CDC Level 7: Air Force Trivia Questions Test! Quiz

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1. Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on strains, or destroy footprints ortire marks at a crime scene

Explanation

Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on strains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because these actions can potentially contaminate or alter the evidence, making it unreliable for analysis. It is crucial to preserve the integrity of the crime scene and ensure that evidence is collected and handled properly to avoid any misleading interpretations or conclusions.

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CDC Level 7: Air Force Trivia Questions Test! Quiz - Quiz

Security forces supervisor 7 level CDC. All multiple choice and have to possess at least a 95% or better to pass.

2. What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?

Explanation

When arriving on-scene, it is important to set a calm, positive, and helpful tone for your first impression. This is because a calm demeanor helps to create a sense of stability and reassurance in potentially stressful situations. Being positive and helpful shows that you are approachable and ready to assist others. This tone promotes effective communication and fosters a cooperative atmosphere, which can be crucial in resolving any issues or providing necessary support.

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3. What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

Explanation

The correct answer is external SRT. An external SRT (Security Response Team) operates outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection System), personnel, or incidents. They are trained to assess and handle security threats efficiently and effectively.

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4. When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

Explanation

Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are maintained in proper working condition and ready for use. Cleaning the weapons after firing removes any residue or debris that may have accumulated during use, while cleaning during inclement weather prevents moisture or other elements from causing damage. Regular cleaning as needed helps to prevent malfunctions and ensures the longevity of the weapons.

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5. Adequate and fair post rtations can assist you in keeping

Explanation

Adequate and fair post rotations can assist in keeping flight morale high. When individuals are constantly assigned to the same duty position, it can lead to burnout and decreased motivation. By rotating individuals to different positions, it allows them to learn new skills, prevents monotony, and promotes a sense of fairness within the team. This can contribute to a positive and motivated atmosphere within the flight, ultimately boosting morale.

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6. The beneftit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows

Explanation

Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery. This means that no evidence will be tampered with or contaminated, ensuring the integrity of the crime scene. By reviewing the scene in its original state, the investigator can gather accurate information, identify potential clues, and make informed decisions regarding the investigation. This is crucial for a thorough and effective investigation.

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7. What patrol monitors assigned resources ad provides  timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

Explanation

The correct answer is internal SRT. An internal SRT (Security Response Team) is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and providing a timely response within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. They are an internal team that focuses on security and ensures quick and efficient responses to any security-related issues or alarms within the organization.

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8. All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked , have emergency lights, sirens and a

Explanation

The correct answer is a public address system. This is because it is stated that all permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This suggests that a public address system is a necessary requirement for these vehicles.

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9. What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

Explanation

Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with information about the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. It allows commanders to understand how their decisions are being received and implemented by their subordinates and provides insights into areas that may need improvement. Feedback helps commanders make informed decisions, adjust their strategies, and ultimately achieve their objectives more effectively.

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10. The MWD program does not provide security forces units wth the capability to

Explanation

The MWD program refers to the Military Working Dog program. This program is not designed to provide security forces units with the capability to detect classified information. The main purpose of the MWD program is to train and utilize dogs for tasks such as patrol, search and rescue, and detecting explosives or illegal drugs. Detecting classified information is typically the responsibility of specialized personnel and equipment, not the MWD program.

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11. Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Forms 629 and 1297. These two forms are normally used for the receipt of weapons.

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12. Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

Explanation

The personnel inspection during guardmount focuses on ensuring that the individual is prepared to present a post briefing. This means that they have all the necessary information and materials to effectively communicate the necessary details to the incoming shift. The other options mentioned, such as being fit for duty, complying with appearance directives, and having all required equipment, may be important aspects of the inspection but they are not specifically mentioned in the given question.

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13. Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not veen involved in the preliminary investigation

Explanation

Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This is important because it allows for a more objective assessment of the evidence and potential leads. By having someone who is not familiar with the case examine the scene, it increases the chances of discovering overlooked details or connections that could be crucial to the investigation. Additionally, it helps to prevent any potential bias or preconceived notions that may have developed during the initial investigation.

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14. What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect ready to provide information?

Explanation

If a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and a suspect ready to provide information, it would be best to let another investigator conduct the interview. This ensures that the conflict does not interfere with the gathering of information and maintains a professional and unbiased approach. By allowing a different investigator to handle the interview, it increases the chances of obtaining accurate and reliable information from the suspect.

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15. What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?

Explanation

The responsibility of the unit training section does not include coordinating with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

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16. Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

Explanation

The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis lies with the office of "reports and analysis". This office is responsible for gathering and organizing criminal incident data, analyzing it, and preparing reports and statistical analysis based on the data. They ensure that all necessary information and statistics are provided to support investigations, crime prevention efforts, and resource protection.

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17. What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

Explanation

The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable pattern, it becomes more difficult for potential threats to anticipate the movements of the MWD teams. This element of surprise enhances the psychological protection of the teams and reduces the risk of being targeted or ambushed.

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18. When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

Explanation

When conducting a building search, the handler must consider the type and size of the building before releasing the MWD. This is important because different types of buildings require different search strategies and may present different hazards or challenges for the canine. The size of the building will also affect the search plan and the time it may take for the MWD to complete the search. By considering these factors, the handler can ensure that the MWD is deployed effectively and safely in the building search operation.

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19. Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?

Explanation

Key personnel are allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident. This is because key personnel are individuals who have specific roles and responsibilities related to managing and responding to the incident. They are trained and equipped to handle the risks and challenges associated with the situation. Reporters, photographers, and medical staff may have important roles in covering or providing assistance during the incident, but they are typically not granted access to the inner perimeter due to safety concerns and the need to maintain order and control.

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20. Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

Explanation

The correct answer is SFM. SFM stands for Security Forces Manager, who is responsible for overseeing unit manpower, setting and maintaining standards, and conducting evaluations. This role involves ensuring that the unit has the appropriate number of personnel, maintaining the highest standards of performance and professionalism, and conducting regular assessments to measure the effectiveness of the unit. The SFM plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the overall readiness and effectiveness of the unit.

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21. Effective enforement should emphasize selective enforement and drivers complying

Explanation

Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying voluntarily. This means that enforcement should focus on specific areas or behaviors that pose the greatest risk, rather than trying to enforce all traffic laws equally. By encouraging drivers to comply voluntarily, it promotes a sense of responsibility and encourages them to make safer choices on the road. This approach can be more effective in changing driver behavior and reducing accidents compared to enforcing laws mandatorily or involuntarily.

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22. Which code is not an alarm response code?

Explanation

The given question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code. The options provided are 4, 3, 2, and 1. Among these options, 4 is not an alarm response code. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

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23. Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

Explanation

Upon arrival on-scene, the first action should be to immediately secure the area. This is important to ensure the safety of everyone involved and prevent any further harm or potential danger. Securing the area involves establishing control, setting up boundaries, and restricting access to unauthorized individuals. It allows the responders to assess the situation, gather information, and determine the appropriate course of action.

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24. Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consisten with sound

Explanation

The correct answer is OPSEC practices. OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which is a process used to protect sensitive information and activities from potential adversaries. In this context, posting the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound OPSEC practices means ensuring that the roster is displayed in a visible location for the necessary personnel, while also ensuring that it does not compromise any sensitive information or operations. This could involve using secure methods of displaying the roster or limiting access to only authorized individuals.

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25. What is the time limit placed on suspect intervies?

Explanation

The correct answer is that there is no time limit set on an interview. This means that when conducting suspect interviews, there is no specific duration or time constraint imposed. The length of the interview can vary depending on various factors such as the complexity of the case, the cooperation of the suspect, and the progress being made in gathering information. Therefore, investigators have the flexibility to conduct interviews for as long as necessary to obtain the desired outcome, which may include obtaining a confession or gathering relevant information.

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26. Other than making the situation worse, if occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may hve time to

Explanation

If occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to conceal evidence of a crime. This means that if the occupants are involved in any illegal activities, they can hide or destroy any proof that could potentially incriminate them. By arriving on the scene, you may inadvertently give them the opportunity to cover up their wrongdoing, making it harder for law enforcement to gather evidence and build a case against them.

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27. From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when

Explanation

The correct answer is "the hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction." This suggests that during the first 15 to 45 minutes after a hostage is taken, the hostage takers are likely to be in a state of panic or heightened emotions. This can make them more unpredictable and potentially dangerous, increasing the risk for the hostage. It is important for the hostage negotiation team to handle the situation delicately during this time to ensure the safety of the hostages and to try to calm the hostage takers down.

