CDC Level 7: Air Force Trivia Questions Test! Quiz

97 Questions | Total Attempts: 3902

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Security forces supervisor 7 level CDC. All multiple choice and have to possess at least a 95% or better to pass.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
    • A. 

      The first duty day following completion

    • B. 

      Within 30 days of completion

    • C. 

      72 hours after completion

    • D. 

      48 hours after completion

  • 2. 
    The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibilityy of the flight
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      SNCO

    • D. 

      Chief

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      SFS

    • B. 

      SFM

    • C. 

      SFO

    • D. 

      SFT

  • 4. 
    The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
    • A. 

      Security patrol

    • B. 

      Security force members

    • C. 

      SRT member

    • D. 

      ART member

  • 5. 
    What patrol monitors assigned resources ad provides  timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
    • A. 

      Internal SRT

    • B. 

      Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • C. 

      Close boundry sentry

    • D. 

      External SRT

  • 6. 
    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
    • A. 

      Internal SRT

    • B. 

      Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • C. 

      Close boundary sentry

    • D. 

      External SRT

  • 7. 
    When  two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person
    • A. 

      Fire teams

    • B. 

      Internal SRTs

    • C. 

      Security patrols

    • D. 

      Close boundary sentries

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Assess exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV

    • B. 

      Act as a subordinate C3 centerfor security forces posted during normal operations.

    • C. 

      Control entry into strctures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area

    • D. 

      Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.

  • 9. 
    Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resouce boundary is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      MSCFO

    • B. 

      IVA

    • C. 

      CCTV

    • D. 

      CBS

  • 10. 
    What does SEI stand for?
    • A. 

      Security entry identifier

    • B. 

      Security experience index

    • C. 

      Special delivery identifier

    • D. 

      Special experience identifier

  • 11. 
    The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
    • A. 

      Existing resources capable of deploying, avboiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD

    • B. 

      Manpower critical resouces that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs

    • C. 

      Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs

    • D. 

      How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron

  • 12. 
    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed nd specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office?
    • A. 

      Report of survey office of investigation

    • B. 

      Air force offie of investigation

    • C. 

      Security forces training team

    • D. 

      Security forces investigations

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Phoenix ravens

    • B. 

      Security systems operators

    • C. 

      Electronic security systems

    • D. 

      Antiterrorism/force protection

  • 14. 
    What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?
    • A. 

      Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

    • B. 

      Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill level upgrade training

    • C. 

      Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet missionrequirements

    • D. 

      Informs stan-eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.

  • 15. 
    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
    • A. 

      Investigations

    • B. 

      Crime prevention

    • C. 

      Resource protection

    • D. 

      Reports and analysis

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2225

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2226

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2227

    • D. 

      AFI 36-2525

  • 17. 
    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
    • A. 

      Analysis

    • B. 

      Feedback

    • C. 

      Evaluation

    • D. 

      Cross-feed

  • 18. 
    How many days does the security forces stan-eval program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual compets qualification training?
    • A. 

      120

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      30

  • 19. 
    After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the sectin have to conduct a reevaluation?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      21

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      3

  • 20. 
    The MWD program does not provide security forces units wth the capability to
    • A. 

      Enforce military laws and regulations

    • B. 

      Detect classified information

    • C. 

      Suppress illegal drug use

    • D. 

      Detect explosives

  • 21. 
    Before being assigne operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
    • A. 

      OUT and IN

    • B. 

      SIT and STAY

    • C. 

      OUT and HEEL

    • D. 

      STAY and HEEL

  • 22. 
    When used in securty operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?
    • A. 

      Deterrence

    • B. 

      Detention

    • C. 

      Decoying

    • D. 

      Detection

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      In low contact areas, so they don't give away your position to the enemy by barking

    • B. 

      Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability

    • C. 

      At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons

    • D. 

      Downwind of ll personnel, so that there is no scen confusion between you and the enemy.

  • 24. 
    What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?
    • A. 

      Location and size of area

    • B. 

      Time and terrain features

    • C. 

      Wind speed and direction

    • D. 

      Experiece of canine and handler

  • 25. 
    What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?
    • A. 

      Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern

    • B. 

      Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift

    • C. 

      Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks

    • D. 

      Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team

  • 26. 
    From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?
    • A. 

      Upwind

    • B. 

      Crosswind

    • C. 

      Downwind

    • D. 

      Wind direction doesn't matter

  • 27. 
    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?
    • A. 

      Danger to the canine

    • B. 

      Time left in patrol shift

    • C. 

      Type and size of building

    • D. 

      Weather conditions just prior to the search

  • 28. 
    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous
    • A. 

      Physical deterrent

    • B. 

      Physicians deterrent

    • C. 

      Physiological deterrent

    • D. 

      Psychological deterrent

  • 29. 
    Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
    • A. 

