CDC Level 7: Air Force Trivia Questions Test! Quiz

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CDC Level 7: Air Force Trivia Questions Test! Quiz - Quiz

Security forces supervisor 7 level CDC. All multiple choice and have to possess at least a 95% or better to pass.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

    • A.

      The first duty day following completion

    • B.

      Within 30 days of completion

    • C.

      72 hours after completion

    • D.

      48 hours after completion

    Correct Answer
    A. The first duty day following completion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the first duty day following completion." This means that as soon as qualification training is finished, it is necessary to notify the training section on the very next day that the training has been completed. This ensures prompt communication and documentation of the completion of training.

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  • 2. 

    The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibilityy of the flight

    • A.

      Commander

    • B.

      Supervisor

    • C.

      SNCO

    • D.

      Chief

    Correct Answer
    D. Chief
    Explanation
    The chief is responsible for the direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions. This means that they have the authority and oversight to ensure that all flight operations are conducted safely and efficiently. They are in charge of making decisions and providing guidance to the flight personnel, ensuring that all procedures and protocols are followed. The chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall effectiveness and success of flight operations.

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  • 3. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

    • A.

      SFS

    • B.

      SFM

    • C.

      SFO

    • D.

      SFT

    Correct Answer
    B. SFM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SFM. SFM stands for Security Forces Manager, who is responsible for overseeing unit manpower, setting and maintaining standards, and conducting evaluations. This role involves ensuring that the unit has the appropriate number of personnel, maintaining the highest standards of performance and professionalism, and conducting regular assessments to measure the effectiveness of the unit. The SFM plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the overall readiness and effectiveness of the unit.

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  • 4. 

    The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior

    • A.

      Security patrol

    • B.

      Security force members

    • C.

      SRT member

    • D.

      ART member

    Correct Answer
    B. Security force members
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "security force members" because they are the ones responsible for performing the duties of the area supervisor. This implies that the area supervisor delegates their duties to the security force members, who then carry out the necessary tasks.

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  • 5. 

    What patrol monitors assigned resources ad provides  timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • A.

      Internal SRT

    • B.

      Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • C.

      Close boundry sentry

    • D.

      External SRT

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is internal SRT. An internal SRT (Security Response Team) is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and providing a timely response within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. They are an internal team that focuses on security and ensures quick and efficient responses to any security-related issues or alarms within the organization.

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  • 6. 

    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • A.

      Internal SRT

    • B.

      Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • C.

      Close boundary sentry

    • D.

      External SRT

    Correct Answer
    D. External SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is external SRT. An external SRT (Security Response Team) operates outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection System), personnel, or incidents. They are trained to assess and handle security threats efficiently and effectively.

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  • 7. 

    When  two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person

    • A.

      Fire teams

    • B.

      Internal SRTs

    • C.

      Security patrols

    • D.

      Close boundary sentries

    Correct Answer
    C. Security patrols
    Explanation
    When two-person internal SRT (Special Response Team) working within its assigned restricted area separates, it is necessary to have a couple of single-person security patrols. These patrols can help maintain security and surveillance in the area, ensuring that there are no breaches or unauthorized access. They can cover a larger area individually and report any suspicious activities or potential threats to the appropriate authorities. By having security patrols in place, the overall security of the restricted area can be effectively maintained.

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  • 8. 

    What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?

    • A.

      Assess exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV

    • B.

      Act as a subordinate C3 centerfor security forces posted during normal operations.

    • C.

      Control entry into strctures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area

    • D.

      Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.

    Correct Answer
    D. Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.
    Explanation
    MSCFOs, or Mobile Security Control and Force Operations, perform various functions related to security and control. The given answer states that assessing the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers meet higher headquarters requirements is not a function performed by MSCFOs. This means that MSCFOs are not responsible for evaluating the interior facility and ensuring that it meets the necessary standards set by higher headquarters for designated areas.

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  • 9. 

    Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resouce boundary is the responsibility of the

    • A.

      MSCFO

    • B.

      IVA

    • C.

      CCTV

    • D.

      CBS

    Correct Answer
    D. CBS
    Explanation
    CBS stands for Closed Circuit Television, which is a system that allows for video surveillance of a specific area or boundary. It is responsible for providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary.

