3P071 Volume EOC UREs 2017

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3P071 Volume EOC UREs 2017 - Quiz

UREs directly out of Volume 1 and 2 Security Forces 3P071 CDCs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the most rigorous stage of development? 

    • A.

      SrA.

    • B.

      MSgt.

    • C.

      SSgt and TSgt.

    • D.

      Amn and A1C.

    Correct Answer
    D. Amn and A1C.
    Explanation
    The most rigorous stage of development is Amn and A1C because at this stage, individuals are new to the military and are required to undergo basic training and complete various courses to develop their skills and knowledge. They are also expected to adapt to the military culture and discipline, which can be physically and mentally demanding. This stage sets the foundation for their future development and prepares them for higher ranks and responsibilities.

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  • 2. 

    Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty? 

    • A.

      Patrol leader.

    • B.

      Squad leader.

    • C.

      Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller.

    • D.

      Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT) Leader.

    Correct Answer
    B. Squad leader.
    Explanation
    A Senior Airman (SrA) is responsible for various duties and roles within the Air Force. They may serve as patrol leaders, BDOC controllers, or ISRT/ESRT leaders. However, a SrA typically does not hold the position of a squad leader. Squad leaders are usually higher-ranking individuals, such as Staff Sergeants or higher, who are responsible for leading and managing a squad of personnel. Therefore, the correct answer is squad leader.

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  • 3. 

    Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certainlocations? 

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Flight Sergeant.

    • C.

      Response force leader.

    • D.

      Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)/Assistant NCOIC.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight Sergeant.
    Explanation
    In certain locations, the duty of Flight Sergeant is available.

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  • 4. 

    What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level ofleadership? 

    • A.

      MSgt.

    • B.

      CMSgt.

    • C.

      SMSgt.

    • D.

      SSgt and TSgt.

    Correct Answer
    C. SMSgt.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SMSgt. SMSgt stands for Senior Master Sergeant, which is a rank in the United States Air Force. At this rank, individuals are typically responsible for leading at the operational or strategic level. They have gained significant experience and expertise in their field and are trusted to make important decisions and provide guidance to lower-ranking personnel.

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  • 5. 

    What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?

    • A.

      Tactical control.

    • B.

      Strategic control.

    • C.

      Operational control.

    • D.

      Administrative control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tactical control.
    Explanation
    Tactical control refers to the type of control that is present over assigned or attached forces or commands. It involves the implementation and execution of specific military plans and operations at a tactical level. Tactical control focuses on the immediate objectives and decision-making required to achieve them. It is distinct from strategic control, which involves long-term planning and overall direction of military operations, operational control, which involves the organization and coordination of forces within a specific theater of operations, and administrative control, which involves the management and support functions necessary for the effective functioning of military units.

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  • 6. 

    Which commander exercises operational control? 

    • A.

      Squadron commander.

    • B.

      Installation commander.

    • C.

      Joint Force commander.

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Joint Force commander.
    Explanation
    The Joint Force commander exercises operational control because they are responsible for the overall planning and execution of military operations involving multiple branches of the armed forces. They have the authority to direct and coordinate the actions of subordinate commanders and units in order to achieve the mission objectives. This role requires a high level of coordination and integration of resources from different services, making the Joint Force commander the appropriate choice for exercising operational control.

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  • 7. 

    Supervisors must ensure their troops 

    • A.

      Have food and water.

    • B.

      Possess required qualifications and certifications.

    • C.

      Are supplied with weapons and required equipment.

    • D.

      Are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.

    Correct Answer
    B. Possess required qualifications and certifications.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "possess required qualifications and certifications." Supervisors have the responsibility to make sure that their troops have the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles. This ensures that the troops are competent and capable of performing their duties effectively. By possessing the required qualifications and certifications, the troops are better equipped to handle their responsibilities and contribute to the overall success of the mission or task at hand.

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  • 8. 

    Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule? 

    • A.

      Wing commander.

    • B.

      Squadron commander.

    • C.

      Security Forces manager.

    • D.