      They should be tolerant of people

    • B. 

      They should not be used often in daylight hours

    • C. 

      The presence of a large number of people should not significanly reduce the dog's usefulness

    • D. 

      Patrol dogs should be able tow alk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression.

  • 30. 
    When is the military working dog's detection abililty more effective?
    • A. 

      During daylight hours- they can use sight and sound

    • B. 

      During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions

    • C. 

      High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions

    • D. 

      During periods of dense fog ad darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving

    • B. 

      In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup trucks

    • C. 

      Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle

    • D. 

      On leash, laying down on he back seat

  • 32. 
    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
    • A. 

      AF Forms 629 and 1297

    • B. 

      AF Forms 629 and 1473

    • C. 

      AF Forms 1297 and 1473

    • D. 

      AF Forms 1473 and 1279

  • 33. 
    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
    • A. 

      Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs

    • B. 

      After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed

    • C. 

      Before firing, after a three day break, andwhe directed by the armory

    • D. 

      Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel

  • 34. 
    What installations are required to have an ISP?
    • A. 

      Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop and ISP

    • B. 

      The base ommander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not

    • C. 

      All installations having or supporting protection level resources must etablish a plan

    • D. 

      Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.

  • 35. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?
    • A. 

      Wing plans and programs section

    • B. 

      Installation security police chief

    • C. 

      Installation commander

    • D. 

      MAJCOM commander

  • 36. 
    If an apprehension is made, in what positon will the handler place the dog?
    • A. 

      Sit/stay

    • B. 

      Guard

    • C. 

      Heel

    • D. 

      Out

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Threat etimate, a terrain and weathe analysis of the nstallation and its surroundings

    • B. 

      Assessment of the installation's vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage

    • C. 

      A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment

    • D. 

      An estimate of support from friendly forces

  • 38. 
    The information security program permits teh disclosure of classified information only to
    • A. 

      Personnel who can demonstrate a need to know

    • B. 

      Personnel who have requested a freedom on information act request

    • C. 

      Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties

    • D. 

      An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question

  • 39. 
    What is not a required strage procedure for top secret information?
    • A. 

      Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved ooptions

    • B. 

      Class A vault-type room as prescribed by air force guidance

    • C. 

      Two-perosn concept, guarding the materal behind a locked door

    • D. 

      GSA-approved security container

  • 40. 
    Who many delegate authority to approve escoritng orhand-carring classified material on commercial aircraft outside the united states, its territories, or canada?
    • A. 

      Only the chairman, joint chiefs of staff

    • B. 

      Only MAJCOM commanders

    • C. 

      Only wing commanders

    • D. 

      No one

  • 41. 
    When someone enter the air force, which security clearance investigation is performed?
    • A. 

      A NAC

    • B. 

      SSBI

    • C. 

      An ENTNAC

    • D. 

      NACI

  • 42. 
    SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?
    • A. 

      Secret

    • B. 

      Classified

    • C. 

      Top secret

    • D. 

      Confidential

  • 43. 
    The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
    • A. 

      Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission

    • B. 

      Ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year

    • C. 

      Determine what type of budge congress is up against wen their session starts

    • D. 

      Ensure the air force is llowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

  • 44. 
    All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked , have emergency lights, sirens and a
    • A. 

      Spare tire

    • B. 

      Public address system

    • C. 

      Set of keys hidden in the dash

    • D. 

      NCIC computer

  • 45. 
    All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must beproperly marke and have
    • A. 

      SF badges applied to both the front doors

    • B. 

      Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios

    • C. 

      Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system

    • D. 

      A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      Voluntarily

    • B. 

      Unwillingly

    • C. 

      Mandatorily

    • D. 

      Involuntarily

  • 47. 
    Which code is not an alarm response code?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 48. 
    Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
    • A. 

      Terminate response

    • B. 

      Immediately secure the area

    • C. 

      Search for suspicious individuals

    • D. 

      Search the exterior for open doors or windows

  • 49. 
    Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas whih owner/users being primarily responsible for security?
    • A. 

      PL 1

    • B. 

      PL 2

    • C. 

      PL 3

    • D. 

      PL 4

  • 50. 
    What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the cmmand " open ranks MARCH"?
    • A. 

      The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval ( arm's length). each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes a dress right.

    • B. 

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm's length). each succedding element in front of them takes two, four, or six paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • C. 

      The last element stands fast and automaticallyexecues a dress right at a normalinterval (arm's length). each succeeding element in from of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automaticallyexecutes a dress right.

    • D. 

      The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm's length) . each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces, respectively, forward, halts and automatically executes a dress right

  • 51. 
    During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "close ranks, march"?
    • A. 

      When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed

    • B. 

      Immediately after the forth rank has ben inspected

    • C. 

      At the completion of the guardmount briefing

    • D. 

      Upon departure of the inspecting official

  • 52. 
    Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is
    • A. 

