An Air Force Quiz Questions

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1. What is the Navy's largest formation? 

Explanation

The Navy's largest formation is called a fleet. A fleet consists of multiple task forces, strike groups, and other smaller units. It is responsible for conducting major operations and missions in a specific geographic area. Fleets have a wide range of capabilities and can include various types of ships, submarines, aircraft, and personnel. They are essential for projecting power, maintaining maritime security, and conducting operations around the world.

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An Air Force Quiz Questions - Quiz


The air force is one of the three branches of the army. How much knowledge do you have about this part of the army, which does its business... see moreusing aircrafts? Take up the quiz below and find out. see less

2. The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is 

Explanation

Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic because it allows them to cause widespread destruction, create fear and panic among the population, and attract media attention. Bombings can be carried out in public places such as markets, airports, or train stations, maximizing casualties and damage. This tactic also allows terrorists to target specific individuals or groups, making it an effective method for assassinations or targeting high-profile figures. Bombings can be executed using various methods, such as suicide bombings or remotely detonated explosives, making it a versatile and deadly tactic for terrorist organizations.

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3. Range is given in what unit of measurement? 

Explanation

The range is given in meters because meters are a commonly used unit of measurement for distance.

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4. What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces 

Explanation

Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders by creating obstacles or obstacles that prevent or slow down their progress. This delay allows security forces to have more time to classify and assess the threat, as well as to plan and execute an appropriate response. Physical barriers can include fences, walls, gates, locks, and other physical structures that make it difficult for intruders to gain access to a secure area. By impeding the intruders' progress, physical barriers provide valuable time for security forces to take necessary actions.

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5. Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for 

Explanation

Rules of engagement (ROE) are guidelines or instructions provided by the commander to military personnel regarding the use of force in a particular situation. These rules outline the circumstances under which force can be used, the level of force that is authorized, and any restrictions or limitations that must be followed. ROE ensure that military actions are conducted in accordance with legal and ethical standards, while also allowing for the effective accomplishment of mission objectives.

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6. If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of 

Explanation

In the event of an emergency evacuation where not all personnel are accounted for, there is a potential risk or danger of individuals choosing to stay behind instead of evacuating. This could be due to various reasons such as fear, confusion, or a belief that they can handle the situation on their own. This stay behind threat poses a significant challenge to emergency responders and can hinder the overall effectiveness and safety of the evacuation process.

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7. Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs? 

Explanation

The high crawl is a method of movement where the body is kept off the ground and supported by the forearms and lower legs. This technique is commonly used in military training or tactical situations where staying low to the ground is necessary for stealth and protection. By keeping the body elevated, the high crawl allows for faster movement while still maintaining a low profile and minimizing exposure to potential threats.

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8. The technique that requires great patience is movement with 

Explanation

Stealth requires great patience because it involves moving slowly and quietly, taking care to avoid being detected. It requires a high level of concentration and attention to detail, as any sudden movement or noise can give away one's position. Patience is necessary to wait for the right moment to act, to carefully plan each step, and to remain calm and composed even in challenging situations. Stealth also requires discipline and self-control, as it may involve long periods of waiting and observing without taking any action.

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9. Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty? 

Explanation

The base defense operations center (BDOC) has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty. This is because the BDOC serves as the central command and control hub for all security forces operations on the base. They are responsible for monitoring and coordinating the movements and activities of all SF units, ensuring effective communication and situational awareness. The BDOC plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall security and operational readiness of the base.

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10. Integrated defense does not require the capability to 

Explanation

Integrated defense does not require the capability to defuse. This means that in an integrated defense system, there is no need to neutralize or deactivate a potential threat. Instead, the focus is on other aspects such as denying, deterring, or delaying the threat. The term "integrated defense" suggests a comprehensive approach that involves multiple strategies and resources to protect against threats, but defusing is not one of the required capabilities.

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11. At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted? 

Explanation

A minimum of two after action reports (AARs) must be submitted. This implies that there should be at least two reports submitted, and it could be more than two, but not less.

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12. When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at 

Explanation

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change can be initiated at any level within the organization. This means that individuals at any level, whether it be at the unit level, MAJCOM level, or Air Staff level, have the authority and capability to initiate the necessary changes. This allows for flexibility and efficiency in responding to the organization's needs and requirements.