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  • 10. 

    What does SEI stand for?

    • A.

      Security entry identifier

    • B.

      Security experience index

    • C.

      Special delivery identifier

    • D.

      Special experience identifier

    Correct Answer
    D. Special experience identifier
    Explanation
    SEI stands for Special Experience Identifier. This term refers to a unique identifier that is used to categorize or classify a particular experience or qualification that an individual possesses. It is commonly used in various industries or professions to differentiate individuals based on their specialized skills, knowledge, or expertise in a specific area. Therefore, the correct answer is "special experience identifier."

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  • 11. 

    The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify

    • A.

      Existing resources capable of deploying, avboiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD

    • B.

      Manpower critical resouces that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs

    • C.

      Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs

    • D.

      How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron

    Correct Answer
    C. Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs
    Explanation
    The purpose of awarding a SEI (Special Experience Identifier) is to identify existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs. This means that individuals who possess specific skills, knowledge, or experience that are valuable in certain situations or for specific tasks can be recognized and utilized accordingly. The SEI helps to ensure that the right resources are allocated to meet the specific needs and demands of different circumstances, contingencies, or management requirements.

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  • 12. 

    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed nd specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office?

    • A.

      Report of survey office of investigation

    • B.

      Air force offie of investigation

    • C.

      Security forces training team

    • D.

      Security forces investigations

    Correct Answer
    D. Security forces investigations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is security forces investigations. This office is responsible for investigating crimes and incidents that require more detailed and specialized analysis than what is typically conducted while on a flight. They have the expertise and resources to handle these types of investigations effectively.

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  • 13. 

    Which specialist develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training?

    • A.

      Phoenix ravens

    • B.

      Security systems operators

    • C.

      Electronic security systems

    • D.

      Antiterrorism/force protection

    Correct Answer
    B. Security systems operators
    Explanation
    Security systems operators develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training. They are responsible for ensuring that security systems are functioning effectively and that operators are trained to use them properly. This includes developing standard operating procedures, conducting training sessions, and providing ongoing support and guidance to operators. By doing so, security systems operators play a crucial role in maintaining the security and effectiveness of security systems.

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  • 14. 

    What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?

    • A.

      Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

    • B.

      Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill level upgrade training

    • C.

      Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet missionrequirements

    • D.

      Informs stan-eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the unit training section does not include coordinating with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

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  • 15. 

    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

    • A.

      Investigations

    • B.

      Crime prevention

    • C.

      Resource protection

    • D.

      Reports and analysis

    Correct Answer
    D. Reports and analysis
    Explanation
    The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis lies with the office of "reports and analysis". This office is responsible for gathering and organizing criminal incident data, analyzing it, and preparing reports and statistical analysis based on the data. They ensure that all necessary information and statistics are provided to support investigations, crime prevention efforts, and resource protection.

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  • 16. 

    Which regulation governs the security foces stan-eval program?

    • A.

      AFI 36-2225

    • B.

      AFI 36-2226

    • C.

      AFI 36-2227

    • D.

      AFI 36-2525

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 36-2225
    Explanation
    AFI 36-2225 is the correct answer because it is the regulation that governs the security forces stan-eval program. The other options (AFI 36-2226, AFI 36-2227, AFI 36-2525) are not relevant to the security forces stan-eval program and do not provide the necessary guidelines and procedures for its implementation.

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  • 17. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • A.

      Analysis

    • B.

      Feedback

    • C.

      Evaluation

    • D.

      Cross-feed

    Correct Answer
    B. Feedback
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with information about the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. It allows commanders to understand how their decisions are being received and implemented by their subordinates and provides insights into areas that may need improvement. Feedback helps commanders make informed decisions, adjust their strategies, and ultimately achieve their objectives more effectively.

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  • 18. 

    How many days does the security forces stan-eval program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual compets qualification training?

    • A.

      120

    • B.

      90

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      30

    Correct Answer
    D. 30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30. The security forces stan-eval program allows 30 days to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training. This timeframe ensures that the evaluation is conducted promptly and allows for the assessment of the individual's skills and readiness within a reasonable timeframe.

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  • 19. 

