An Air Force Quiz Questions

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What is the Navy’s largest formation? 

    • Fleet
    • Flotilla
    • Task Force
    • Strike Group
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About This Quiz


The air force is one of the three branches of the army. How much knowledge do you have about this part of the army, which does its business using aircrafts? Take up the quiz below and find out.

An Air Force Quiz Questions - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is 

    • Arson

    • Bombing

    • Hijacking

    • Assassination

    Correct Answer
    A. Bombing
    Explanation
    Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic because it allows them to cause widespread destruction, create fear and panic among the population, and attract media attention. Bombings can be carried out in public places such as markets, airports, or train stations, maximizing casualties and damage. This tactic also allows terrorists to target specific individuals or groups, making it an effective method for assassinations or targeting high-profile figures. Bombings can be executed using various methods, such as suicide bombings or remotely detonated explosives, making it a versatile and deadly tactic for terrorist organizations.

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  • 3. 

    Range is given in what unit of measurement? 

    • Feet

    • Yards

    • Meters

    • Kilometers

    Correct Answer
    A. Meters
    Explanation
    The range is given in meters because meters are a commonly used unit of measurement for distance.

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  • 4. 

    What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces 

    • Physical barriers

    • Night vision device

    • Infrared imaging device

    • Closed-circuit television

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical barriers
    Explanation
    Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders by creating obstacles or obstacles that prevent or slow down their progress. This delay allows security forces to have more time to classify and assess the threat, as well as to plan and execute an appropriate response. Physical barriers can include fences, walls, gates, locks, and other physical structures that make it difficult for intruders to gain access to a secure area. By impeding the intruders' progress, physical barriers provide valuable time for security forces to take necessary actions.

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  • 5. 

    Integrated defense does not require the capability to 

    • Deny

    • Deter

    • Delay

    • Defuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Defuse
    Explanation
    Integrated defense does not require the capability to defuse. This means that in an integrated defense system, there is no need to neutralize or deactivate a potential threat. Instead, the focus is on other aspects such as denying, deterring, or delaying the threat. The term "integrated defense" suggests a comprehensive approach that involves multiple strategies and resources to protect against threats, but defusing is not one of the required capabilities.

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  • 6. 

    Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander’s rules for 

    • Mission requirements

    • National policy goals

    • The use of force

    • The rule of law

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of force
    Explanation
    Rules of engagement (ROE) are guidelines or instructions provided by the commander to military personnel regarding the use of force in a particular situation. These rules outline the circumstances under which force can be used, the level of force that is authorized, and any restrictions or limitations that must be followed. ROE ensure that military actions are conducted in accordance with legal and ethical standards, while also allowing for the effective accomplishment of mission objectives.

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  • 7. 

    If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of 

    • A stay behind threat

    • A two-person concept violation

    • An error on the Entry Authority List (EAL)

    • An incorrect count by the Sole Vouching Authority (SVA)

    Correct Answer
    A. A stay behind threat
    Explanation
    In the event of an emergency evacuation where not all personnel are accounted for, there is a potential risk or danger of individuals choosing to stay behind instead of evacuating. This could be due to various reasons such as fear, confusion, or a belief that they can handle the situation on their own. This stay behind threat poses a significant challenge to emergency responders and can hinder the overall effectiveness and safety of the evacuation process.

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  • 8. 

    Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs? 

    • Rush

    • Low crawl

    • High crawl

    • Spider crawl

    Correct Answer
    A. High crawl
    Explanation
    The high crawl is a method of movement where the body is kept off the ground and supported by the forearms and lower legs. This technique is commonly used in military training or tactical situations where staying low to the ground is necessary for stealth and protection. By keeping the body elevated, the high crawl allows for faster movement while still maintaining a low profile and minimizing exposure to potential threats.

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  • 9. 

    The technique that requires great patience is movement with 

    • Speed

    • Stealth

    • Purpose

    • Precision

    Correct Answer
    A. Stealth
    Explanation
    Stealth requires great patience because it involves moving slowly and quietly, taking care to avoid being detected. It requires a high level of concentration and attention to detail, as any sudden movement or noise can give away one's position. Patience is necessary to wait for the right moment to act, to carefully plan each step, and to remain calm and composed even in challenging situations. Stealth also requires discipline and self-control, as it may involve long periods of waiting and observing without taking any action.

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  • 10. 

    Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty? 