      Unit deployment manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron commander.
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the scheduling of flights. They take into consideration various factors such as mission requirements, aircraft availability, and pilot availability to create an efficient and effective flight schedule for the unit. The squadron commander's role is crucial in ensuring that the unit's flight operations are well-organized and executed smoothly.

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  • 9. 

    Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the 

    • A.

      Duty roster.

    • B.

      Post priority listing.

    • C.

      Unit manning document.

    • D.

      Unit personnel manning roster.

    Correct Answer
    B. Post priority listing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Post priority listing." This means that the posts and patrols will be manned based on a prioritized list, which determines the order in which they need to be staffed. This ensures that the most critical posts are covered first, and then the remaining posts are filled accordingly. The other options, such as the duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster, may also be used for scheduling and organizing manpower, but they do not specifically indicate prioritization of posts.

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  • 10. 

    All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreigncountry for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the 

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • B.

      MAJCOM vice commander.

    • C.

      Installation commander.

    • D.

      Combatant commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is not authorized to allow personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for purposes other than routine law enforcement and security duties. This responsibility lies with the Major command (MAJCOM) commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and Combatant commander. The installation commander is in charge of the specific military installation and does not have the authority to make decisions regarding firearms in foreign countries.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm? 

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Commander.

    • C.

      Servicing armory.

    • D.

      Security Forces manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Commander.
    Explanation
    The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This implies that the commander has the authority and power to make decisions regarding the possession of firearms and can temporarily revoke this right if necessary. The supervisor, servicing armory, and security forces manager may have roles related to firearms, but they do not have the same level of authority as the commander in making decisions about temporarily withdrawing this right.

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  • 12. 

    How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there? 

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3.
  • 13. 

    What drives a post priority chart? 

    • A.

      Vulnerability assessment.

    • B.

      Inspector General (IG) assessment.

    • C.

      Force protection conditions (FPCONs).

    • D.

      Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment drives a post priority chart. This assessment helps identify and prioritize risks and vulnerabilities within a defense system. By conducting an IDRMP assessment, potential threats and vulnerabilities can be identified, allowing for effective risk management and resource allocation. This process ensures that the most critical areas are given the highest priority in terms of protection and mitigation efforts.

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  • 14. 

    Post priority charts are used to 

    • A.

      Allocate vehicles.

    • B.

      Allocate manpower.

    • C.

      Determine post rotations.

    • D.

      Determine weapon configurations.

    Correct Answer
    B. Allocate manpower.
    Explanation
    Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that these charts are used to assign and distribute the available workforce to different positions or tasks based on their priority. By using post priority charts, organizations can effectively manage and optimize their human resources by ensuring that the right people are assigned to the right positions at the right time, considering factors such as skills, experience, and availability.

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  • 15. 

    Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned? 

    • A.

      Group commander.

    • B.

      Security Forces manager.

    • C.

      Defense force commander.

    • D.

      Each individual flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense force commander.
    Explanation
    The defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not someone needs to be present at a particular post or if it can be left unattended. This decision-making authority is likely based on factors such as the current security situation, staffing levels, and operational needs.

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  • 16. 

    The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in 

    • A.

      Higher force protection conditions (FPCONs).

    • B.

      Peacetime and wartime.

    • C.

      Peacetime.

    • D.

      Wartime.

    Correct Answer
    B. Peacetime and wartime.
    Explanation
    The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in both peacetime and wartime. This means that regardless of the security conditions (FPCONs), the chart is designed to prioritize and allocate SF resources effectively and optimally. It allows for flexibility and adaptability in allocating SF personnel and resources based on the specific needs and threats in both peacetime and wartime situations.

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  • 17. 

    When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain 

    • A.

      Proficiency.

    • B.

      Discipline.

    • C.

      Fairness.

    • D.

      Control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proficiency.
    Explanation
    Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified ensures that they gain experience and expertise in different roles, thus maintaining proficiency. This practice allows individuals to develop a well-rounded skill set and prevents them from becoming too specialized or complacent in a single position. By regularly exposing personnel to different tasks and responsibilities, organizations can enhance their overall efficiency and effectiveness. This approach also fosters adaptability and versatility among the workforce, enabling them to handle various challenges and situations with ease.

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  • 18. 

    What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high? 

    • A.

      Post rotations.

    • B.

      Specialized courses.

    • C.

      Recognition program.

    • D.

      Providing time off.

    Correct Answer
    A. Post rotations.
    Explanation
    Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows for a change in duties and responsibilities, preventing monotony and burnout among the team members. This also provides an opportunity for individuals to learn new skills and gain valuable experience in different areas, which can boost morale and motivation. Additionally, post rotations promote a sense of fairness and equal opportunities within the team, fostering a positive and supportive work environment.

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  • 19. 

    As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates? 

    • A.

      Standards.

    • B.

      Discipline.

    • C.

      Work ethic.

    • D.

      Mentorship.

    Correct Answer
    C. Work ethic.
    Explanation
    As a supervisor, it is important to instill a strong work ethic in each of your subordinates. Work ethic refers to the values and principles that guide an individual's approach to work. By emphasizing the importance of a strong work ethic, supervisors can encourage their subordinates to be diligent, responsible, and committed to their tasks. This can lead to increased productivity, efficiency, and overall success within the team or organization.

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  • 20. 

    What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance? 

    • A.

      Issue paperwork.

    • B.

      Verbally counsel the subordinate.

    • C.

      Investigate to determine the cause.

    • D.

      Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Investigate to determine the cause.
    Explanation
    When a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This allows for a thorough understanding of the underlying issues that may be contributing to the poor performance. By identifying the cause, appropriate actions can be taken to address the problem effectively. This approach helps in finding a solution that may involve training, guidance, or support to improve the subordinate's performance, rather than simply issuing paperwork or assigning a new supervisor.

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  • 21. 

    The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is 

    • A.

      Report.

    • B.

      Parade rest.

    • C.

      Open ranks march.

    • D.

      Prepare for inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Report.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Report" because when a flight falls in for inspection, the next command given is usually "Report." This command instructs the flight members to report individually to the inspecting officer for further instructions or to provide any necessary information. The other options, such as "Parade rest," "Open ranks march," and "Prepare for inspection," are not typically given immediately after the flight falls in for inspection.

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  • 22. 

    After the command “Open rank, MARCH,” which of the following action does the flight take? 

    • A.

      The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two, paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • B.

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • C.

      The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • D.

      The last element stands fast. Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward and halts.

    Correct Answer
    B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.
    Explanation
    After the command "Open rank, MARCH," the flight takes the following action: The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

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  • 23. 

    After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement? 

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3.
    Explanation
    To execute a left facing movement after aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element.

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  • 24. 

    When does the second element leader give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION”? 

    • A.

      As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • B.

      As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • C.

      As the inspecting official is within two paces of the right flank to the formation, the second element leader commands, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • D.

      As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader, he/she will give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    Correct Answer
    A. As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands 'Second Element, ATTENTION'." This is the correct answer because it accurately describes the specific moment when the second element leader gives the command. It states that the command is given when the inspecting official is within six paces of the right flank of the formation, indicating the precise timing for the command to be given.

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  • 25. 

    When do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH!”? 

    • A.

      Upon departure of the inspecting official.

    • B.

      At the completion of the guardmount briefing

    • C.

      Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.

    • D.

      When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon departure of the inspecting official.
    Explanation
    The command "Close Ranks, MARCH!" is given upon the departure of the inspecting official. This indicates that the inspection or event has concluded and it is time for the formation to disperse or move on to the next activity.

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  • 26. 

    Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments? 

    • A.

      AFI 36-2903.

    • B.

      AFI 36-2905.

    • C.

      AFMAN 36-2903.

    • D.

      AFMAN 36-2905.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 36-2905.
    Explanation
    AFI 36-2905 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically addresses fitness standards and assessments. AFI 36-2903 is the instruction for dress and appearance, not fitness standards. AFMAN 36-2903 and AFMAN 36-2905 are manual publications, not instructions, and do not specifically pertain to fitness standards and assessments.