      Fit for duty

    • B. 

      Prepared to prsent a post briefing

    • C. 

      Complying with appearance directives

    • D. 

      In possession of all required equipment

  • 53. 
    As a leader and supervisor, you should avid asking questions that could be open for
    • A. 

      Interpretaion

    • B. 

      Discussion

    • C. 

      Argument

    • D. 

      Debate

  • 54. 
    What is the unit flight schedule based on?
    • A. 

      Deployment/operations tempo

    • B. 

      Flight TDY/leave schedule

    • C. 

      Individual needs

    • D. 

      Unit needs

  • 55. 
    Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consisten with sound
    • A. 

      COMSEC practices

    • B. 

      INFOSEC practices

    • C. 

      HUMINT practices

    • D. 

      OPSEC practices

  • 56. 
    It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain
    • A. 

      Proficiency

    • B. 

      Discipline

    • C. 

      Fairness

    • D. 

      Control

  • 57. 
    Adequate and fair post rtations can assist you in keeping
    • A. 

      Flight morale high

    • B. 

      Duty position assignments limited

    • C. 

      The same higly skilled person at the same post

    • D. 

      A new flight member focused on a particular duty position

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Precedence , from least important to most important, as outlined n the ISI

    • B. 

      Precedence as outlined in ISP

    • C. 

      Rank precedence as outlined in the ISP

    • D. 

      Precedence as outlined in the ISI

  • 59. 
    What is the publication reference for the tounge and quill?
    • A. 

      AFH 32-336

    • B. 

      AFI 32-336

    • C. 

      AFH 33-337

    • D. 

      AFI 33-337

  • 60. 
    In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?
    • A. 

      Length and neatness

    • B. 

      Simplicity and directness

    • C. 

      Correct details and factual statements

    • D. 

      Clear statements and prooper grammar

  • 61. 
    Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
    • A. 

      Unit training section

    • B. 

      Chief of security forces

    • C. 

      Senior security forces NCO's

    • D. 

      HQ Air Force Security Forces Center

  • 62. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?
    • A. 

      Unit training section

    • B. 

      Individual supervisors

    • C. 

      Senior security forces NCOs

    • D. 

      HQ Air Force Security Forces Center

  • 63. 
    Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?
    • A. 

      Individual skills

    • B. 

      Collective skills

    • C. 

      Contigency skills

    • D. 

      Ground combat skills

  • 64. 
    Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on strains, or destroy footprints ortire marks at a crime scene
    • A. 

      Would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.

    • B. 

      Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime

    • C. 

      Could be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location

    • D. 

      Would have no effect and allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker and a suspect found faster

  • 65. 
    The beneftit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows
    • A. 

      Photographs to be taken

    • B. 

      Responding patrols to better piece together events

    • C. 

      The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery

    • D. 

      The investigator to perform advisement of rights to personnel at the scene

  • 66. 
    Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not veen involved in the preliminary investigation
    • A. 

      Interferes with the ongoing investigation

    • B. 

      Allows for a fair share of the responsibilities within your flight

    • C. 

      Adds realism to the training environment for a new patrol officer

    • D. 

      Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects

  • 67. 
    At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?
    • A. 

      Prior to arriving on scene

    • B. 

      During the initial briefing

    • C. 

      While conducting a search

    • D. 

      During the preliminary visual examination

  • 68. 
    Your choice of search method is determine by the intent of the search and by the
    • A. 

      Number of personnel available

    • B. 

      Size of the item to be found

    • C. 

      Amount of time available

    • D. 

      Area to be covered

  • 69. 
    What is the time limit placed on suspect intervies?
    • A. 

      The amount of time necessary to obtain a confession

    • B. 

      There is no time limit set on an interview

    • C. 

      No more than 30 mins

    • D. 

      No more than 60 mins

  • 70. 
    How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?
    • A. 

      At least three and one should be of the same sex

    • B. 

      You are only required to have one investigator

    • C. 

      As many as it takes to intimidate te suspect

    • D. 

      An interview is limited to two investigators

  • 71. 
    When questioning a juvenile, what action do yo take if you cannot find a parent r the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?
    • A. 

      Seek CSP advice

    • B. 

      Seek ADC advice

    • C. 

      Seek SJA advice

    • D. 

      Question them with a witness

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Let aother investigator conduct the interview

    • B. 

      Nothing because the suspect does not have to like you

    • C. 

      Step out for a few minutes to let the suspect calm down

    • D. 

      Place them in a holding cell until they are ready to continue

  • 73. 
    Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information?
    • A. 

      Combination

    • B. 

      Alternating

    • C. 

      Indirect

    • D. 

      Direct

  • 74. 
    An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
    • A. 

      Habitual offender

    • B. 

      First time offender

    • C. 

      Psychotic offender

    • D. 