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13. In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from 

Explanation

In fire and maneuver operations, the majority of the maneuvering force's fire support comes from their own weapons. This means that the team relies on the firepower provided by their own individual firearms, such as rifles, machine guns, or other personal weapons. This allows the team to maintain a high level of mobility and flexibility during the operation, as they can quickly engage targets and provide suppressive fire while on the move. Additionally, relying on their own weapons ensures that the team has immediate access to firepower without having to rely on external support, such as M2s, MK19s, or mortars, which may not always be readily available.

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14. In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire? 

Explanation

In the direct fire control measure, the leader has direct control over the fire. This means that the leader or commander is actively involved in directing and coordinating the firing of weapons towards the target. This control allows for more precise and immediate response to the enemy, as the leader can make real-time adjustments to the fire based on the situation.

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15. The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is 

Explanation

A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as "state-supported." This means that while the group may not be directly controlled or organized by the government, it receives assistance, whether it be financial, logistical, or ideological, from those governments. This support can come in various forms, such as funding, training, or providing safe havens for the group.

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16. Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function? 

Explanation

Consolidating reports is a task performed in the Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function of analyzing information. This involves gathering and organizing various reports and data to identify patterns, trends, and insights. By consolidating reports, the TOC can gain a comprehensive understanding of the situation, assess the impact of different factors, and make informed decisions. This task helps in identifying key information, identifying gaps or discrepancies, and providing a clear picture of the overall situation for effective analysis and decision-making.

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17. "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the 

Explanation

The mission statement provided describes the goal of providing land dominance in military operations and conflicts. This aligns with the responsibilities and focus of the Army, which is primarily responsible for ground warfare and land-based operations. The other branches of the military, such as the Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps, have different areas of focus and mission objectives.

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18. Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target? 

Explanation

The term "decoy" refers to simulating an object or using a signature generator to simulate a potential target. A decoy is typically used to divert attention or deceive someone or something, making them believe that the decoy is the actual target.

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19. When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for the final rehearsal just before departing for the target. This ensures that all members are present and prepared for the attack. Conducting the rehearsal at this time allows the team to go over the details of the plan, address any last-minute concerns or issues, and ensure that everyone is clear on their roles and responsibilities. By rehearsing just before departing for the target, the team maximizes their chances of a successful execution of the attack.

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20. Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered 

Explanation

A Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered a controlled area because it is a specific location that is closely monitored and regulated. It has restricted access and only authorized personnel are allowed entry. This is necessary to ensure the security and safety of the base and its operations. By controlling who can enter the BDOC, the military can prevent unauthorized individuals from gaining access to sensitive information or causing harm.

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21. Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Security Forces. Security Forces play a crucial role in providing the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept. They are responsible for protecting and defending Air Force installations, personnel, and resources. Their main objective is to maintain a safe and secure environment by conducting patrols, enforcing regulations, and responding to any security threats. As part of the ID concept, Security Forces collaborate with other agencies and units to ensure a comprehensive and coordinated defense strategy.

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22. What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman

Explanation

The M4 is not the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman. Typically, a designated marksman is equipped with a rifle specifically designed for long-range precision shooting, such as the M24, M40, or M110. The M4 is a carbine rifle commonly used by infantry soldiers, but it is not specifically designed for designated marksmen.

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23. What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal? 

Explanation

A raid is a type of patrol that involves conducting attacks on a specific position or installation and then executing a planned withdrawal. It is a swift and aggressive operation aimed at causing damage or disruption to the enemy before retreating to safety. Raids are often carried out by special forces or highly trained units and require careful planning and coordination to achieve their objectives effectively.

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24. A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force 

Explanation

A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force flight. In military terminology, a platoon is a small unit consisting of around 30 to 40 soldiers led by a lieutenant. Similarly, a flight in the Air Force is a small unit consisting of a few aircraft and their crews, usually led by a captain. Both the platoon and the flight are considered to be smaller units within their respective branches of the military.

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25. What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons? 

Explanation

The Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC) is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons. This facility is located underground and is responsible for storing and maintaining nuclear weapons. It is designed to provide maximum security and protection for these weapons. The other options mentioned, such as missile field, weapons storage area (WSA), and weapons storage and security system (WS3), may be storage facilities for weapons but are not specifically designated for nuclear weapons or as large as the KUMMSC.

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26. (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Courier and SF representative. Both the courier and the security forces (SF) representative are responsible for authenticating all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF). This ensures that only authorized personnel have access to the PNAF and helps maintain the security and integrity of the nuclear airlift operations.

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27. Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units 

Explanation

IDPs are plans that are implemented by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard installations/units. These plans are specifically carried out when the installation is responsible for protection level resources. This means that the installation has a role in safeguarding and protecting important resources, assets, or facilities. Therefore, IDPs are only accomplished when the installation has this specific responsibility.

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28. Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of 

Explanation

Specially trained terrorists are typically of above average intelligence and fall within a certain age range. Among the given options, the age range of 23 and 30 seems to be the most plausible choice. This age range allows for individuals who have completed their education and have gained enough experience to be trained as terrorists. Additionally, individuals within this age range are often considered to be in their prime physical condition, which is advantageous for carrying out acts of terrorism.

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29. What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests? 

Explanation

The term "intentions" accurately describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. Intentions refer to the deliberate plans or motives behind such attacks, indicating the purposeful and premeditated nature of the actions. This term encompasses the ideological or political motivations that drive terrorists to target US interests, highlighting their specific goals and objectives.

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30. A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as 

Explanation

A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles. In this area, thorough searches can be conducted to ensure the safety and security of the premises. It is designed to prevent unauthorized access and to identify any potential threats or suspicious activities. This area may have specific protocols and procedures in place to ensure proper identification and screening of individuals and vehicles entering or exiting the area.

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31. What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force? 

Explanation

Security Forces (SF) must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force. Identifying deficiencies is crucial for maintaining the security and safety of the Air Force. By identifying deficiencies, SF can address and rectify any weaknesses or shortcomings in the security measures, protocols, or systems. This proactive approach helps in preventing potential threats or risks from escalating and ensures that the Air Force remains well-prepared and protected.

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32. The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within 

Explanation

The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within 800 meters. This means that machine guns within the base-of-fire element are effective in engaging targets up to a distance of 800 meters. They are capable of providing suppressive fire and supporting the maneuver element by keeping the enemy forces pinned down within this range. Beyond 800 meters, other weapons or elements may be utilized for effective engagement.

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33. Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter information up to? 

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filters information up to the flight sergeant. This means that the flight sergeant is responsible for receiving and reviewing information from the BDOC controller. They act as a point of contact and relay important information to higher-ranking officials, such as the area supervisor, flight commander, and operations superintendent. The flight sergeant plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and coordination within the BDOC.

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34. Which of these is not a force protection effect

Explanation

Defuse is not a force protection effect because it refers to the act of reducing the intensity or danger of a potentially explosive or volatile situation. While deter, detect, and mitigate are all actions that aim to prevent or minimize harm, defusing involves calming or diffusing a tense or volatile situation rather than directly protecting against a force or threat.

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35. What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit? 

Explanation

The unit type code (UTC) QFEBA provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit.

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36. Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have 

Explanation

Members requesting entry into an exclusion area must have a valid reason to be there. This means that they should have a specific purpose or task that requires them to be present in the exclusion area. This requirement ensures that only individuals who have a legitimate need to access the area are granted entry, thereby maintaining the safety and security of the exclusion area.

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37. (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons? 

Explanation

A Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons would be provided with type I aircraft security. This type of security is the highest level of protection and involves stringent measures to ensure the safety and integrity of the nuclear weapons during transportation. It includes armed guards, advanced surveillance systems, secure communication channels, and strict access control procedures. This level of security is necessary to prevent any unauthorized access or tampering with the nuclear weapons, ensuring their safe transport.

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38. What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy? 

Explanation

Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD) is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy. This involves using various techniques to hide and blend with the surrounding environment, disguising assets to appear as something else, and employing decoys to divert attention away from actual targets. By utilizing these principles, CCD aims to make it difficult for the enemy to detect and accurately target friendly forces, thereby reducing their effectiveness in combat.

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39. Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft? 

Explanation

Couriers ensure that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft. They are responsible for transporting sensitive documents, materials, or equipment between different locations, ensuring their security and integrity. As part of their duties, couriers verify the presence of two qualified individuals during the handling of nuclear logistics, thus adhering to the two-person concept requirements. Additionally, they assist in delineating no-lone zones around nuclear logistic aircraft to prevent unauthorized access or tampering.

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40. The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are 

Explanation

Existing obstacles refer to obstacles that are already present in a particular situation or environment. These obstacles may include physical barriers, such as walls or fences, or they may be more abstract, such as established rules or regulations. Reinforcing obstacles, on the other hand, are obstacles that further strengthen or support existing obstacles. They may make it more difficult to overcome or bypass the existing obstacles. Therefore, the correct answer is "existing and reinforcing" as these two types of obstacles are commonly encountered.

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41. Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices? 

Explanation

Terrorists are defined as individuals or small groups who use a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices. They engage in acts of violence and intimidation to achieve their political, religious, or ideological goals.

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42. Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel? 

Explanation

The weapon carry technique used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel is the depressed ready. This technique involves holding the weapon at a low position with the muzzle pointed downward, allowing for better control and minimizing the risk of accidentally hitting others. It is a safe and practical method to navigate in confined areas while ensuring the safety of nearby individuals.

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43. Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations order? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "situation." In an operations order, the situation paragraph typically includes information about the current weather conditions and any relevant light data. This paragraph provides an overview of the environmental factors that may impact the mission or execution of tasks. By including weather and light data in the situation paragraph, the commander can ensure that all personnel are aware of the conditions they will be operating in and can make informed decisions accordingly.

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44. Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity? 

Explanation

Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in terrorist activities themselves. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to show their support or solidarity with the cause. This activity is considered a lower threat level compared to actual terrorists who are actively involved in planning and carrying out attacks.

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45. When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the generation area becomes 

Explanation

When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert, the generation area becomes an alert aircraft parking area. This means that the area is designated for parking the aircraft that are on alert and ready to be deployed. It serves as a location where the aircraft can be easily accessed and prepared for immediate action if needed.

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46. When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique? 

Explanation

Dead reckoning is a technique used in navigation when moving during limited visibility conditions. It involves estimating one's current position by using a previously known position and taking into account the distance traveled, direction, and time elapsed. This method is commonly used when traditional navigational aids such as landmarks or visual references are not visible or accessible. By continuously updating the estimated position based on the direction and speed of movement, dead reckoning allows for navigation even in challenging conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is navigation.

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47. Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished 

Explanation

The mission paragraph in an operations order provides a clear and concise statement of the task to be accomplished. It outlines the overall objective or goal that needs to be achieved. This paragraph sets the direction and purpose for the entire operation, ensuring that all personnel involved understand the desired outcome. By focusing on the mission, the operations order establishes a framework for planning and executing the necessary tasks to successfully complete the mission.

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48. What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement? 

Explanation

Rules of Engagement are guidelines that outline the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. However, the consideration that does not drive Rules of Engagement is the civilian factor. While civilian protection is an important aspect of military operations, it is not a primary driver in determining the rules for engagement. The main focus is on legal frameworks, policy objectives, and military strategies to ensure mission success and the safety of military personnel.

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49. When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training? 

Explanation

Defenders must perform shoot, move, and communicate training between months 5 and 7. This implies that this training should be conducted once every year during this specific time period. It is important for defenders to regularly practice and improve their shooting, movement, and communication skills to effectively carry out their defensive duties.

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50. Which of these is not a probable direction of attack? 

Explanation

The question asks for a direction of attack that is not probable. A ridge, draw, and spur are all potential directions of attack as they provide tactical advantages for an attacker. However, a cliff is not a probable direction of attack as it presents a natural barrier that is difficult to overcome.

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51. The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification

Explanation

The correct answer is Miscellaneous. In an after action report (AAR), incidents involving the use of electronic control devices are classified under the Miscellaneous category. This category typically includes incidents that do not fit into the other specified classifications such as combat arms or training incidents, shooting incidents, or security incidents. The use of electronic control devices may refer to incidents involving the deployment or utilization of devices like tasers or stun guns, and these incidents are considered separate from other types of incidents mentioned in the options.

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52. The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing and interpreting of available information concerning foreign countries or areas is 

Explanation

The correct answer is intelligence. This is because the process described in the question, which includes collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing, and interpreting information about foreign countries or areas, is the definition of intelligence. Intelligence refers to the gathering and analysis of information to gain insights and make informed decisions in various fields, such as national security, business, and politics.

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53. The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be 

Explanation

The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be no closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment on the ground. Being too close to the aircraft can pose a risk of injury from jet blast or propeller wash, while being too far away can hinder communication and emergency response. Therefore, a distance of 10 to 60 feet strikes a balance between safety and operational efficiency.

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54. How many types of nuclear movements are there on an installation? 

Explanation

There are two types of nuclear movements on an installation. The question asks about the number of types of nuclear movements, and the correct answer is "two".

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55. Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed 

Explanation

Traveling is the movement technique used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed. This technique allows the team to move quickly and efficiently without making frequent stops or taking cover. It is often used in situations where the enemy presence is minimal or the objective is to reach a specific location as fast as possible. This technique prioritizes speed over security and is suitable when the risk of enemy engagement is low.

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56. Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool

Explanation

The Designed operational capability (DOC) statement is not a readiness reporting tool. Readiness reporting tools are used to assess and report the readiness of military units. The Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS), Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART), and Mission-essential task list (METL) are all examples of readiness reporting tools that are used to track and report the readiness status of military units. However, the DOC statement is a document that outlines the capabilities and requirements of a military unit, but it is not specifically used for readiness reporting.

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57. Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of five or more in the secondary sector? 

Explanation

Machine gunners have an engagement priority of groups of five or more in the secondary sector. This means that they are specifically trained to target and engage enemy groups consisting of at least five individuals. Machine gunners are equipped with heavy firepower and are responsible for providing suppressive fire, which is crucial in controlling and neutralizing larger enemy forces. Their role is to effectively engage and eliminate threats posed by larger enemy groups, making them the correct answer for this question.

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58. What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible 

Explanation

The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible. This is because the staging area is typically used for organizing and preparing resources, equipment, and personnel before they are deployed to the search facility. By positioning the staging area far back, it allows for efficient movement and coordination of resources without interfering with the ongoing search operations.

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59. In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and 

Explanation

Obstacles in offense play a crucial role in isolating objectives. By creating barriers or blocking enemy routes, obstacles prevent the enemy from reaching their objectives or receiving reinforcements. This isolation weakens the enemy's ability to defend or counterattack effectively, making it easier for the attacking forces to engage and defeat them. Therefore, isolating objectives is an important objective in offensive operations.

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60. The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment

Explanation

The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted 15 days prior to the end of a deployment. This allows sufficient time for the report to be reviewed and analyzed before the deployment concludes. It ensures that any necessary adjustments or improvements can be made based on the findings of the AAR before the deployment is completed.

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61. What is essential to our security? 

Explanation

Nuclear deterrence is essential to our security because it is a strategy that aims to prevent potential adversaries from attacking by creating a credible threat of nuclear retaliation. It serves as a deterrent by convincing other countries that any aggression towards us would result in devastating consequences. This concept is based on the belief that the fear of retaliation will discourage potential attackers, thereby maintaining peace and stability. Nuclear deterrence is a crucial component of national security strategies for many countries with nuclear capabilities.

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62. The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with 

Explanation

The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with combatant commanders. Combatant commanders are responsible for the military operations in their designated geographic or functional areas of responsibility. They have a deep understanding of the operational environment and are in the best position to provide guidance and direction for nuclear missions. By aligning the nuclear roadmap with combatant commanders, the military ensures that its nuclear capabilities are effectively integrated into overall military operations and strategy.

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63. Security deviations are documented on AF form

Explanation

The given correct answer is "116". However, without any context or additional information, it is difficult to provide a specific explanation for this answer. It is possible that "116" refers to a specific section or requirement in the AF form 116, which is used to document security deviations. This section or requirement may outline the procedure or guidelines for documenting such deviations. Without further details, it is challenging to provide a comprehensive explanation.

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64. How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)? 

Explanation

A launch facility (LF) typically has two lines of sensors surrounding it. These sensors are strategically placed to detect any unauthorized access or potential threats to the facility. Having two lines of sensors ensures better security and surveillance coverage, as it allows for multiple layers of defense.

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65. The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting? 

Explanation

The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has four areas of reporting.

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66. "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue" is the definition of 

Explanation

The correct answer is protestors. A protestor is someone who holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue, and expresses their beliefs through organized demonstrations or public actions. While criminals and terrorists may also hold extreme views, their actions involve illegal or violent activities. Insider threats refer to individuals within an organization who pose a risk to its security or interests.

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67. Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exlusion area

Explanation

The sole vouching authority is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exclusion area. This means that they are the only person who can verify and approve the entry of individuals into the area. They have the authority to determine whether someone has a legitimate reason to enter the exclusion area and can vouch for their need to be there. This role is crucial in maintaining security and ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to the area.

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68. One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area

Explanation

An escort official can escort up to six people into an exclusion area. This means that the official is responsible for guiding and supervising a group of six individuals, ensuring their safety and compliance with the rules and regulations of the exclusion area.

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69. When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat what tactical movement is being peformed? 

Explanation

When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat, the tactical movement being performed is "contact rear." This means that the shooter is turning to face a threat that is coming from behind them. This movement allows the shooter to quickly assess and engage the threat from the rear.

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70. How many categories of patrols are there? 

Explanation

There are only two categories of patrols.

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71. Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)? 

Explanation

Threat level doctrine III stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km). This means that according to this doctrine, it is recommended to use battalion-size units and helicopters to penetrate enemy territory up to a distance of 50 km. This approach is likely based on the belief that this level of force and mobility is necessary to achieve the desired objectives and overcome any potential threats or obstacles encountered along the way.

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72. The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the 

Explanation

The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly support the Defense force commander. This means that the fusion cell and its products provide the necessary intelligence and information that the Defense force commander needs to make informed decisions and effectively carry out their duties. The fusion cell likely collects, analyzes, and disseminates intelligence from various sources to support the commander's decision-making process and operational planning.

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73. The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as

Explanation

Power projection assets refer to military capabilities that enable a country to extend its reach and influence beyond its borders. These assets include aircraft carriers, strategic bombers, amphibious assault ships, and other platforms that can project force and conduct military operations in distant locations. The loss or disablement of power projection assets would significantly impact the ability of the Air Force to project decisive combat power and wage war effectively. These assets are essential for power projection and play a crucial role in military operations, making their protection and preservation a top priority.

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74. The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase? 

Explanation

The correct answer is pre-deployment. The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration is conducted before the actual deployment phase. It involves tasks such as receiving personnel and equipment, conducting necessary training and preparations, and ensuring readiness for the deployment.

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75. In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments

Explanation

The focal point for all base deployments is the Installation Deployment Readiness Cell. This cell is responsible for coordinating and ensuring the readiness of all installation personnel and resources for deployment. They ensure that all necessary preparations and arrangements are made, such as training, equipment, and logistics, to support a successful deployment. The Installation Deployment Readiness Cell plays a crucial role in ensuring that the installation is fully prepared and capable of executing deployments efficiently and effectively.

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76. Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within what timeframe of the pre-arrival window 

Explanation

The correct answer is 48 hrs. This means that Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within 48 hours of the pre-arrival window. This timeframe allows for adequate preparation and practice before the actual arrival, ensuring that all necessary procedures and protocols are followed effectively. Conducting the rehearsals within this timeframe helps to minimize any potential risks or errors during the actual arrival of the PNAF.

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77. What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for" 

Explanation

An Integrated Defense Plan is defined as the process of organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal and external agencies to ensure that all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for. This plan involves coordinating and aligning the various defense measures and strategies to effectively protect the installation from potential threats and risks. It aims to integrate different defense concepts, security systems, and risk management processes to create a comprehensive and cohesive defense strategy.

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78. Where would you find a weapon security vault? 

Explanation

A weapon security vault can be found in the Weapons Storage and Security System (WS3). This system is specifically designed to store and secure weapons, ensuring their safety and preventing unauthorized access. It is a specialized facility that provides a high level of security and control over weapons, making it an ideal location for storing and safeguarding valuable and sensitive weaponry.

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79. What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons

Explanation

The correct answer is Nuclear Weapon Security Standard. This term refers to the set of measures and protocols put in place to prevent unauthorized access to nuclear weapons. It includes physical security measures, such as secure storage facilities and access controls, as well as personnel security measures, such as background checks and two-person control. The Nuclear Weapon Security Standard ensures that only authorized individuals have access to nuclear weapons, reducing the risk of theft or unauthorized use.

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80. How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear security? 

Explanation

There are three potential adversary groups that are of primary concern in nuclear security. This implies that there are three specific groups or entities that pose the greatest threat to nuclear security. These groups could include terrorist organizations, rogue states, or non-state actors seeking to acquire nuclear weapons or materials. It is crucial to focus on these primary concerns in order to effectively safeguard against potential nuclear threats.

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81. What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of the operations order? 

Explanation

In the service and support paragraph of the operations order, the focus is on the logistical aspects of the mission. This includes topics such as casualty collection points, cache and resupply points, and materials and supply items. However, any type of support fire would not be discussed in this paragraph. Support fire would typically be addressed in the paragraph related to the maneuver and fires plan, as it pertains to the tactical aspects of the operation.