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  • 27. 

    Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment? 

    • A.

      Flight member.

    • B.

      Flight supervisor.

    • C.

      Flight commander.

    • D.

      Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Supply.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight member.
    Explanation
    The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment because they are the ones directly using and handling the equipment. They are expected to ensure that the equipment is in good working condition, report any issues or malfunctions, and take necessary steps to maintain and repair the equipment as needed. This responsibility falls on the flight member as they are the ones who have the most direct and immediate access to the equipment during their tasks and operations.

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  • 28. 

    A post check generally includes all of these items except 

    • A.

      Area inspection.

    • B.

      Facility inspection.

    • C.

      Weapons inspection.

    • D.

      Classified material inspection.

    Correct Answer
    C. Weapons inspection.
    Explanation
    A post check is a comprehensive evaluation conducted after an event or activity. It typically involves inspecting various aspects such as the area, facilities, and classified materials to ensure everything is in order. However, a weapons inspection is not typically included in a post check as it is usually conducted separately and at specific times to ensure the proper handling and storage of weapons.

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  • 29. 

    What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else’s writing? 

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–337.

    • B.

      Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–336.

    • C.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 32–337.

    • D.

      Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337 is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to assist individuals in becoming effective communicators and provides tools for reviewing and assessing someone else's writing. It is a publication that is likely to contain guidelines, tips, and resources for improving communication skills and evaluating written work. The other options, AFI 33–337 and AFI 32–337, may be related to Air Force instructions, but they do not specifically focus on communication skills and assessing writing.

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  • 30. 

    When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is 

    • A.

      Lengthy.

    • B.

      Made up.

    • C.

      Irrelevant.

    • D.

      Inappropriate.

    Correct Answer
    C. Irrelevant.
    Explanation
    When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one of the concerns is that it may contain irrelevant information. This means that the information provided may not be necessary or related to the topic at hand. In order to ensure technical accuracy, it is important to eliminate any irrelevant information that may confuse or distract the reader.

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  • 31. 

    The primary function of reviewing is to ensure 

    • A.

      The communication gets the point across.

    • B.

      Ideas are being communicated understandably and the communication gets the point across.

    • C.

      Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect punctuation), and the communication get the point across.

    • D.

      Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.
    Explanation
    The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and that the communication gets the point across.

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  • 32. 

    Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program? 

    • A.

      Unit training section.

    • B.

      Defense Force commander.

    • C.

      Air Force Security Forces Center.

    • D.

      Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Security Forces Center.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This organization is specifically dedicated to training and equipping security forces personnel in the Air Force. They develop and implement training programs, conduct assessments, and ensure that security forces personnel are prepared to carry out their duties effectively.

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  • 33. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained,qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military educationschools? 

    • A.

      Unit training section.

    • B.

      Immediate supervisors.

    • C.

      Air Force Security Forces Center.

    • D.

      Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).

    Correct Answer
    D. Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).
    Explanation
    Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs) are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and given the chance to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They have the authority and knowledge to oversee the training and development of enlisted personnel within the Security Forces career field. They work closely with immediate supervisors and the Unit training section to ensure that all personnel receive the necessary training and education to perform their duties effectively.

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  • 34. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips? 

    • A.

      Analysis.

    • B.

      Feedback.

    • C.

      Evaluation.

    • D.

      Cross-feed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Feedback.
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it allows them to receive information about their performance, decisions, and actions. Feedback provides valuable insights and perspectives from others, enabling commanders to identify areas of improvement, make informed decisions, and enhance their leadership skills. It helps them understand the impact of their actions on their subordinates, the mission, and overall effectiveness. By utilizing feedback, commanders can continuously learn, adapt, and improve their decision-making processes, ultimately leading to better outcomes and success in their roles.

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  • 35. 

    The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to 

    • A.

      Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.

    • B.

      Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller.

    • C.

      Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions.

    • D.

      Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty.

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This process ensures that individuals are adequately qualified and capable of carrying out their assigned duties effectively. It helps to assess the skills, knowledge, and experience of individuals and ensures that only qualified individuals are selected for specific duty positions.

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  • 36. 

    The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to 

    • A.

      Aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • B.

      Track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • C.

      Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • D.

      Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    Correct Answer
    D. Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
    Explanation
    The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the MWD is trained to discourage potential intruders from entering the area, identify and locate any intruders that do enter, and physically restrain them if necessary. By performing these tasks, the MWD helps to maintain the security and safety of Air Force resources.

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  • 37. 

    Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is 

    • A.

      Apprehension or release.

    • B.

      Pepper spray or gunfire.

    • C.

      Resistance or restraint.

    • D.

      Gunfire or escape.

    Correct Answer
    D. Gunfire or escape.
    Explanation
    Patrol dogs are considered a minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that using patrol dogs is seen as a less severe option compared to resorting to gunfire or allowing the suspect to escape. Patrol dogs can be used to apprehend and restrain individuals without causing serious harm, making them a preferable alternative in situations where using firearms or allowing the suspect to flee would be more dangerous or extreme.

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  • 38. 

    When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage? 

    • A.

      In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.

    • B.

      Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability.

    • C.

      At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.

    • D.

      Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    C. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
    Explanation
    The dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This placement allows the dogs to effectively monitor and prevent any unauthorized individuals from entering the area. It maximizes their ability to detect and deter potential threats, ensuring the security of the location.

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  • 39. 

    A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous 

    • A.

      Deterrent to potential violators.

    • B.

      Physical deterrent to potential violators.

    • C.

      Physiological deterrent to potential violators.

    • D.

      Psychological deterrent to potential violators.

    Correct Answer
    D. Psychological deterrent to potential violators.
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team used in police services activities can be considered a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a trained dog can create fear and intimidation among individuals who may be considering engaging in illegal activities. The idea of facing a highly trained and potentially aggressive dog can dissuade criminals from committing crimes, as they may fear the consequences of encountering such a deterrent. Therefore, the patrol dog team serves as a psychological deterrent, influencing the mindset and decision-making of potential violators.

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  • 40. 

    During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned 

    • A.

      In reserve, out of sight of the crowd.

    • B.

      Off to the side, out of direct vision of the crowd.

    • C.

      Right out in front to ward off potential participants.

    • D.

      Elsewhere and not used in peaceful confrontations.

    Correct Answer
    A. In reserve, out of sight of the crowd.
    Explanation
    During peaceful confrontations, it is important for the Military Working Dog (MWD) team to be positioned in reserve, out of sight of the crowd. This ensures that the presence of the dogs does not escalate the situation or provoke any unnecessary reactions from the crowd. By being out of sight, the MWD team can be ready to respond if needed, while also maintaining a low-profile presence that minimizes any potential disruptions. This approach prioritizes the safety and security of both the crowd and the MWD team.

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  • 41. 

    All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the 

    • A.

      Threat Working Group.

    • B.

      Integrated Base Defense Council.

    • C.

      Force Protection Commodity Council.

    • D.

      Equipment, Weapons, and Configuration Board.

    Correct Answer
    B. Integrated Base Defense Council.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Integrated Base Defense Council. The given statement suggests that all arming rules will be in accordance with certain guidelines, including AFI 31-117 and MAJCOM requirements. It also mentions the involvement of various councils and boards in determining the arming rules. Among the options provided, the Integrated Base Defense Council is the most relevant entity that would be responsible for establishing and implementing the arming rules in accordance with the mentioned guidelines and requirements.

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  • 42. 

     “All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked” means that they 

    • A.

      All must have SF badges applied to both the front doors.

    • B.

      All must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios.

    • C.

      Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.

    • D.

      All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a military working dog (MWD).

    Correct Answer
    C. Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system." This means that all permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles are required to have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system installed. These features are essential for SF vehicles to effectively respond to emergencies, communicate with the public, and maintain safety and security.

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  • 43. 

    Which radio type can talk over great distances? 

    • A.

      Base station.

    • B.