      Professional offender

  • 75. 
    What is a confession?
    • A. 

      An admission of guilt that s a sef-incriminating statement

    • B. 

      Any statement made by the accused a to the elements of a crime

    • C. 

      A complete acknowledgement of guilt of all elements of an offense

    • D. 

      An involuntary comment made by the accused pertaining to criminal activity

  • 76. 
    Ther personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,
    • A. 

      Tact, poise, and self-assurance

    • B. 

      Tact, poise , and self-confidence

    • C. 

      Reliance, poise, and self-confidence

    • D. 

      Cockiness, poise, and self-confidence

  • 77. 
    What is not of of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?
    • A. 

      Personal knowledge

    • B. 

      Tape recordings

    • C. 

      Memoranda

    • D. 

      Notes

  • 78. 
    Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?
    • A. 

      Flight commander and supervisor

    • B. 

      Flight chieft and flight commander

    • C. 

      Flight chief and senio patrol officer

    • D. 

      Flight commander and operations superintendent

  • 79. 
    Other than making the situation worse, if occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may hve time to
    • A. 

      Leave

    • B. 

      Call a lawyer

    • C. 

      Get their story straight

    • D. 

      Conceal evidence of a crime

  • 80. 
    What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?
    • A. 

      Calm, positive, and helpful

    • B. 

      Agitated, positive, and helpful

    • C. 

      Uncaring, bothered, and hurried

    • D. 

      Aggressive, hostile, and immediate

  • 81. 
    When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden moveents or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be
    • A. 

      Hiding drugs

    • B. 

      Looking for n escape

    • C. 

      Cold and wants a jacket

    • D. 

      Hiding an injured family member or a weapon

  • 82. 
    What is not an indication of child neglect?
    • A. 

      Lack of medical care

    • B. 

      Inadequate nourishment

    • C. 

      Signs of impoverishment

    • D. 

      Insufficent clothing, lack of supervision

  • 83. 
    Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting  child are indicators of
    • A. 

      Neglect

    • B. 

      Sexual abuse

    • C. 

      Physical abuse

    • D. 

      Emotional maltreatment

  • 84. 
    It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced
    • A. 

      An intense financial trauma

    • B. 

      An intense physical trauma

    • C. 

      A serious violent crime

    • D. 

      An emotional trauma

  • 85. 
    The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the
    • A. 

      SJA

    • B. 

      CSP

    • C. 

      OSI

    • D. 

      SFOI

  • 86. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies?
    • A. 

      RO

    • B. 

      SJA

    • C. 

      CSP

    • D. 

      LRO

  • 87. 
    On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the onsceen commander deems it appropriate?
    • A. 

      DFC

    • B. 

      LOAC

    • C. 

      Geneva convention

    • D. 

      United states

  • 88. 
    If any individual appreas to be emotional, distraught, or stunned folloing any interview, to which person can the individual be released?
    • A. 

      Medical personnel

    • B. 

      Roommate

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Spouse

  • 89. 
    Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an investigation is called
    • A. 

      A hearing

    • B. 

      A case review

    • C. 

      An additional interviews

    • D. 

      A follow-up investigation

  • 90. 
    The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting additional inestigative steps of an incident when the member is
    • A. 

      Reviewing and analyzing all previous reports prepared

    • B. 

      Identifying and apprehending suspects

    • C. 

      Conducting additional interviews

    • D. 

      Collecting physica evidence

  • 91. 
    What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?
    • A. 

      Rules for courts-martial (RCM) 302(c) and article 7b, UCMJ

    • B. 

      AF Form 3226, authority to apprehend in private dwelling

    • C. 

      Title 18, united states code, and the us constitution

    • D. 

      US constitution and RCM 302(c)

  • 92. 
    The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "dull sword" identifies a nuclear weapons
    • A. 

      Accident

    • B. 

      Incident

    • C. 

      Deficiency

    • D. 

      Occurence

  • 93. 
    Who is reponsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?
    • A. 

      Law enforcement desk

    • B. 

      Security control

    • C. 

      Command post

    • D. 

      Base ops

  • 94. 
    In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?
    • A. 

      Downwind or crosswind

    • B. 

      Crosswind or sidewind

    • C. 

      Upwind or downwind

    • D. 

      Upwind or crosswind

  • 95. 
    Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?
    • A. 

      Reporters

    • B. 

      Medical staff

    • C. 

      Photographers

    • D. 

      Key personnel

  • 96. 
    Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the united states code that occur on DOD installations or within DOD facilities?
    • A. 

      FBI

    • B. 

      OSI

    • C. 

      CIA

    • D. 

      SJA

  • 97. 
    From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when
    • A. 

      The hostage negotiation team is attempting to make contact

    • B. 

      Most of the traveling occurs, after th hostage is abducted

    • C. 

      The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction

    • D. 

      All deals are made for the release of the hostages