An Air Force Quiz Questions

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 53

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 53 | Updated: May 17, 2023

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The air force is one of the three branches of the army. How much knowledge do you have about this part of the army, which does its business using aircrafts? Take up the quiz below and find out.

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Current Version
May 17, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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May 01, 2016

Quiz Created by
Jfons7

An Air Force Quiz Questions

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Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?

All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except

Integrated defense does not require the capability to

The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the

The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as

What is defined as “organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for”

Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units

What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces

A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as

What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible

In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and

The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are

“To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders” is the mission of the

What is the Navy’s largest formation?

A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force

The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?

Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?

Which of these is not a force protection effect?

The key to force protection countermeasure planning is

What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?

Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?

Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander’s rules for

What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?

What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?

The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at

What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?

How many phases are there in the deployment process?

The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?

In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?

Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?

The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?

A summary of a unit’s mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as

What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?

At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?

The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?

The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?

The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the

What is essential to our security?

The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with

What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?

Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by

Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle