.Explanation
Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic to cause destruction and fear. Bombs can be easily hidden or remotely detonated, making them a preferred choice for inflicting damage on a large scale. Bombings can target public spaces, transportation systems, or specific individuals, aiming to create chaos, casualties, and widespread panic. This tactic has been employed by various terrorist organizations worldwide, leading to numerous devastating attacks in history.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?
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Post rotations.
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Specialized courses.
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Recognition program.
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Providing time off.
Correct Answer
A. Post rotations.Explanation
Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows for a change in duties and responsibilities, preventing monotony and burnout among the team members. This also provides an opportunity for individuals to learn new skills and gain valuable experience in different areas, which can boost morale and motivation. Additionally, post rotations promote a sense of fairness and equal opportunities within the team, fostering a positive and supportive work environment.Rate this question:
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- 21.
“All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked” means that they
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All must have SF badges applied to both the front doors.
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All must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios.
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Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.
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All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a military working dog (MWD).
Correct Answer
A. Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.Explanation
The correct answer is "must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system." This means that all permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles are required to have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system installed. These features are essential for SF vehicles to effectively respond to emergencies, communicate with the public, and maintain safety and security.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun?
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Hinges.
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Door knob.
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Locking mechanism.
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Center mass of the door.
Correct Answer
A. Center mass of the door.Explanation
The center mass of the door is not considered a target point for entry when using a shotgun. When using a shotgun to breach a door, the target points are typically the hinges, door knob, and locking mechanism. These target points are vulnerable and can be easily damaged or destroyed by shotgun rounds, allowing for entry into the room or building. The center mass of the door, on the other hand, is a solid area and shooting it would not likely result in successful entry.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the
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Threat.
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Fast wall.
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Unknown.
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Strong wall.
Correct Answer
A. Unknown.Explanation
When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the unknown. This means that you should always be prepared and ready to engage any potential threat that may be present in the room. By keeping your weapons oriented towards the unknown, you are maintaining a high level of readiness and ensuring that you can quickly respond to any danger that may arise. This is a crucial tactic in situations where there may be potential threats lurking in the room, as it allows you to maintain control and react swiftly if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander’s rules for
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Mission requirements.
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National policy goals.
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The use of force.
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The rule of law.
Correct Answer
A. The use of force.Explanation
ROE, or Rules of Engagement, refer to the guidelines and directives that govern the use of force by military personnel in a given situation. These rules are established by the commander and outline the circumstances under which force can be used, the level of force that is permissible, and any restrictions or limitations that apply. The correct answer, "the use of force," aligns with the purpose and scope of ROE, which is to provide clear instructions on when and how force can be employed during military operations.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certainlocations?
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Supervisor.
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Flight Sergeant.
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Response force leader.
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Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)/Assistant NCOIC.
Correct Answer
A. Flight Sergeant.Explanation
In certain locations, the duty of Flight Sergeant is available.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Post priority charts are used to
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Allocate vehicles.
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Allocate manpower.
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Determine post rotations.
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Determine weapon configurations.
Correct Answer
A. Allocate manpower.Explanation
Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that these charts are used to assign and distribute the available workforce to different positions or tasks based on their priority. By using post priority charts, organizations can effectively manage and optimize their human resources by ensuring that the right people are assigned to the right positions at the right time, considering factors such as skills, experience, and availability.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain
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Proficiency.
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Discipline.
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Fairness.
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Control.
Correct Answer
A. Proficiency.Explanation
Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified ensures that they gain experience and expertise in different roles, thus maintaining proficiency. This practice allows individuals to develop a well-rounded skill set and prevents them from becoming too specialized or complacent in a single position. By regularly exposing personnel to different tasks and responsibilities, organizations can enhance their overall efficiency and effectiveness. This approach also fosters adaptability and versatility among the workforce, enabling them to handle various challenges and situations with ease.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?
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Work center.
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Position number.
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Air Force specialty code.
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Report No Later than Date.
Correct Answer
A. Report No Later than Date.Explanation
The unit manning document is a record that tracks the personnel assigned to a specific unit. It includes information such as work center, position number, and Air Force specialty code. The "Report No Later than Date" is not a personnel-related information and therefore is not tracked on the unit manning document.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The T-formation is best suited for what environment?
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Intersecting hallways.
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Narrow hallways.
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Wider hallways.
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Stairwells.
Correct Answer
A. Wider hallways.Explanation
The T-formation is best suited for wider hallways because it allows for better visibility and maneuverability. In wider hallways, there is more space for the person in the T-formation to see and react to any potential threats or obstacles. Additionally, wider hallways provide enough room for the person in the T-formation to move and adjust their position as needed. Narrow hallways may restrict visibility and movement, making it more difficult for the person in the T-formation to navigate effectively. Intersecting hallways and stairwells may also pose challenges in terms of visibility and maneuverability.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?