    • Flight sergeant

    • Area supervisor

    • Flight commander

    • Base defense operations center (BDOC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Base defense operations center (BDOC)
    Explanation
    The base defense operations center (BDOC) has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty. This is because the BDOC serves as the central command and control hub for all security forces operations on the base. They are responsible for monitoring and coordinating the movements and activities of all SF units, ensuring effective communication and situational awareness. The BDOC plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall security and operational readiness of the base.

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  • 11. 

    At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted? 

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    A minimum of two after action reports (AARs) must be submitted. This implies that there should be at least two reports submitted, and it could be more than two, but not less.

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  • 12. 

    When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at 

    • Any level

    • Unit level

    • MAJCOM level

    • Air Staff Level only

    Correct Answer
    A. Any level
    Explanation
    When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change can be initiated at any level within the organization. This means that individuals at any level, whether it be at the unit level, MAJCOM level, or Air Staff level, have the authority and capability to initiate the necessary changes. This allows for flexibility and efficiency in responding to the organization's needs and requirements.

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  • 13. 

    In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from 

    • M2s

    • MK19s

    • Mortars

    • Teams own weapons

    Correct Answer
    A. Teams own weapons
    Explanation
    In fire and maneuver operations, the majority of the maneuvering force's fire support comes from their own weapons. This means that the team relies on the firepower provided by their own individual firearms, such as rifles, machine guns, or other personal weapons. This allows the team to maintain a high level of mobility and flexibility during the operation, as they can quickly engage targets and provide suppressive fire while on the move. Additionally, relying on their own weapons ensures that the team has immediate access to firepower without having to rely on external support, such as M2s, MK19s, or mortars, which may not always be readily available.

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  • 14. 

    In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire? 

    • Secondary

    • Standoff

    • Indirect

    • Direct

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct
    Explanation
    In the direct fire control measure, the leader has direct control over the fire. This means that the leader or commander is actively involved in directing and coordinating the firing of weapons towards the target. This control allows for more precise and immediate response to the enemy, as the leader can make real-time adjustments to the fire based on the situation.

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  • 15. 

    “To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders” is the mission of the 

    • Army

    • Navy

    • Air Force

    • Marine Corps

    Correct Answer
    A. Army
    Explanation
    The mission statement provided describes the goal of providing land dominance in military operations and conflicts. This aligns with the responsibilities and focus of the Army, which is primarily responsible for ground warfare and land-based operations. The other branches of the military, such as the Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps, have different areas of focus and mission objectives.

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  • 16. 

    The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is 

    • Non-state supported

    • State-supported

    • State-organized

    • State-directed

    Correct Answer
    A. State-supported
    Explanation
    A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as "state-supported." This means that while the group may not be directly controlled or organized by the government, it receives assistance, whether it be financial, logistical, or ideological, from those governments. This support can come in various forms, such as funding, training, or providing safe havens for the group.

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  • 17. 

    Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function? 

    • Analyzing information

    • Receiving information

    • Distributing information

    • Submitting recommendations

    Correct Answer
    A. Analyzing information
    Explanation
    Consolidating reports is a task performed in the Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function of analyzing information. This involves gathering and organizing various reports and data to identify patterns, trends, and insights. By consolidating reports, the TOC can gain a comprehensive understanding of the situation, assess the impact of different factors, and make informed decisions. This task helps in identifying key information, identifying gaps or discrepancies, and providing a clear picture of the overall situation for effective analysis and decision-making.

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  • 18. 

    Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept? 

    • Security Forces.

    • Intelligence fusion cell.

    • Other Air Force members

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Forces.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Security Forces. Security Forces play a crucial role in providing the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept. They are responsible for protecting and defending Air Force installations, personnel, and resources. Their main objective is to maintain a safe and secure environment by conducting patrols, enforcing regulations, and responding to any security threats. As part of the ID concept, Security Forces collaborate with other agencies and units to ensure a comprehensive and coordinated defense strategy.

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  • 19. 

    When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal? 

    • Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.

    • One week prior to scheduled attack execution

    • Just before departing for the target

    • Before executing the attack

    Correct Answer
    A. Just before departing for the target
    Explanation
    Terrorist team members are brought together for the final rehearsal just before departing for the target. This ensures that all members are present and prepared for the attack. Conducting the rehearsal at this time allows the team to go over the details of the plan, address any last-minute concerns or issues, and ensure that everyone is clear on their roles and responsibilities. By rehearsing just before departing for the target, the team maximizes their chances of a successful execution of the attack.

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  • 20. 

    Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target? 