    After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the sectin have to conduct a reevaluation?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      21

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    C. 15
    Explanation
    After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, the section has to conduct a reevaluation within 15 days after the individual completes review training. This suggests that there is a time limit for the section to reassess the individual's performance and provide another evaluation opportunity.

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  • 20. 

    The MWD program does not provide security forces units wth the capability to

    • A.

      Enforce military laws and regulations

    • B.

      Detect classified information

    • C.

      Suppress illegal drug use

    • D.

      Detect explosives

    Correct Answer
    B. Detect classified information
    Explanation
    The MWD program refers to the Military Working Dog program. This program is not designed to provide security forces units with the capability to detect classified information. The main purpose of the MWD program is to train and utilize dogs for tasks such as patrol, search and rescue, and detecting explosives or illegal drugs. Detecting classified information is typically the responsibility of specialized personnel and equipment, not the MWD program.

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  • 21. 

    Before being assigne operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

    • A.

      OUT and IN

    • B.

      SIT and STAY

    • C.

      OUT and HEEL

    • D.

      STAY and HEEL

    Correct Answer
    C. OUT and HEEL
    Explanation
    Before being assigned operational duties, a MWD (Military Working Dog) must obey the commands "OUT" and "HEEL". The command "OUT" is used to teach the dog to release or let go of an object, while the command "HEEL" is used to teach the dog to walk closely beside their handler's left side. These commands are important for the dog's safety and control during operations.

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  • 22. 

    When used in securty operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

    • A.

      Deterrence

    • B.

      Detention

    • C.

      Decoying

    • D.

      Detection

    Correct Answer
    D. Detection
    Explanation
    In security operations, the primary mission of the MWD (Military Working Dog) is detection. These highly trained dogs are used to detect explosives, drugs, and other illicit substances. They have a keen sense of smell and are able to locate hidden items that may pose a threat to security. By detecting these items, the MWDs play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of the area they are deployed in.

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  • 23. 

    When using dogs on detecton screen posts, where do you position the to get maximum usage?

    • A.

      In low contact areas, so they don't give away your position to the enemy by barking

    • B.

      Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability

    • C.

      At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons

    • D.

      Downwind of ll personnel, so that there is no scen confusion between you and the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    C. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests positioning the dogs at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. By placing the dogs in these strategic locations, they can effectively deter and prevent unauthorized individuals from entering the area. This positioning allows the dogs to act as a security measure and serve as a barrier against potential threats.

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  • 24. 

    What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

    • A.

      Location and size of area

    • B.

      Time and terrain features

    • C.

      Wind speed and direction

    • D.

      Experiece of canine and handler

    Correct Answer
    A. Location and size of area
    Explanation
    Leaders must consider the location and size of an area before placing MWD (Military Working Dog) teams. The location is important because it determines the specific environment and potential threats that the teams may encounter. The size of the area is crucial as it affects the resources and manpower required to effectively cover and secure the area. By considering these factors, leaders can make informed decisions about deploying MWD teams to ensure maximum effectiveness and safety.

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  • 25. 

    What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

    • A.

      Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern

    • B.

      Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift

    • C.

      Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks

    • D.

      Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern
    Explanation
    The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable pattern, it becomes more difficult for potential threats to anticipate the movements of the MWD teams. This element of surprise enhances the psychological protection of the teams and reduces the risk of being targeted or ambushed.

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  • 26. 

    From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

    • A.

      Upwind

    • B.

      Crosswind

    • C.

      Downwind

    • D.

      Wind direction doesn't matter

    Correct Answer
    C. Downwind
    Explanation
    A dog team should approach a building they are about to check from the downwind direction. This is because approaching from downwind allows the dogs to catch any scents or smells that may be coming from inside the building. By approaching downwind, the dogs can use their sense of smell effectively to detect any potential threats or hidden individuals inside the building. Approaching from upwind or crosswind may cause the scent to be carried away from the dogs, making it more difficult for them to detect any potential dangers.

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  • 27. 

    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

    • A.

      Danger to the canine

    • B.

      Time left in patrol shift

    • C.

      Type and size of building

    • D.

      Weather conditions just prior to the search

    Correct Answer
    C. Type and size of building
    Explanation
    When conducting a building search, the handler must consider the type and size of the building before releasing the MWD. This is important because different types of buildings require different search strategies and may present different hazards or challenges for the canine. The size of the building will also affect the search plan and the time it may take for the MWD to complete the search. By considering these factors, the handler can ensure that the MWD is deployed effectively and safely in the building search operation.

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  • 28. 

    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

    • A.

      Physical deterrent

    • B.

      Physicians deterrent

    • C.

      Physiological deterrent

    • D.

      Psychological deterrent

    Correct Answer
    D. Psychological deterrent
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a well-trained and intimidating dog can create fear and apprehension in potential criminals, discouraging them from engaging in unlawful activities. The psychological impact of a patrol dog's presence can influence the behavior of individuals, making them think twice before committing a crime. This serves as a deterrent and enhances the overall effectiveness of police operations.

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  • 29. 

    Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?

    • A.

      They should be tolerant of people

    • B.

      They should not be used often in daylight hours

    • C.

      The presence of a large number of people should not significanly reduce the dog's usefulness

    • D.

      Patrol dogs should be able tow alk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression.

    Correct Answer
    B. They should not be used often in daylight hours
    Explanation
    The statement "they should not be used often in daylight hours" is not true. Military working dogs are trained to work in various conditions, including daylight hours. They are trained to perform their duties regardless of the time of day and should be able to adapt to different environments and situations.

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  • 30. 

    When is the military working dog's detection abililty more effective?

    • A.

      During daylight hours- they can use sight and sound

    • B.

      During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions

    • C.

      High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions

    • D.

      During periods of dense fog ad darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

    Correct Answer
    B. During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions
    Explanation
    During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions, the military working dog's detection ability is more effective. This is because in such conditions, the dog's heightened sense of smell and hearing can be utilized without being overwhelmed by visual distractions. The reduced visibility allows the dog to focus solely on detecting scents and sounds, increasing their effectiveness in detecting potential threats or targets.

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  • 31. 

    While on a mobile patrol, wher should the MWD be in the vehicle?

    • A.

      On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving

    • B.

      In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup trucks

    • C.

      Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle

    • D.

      On leash, laying down on he back seat

    Correct Answer
    C. Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle". This is because having the MWD off leash allows it to move freely and respond quickly in case of any situation. Placing the MWD on the front or rear seat ensures that it is secure and comfortable during the patrol. Having the MWD on the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving can be dangerous and distracting. Placing it in a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck may expose the MWD to potential hazards and is not as secure as having it inside the vehicle.

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  • 32. 

    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

    • A.

      AF Forms 629 and 1297

    • B.

      AF Forms 629 and 1473

    • C.

      AF Forms 1297 and 1473

    • D.

      AF Forms 1473 and 1279

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Forms 629 and 1297
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Forms 629 and 1297. These two forms are normally used for the receipt of weapons.

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  • 33. 

    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

    • A.

      Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs

    • B.

      After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed

    • C.

      Before firing, after a three day break, andwhe directed by the armory

    • D.

      Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel

    Correct Answer
    B. After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed
    Explanation
    Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are maintained in proper working condition and ready for use. Cleaning the weapons after firing removes any residue or debris that may have accumulated during use, while cleaning during inclement weather prevents moisture or other elements from causing damage. Regular cleaning as needed helps to prevent malfunctions and ensures the longevity of the weapons.

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  • 34. 

    What installations are required to have an ISP?

    • A.

      Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop and ISP

    • B.

      The base ommander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not

    • C.

      All installations having or supporting protection level resources must etablish a plan

    • D.

      Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.

    Correct Answer
    C. All installations having or supporting protection level resources must etablish a plan
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan. This means that any installation that has resources that require protection, such as sensitive information or critical infrastructure, must have an Information Security Program (ISP) in place. This program helps to ensure the security and confidentiality of these resources, and outlines the necessary protocols and procedures to mitigate risks and prevent unauthorized access or breaches. It is a crucial requirement for installations that handle sensitive data or support critical operations.

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  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?

    • A.

      Wing plans and programs section

    • B.

      Installation security police chief

    • C.

      Installation commander

    • D.

      MAJCOM commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the ISI (Installation Security Instruction) is issued, approved, and implemented. As the highest-ranking officer in charge of the installation, the commander has the authority and accountability to oversee all security measures and protocols. This includes ensuring that the ISI is developed, reviewed, and enforced to maintain the safety and security of the installation and its personnel. The commander works closely with various departments and personnel to ensure that the ISI is properly implemented and followed throughout the installation.

