CDC Level 7: Air Force Trivia Questions Test! Quiz

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  • 1/97 Questions

    Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on strains, or destroy footprints ortire marks at a crime scene

    • Would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.
    • Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime
    • Could be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location
    • Would have no effect and allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker and a suspect found faster
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About This Quiz

Security forces supervisor 7 level CDC. All multiple choice and have to possess at least a 95% or better to pass.

CDC Level 7: Air Force Trivia Questions Test! Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?

    • Calm, positive, and helpful

    • Agitated, positive, and helpful

    • Uncaring, bothered, and hurried

    • Aggressive, hostile, and immediate

    Correct Answer
    A. Calm, positive, and helpful
    Explanation
    When arriving on-scene, it is important to set a calm, positive, and helpful tone for your first impression. This is because a calm demeanor helps to create a sense of stability and reassurance in potentially stressful situations. Being positive and helpful shows that you are approachable and ready to assist others. This tone promotes effective communication and fosters a cooperative atmosphere, which can be crucial in resolving any issues or providing necessary support.

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  • 3. 

    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • Close boundary sentry

    • External SRT

    Correct Answer
    A. External SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is external SRT. An external SRT (Security Response Team) operates outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection System), personnel, or incidents. They are trained to assess and handle security threats efficiently and effectively.

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  • 4. 

    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

    • Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs

    • After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed

    • Before firing, after a three day break, andwhe directed by the armory

    • Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed
    Explanation
    Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are maintained in proper working condition and ready for use. Cleaning the weapons after firing removes any residue or debris that may have accumulated during use, while cleaning during inclement weather prevents moisture or other elements from causing damage. Regular cleaning as needed helps to prevent malfunctions and ensures the longevity of the weapons.

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  • 5. 

    Adequate and fair post rtations can assist you in keeping

    • Flight morale high

    • Duty position assignments limited

    • The same higly skilled person at the same post

    • A new flight member focused on a particular duty position

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight morale high
    Explanation
    Adequate and fair post rotations can assist in keeping flight morale high. When individuals are constantly assigned to the same duty position, it can lead to burnout and decreased motivation. By rotating individuals to different positions, it allows them to learn new skills, prevents monotony, and promotes a sense of fairness within the team. This can contribute to a positive and motivated atmosphere within the flight, ultimately boosting morale.

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  • 6. 

    The beneftit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows

    • Photographs to be taken

    • Responding patrols to better piece together events

    • The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery

    • The investigator to perform advisement of rights to personnel at the scene

    Correct Answer
    A. The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery
    Explanation
    Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery. This means that no evidence will be tampered with or contaminated, ensuring the integrity of the crime scene. By reviewing the scene in its original state, the investigator can gather accurate information, identify potential clues, and make informed decisions regarding the investigation. This is crucial for a thorough and effective investigation.

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  • 7. 

    What patrol monitors assigned resources ad provides  timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • Close boundry sentry

    • External SRT

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is internal SRT. An internal SRT (Security Response Team) is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and providing a timely response within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. They are an internal team that focuses on security and ensures quick and efficient responses to any security-related issues or alarms within the organization.

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  • 8. 

    All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked , have emergency lights, sirens and a

    • Spare tire

    • Public address system

    • Set of keys hidden in the dash

    • NCIC computer

    Correct Answer
    A. Public address system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a public address system. This is because it is stated that all permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This suggests that a public address system is a necessary requirement for these vehicles.

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  • 9. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • Analysis

    • Feedback

    • Evaluation

    • Cross-feed

    Correct Answer
    A. Feedback
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with information about the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. It allows commanders to understand how their decisions are being received and implemented by their subordinates and provides insights into areas that may need improvement. Feedback helps commanders make informed decisions, adjust their strategies, and ultimately achieve their objectives more effectively.

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  • 10. 

    The MWD program does not provide security forces units wth the capability to

    • Enforce military laws and regulations

    • Detect classified information

    • Suppress illegal drug use

    • Detect explosives

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect classified information
    Explanation
    The MWD program refers to the Military Working Dog program. This program is not designed to provide security forces units with the capability to detect classified information. The main purpose of the MWD program is to train and utilize dogs for tasks such as patrol, search and rescue, and detecting explosives or illegal drugs. Detecting classified information is typically the responsibility of specialized personnel and equipment, not the MWD program.

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  • 11. 

    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

    • AF Forms 629 and 1297

    • AF Forms 629 and 1473

    • AF Forms 1297 and 1473

    • AF Forms 1473 and 1279

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Forms 629 and 1297
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Forms 629 and 1297. These two forms are normally used for the receipt of weapons.

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  • 12. 

    Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

    • Fit for duty

    • Prepared to prsent a post briefing

    • Complying with appearance directives

    • In possession of all required equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Prepared to prsent a post briefing
    Explanation
    The personnel inspection during guardmount focuses on ensuring that the individual is prepared to present a post briefing. This means that they have all the necessary information and materials to effectively communicate the necessary details to the incoming shift. The other options mentioned, such as being fit for duty, complying with appearance directives, and having all required equipment, may be important aspects of the inspection but they are not specifically mentioned in the given question.

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  • 13. 

    Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not veen involved in the preliminary investigation

    • Interferes with the ongoing investigation

    • Allows for a fair share of the responsibilities within your flight

    • Adds realism to the training environment for a new patrol officer

    • Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects

    Correct Answer
    A. Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects
    Explanation
    Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This is important because it allows for a more objective assessment of the evidence and potential leads. By having someone who is not familiar with the case examine the scene, it increases the chances of discovering overlooked details or connections that could be crucial to the investigation. Additionally, it helps to prevent any potential bias or preconceived notions that may have developed during the initial investigation.

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  • 14. 

    What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect ready to provide information?

    • Let aother investigator conduct the interview

    • Nothing because the suspect does not have to like you

    • Step out for a few minutes to let the suspect calm down

    • Place them in a holding cell until they are ready to continue

    Correct Answer
    A. Let aother investigator conduct the interview
    Explanation
    If a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and a suspect ready to provide information, it would be best to let another investigator conduct the interview. This ensures that the conflict does not interfere with the gathering of information and maintains a professional and unbiased approach. By allowing a different investigator to handle the interview, it increases the chances of obtaining accurate and reliable information from the suspect.

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  • 15. 

    What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?

    • Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

    • Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill level upgrade training

    • Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet missionrequirements

    • Informs stan-eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the unit training section does not include coordinating with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

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  • 16. 

    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

    • Investigations

    • Crime prevention

    • Resource protection

    • Reports and analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Reports and analysis
    Explanation
    The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis lies with the office of "reports and analysis". This office is responsible for gathering and organizing criminal incident data, analyzing it, and preparing reports and statistical analysis based on the data. They ensure that all necessary information and statistics are provided to support investigations, crime prevention efforts, and resource protection.

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  • 17. 

    What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

    • Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern

    • Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift

    • Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks

    • Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern
    Explanation
    The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable pattern, it becomes more difficult for potential threats to anticipate the movements of the MWD teams. This element of surprise enhances the psychological protection of the teams and reduces the risk of being targeted or ambushed.

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  • 18. 

    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

    • Danger to the canine

    • Time left in patrol shift

    • Type and size of building

    • Weather conditions just prior to the search

    Correct Answer
    A. Type and size of building
    Explanation
    When conducting a building search, the handler must consider the type and size of the building before releasing the MWD. This is important because different types of buildings require different search strategies and may present different hazards or challenges for the canine. The size of the building will also affect the search plan and the time it may take for the MWD to complete the search. By considering these factors, the handler can ensure that the MWD is deployed effectively and safely in the building search operation.

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  • 19. 

    Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?

    • Reporters

    • Medical staff

    • Photographers

    • Key personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Key personnel
    Explanation
    Key personnel are allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident. This is because key personnel are individuals who have specific roles and responsibilities related to managing and responding to the incident. They are trained and equipped to handle the risks and challenges associated with the situation. Reporters, photographers, and medical staff may have important roles in covering or providing assistance during the incident, but they are typically not granted access to the inner perimeter due to safety concerns and the need to maintain order and control.

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  • 20. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

    • SFS

    • SFM

    • SFO

    • SFT

    Correct Answer
    A. SFM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SFM. SFM stands for Security Forces Manager, who is responsible for overseeing unit manpower, setting and maintaining standards, and conducting evaluations. This role involves ensuring that the unit has the appropriate number of personnel, maintaining the highest standards of performance and professionalism, and conducting regular assessments to measure the effectiveness of the unit. The SFM plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the overall readiness and effectiveness of the unit.

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  • 21. 

    Effective enforement should emphasize selective enforement and drivers complying

    • Voluntarily

    • Unwillingly

    • Mandatorily

    • Involuntarily

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntarily
    Explanation
    Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying voluntarily. This means that enforcement should focus on specific areas or behaviors that pose the greatest risk, rather than trying to enforce all traffic laws equally. By encouraging drivers to comply voluntarily, it promotes a sense of responsibility and encourages them to make safer choices on the road. This approach can be more effective in changing driver behavior and reducing accidents compared to enforcing laws mandatorily or involuntarily.