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Seek Defense Force Commander (DFC) advice.
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Seek Area Defense Counsel (ADC) advice.
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Seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice.
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Question them with a witness.
Correct Answer
A. Seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice.Explanation
When questioning a juvenile, if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner, it is recommended to seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on the proper procedures and protocols to follow when questioning a juvenile without parental presence. They can ensure that the questioning is conducted in a legally appropriate and fair manner, protecting the rights of the juvenile.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?
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Agent activity.
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Sympathizers.
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Terrorists.
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Partisans.
Correct Answer
A. Terrorists.Explanation
Terrorists are defined as individuals or small groups who engage in violent activities using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices. They aim to create fear and panic among the general public for political, religious, or ideological reasons.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Supervisors must ensure their troops
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Have food and water.
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Possess required qualifications and certifications.
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Are supplied with weapons and required equipment.
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Are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.
Correct Answer
A. Possess required qualifications and certifications.Explanation
The correct answer is "possess required qualifications and certifications." Supervisors have the responsibility to make sure that their troops have the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles. This ensures that the troops are competent and capable of performing their duties effectively. By possessing the required qualifications and certifications, the troops are better equipped to handle their responsibilities and contribute to the overall success of the mission or task at hand.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?
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Issue paperwork.
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Verbally counsel the subordinate.
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Investigate to determine the cause.
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Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Investigate to determine the cause.Explanation
When a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This allows for a thorough understanding of the underlying issues that may be contributing to the poor performance. By identifying the cause, appropriate actions can be taken to address the problem effectively. This approach helps in finding a solution that may involve training, guidance, or support to improve the subordinate's performance, rather than simply issuing paperwork or assigning a new supervisor.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is not a category for the status of funds?
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Committed.
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Obligated.
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End of year.
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Uncommitted.
Correct Answer
A. End of year.Explanation
The status of funds can be categorized as committed, obligated, or uncommitted. "End of year" is not a category for the status of funds. This term refers to a specific time period rather than a category that describes the status of funds.Rate this question:
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- 35.
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
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Habitual offender.
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Psychotic offender.
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First time offender.
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Professional offender.
Correct Answer
A. Habitual offender.Explanation
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a habitual offender. This term is used to describe someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without remorse or guilt. They have a pattern of committing offenses and show no signs of changing their behavior. Unlike a first-time offender who may be remorseful and learn from their mistake, a habitual offender shows a lack of moral consciousness and continues to commit crimes without feeling any sense of wrongdoing. A psychotic offender refers to someone with a mental illness that affects their ability to understand right from wrong, while a professional offender refers to someone who commits crimes as a way of life or for financial gain.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential whentestifying?
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Skill, tact, poise, and self-assurance.
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Skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence.
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Skill, reliance, poise and self-confidence.
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Skill, cockiness, poise, and self-confidence.
Correct Answer
A. Skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence.Explanation
The personal attributes that are essential when testifying include skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence. These attributes are important for a witness to effectively communicate their testimony, maintain composure under pressure, and gain the trust and credibility of the audience. Skill refers to the ability to present information clearly and accurately. Tact involves being diplomatic and respectful in one's interactions. Poise refers to maintaining a calm and composed demeanor. Self-confidence is necessary to project credibility and conviction in one's testimony.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The technique that requires great patience is movement with
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Speed.
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Stealth.
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Purpose.
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Precision.
Correct Answer
A. Stealth.Explanation
The technique that requires great patience is stealth. Stealth involves moving slowly and quietly, taking careful and deliberate steps to avoid being detected. This requires a lot of patience as it may take a long time to reach the desired destination without being noticed.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal?
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Raid.
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Ambush.
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Area reconnaissance.
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Zone reconnaissance.
Correct Answer
A. Raid.Explanation
A raid is a type of patrol that involves conducting attacks on a position or installation and then withdrawing according to a pre-planned strategy. This type of patrol is characterized by its swift and aggressive nature, aiming to cause damage or disruption to the enemy before retreating to avoid prolonged engagement. Ambush, area reconnaissance, and zone reconnaissance are not specifically focused on conducting attacks and planned withdrawals, making them incorrect choices for this question.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from
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M2s
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MK19s.
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Mortars.
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Team’s own weapons.
Correct Answer
A. Team’s own weapons.Explanation
In fire and maneuver operations, the maneuvering forces rely on their own weapons for fire support. This means that the team's own weapons, such as rifles, machine guns, and other small arms, are the primary source of firepower to suppress the enemy and provide cover for the maneuvering elements. This allows the team to maintain control and advance towards the objective while minimizing the need for external fire support from heavier weapons like M2s, MK19s, or mortars.Rate this question:
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- 40.