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28. When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

Explanation

A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a well-trained and intimidating dog can create fear and apprehension in potential criminals, discouraging them from engaging in unlawful activities. The psychological impact of a patrol dog's presence can influence the behavior of individuals, making them think twice before committing a crime. This serves as a deterrent and enhances the overall effectiveness of police operations.

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29. All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must beproperly marke and have

Explanation

The correct answer is portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. This answer is supported by the statement that all temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have SF badges applied to both the front doors. The use of portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system would help in clearly identifying and communicating the presence of the security forces vehicle to the public. This would enhance the visibility and effectiveness of the vehicle in carrying out its security duties.

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30. When questioning a juvenile, what action do yo take if you cannot find a parent r the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?

Explanation

If you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner when questioning a juvenile, seeking SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) advice would be the appropriate action to take. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on how to proceed in such situations, ensuring that the juvenile's rights are protected and proper procedures are followed. They can offer advice on the best course of action and help navigate any legal complexities that may arise during the questioning process.

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31. When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden moveents or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be

Explanation

When interviewing residents, it is important to be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be hiding an injured family member or a weapon. This behavior could indicate that they are trying to conceal something or protect someone who is injured or potentially dangerous. It is crucial for the interviewer to remain vigilant and assess the situation carefully to ensure their own safety and the safety of others involved.

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32. When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

Explanation

The correct answer is "the first duty day following completion." This means that as soon as qualification training is finished, it is necessary to notify the training section on the very next day that the training has been completed. This ensures prompt communication and documentation of the completion of training.

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33. The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed nd specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office?

Explanation

The correct answer is security forces investigations. This office is responsible for investigating crimes and incidents that require more detailed and specialized analysis than what is typically conducted while on a flight. They have the expertise and resources to handle these types of investigations effectively.

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34. Before being assigne operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

Explanation

Before being assigned operational duties, a MWD (Military Working Dog) must obey the commands "OUT" and "HEEL". The command "OUT" is used to teach the dog to release or let go of an object, while the command "HEEL" is used to teach the dog to walk closely beside their handler's left side. These commands are important for the dog's safety and control during operations.

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35. It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

Explanation

Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified to do is important in order to maintain proficiency. This practice allows individuals to gain experience and knowledge in different roles, enhancing their skills and expertise. It also prevents individuals from becoming too specialized or stagnant in one position, ensuring they stay up-to-date with industry developments. By regularly rotating personnel, organizations can ensure that their workforce remains competent and capable in various tasks, ultimately improving overall performance and productivity.

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36. Your choice of search method is determine by the intent of the search and by the

Explanation

The choice of search method is determined by the area to be covered. The larger the area, the more personnel and time will be required to conduct the search effectively. If the area is small, fewer personnel and less time will be needed. Therefore, the size of the area to be covered is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate search method.

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37. The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibilityy of the flight

Explanation

The chief is responsible for the direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions. This means that they have the authority and oversight to ensure that all flight operations are conducted safely and efficiently. They are in charge of making decisions and providing guidance to the flight personnel, ensuring that all procedures and protocols are followed. The chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall effectiveness and success of flight operations.

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38. When is the military working dog's detection abililty more effective?

Explanation

During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions, the military working dog's detection ability is more effective. This is because in such conditions, the dog's heightened sense of smell and hearing can be utilized without being overwhelmed by visual distractions. The reduced visibility allows the dog to focus solely on detecting scents and sounds, increasing their effectiveness in detecting potential threats or targets.

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39. Ther personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,

Explanation

The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are tact, poise, and self-confidence. These attributes are important because testifying requires the ability to communicate effectively and respectfully, maintain composure under pressure, and have belief in oneself and one's testimony. Tact is necessary to navigate sensitive or difficult questions, while poise helps to project credibility and professionalism. Self-confidence is crucial for presenting information confidently and persuasively.

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40. How many days does the security forces stan-eval program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual compets qualification training?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30. The security forces stan-eval program allows 30 days to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training. This timeframe ensures that the evaluation is conducted promptly and allows for the assessment of the individual's skills and readiness within a reasonable timeframe.

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41. What installations are required to have an ISP?

Explanation

The correct answer is that all installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan. This means that any installation that has resources that require protection, such as sensitive information or critical infrastructure, must have an Information Security Program (ISP) in place. This program helps to ensure the security and confidentiality of these resources, and outlines the necessary protocols and procedures to mitigate risks and prevent unauthorized access or breaches. It is a crucial requirement for installations that handle sensitive data or support critical operations.

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42. If an apprehension is made, in what positon will the handler place the dog?

Explanation

The correct answer is "guard". When an apprehension is made, the handler will place the dog in a "guard" position. This means that the dog will be positioned to protect and defend its handler, maintaining a watchful and alert stance. The guard position is commonly used in situations where there is a potential threat or danger present, and the dog needs to be ready to react and respond accordingly.

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43. The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

Explanation

The basic purpose of a financial plan submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the plan aims to allocate funds fairly and evenly across different areas or branches of service, ensuring that each receives the necessary funding to fulfill their mission. By doing so, the financial plan promotes fairness and balance in the distribution of resources, allowing for effective and efficient utilization of the budget.

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44. An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

Explanation

A habitual offender is someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without feeling any remorse or sense of wrongdoing. This individual has likely committed multiple crimes in the past and continues to do so without any intention of stopping. Unlike a first-time offender, who may feel guilt or regret for their actions, a habitual offender shows a pattern of criminal behavior and lacks a moral compass. They may have become desensitized to the consequences of their actions and have little regard for the law.

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45. What is the unit flight schedule based on?

Explanation

The unit flight schedule is based on the needs of the unit. This means that the schedule is determined by the requirements and priorities of the unit as a whole. It takes into account factors such as mission objectives, available resources, and the overall operational plan. By aligning the flight schedule with the unit's needs, it ensures that the necessary flights are conducted to support the unit's goals and objectives.

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46. Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?

Explanation

Individual skills training is conducted to teach tasks required for a specific duty position. This type of training focuses on developing the knowledge, abilities, and techniques needed to perform specific job functions effectively. It is tailored to the needs of each individual and aims to enhance their proficiency in carrying out their assigned tasks. By focusing on individual skills, trainees can acquire the necessary competencies to excel in their specific role within an organization or team.

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47. What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "title 18, united states code, and the us constitution." Title 18 of the United States Code contains the federal laws that govern crimes and criminal procedure. It provides the legal authority for the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation. The U.S. Constitution also plays a role in authorizing such detentions, as it establishes the framework for the legal system and protects individual rights.

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48. What does SEI stand for?

Explanation

SEI stands for Special Experience Identifier. This term refers to a unique identifier that is used to categorize or classify a particular experience or qualification that an individual possesses. It is commonly used in various industries or professions to differentiate individuals based on their specialized skills, knowledge, or expertise in a specific area. Therefore, the correct answer is "special experience identifier."

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49. Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas whih owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

Explanation

PL 4 resources are contained in controlled areas where owner/users are primarily responsible for security. This means that the resources classified under PL 4 require a higher level of security and protection. The owner/users of these resources are responsible for implementing and maintaining the necessary security measures to safeguard them. This could include physical security measures, access controls, encryption, and other security protocols. The owner/users have the ultimate responsibility for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the PL 4 resources within the controlled areas.

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50. How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?

Explanation

The given correct answer states that an interview is limited to two investigators. This means that during a suspect interview, the maximum number of investigators allowed is two. Having more than two investigators might hinder the effectiveness of the interview process, as it could create a more intimidating or overwhelming environment for the suspect. Therefore, it is important to adhere to this limit to ensure a fair and productive interview.

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51. Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?

Explanation

The controller must keep the flight chief and flight commander informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each. These individuals are responsible for overseeing the operations and ensuring that everything is running smoothly. By keeping them informed, the controller can ensure that they are aware of any issues or developments that may require their attention or intervention. This communication is crucial for maintaining effective coordination and decision-making within the flight.

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52. The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior

Explanation

The correct answer is "security force members" because they are the ones responsible for performing the duties of the area supervisor. This implies that the area supervisor delegates their duties to the security force members, who then carry out the necessary tasks.

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53. After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the sectin have to conduct a reevaluation?

Explanation

After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, the section has to conduct a reevaluation within 15 days after the individual completes review training. This suggests that there is a time limit for the section to reassess the individual's performance and provide another evaluation opportunity.