    • Disguise

    • Decoy

    • Blend

    • Hide

    Correct Answer
    A. Decoy
    Explanation
    The term "decoy" refers to simulating an object or using a signature generator to simulate a potential target. A decoy is typically used to divert attention or deceive someone or something, making them believe that the decoy is the actual target.

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  • 21. 

    Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered 

    • Limited area

    • Restricted area

    • Controlled area

    • Exclusion area

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled area
    Explanation
    A Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered a controlled area because it is a specific location that is closely monitored and regulated. It has restricted access and only authorized personnel are allowed entry. This is necessary to ensure the security and safety of the base and its operations. By controlling who can enter the BDOC, the military can prevent unauthorized individuals from gaining access to sensitive information or causing harm.

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  • 22. 

    A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force 

    • Squadron

    • Group

    • Flight

    • Wing

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight
    Explanation
    A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force flight. In military terminology, a platoon is a small unit consisting of around 30 to 40 soldiers led by a lieutenant. Similarly, a flight in the Air Force is a small unit consisting of a few aircraft and their crews, usually led by a captain. Both the platoon and the flight are considered to be smaller units within their respective branches of the military.

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  • 23. 

    What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal? 

    • Raid

    • Ambush

    • Area reconnaissance

    • Zone reconnaissance

    Correct Answer
    A. Raid
    Explanation
    A raid is a type of patrol that involves conducting attacks on a specific position or installation and then executing a planned withdrawal. It is a swift and aggressive operation aimed at causing damage or disruption to the enemy before retreating to safety. Raids are often carried out by special forces or highly trained units and require careful planning and coordination to achieve their objectives effectively.

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  • 24. 

    What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman? 

    • M4

    • M24

    • M40

    • M110

    Correct Answer
    A. M4
    Explanation
    The M4 is not the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman. Typically, a designated marksman is equipped with a rifle specifically designed for long-range precision shooting, such as the M24, M40, or M110. The M4 is a carbine rifle commonly used by infantry soldiers, but it is not specifically designed for designated marksmen.

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  • 25. 

    Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units 

    • Only if the installation is a full time reserve or guard installation/unit

    • Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources

    • Only if the installation has non-Protection Level (PL) resources

    • Only during war

    Correct Answer
    A. Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources
    Explanation
    IDPs are plans that are implemented by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard installations/units. These plans are specifically carried out when the installation is responsible for protection level resources. This means that the installation has a role in safeguarding and protecting important resources, assets, or facilities. Therefore, IDPs are only accomplished when the installation has this specific responsibility.

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  • 26. 

    A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as 

    • A safe area

    • A search area

    • A denial area

    • An exclusion area

    Correct Answer
    A. A search area
    Explanation
    A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles. In this area, thorough searches can be conducted to ensure the safety and security of the premises. It is designed to prevent unauthorized access and to identify any potential threats or suspicious activities. This area may have specific protocols and procedures in place to ensure proper identification and screening of individuals and vehicles entering or exiting the area.

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  • 27. 

    Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of 

    • 16 and 24

    • 21 and 28

    • 23 and 30

    • 25 and 32

    Correct Answer
    A. 23 and 30
    Explanation
    Specially trained terrorists are typically of above average intelligence and fall within a certain age range. Among the given options, the age range of 23 and 30 seems to be the most plausible choice. This age range allows for individuals who have completed their education and have gained enough experience to be trained as terrorists. Additionally, individuals within this age range are often considered to be in their prime physical condition, which is advantageous for carrying out acts of terrorism.

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  • 28. 

    What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests? 

    • Activity

    • Intentions

    • Operational capability

    • Operating enviroment

    Correct Answer
    A. Intentions
    Explanation
    The term "intentions" accurately describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. Intentions refer to the deliberate plans or motives behind such attacks, indicating the purposeful and premeditated nature of the actions. This term encompasses the ideological or political motivations that drive terrorists to target US interests, highlighting their specific goals and objectives.

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  • 29. 

    What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force? 

    • Any deficiencies

    • Any hazards

    • Any threats

    • Any risks

    Correct Answer
    A. Any deficiencies
    Explanation
    Security Forces (SF) must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force. Identifying deficiencies is crucial for maintaining the security and safety of the Air Force. By identifying deficiencies, SF can address and rectify any weaknesses or shortcomings in the security measures, protocols, or systems. This proactive approach helps in preventing potential threats or risks from escalating and ensures that the Air Force remains well-prepared and protected.

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  • 30. 

    What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons? 

    • Missile field

    • Weapons storage area (WSA)

    • Weapons storage and security system (WS3)

    • Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC)
    Explanation
    The Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC) is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons. This facility is located underground and is responsible for storing and maintaining nuclear weapons. It is designed to provide maximum security and protection for these weapons. The other options mentioned, such as missile field, weapons storage area (WSA), and weapons storage and security system (WS3), may be storage facilities for weapons but are not specifically designated for nuclear weapons or as large as the KUMMSC.

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  • 31. 

    (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)? 

    • Courier only

    • Entry controller

    • SF representative only

    • Courier and SF representative

    Correct Answer
    A. Courier and SF representative
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Courier and SF representative. Both the courier and the security forces (SF) representative are responsible for authenticating all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF). This ensures that only authorized personnel have access to the PNAF and helps maintain the security and integrity of the nuclear airlift operations.

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  • 32. 

    The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within 

    • 300 meters

    • 600 meters

    • 800 meters

    • 1800 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 800 meters
    Explanation
    The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within 800 meters. This means that machine guns within the base-of-fire element are effective in engaging targets up to a distance of 800 meters. They are capable of providing suppressive fire and supporting the maneuver element by keeping the enemy forces pinned down within this range. Beyond 800 meters, other weapons or elements may be utilized for effective engagement.

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  • 33. 

    Which of these is not a force protection effect? 

    • Deter

    • Detect

    • Defuse

    • Mitigate

    Correct Answer
    A. Defuse
    Explanation
    Defuse is not a force protection effect because it refers to the act of reducing the intensity or danger of a potentially explosive or volatile situation. While deter, detect, and mitigate are all actions that aim to prevent or minimize harm, defusing involves calming or diffusing a tense or volatile situation rather than directly protecting against a force or threat.

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  • 34. 

    Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter information up to? 

    • Flight sergeant

    • Area supervisor

    • Flight commander

    • Operations superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight sergeant
    Explanation
    The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filters information up to the flight sergeant. This means that the flight sergeant is responsible for receiving and reviewing information from the BDOC controller. They act as a point of contact and relay important information to higher-ranking officials, such as the area supervisor, flight commander, and operations superintendent. The flight sergeant plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and coordination within the BDOC.

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  • 35. 

    What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit? 

    • QFEBU

    • QFEPR

    • QFEBF

    • QFEBA

    Correct Answer
    A. QFEBA
    Explanation
    The unit type code (UTC) QFEBA provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit.

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  • 36. 

    Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have 

    • Technical knowledge of the task being performed

    • A valid reason to be in the exclusion area

    • A valid restricted area badge

    • A valid entry authority list

    Correct Answer
    A. A valid reason to be in the exclusion area
    Explanation
    Members requesting entry into an exclusion area must have a valid reason to be there. This means that they should have a specific purpose or task that requires them to be present in the exclusion area. This requirement ensures that only individuals who have a legitimate need to access the area are granted entry, thereby maintaining the safety and security of the exclusion area.

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  • 37. 

    (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons? 

    • Type IV

    • Type III

    • Type II

    • Type I

    Correct Answer
    A. Type I
    Explanation
    A Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons would be provided with type I aircraft security. This type of security is the highest level of protection and involves stringent measures to ensure the safety and integrity of the nuclear weapons during transportation. It includes armed guards, advanced surveillance systems, secure communication channels, and strict access control procedures. This level of security is necessary to prevent any unauthorized access or tampering with the nuclear weapons, ensuring their safe transport.

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  • 38. 

    What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy? 

    • Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD)

    • Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD)

    • Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC)

    • Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD)
    Explanation
    Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD) is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy. This involves using various techniques to hide and blend with the surrounding environment, disguising assets to appear as something else, and employing decoys to divert attention away from actual targets. By utilizing these principles, CCD aims to make it difficult for the enemy to detect and accurately target friendly forces, thereby reducing their effectiveness in combat.

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  • 39. 

    The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are 

    • Existing and reinforcing

    • Disrupting and turning

    • Blocking and turning

    • Turning and fixing

    Correct Answer
    A. Existing and reinforcing
    Explanation
    Existing obstacles refer to obstacles that are already present in a particular situation or environment. These obstacles may include physical barriers, such as walls or fences, or they may be more abstract, such as established rules or regulations. Reinforcing obstacles, on the other hand, are obstacles that further strengthen or support existing obstacles. They may make it more difficult to overcome or bypass the existing obstacles. Therefore, the correct answer is "existing and reinforcing" as these two types of obstacles are commonly encountered.