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  • 22. 

    Which code is not an alarm response code?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code. The options provided are 4, 3, 2, and 1. Among these options, 4 is not an alarm response code. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

    • Terminate response

    • Immediately secure the area

    • Search for suspicious individuals

    • Search the exterior for open doors or windows

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately secure the area
    Explanation
    Upon arrival on-scene, the first action should be to immediately secure the area. This is important to ensure the safety of everyone involved and prevent any further harm or potential danger. Securing the area involves establishing control, setting up boundaries, and restricting access to unauthorized individuals. It allows the responders to assess the situation, gather information, and determine the appropriate course of action.

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  • 24. 

    Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consisten with sound

    • COMSEC practices

    • INFOSEC practices

    • HUMINT practices

    • OPSEC practices

    Correct Answer
    A. OPSEC practices
    Explanation
    The correct answer is OPSEC practices. OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which is a process used to protect sensitive information and activities from potential adversaries. In this context, posting the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound OPSEC practices means ensuring that the roster is displayed in a visible location for the necessary personnel, while also ensuring that it does not compromise any sensitive information or operations. This could involve using secure methods of displaying the roster or limiting access to only authorized individuals.

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  • 25. 

    What is the time limit placed on suspect intervies?

    • The amount of time necessary to obtain a confession

    • There is no time limit set on an interview

    • No more than 30 mins

    • No more than 60 mins

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no time limit set on an interview
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that there is no time limit set on an interview. This means that when conducting suspect interviews, there is no specific duration or time constraint imposed. The length of the interview can vary depending on various factors such as the complexity of the case, the cooperation of the suspect, and the progress being made in gathering information. Therefore, investigators have the flexibility to conduct interviews for as long as necessary to obtain the desired outcome, which may include obtaining a confession or gathering relevant information.

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  • 26. 

    Other than making the situation worse, if occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may hve time to

    • Leave

    • Call a lawyer

    • Get their story straight

    • Conceal evidence of a crime

    Correct Answer
    A. Conceal evidence of a crime
    Explanation
    If occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to conceal evidence of a crime. This means that if the occupants are involved in any illegal activities, they can hide or destroy any proof that could potentially incriminate them. By arriving on the scene, you may inadvertently give them the opportunity to cover up their wrongdoing, making it harder for law enforcement to gather evidence and build a case against them.

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  • 27. 

    From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when

    • The hostage negotiation team is attempting to make contact

    • Most of the traveling occurs, after th hostage is abducted

    • The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction

    • All deals are made for the release of the hostages

    Correct Answer
    A. The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction." This suggests that during the first 15 to 45 minutes after a hostage is taken, the hostage takers are likely to be in a state of panic or heightened emotions. This can make them more unpredictable and potentially dangerous, increasing the risk for the hostage. It is important for the hostage negotiation team to handle the situation delicately during this time to ensure the safety of the hostages and to try to calm the hostage takers down.

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  • 28. 

    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

    • Physical deterrent

    • Physicians deterrent

    • Physiological deterrent

    • Psychological deterrent

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a well-trained and intimidating dog can create fear and apprehension in potential criminals, discouraging them from engaging in unlawful activities. The psychological impact of a patrol dog's presence can influence the behavior of individuals, making them think twice before committing a crime. This serves as a deterrent and enhances the overall effectiveness of police operations.

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  • 29. 

    All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must beproperly marke and have

    • SF badges applied to both the front doors

    • Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios

    • Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system

    • A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD

    Correct Answer
    A. Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. This answer is supported by the statement that all temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have SF badges applied to both the front doors. The use of portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system would help in clearly identifying and communicating the presence of the security forces vehicle to the public. This would enhance the visibility and effectiveness of the vehicle in carrying out its security duties.

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  • 30. 

    When questioning a juvenile, what action do yo take if you cannot find a parent r the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?

    • Seek CSP advice

    • Seek ADC advice

    • Seek SJA advice

    • Question them with a witness

    Correct Answer
    A. Seek SJA advice
    Explanation
    If you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner when questioning a juvenile, seeking SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) advice would be the appropriate action to take. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on how to proceed in such situations, ensuring that the juvenile's rights are protected and proper procedures are followed. They can offer advice on the best course of action and help navigate any legal complexities that may arise during the questioning process.

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  • 31. 