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54. What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

Explanation

Leaders must consider the location and size of an area before placing MWD (Military Working Dog) teams. The location is important because it determines the specific environment and potential threats that the teams may encounter. The size of the area is crucial as it affects the resources and manpower required to effectively cover and secure the area. By considering these factors, leaders can make informed decisions about deploying MWD teams to ensure maximum effectiveness and safety.

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55. What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the cmmand " open ranks MARCH"?

Explanation

After the command "open ranks MARCH", the last element in the flight will stand fast and automatically execute a dress right at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them will take one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halt, and automatically execute a dress right. This means that the flight will adjust their positions by stepping forward and aligning themselves in a proper formation, ensuring that the distance between each member is maintained.

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56. In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?

Explanation

The two tests that communications need to meet in terms of readability are simplicity and directness. Simplicity ensures that the message is easy to understand and avoids unnecessary complexity. Directness ensures that the message is clear and straightforward, avoiding ambiguity or confusion. By focusing on simplicity and directness, communications can effectively convey information to the audience in a clear and concise manner.

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57. Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an investigation is called

Explanation

A follow-up investigation involves tying up loose ends and ensuring that nothing was missed during an initial investigation. It typically involves conducting additional interviews, reviewing the case, and gathering any additional evidence or information that may be needed. This process helps to ensure that all necessary steps have been taken and that the investigation is thorough and complete.

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58. Who is reponsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?

Explanation

The command post is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident. This is because the command post serves as the central coordination point during emergencies and is typically staffed with trained personnel who can quickly assess the situation and initiate the appropriate response. They have the necessary communication channels and protocols in place to quickly notify the disaster control group and coordinate their actions in response to the accident.

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59. From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

Explanation

A dog team should approach a building they are about to check from the downwind direction. This is because approaching from downwind allows the dogs to catch any scents or smells that may be coming from inside the building. By approaching downwind, the dogs can use their sense of smell effectively to detect any potential threats or hidden individuals inside the building. Approaching from upwind or crosswind may cause the scent to be carried away from the dogs, making it more difficult for them to detect any potential dangers.

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60. Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?

Explanation

The statement "they should not be used often in daylight hours" is not true. Military working dogs are trained to work in various conditions, including daylight hours. They are trained to perform their duties regardless of the time of day and should be able to adapt to different environments and situations.

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61. While on a mobile patrol, wher should the MWD be in the vehicle?

Explanation

The correct answer is "off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle". This is because having the MWD off leash allows it to move freely and respond quickly in case of any situation. Placing the MWD on the front or rear seat ensures that it is secure and comfortable during the patrol. Having the MWD on the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving can be dangerous and distracting. Placing it in a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck may expose the MWD to potential hazards and is not as secure as having it inside the vehicle.

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62. Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?

Explanation

The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the ISI (Installation Security Instruction) is issued, approved, and implemented. As the highest-ranking officer in charge of the installation, the commander has the authority and accountability to oversee all security measures and protocols. This includes ensuring that the ISI is developed, reviewed, and enforced to maintain the safety and security of the installation and its personnel. The commander works closely with various departments and personnel to ensure that the ISI is properly implemented and followed throughout the installation.

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63. What is not a required strage procedure for top secret information?

Explanation

The two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door, is not a required storage procedure for top secret information. This answer suggests that having two individuals guarding the material is not necessary for ensuring the security of top secret information. The other options, such as alarmed areas with high protection, class A vault-type rooms, and GSA-approved security containers, all provide measures that are considered essential for storing top secret information securely.

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64. During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "close ranks, march"?

Explanation

During an open ranks inspection, the command "close ranks, march" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This means that after the inspecting official has finished inspecting the ranks and is ready to leave, the command is given to close the ranks and continue marching. This ensures that the ranks are closed and the formation can proceed with their movements after the inspection is complete.

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65. When  two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person

Explanation

When two-person internal SRT (Special Response Team) working within its assigned restricted area separates, it is necessary to have a couple of single-person security patrols. These patrols can help maintain security and surveillance in the area, ensuring that there are no breaches or unauthorized access. They can cover a larger area individually and report any suspicious activities or potential threats to the appropriate authorities. By having security patrols in place, the overall security of the restricted area can be effectively maintained.

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66. The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify

Explanation

The purpose of awarding a SEI (Special Experience Identifier) is to identify existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs. This means that individuals who possess specific skills, knowledge, or experience that are valuable in certain situations or for specific tasks can be recognized and utilized accordingly. The SEI helps to ensure that the right resources are allocated to meet the specific needs and demands of different circumstances, contingencies, or management requirements.