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  • 40. 

    Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices? 

    • Agent activity

    • Sympathizers

    • Terrorists

    • Partisans

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrorists
    Explanation
    Terrorists are defined as individuals or small groups who use a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices. They engage in acts of violence and intimidation to achieve their political, religious, or ideological goals.

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  • 41. 

    Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft? 

    • Entry control personnel

    • Nonqualified personnel

    • Non-US personnel

    • Couriers

    Correct Answer
    A. Couriers
    Explanation
    Couriers ensure that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft. They are responsible for transporting sensitive documents, materials, or equipment between different locations, ensuring their security and integrity. As part of their duties, couriers verify the presence of two qualified individuals during the handling of nuclear logistics, thus adhering to the two-person concept requirements. Additionally, they assist in delineating no-lone zones around nuclear logistic aircraft to prevent unauthorized access or tampering.

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  • 42. 

    Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity? 

    • Agent activity

    • Sympathizers

    • Terrorists

    • Partisans

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathizers
    Explanation
    Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in terrorist activities themselves. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to show their support or solidarity with the cause. This activity is considered a lower threat level compared to actual terrorists who are actively involved in planning and carrying out attacks.

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  • 43. 

    Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations order? 

    • Mission

    • Situation

    • Execution

    • Service and support

    Correct Answer
    A. Situation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "situation." In an operations order, the situation paragraph typically includes information about the current weather conditions and any relevant light data. This paragraph provides an overview of the environmental factors that may impact the mission or execution of tasks. By including weather and light data in the situation paragraph, the commander can ensure that all personnel are aware of the conditions they will be operating in and can make informed decisions accordingly.

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  • 44. 

    Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel? 

    • Low port

    • High port

    • Low ready

    • Depressed ready

    Correct Answer
    A. Depressed ready
    Explanation
    The weapon carry technique used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel is the depressed ready. This technique involves holding the weapon at a low position with the muzzle pointed downward, allowing for better control and minimizing the risk of accidentally hitting others. It is a safe and practical method to navigate in confined areas while ensuring the safety of nearby individuals.

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  • 45. 

    When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the generation area becomes 

    • A ready alert parking area

    • A ready alert maneuver area

    • An alert aircraft parking area

    • An alert aircraft manuever area

    Correct Answer
    A. An alert aircraft parking area
    Explanation
    When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert, the generation area becomes an alert aircraft parking area. This means that the area is designated for parking the aircraft that are on alert and ready to be deployed. It serves as a location where the aircraft can be easily accessed and prepared for immediate action if needed.

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  • 46. 

    When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique? 

    • Navigation

    • Stalking

    • Security

    • Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Navigation
    Explanation
    Dead reckoning is a technique used in navigation when moving during limited visibility conditions. It involves estimating one's current position by using a previously known position and taking into account the distance traveled, direction, and time elapsed. This method is commonly used when traditional navigational aids such as landmarks or visual references are not visible or accessible. By continuously updating the estimated position based on the direction and speed of movement, dead reckoning allows for navigation even in challenging conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is navigation.

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  • 47. 

    Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished 

    • Mission

    • Situation

    • Execution

    • Service and support

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission
    Explanation
    The mission paragraph in an operations order provides a clear and concise statement of the task to be accomplished. It outlines the overall objective or goal that needs to be achieved. This paragraph sets the direction and purpose for the entire operation, ensuring that all personnel involved understand the desired outcome. By focusing on the mission, the operations order establishes a framework for planning and executing the necessary tasks to successfully complete the mission.

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  • 48. 

    What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement? 

    • Legal

    • Policy

    • Military

    • Civilian

    Correct Answer
    A. Civilian
    Explanation
    Rules of Engagement are guidelines that outline the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. However, the consideration that does not drive Rules of Engagement is the civilian factor. While civilian protection is an important aspect of military operations, it is not a primary driver in determining the rules for engagement. The main focus is on legal frameworks, policy objectives, and military strategies to ensure mission success and the safety of military personnel.

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  • 49. 

    Which of these is not a probable direction of attack? 

    • Ridge

    • Draw

    • Spur

    • Cliff

    Correct Answer
    A. Cliff
    Explanation
    The question asks for a direction of attack that is not probable. A ridge, draw, and spur are all potential directions of attack as they provide tactical advantages for an attacker. However, a cliff is not a probable direction of attack as it presents a natural barrier that is difficult to overcome.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 17, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • May 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 01, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Jfons7

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