    When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden moveents or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be

    • Hiding drugs

    • Looking for n escape

    • Cold and wants a jacket

    • Hiding an injured family member or a weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. Hiding an injured family member or a weapon
    Explanation
    When interviewing residents, it is important to be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be hiding an injured family member or a weapon. This behavior could indicate that they are trying to conceal something or protect someone who is injured or potentially dangerous. It is crucial for the interviewer to remain vigilant and assess the situation carefully to ensure their own safety and the safety of others involved.

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  • 32. 

    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

    • The first duty day following completion

    • Within 30 days of completion

    • 72 hours after completion

    • 48 hours after completion

    Correct Answer
    A. The first duty day following completion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the first duty day following completion." This means that as soon as qualification training is finished, it is necessary to notify the training section on the very next day that the training has been completed. This ensures prompt communication and documentation of the completion of training.

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  • 33. 

    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed nd specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office?

    • Report of survey office of investigation

    • Air force offie of investigation

    • Security forces training team

    • Security forces investigations

    Correct Answer
    A. Security forces investigations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is security forces investigations. This office is responsible for investigating crimes and incidents that require more detailed and specialized analysis than what is typically conducted while on a flight. They have the expertise and resources to handle these types of investigations effectively.

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  • 34. 

    Before being assigne operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

    • OUT and IN

    • SIT and STAY

    • OUT and HEEL

    • STAY and HEEL

    Correct Answer
    A. OUT and HEEL
    Explanation
    Before being assigned operational duties, a MWD (Military Working Dog) must obey the commands "OUT" and "HEEL". The command "OUT" is used to teach the dog to release or let go of an object, while the command "HEEL" is used to teach the dog to walk closely beside their handler's left side. These commands are important for the dog's safety and control during operations.

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  • 35. 

    It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

    • Proficiency

    • Discipline

    • Fairness

    • Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Proficiency
    Explanation
    Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified to do is important in order to maintain proficiency. This practice allows individuals to gain experience and knowledge in different roles, enhancing their skills and expertise. It also prevents individuals from becoming too specialized or stagnant in one position, ensuring they stay up-to-date with industry developments. By regularly rotating personnel, organizations can ensure that their workforce remains competent and capable in various tasks, ultimately improving overall performance and productivity.

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  • 36. 

    Your choice of search method is determine by the intent of the search and by the

    • Number of personnel available

    • Size of the item to be found

    • Amount of time available

    • Area to be covered

    Correct Answer
    A. Area to be covered
    Explanation
    The choice of search method is determined by the area to be covered. The larger the area, the more personnel and time will be required to conduct the search effectively. If the area is small, fewer personnel and less time will be needed. Therefore, the size of the area to be covered is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate search method.

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  • 37. 

    The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibilityy of the flight

    • Commander

    • Supervisor

    • SNCO

    • Chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief
    Explanation
    The chief is responsible for the direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions. This means that they have the authority and oversight to ensure that all flight operations are conducted safely and efficiently. They are in charge of making decisions and providing guidance to the flight personnel, ensuring that all procedures and protocols are followed. The chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall effectiveness and success of flight operations.

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  • 38. 

    When is the military working dog's detection abililty more effective?

    • During daylight hours- they can use sight and sound

    • During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions

    • High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions

    • During periods of dense fog ad darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

    Correct Answer
    A. During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions
    Explanation
    During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions, the military working dog's detection ability is more effective. This is because in such conditions, the dog's heightened sense of smell and hearing can be utilized without being overwhelmed by visual distractions. The reduced visibility allows the dog to focus solely on detecting scents and sounds, increasing their effectiveness in detecting potential threats or targets.

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  • 39. 

    Ther personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,

    • Tact, poise, and self-assurance

    • Tact, poise , and self-confidence

    • Reliance, poise, and self-confidence

    • Cockiness, poise, and self-confidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Tact, poise , and self-confidence
    Explanation
    The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are tact, poise, and self-confidence. These attributes are important because testifying requires the ability to communicate effectively and respectfully, maintain composure under pressure, and have belief in oneself and one's testimony. Tact is necessary to navigate sensitive or difficult questions, while poise helps to project credibility and professionalism. Self-confidence is crucial for presenting information confidently and persuasively.

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  • 40. 

    How many days does the security forces stan-eval program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual compets qualification training?

    • 120

    • 90

    • 60

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30. The security forces stan-eval program allows 30 days to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training. This timeframe ensures that the evaluation is conducted promptly and allows for the assessment of the individual's skills and readiness within a reasonable timeframe.

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  • 41. 

    What installations are required to have an ISP?

    • Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop and ISP

    • The base ommander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not

    • All installations having or supporting protection level resources must etablish a plan

    • Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.