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67. What is not included in the ISP?

Explanation

The ISP (Installation Security Plan) is a comprehensive plan that focuses on assessing and mitigating security risks to an installation. It includes various elements such as threat estimation, terrain and weather analysis, vulnerability assessment, and estimating support from friendly forces. However, a cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment is not included in the ISP. This means that the plan does not specifically address the financial aspects of acquiring and implementing anti-terrorism equipment.

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68. What is not an indication of child neglect?

Explanation

Signs of impoverishment refer to the lack of basic necessities and resources, such as food, shelter, and clothing, due to financial constraints. While neglect can manifest in various forms, including lack of medical care, inadequate nourishment, insufficient clothing, and lack of supervision, signs of impoverishment specifically highlight the economic aspect of neglect. This means that even if a child receives medical care, proper nourishment, and adequate clothing, but still shows signs of impoverishment, it may indicate neglect in terms of providing for the child's basic needs due to financial difficulties.

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69. Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting  child are indicators of

Explanation

Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are all behaviors that can be considered emotional maltreatment. Emotional maltreatment refers to any act or omission that causes harm to a child's emotional well-being. These behaviors can have long-lasting negative effects on a child's development and can lead to emotional, behavioral, and social problems. It is important to recognize and address emotional maltreatment to ensure the well-being and safety of the child.

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70. The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "dull sword" identifies a nuclear weapons

Explanation

The term "dull sword" is used as a flag word to identify a deficiency in nuclear weapons. This suggests that there is a problem or a lack in the weapons system, rather than an accident, incident, or occurrence. The word "deficiency" implies that there is a specific issue or weakness that needs to be addressed or improved upon in the nuclear weapons program.

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71. When using dogs on detecton screen posts, where do you position the to get maximum usage?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests positioning the dogs at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. By placing the dogs in these strategic locations, they can effectively deter and prevent unauthorized individuals from entering the area. This positioning allows the dogs to act as a security measure and serve as a barrier against potential threats.

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72. The information security program permits teh disclosure of classified information only to

Explanation

The correct answer is cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties. In an information security program, classified information should only be disclosed to individuals who have been cleared and have a legitimate need to know the information for their official duties. This ensures that sensitive information is only accessed by authorized personnel and helps to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the information.

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73. What is a confession?

Explanation

A confession refers to a complete acknowledgement of guilt for all elements of an offense. It implies that the individual admits to committing the crime and accepts responsibility for all aspects of the offense. This includes admitting to both the act itself and the intention or state of mind required for the crime. A confession is a self-incriminating statement made by the accused, voluntarily or involuntarily, admitting their guilt.

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74. Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies?

Explanation

The LRO, or Local Records Officer, is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies. This role is typically responsible for managing and maintaining records within a local agency, including training records. They are tasked with ensuring that all employees receive the necessary training and that records of completion are properly documented and maintained.

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75. If any individual appreas to be emotional, distraught, or stunned folloing any interview, to which person can the individual be released?

Explanation

If an individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following an interview, they can be released to their supervisor. The supervisor is responsible for the well-being and support of their employees, and they can provide the necessary assistance or guidance to help the individual cope with their emotions. Medical personnel may be needed if the individual's emotional state becomes severe or if there are physical symptoms, but initially, the supervisor is the appropriate person to handle the situation. The roommate and spouse may offer support, but they may not have the authority or resources to address the individual's emotional needs in a professional setting.

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76. When used in securty operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

Explanation

In security operations, the primary mission of the MWD (Military Working Dog) is detection. These highly trained dogs are used to detect explosives, drugs, and other illicit substances. They have a keen sense of smell and are able to locate hidden items that may pose a threat to security. By detecting these items, the MWDs play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of the area they are deployed in.

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77. Who many delegate authority to approve escoritng orhand-carring classified material on commercial aircraft outside the united states, its territories, or canada?

Explanation

The correct answer is "only MAJCOM commanders." This means that only Major Command (MAJCOM) commanders have the authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified material on commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada. This authority is not given to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff or wing commanders.

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78. As a leader and supervisor, you should avid asking questions that could be open for

Explanation

As a leader and supervisor, it is important to avoid asking questions that could lead to arguments. This is because arguments can create a negative and hostile work environment, hindering productivity and collaboration among team members. Instead, leaders should focus on asking questions that promote open discussion, interpretation, and debate in a constructive manner, fostering creativity and problem-solving skills within the team. By avoiding questions that may lead to arguments, leaders can maintain a positive and harmonious work atmosphere.

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79. In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?

Explanation

Personnel should withdraw from an accident site in the upwind or crosswind direction. This is because moving in the upwind direction helps to avoid potential exposure to hazardous materials or fumes that may be present at the accident site. Moving in the crosswind direction also helps to minimize the risk of being affected by any airborne contaminants that may be present. By withdrawing in either of these directions, personnel can ensure their safety and minimize the potential for further harm.

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80. Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the united states code that occur on DOD installations or within DOD facilities?

Explanation

The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United States Code that occur on Department of Defense (DOD) installations or within DOD facilities. The FBI has jurisdiction over federal crimes, and its role extends to investigating and enforcing laws across various sectors, including defense. As such, it is responsible for handling and resolving criminal activities that take place within DOD premises.

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81. SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?

Explanation

SSBIs, or Single Scope Background Investigations, are required for personnel who need a top secret clearance. This level of clearance is necessary for individuals who will have access to highly sensitive and classified information that could potentially cause severe damage to national security if disclosed. SSBIs involve a comprehensive investigation into an individual's background, including interviews with friends, family, and coworkers, as well as a thorough examination of their financial, criminal, and personal history. This level of scrutiny ensures that only trustworthy individuals are granted access to top secret information.

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82. Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information?

Explanation

Direct questioning is the approach used for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information. This approach involves asking straightforward and specific questions to the subject, leaving no room for ambiguity or evasion. It aims to elicit clear and immediate responses, allowing the interviewer to gather the necessary information efficiently. By using direct questioning, the interviewer can directly address the subject's reluctance or hesitation, encouraging them to be more forthcoming with the required information.

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83. What is not of of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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84. The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting additional inestigative steps of an incident when the member is

Explanation

When reviewing and analyzing all previous reports prepared, the member can gather important information and insights about the incident. This can help in identifying any gaps or inconsistencies in the reports, which can guide the member in determining what additional investigative steps need to be taken. By thoroughly understanding the information already gathered, the member can develop a more effective investigative strategy for conducting further interviews, collecting physical evidence, and ultimately identifying and apprehending suspects.

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85. Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resouce boundary is the responsibility of the

Explanation

CBS stands for Closed Circuit Television, which is a system that allows for video surveillance of a specific area or boundary. It is responsible for providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary.

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86. The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the

Explanation

The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the SJA (Staff Judge Advocate). The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and support to the installation commander, including matters related to the LRO (Legal Review Officer) role. By delegating these duties to the SJA, the installation commander ensures that legal expertise is applied to the LRO responsibilities, such as reviewing legal documents and ensuring compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

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87. When someone enter the air force, which security clearance investigation is performed?

Explanation

When someone enters the air force, an ENTNAC (Entry National Agency Check) security clearance investigation is performed. This type of investigation is conducted to determine an individual's eligibility for access to classified information and to assess their trustworthiness and loyalty to the United States. It involves a thorough background check, including criminal records, employment history, education, and references. The ENTNAC is a standard requirement for individuals seeking entry into the air force or any other branch of the military.

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88. What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?

Explanation

MSCFOs, or Mobile Security Control and Force Operations, perform various functions related to security and control. The given answer states that assessing the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers meet higher headquarters requirements is not a function performed by MSCFOs. This means that MSCFOs are not responsible for evaluating the interior facility and ensuring that it meets the necessary standards set by higher headquarters for designated areas.

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89. Which regulation governs the security foces stan-eval program?

Explanation

AFI 36-2225 is the correct answer because it is the regulation that governs the security forces stan-eval program. The other options (AFI 36-2226, AFI 36-2227, AFI 36-2525) are not relevant to the security forces stan-eval program and do not provide the necessary guidelines and procedures for its implementation.

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90. Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

Explanation

The HQ Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This organization is specifically dedicated to the training and development of security forces personnel in the Air Force. They oversee the implementation of training programs, ensure that all security forces members receive the necessary training, and continuously improve and update the training curriculum to meet the evolving needs of the force.