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  • 36. 

    If an apprehension is made, in what positon will the handler place the dog?

    • A.

      Sit/stay

    • B.

      Guard

    • C.

      Heel

    • D.

      Out

    Correct Answer
    B. Guard
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "guard". When an apprehension is made, the handler will place the dog in a "guard" position. This means that the dog will be positioned to protect and defend its handler, maintaining a watchful and alert stance. The guard position is commonly used in situations where there is a potential threat or danger present, and the dog needs to be ready to react and respond accordingly.

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  • 37. 

    What is not included in the ISP?

    • A.

      Threat etimate, a terrain and weathe analysis of the nstallation and its surroundings

    • B.

      Assessment of the installation's vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage

    • C.

      A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment

    • D.

      An estimate of support from friendly forces

    Correct Answer
    C. A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment
    Explanation
    The ISP (Installation Security Plan) is a comprehensive plan that focuses on assessing and mitigating security risks to an installation. It includes various elements such as threat estimation, terrain and weather analysis, vulnerability assessment, and estimating support from friendly forces. However, a cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment is not included in the ISP. This means that the plan does not specifically address the financial aspects of acquiring and implementing anti-terrorism equipment.

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  • 38. 

    The information security program permits teh disclosure of classified information only to

    • A.

      Personnel who can demonstrate a need to know

    • B.

      Personnel who have requested a freedom on information act request

    • C.

      Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties

    • D.

      An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question

    Correct Answer
    C. Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties. In an information security program, classified information should only be disclosed to individuals who have been cleared and have a legitimate need to know the information for their official duties. This ensures that sensitive information is only accessed by authorized personnel and helps to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the information.

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  • 39. 

    What is not a required strage procedure for top secret information?

    • A.

      Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved ooptions

    • B.

      Class A vault-type room as prescribed by air force guidance

    • C.

      Two-perosn concept, guarding the materal behind a locked door

    • D.

      GSA-approved security container

    Correct Answer
    C. Two-perosn concept, guarding the materal behind a locked door
    Explanation
    The two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door, is not a required storage procedure for top secret information. This answer suggests that having two individuals guarding the material is not necessary for ensuring the security of top secret information. The other options, such as alarmed areas with high protection, class A vault-type rooms, and GSA-approved security containers, all provide measures that are considered essential for storing top secret information securely.

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  • 40. 

    Who many delegate authority to approve escoritng orhand-carring classified material on commercial aircraft outside the united states, its territories, or canada?

    • A.

      Only the chairman, joint chiefs of staff

    • B.

      Only MAJCOM commanders

    • C.

      Only wing commanders

    • D.

      No one

    Correct Answer
    B. Only MAJCOM commanders
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "only MAJCOM commanders." This means that only Major Command (MAJCOM) commanders have the authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified material on commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada. This authority is not given to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff or wing commanders.

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  • 41. 

    When someone enter the air force, which security clearance investigation is performed?

    • A.

      A NAC

    • B.

      SSBI

    • C.

      An ENTNAC

    • D.

      NACI

    Correct Answer
    C. An ENTNAC
    Explanation
    When someone enters the air force, an ENTNAC (Entry National Agency Check) security clearance investigation is performed. This type of investigation is conducted to determine an individual's eligibility for access to classified information and to assess their trustworthiness and loyalty to the United States. It involves a thorough background check, including criminal records, employment history, education, and references. The ENTNAC is a standard requirement for individuals seeking entry into the air force or any other branch of the military.

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  • 42. 

    SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?

    • A.

      Secret

    • B.

      Classified

    • C.

      Top secret

    • D.

      Confidential

    Correct Answer
    C. Top secret
    Explanation
    SSBIs, or Single Scope Background Investigations, are required for personnel who need a top secret clearance. This level of clearance is necessary for individuals who will have access to highly sensitive and classified information that could potentially cause severe damage to national security if disclosed. SSBIs involve a comprehensive investigation into an individual's background, including interviews with friends, family, and coworkers, as well as a thorough examination of their financial, criminal, and personal history. This level of scrutiny ensures that only trustworthy individuals are granted access to top secret information.

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  • 43. 

    The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

    • A.

      Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission

    • B.

      Ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year

    • C.

      Determine what type of budge congress is up against wen their session starts

    • D.

      Ensure the air force is llowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year
    Explanation
    The basic purpose of a financial plan submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the plan aims to allocate funds fairly and evenly across different areas or branches of service, ensuring that each receives the necessary funding to fulfill their mission. By doing so, the financial plan promotes fairness and balance in the distribution of resources, allowing for effective and efficient utilization of the budget.

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  • 44. 

    All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked , have emergency lights, sirens and a

    • A.

      Spare tire

    • B.

      Public address system

    • C.

      Set of keys hidden in the dash

    • D.

      NCIC computer

    Correct Answer
    B. Public address system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a public address system. This is because it is stated that all permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This suggests that a public address system is a necessary requirement for these vehicles.

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  • 45. 

    All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must beproperly marke and have

    • A.

      SF badges applied to both the front doors

    • B.

      Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios

    • C.

      Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system

    • D.

      A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD

    Correct Answer
    C. Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. This answer is supported by the statement that all temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have SF badges applied to both the front doors. The use of portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system would help in clearly identifying and communicating the presence of the security forces vehicle to the public. This would enhance the visibility and effectiveness of the vehicle in carrying out its security duties.

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  • 46. 

    Effective enforement should emphasize selective enforement and drivers complying

    • A.

      Voluntarily

    • B.

      Unwillingly

    • C.

      Mandatorily

    • D.

      Involuntarily

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntarily
    Explanation
    Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying voluntarily. This means that enforcement should focus on specific areas or behaviors that pose the greatest risk, rather than trying to enforce all traffic laws equally. By encouraging drivers to comply voluntarily, it promotes a sense of responsibility and encourages them to make safer choices on the road. This approach can be more effective in changing driver behavior and reducing accidents compared to enforcing laws mandatorily or involuntarily.

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  • 47. 

    Which code is not an alarm response code?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code. The options provided are 4, 3, 2, and 1. Among these options, 4 is not an alarm response code. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

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  • 48. 

    Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

    • A.

      Terminate response

    • B.

      Immediately secure the area

    • C.

      Search for suspicious individuals

    • D.

      Search the exterior for open doors or windows

    Correct Answer
    B. Immediately secure the area
    Explanation
    Upon arrival on-scene, the first action should be to immediately secure the area. This is important to ensure the safety of everyone involved and prevent any further harm or potential danger. Securing the area involves establishing control, setting up boundaries, and restricting access to unauthorized individuals. It allows the responders to assess the situation, gather information, and determine the appropriate course of action.

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  • 49. 

    Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas whih owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

    • A.

      PL 1

    • B.

      PL 2

    • C.

      PL 3

    • D.

      PL 4

    Correct Answer
    D. PL 4
    Explanation
    PL 4 resources are contained in controlled areas where owner/users are primarily responsible for security. This means that the resources classified under PL 4 require a higher level of security and protection. The owner/users of these resources are responsible for implementing and maintaining the necessary security measures to safeguard them. This could include physical security measures, access controls, encryption, and other security protocols. The owner/users have the ultimate responsibility for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the PL 4 resources within the controlled areas.

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  • 50. 

    What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the cmmand " open ranks MARCH"?

    • A.

      The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval ( arm's length). each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes a dress right.

    • B.

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm's length). each succedding element in front of them takes two, four, or six paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • C.

      The last element stands fast and automaticallyexecues a dress right at a normalinterval (arm's length). each succeeding element in from of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automaticallyexecutes a dress right.

    • D.

      The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm's length) . each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces, respectively, forward, halts and automatically executes a dress right

    Correct Answer
    C. The last element stands fast and automaticallyexecues a dress right at a normalinterval (arm's length). each succeeding element in from of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automaticallyexecutes a dress right.
    Explanation
    After the command "open ranks MARCH", the last element in the flight will stand fast and automatically execute a dress right at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them will take one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halt, and automatically execute a dress right. This means that the flight will adjust their positions by stepping forward and aligning themselves in a proper formation, ensuring that the distance between each member is maintained.

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