    Correct Answer
    A. All installations having or supporting protection level resources must etablish a plan
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan. This means that any installation that has resources that require protection, such as sensitive information or critical infrastructure, must have an Information Security Program (ISP) in place. This program helps to ensure the security and confidentiality of these resources, and outlines the necessary protocols and procedures to mitigate risks and prevent unauthorized access or breaches. It is a crucial requirement for installations that handle sensitive data or support critical operations.

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  • 42. 

    If an apprehension is made, in what positon will the handler place the dog?

    • Sit/stay

    • Guard

    • Heel

    • Out

    Correct Answer
    A. Guard
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "guard". When an apprehension is made, the handler will place the dog in a "guard" position. This means that the dog will be positioned to protect and defend its handler, maintaining a watchful and alert stance. The guard position is commonly used in situations where there is a potential threat or danger present, and the dog needs to be ready to react and respond accordingly.

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  • 43. 

    The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

    • Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission

    • Ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year

    • Determine what type of budge congress is up against wen their session starts

    • Ensure the air force is llowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year
    Explanation
    The basic purpose of a financial plan submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the plan aims to allocate funds fairly and evenly across different areas or branches of service, ensuring that each receives the necessary funding to fulfill their mission. By doing so, the financial plan promotes fairness and balance in the distribution of resources, allowing for effective and efficient utilization of the budget.

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  • 44. 

    An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

    • Habitual offender

    • First time offender

    • Psychotic offender

    • Professional offender

    Correct Answer
    A. Habitual offender
    Explanation
    A habitual offender is someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without feeling any remorse or sense of wrongdoing. This individual has likely committed multiple crimes in the past and continues to do so without any intention of stopping. Unlike a first-time offender, who may feel guilt or regret for their actions, a habitual offender shows a pattern of criminal behavior and lacks a moral compass. They may have become desensitized to the consequences of their actions and have little regard for the law.

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  • 45. 

    What is the unit flight schedule based on?

    • Deployment/operations tempo

    • Flight TDY/leave schedule

    • Individual needs

    • Unit needs

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit needs
    Explanation
    The unit flight schedule is based on the needs of the unit. This means that the schedule is determined by the requirements and priorities of the unit as a whole. It takes into account factors such as mission objectives, available resources, and the overall operational plan. By aligning the flight schedule with the unit's needs, it ensures that the necessary flights are conducted to support the unit's goals and objectives.

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  • 46. 

    Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?

    • Individual skills

    • Collective skills

    • Contigency skills

    • Ground combat skills

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual skills
    Explanation
    Individual skills training is conducted to teach tasks required for a specific duty position. This type of training focuses on developing the knowledge, abilities, and techniques needed to perform specific job functions effectively. It is tailored to the needs of each individual and aims to enhance their proficiency in carrying out their assigned tasks. By focusing on individual skills, trainees can acquire the necessary competencies to excel in their specific role within an organization or team.

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  • 47. 

    What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?

    • Rules for courts-martial (RCM) 302(c) and article 7b, UCMJ

    • AF Form 3226, authority to apprehend in private dwelling

    • Title 18, united states code, and the us constitution

    • US constitution and RCM 302(c)

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 18, united states code, and the us constitution
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "title 18, united states code, and the us constitution." Title 18 of the United States Code contains the federal laws that govern crimes and criminal procedure. It provides the legal authority for the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation. The U.S. Constitution also plays a role in authorizing such detentions, as it establishes the framework for the legal system and protects individual rights.

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  • 48. 

    What does SEI stand for?

    • Security entry identifier

    • Security experience index

    • Special delivery identifier

    • Special experience identifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Special experience identifier
    Explanation
    SEI stands for Special Experience Identifier. This term refers to a unique identifier that is used to categorize or classify a particular experience or qualification that an individual possesses. It is commonly used in various industries or professions to differentiate individuals based on their specialized skills, knowledge, or expertise in a specific area. Therefore, the correct answer is "special experience identifier."

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  • 49. 

    Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas whih owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

    • PL 1

    • PL 2

    • PL 3

    • PL 4

    Correct Answer
    A. PL 4
    Explanation
    PL 4 resources are contained in controlled areas where owner/users are primarily responsible for security. This means that the resources classified under PL 4 require a higher level of security and protection. The owner/users of these resources are responsible for implementing and maintaining the necessary security measures to safeguard them. This could include physical security measures, access controls, encryption, and other security protocols. The owner/users have the ultimate responsibility for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the PL 4 resources within the controlled areas.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Oct 4, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 04, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 13, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Bradyk
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