In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?
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Secondary.
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Standoff.
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Indirect.
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Direct.
Correct Answer
A. Direct.Explanation
In the direct fire control measure, the leader has direct control over the fire. This means that the leader is able to directly observe and adjust the fire, giving commands and making adjustments as necessary. This allows for more precise and immediate control over the fire, increasing the effectiveness and efficiency of the operation. In contrast, in indirect fire control measures, the leader does not have direct control over the fire and must rely on other methods such as maps, coordinates, or communication with other units.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level ofleadership?
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MSgt.
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CMSgt.
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SMSgt.
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SSgt and TSgt.
Correct Answer
A. SMSgt.Explanation
The correct answer is SMSgt. SMSgt stands for Senior Master Sergeant, which is a rank in the United States Air Force. At this rank, individuals are typically responsible for leading at the operational or strategic level. They have gained significant experience and expertise in their field and are trusted to make important decisions and provide guidance to lower-ranking personnel.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm?
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Supervisor.
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Commander.
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Servicing armory.
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Security Forces manager.
Correct Answer
A. Commander.Explanation
The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This implies that the commander has the authority and power to make decisions regarding the possession of firearms and can temporarily revoke this right if necessary. The supervisor, servicing armory, and security forces manager may have roles related to firearms, but they do not have the same level of authority as the commander in making decisions about temporarily withdrawing this right.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What drives a post priority chart?
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Vulnerability assessment.
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Inspector General (IG) assessment.
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Force protection conditions (FPCONs).
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Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.
Correct Answer
A. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.Explanation
The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment drives a post priority chart. This assessment helps identify and prioritize risks and vulnerabilities within a defense system. By conducting an IDRMP assessment, potential threats and vulnerabilities can be identified, allowing for effective risk management and resource allocation. This process ensures that the most critical areas are given the highest priority in terms of protection and mitigation efforts.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to
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Aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
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Track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
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Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
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Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
Correct Answer
A. Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.Explanation
The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the MWD is trained to discourage potential intruders from entering the area, identify and locate any intruders that do enter, and physically restrain them if necessary. By performing these tasks, the MWD helps to maintain the security and safety of Air Force resources.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is
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Apprehension or release.
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Pepper spray or gunfire.
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Resistance or restraint.
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Gunfire or escape.
Correct Answer
A. Gunfire or escape.Explanation
Patrol dogs are considered a minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that using patrol dogs is seen as a less severe option compared to resorting to gunfire or allowing the suspect to escape. Patrol dogs can be used to apprehend and restrain individuals without causing serious harm, making them a preferable alternative in situations where using firearms or allowing the suspect to flee would be more dangerous or extreme.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which radio type can talk over great distances?
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Base station.
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Portable radio.
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Base station remote.
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Mobile two-way radio.
Correct Answer
A. Mobile two-way radio.Explanation
A mobile two-way radio is the correct answer because it is designed to communicate over long distances. Unlike a base station or base station remote, which are typically used for local communication within a limited range, a mobile two-way radio has more power and better antenna systems, allowing it to transmit and receive signals over greater distances. Additionally, a portable radio is not as powerful as a mobile two-way radio and is generally used for shorter range communication.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which is not a designated PL1 resource?
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Nuclear weapons.
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Senior Executive Mission (SENEX) aircraft.
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Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States.
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Command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems.
Correct Answer
A. Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States.Explanation
The correct answer is "Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States." This option is not a designated PL1 resource because it refers to a specific aircraft used for a specific purpose, rather than a broad category of resources like nuclear weapons, SENEX aircraft, or C4 systems. The other options are all examples of designated PL1 resources, which are typically related to military operations and national security.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users areprimarily responsible for security?
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PL4.
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PL3.
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PL2.
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PL1.
Correct Answer
A. PL4.Explanation
PL4 is the correct answer because it is the highest protection level assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security. PL4 indicates that the owner/users have implemented the most stringent security measures to protect the area.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming?
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Recovery phase.
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Response phase.
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Notification phase.
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Withdrawal phase.
Correct Answer
A. Recovery phase.Explanation
The recovery phase is the most complex and time-consuming major accident response phase because it involves the restoration of normal operations and the repair of any damage caused by the accident. This phase requires coordination between various stakeholders, such as emergency responders, insurance companies, and government agencies, to ensure that all necessary actions are taken to recover from the incident. It may involve extensive cleanup, rebuilding, and financial negotiations, making it a challenging and lengthy process.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Sep 24, 2017Quiz Created by
Jorge111
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