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91. It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced

Explanation

It is important to pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced a serious violent crime because this type of crime often results in severe physical and emotional trauma. Victims of serious violent crimes may have suffered significant injuries, such as physical assault or sexual assault, which can have long-lasting physical and psychological effects. These victims may require immediate medical attention, counseling, and support to help them cope with the trauma they have experienced.

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92. At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?

Explanation

During the preliminary visual examination, search and rescue teams gather information about the scene and assess the situation. This includes identifying potential hazards, determining the scope of the search area, and evaluating the resources available. Based on this assessment, the team can establish a game plan which outlines the strategies and tactics to be used during the search. This ensures that the search is conducted efficiently and effectively, increasing the chances of locating the target.

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93. What is the publication reference for the tounge and quill?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFH 33-337.

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94. Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?

Explanation

Senior security forces NCOs are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They have the experience and knowledge to assess the training needs of the personnel under their supervision and coordinate with the necessary resources to provide the required training. They also play a crucial role in mentoring and guiding the enlisted personnel in their career development, ensuring they receive the necessary education and training to excel in their roles within the security forces.

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95. On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the onsceen commander deems it appropriate?

Explanation

The United States retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the onscreen commander deems it appropriate. This suggests that the United States military has the authority to make decisions regarding the use of lethal weapons in real-time during a battle. It implies that they have the autonomy to determine when it is necessary to use lethal force based on the circumstances they are facing.

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96. Which specialist develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training?

Explanation

Security systems operators develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training. They are responsible for ensuring that security systems are functioning effectively and that operators are trained to use them properly. This includes developing standard operating procedures, conducting training sessions, and providing ongoing support and guidance to operators. By doing so, security systems operators play a crucial role in maintaining the security and effectiveness of security systems.

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97. A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order of

Explanation

A post priority chart is a listing of posts and patrols in order of precedence, from least important to most important. This order is determined by the ISI (Inter-Services Intelligence) guidelines on precedence.

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Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on strains, or destroy...
What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?
What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically...
When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
Adequate and fair post rtations can assist you in keeping
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What patrol monitors assigned resources ad provides  timed...
All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly...
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The MWD program does not provide security forces units wth the...
Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking...
Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not veen involved in...
What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an...
What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?
Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required...
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When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into...
Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?
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Effective enforement should emphasize selective enforement and drivers...
Which code is not an alarm response code?
Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consisten with...
What is the time limit placed on suspect intervies?
Other than making the situation worse, if occupants see you arrive...
From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most...
When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a...
All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must beproperly...
When questioning a juvenile, what action do yo take if you cannot find...
When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden moveents...
When must you notify the training section that qualification training...
The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring...
Before being assigne operational duties, what two commands must a MWD...
It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post...
Your choice of search method is determine by the intent of the search...
The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency...
When is the military working dog's detection abililty more effective?
Ther personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,
How many days does the security forces stan-eval program allow to...
What installations are required to have an ISP?
If an apprehension is made, in what positon will the handler place the...
The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a...
What is the unit flight schedule based on?
Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a...
What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a...
What does SEI stand for?
Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas whih owner/users...
How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?
Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents,...
The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, within how many...
What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an...
What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection...
In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to...
Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an...
Who is reponsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major...
From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are...
Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
While on a mobile patrol, wher should the MWD be in the vehicle?
Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and...
What is not a required strage procedure for top secret information?
During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "close...
When  two-person internal SRT working within its assigned...
The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
What is not included in the ISP?
What is not an indication of child neglect?
Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting  child...
The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "dull sword" identifies a nuclear...
When using dogs on detecton screen posts, where do you position the to...
The information security program permits teh disclosure of classified...
What is a confession?
Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required...
If any individual appreas to be emotional, distraught, or stunned...
When used in securty operations, what becomes the primary mission of...
Who many delegate authority to approve escoritng orhand-carring...
As a leader and supervisor, you should avid asking questions that...
In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?
Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged...
SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?
Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject...
What is not of of the three sources you can use when testifying in...
The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting...
Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resouce...
The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and...
When someone enter the air force, which security clearance...
What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
Which regulation governs the security foces stan-eval program?
Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who...
At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?
What is the publication reference for the tounge and quill?
Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are...
On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal...
Which specialist develop guidance for security systems operations and...
A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order...
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