      Portable radio.

    • C.

      Base station remote.

    • D.

      Mobile two-way radio.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mobile two-way radio.
    Explanation
    A mobile two-way radio is the correct answer because it is designed to communicate over long distances. Unlike a base station or base station remote, which are typically used for local communication within a limited range, a mobile two-way radio has more power and better antenna systems, allowing it to transmit and receive signals over greater distances. Additionally, a portable radio is not as powerful as a mobile two-way radio and is generally used for shorter range communication.

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  • 44. 

    The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to 

    • A.

      Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    • B.

      Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.

    • C.

      Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.

    • D.

      Provide Congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to ensure an equitable distribution of the President's Budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the Financial Plan submission is aimed at ensuring that the budget is distributed fairly among different areas and departments, without any bias or favoritism. It is important to distribute the budget equitably to ensure that all necessary expenses are covered and that no department or area is neglected or underfunded. This helps in maintaining a balanced and efficient financial plan for the upcoming fiscal year.

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  • 45. 

    Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year? 

    • A.

      Numbered air force.

    • B.

      Headquarters Air Force.

    • C.

      Major commands (MAJCOMs).

    • D.

      Air Force Security Forces Center.

    Correct Answer
    C. Major commands (MAJCOMs).
    Explanation
    Major commands (MAJCOMs) are responsible for providing the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year. They oversee and manage the security forces within their command and allocate resources accordingly. This means that they determine the number of security forces that are assigned to each troop or unit based on the specific needs and requirements. Therefore, Major commands (MAJCOMs) are the ones who provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year.

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  • 46. 

    What is not a category for the status of funds? 

    • A.

      Committed.

    • B.

      Obligated.

    • C.

      End of year.

    • D.

      Uncommitted.

    Correct Answer
    C. End of year.
    Explanation
    The status of funds can be categorized as committed, obligated, or uncommitted. "End of year" is not a category for the status of funds. This term refers to a specific time period rather than a category that describes the status of funds.

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  • 47. 

    Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas? 

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) functional.

    • B.

      MAJCOM corporate structure.

    • C.

      Financial Management Board.

    • D.

      Financial working group.

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM) functional.
    Explanation
    The Major command (MAJCOM) functional reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that the installation submissions meet the requirements and standards set by the MAJCOM. They review the submissions to ensure that they are accurate, complete, and in compliance with the MAJCOM's guidelines and policies. This helps to ensure that the installations are functioning effectively and efficiently within their respective functional areas.

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  • 48. 

    What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units? 

    • A.

      Air Force Manpower Standards Program (MSP).

    • B.

      Air Force Manpower Standards Platform (MSP).

    • C.

      Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP).

    • D.

      Air Force Management and Equipment Program (MEP).

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP) provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units. This program focuses on the management and engineering aspects of manpower planning and allocation in the Air Force. It ensures that commanders have the necessary resources and personnel to effectively carry out their missions. The MEP helps in determining the appropriate number of personnel needed for specific tasks and helps in optimizing manpower utilization within units.

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  • 49. 

    When are manpower numbers reviewed? 

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Annually.

    • D.

      Bi-annually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually.
    Explanation
    Manpower numbers are reviewed on an annual basis. This means that the review of the number of employees or workforce within an organization occurs once every year. This allows for an evaluation of the current manpower situation, including any changes in staffing requirements, budgeting, and resource allocation. It also provides an opportunity to assess the effectiveness of the workforce and make any necessary adjustments or improvements. Quarterly, bi-annually, or monthly reviews would not provide the same comprehensive and long-term analysis as an annual review.

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  • 50. 

    Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document? 

    • A.

      Work center.

    • B.

      Position number.

    • C.

      Air Force specialty code.

    • D.

      Report No Later than Date.

    Correct Answer
    D. Report No Later than Date.
    Explanation
    The unit manning document is a record that tracks the personnel assigned to a specific unit. It includes information such as work center, position number, and Air Force specialty code. The "Report No Later than Date" is not a personnel-related information and therefore is not tracked on the unit manning document.

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