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82. Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information? 

Explanation

The defense force commander (DFC) uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information. This role is responsible for overseeing the defense force and making strategic decisions. By conducting area reconnaissance patrols, the DFC can gather valuable information about the area, such as enemy positions, terrain features, and potential threats. This information is crucial for planning and executing effective defense strategies. The S2, patrol leader, and squad leader may also be involved in gathering information, but the DFC has the ultimate responsibility for making decisions based on this information.

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83. How many phases are there in the deployment process? 

Explanation

The correct answer is four. This suggests that the deployment process consists of four distinct phases. However, without additional context or information, it is not possible to provide a detailed explanation of what these phases might be.

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84. What type of danger area would be passed on the downwind side

Explanation

Passing on the downwind side of enemy positions would be considered dangerous because it increases the risk of being detected or attacked by the enemy. By approaching from the downwind side, the sound or smell of the passing individual or group would be carried towards the enemy, alerting them to their presence and potentially putting them in harm's way. Therefore, it is important to avoid passing on the downwind side of enemy positions to minimize the risk of danger.

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85. The key to force protection countermeasure planning is 

Explanation

The key to force protection countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This means that in order to effectively plan for countermeasures to protect forces, it is crucial to prioritize the protection of sensitive information. This could involve measures such as encryption, secure storage, and controlled access to sensitive data. By safeguarding sensitive information, potential threats can be mitigated, and the overall force protection can be enhanced.

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86. Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable aircraft? 

Explanation

The B-1 is not considered a nuclear capable aircraft. This is because it was originally designed as a strategic bomber but was later converted to a conventional bomber. It does not have the capability to carry or deliver nuclear weapons like the B-2 and B-52 bombers. The F-16 is also not a nuclear capable aircraft, as it is primarily a multi-role fighter jet designed for air-to-air and air-to-ground missions.

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87. By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security detachments effectively achieves all of the following except 

Explanation

Machine guns with security detachments are highly effective in achieving delay, attack, and defense. However, they are not primarily designed to achieve defeat. While they can cause significant damage and suppress enemy forces, their main purpose is to provide cover and support to friendly troops. Defeat, which implies completely overpowering and eliminating the enemy, is typically achieved through a combination of different tactics and weapons, not solely by machine guns with security detachments.

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88. (DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition? 

Explanation

A Type II security forces composition refers to the inclusion of Close-in Sentry (CIS) and Close Boundary Sentry (CBS) in the security team. These personnel are responsible for guarding and securing the immediate vicinity and boundaries of a particular area. They are trained to provide close protection and surveillance, ensuring the safety and security of the area they are assigned to. This composition enhances the overall security measures by having dedicated personnel specifically focused on maintaining a secure perimeter.

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89. Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes which task of Close Precision Engagement (CPE)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is screening. Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post is a task of Close Precision Engagement (CPE) that involves screening. Screening refers to the process of observing and monitoring an area to detect any potential threats or suspicious activities. By operating as a listening/observation post, individuals can gather information and intelligence to identify and assess potential threats, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to protect personnel and assets.

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90. Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by 

Explanation

Inspections and visits are conducted to assess whether the security program can comply with the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) in various scenarios. The Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) is mentioned as one of the organizations involved in these assessments. Therefore, the DIA is likely responsible for evaluating the security program's ability to meet the NWSS.

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91. Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle 

Explanation

Delay is achieved through the use of both active and passive security measures. Active security measures involve actively preventing or slowing down an attack, such as using firewalls or intrusion detection systems. Passive security measures, on the other hand, involve creating obstacles or barriers that slow down an attacker, such as using locks or physical barriers. By implementing both active and passive security measures, organizations can effectively delay an attacker's progress and buy time to respond and mitigate the impact of an attack.

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92. A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as 

Explanation

A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement is a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, and equipped with. It provides an overview of the unit's capabilities and readiness to perform its assigned tasks. The DOC Statement is used to assess and report the unit's readiness level and to ensure that it is properly trained and equipped to fulfill its mission requirements. It helps in evaluating the unit's operational capabilities and identifying any gaps or deficiencies that need to be addressed.

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93. All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except 

Explanation

The integrated defense (ID) concept encompasses various guiding principles to ensure effective defense strategies. Focused logistics, full dimensional protection, and the concept of full spectrum dominance are all essential components of the ID concept. However, "capabilities for dominating mass" does not align with the guiding principles of ID. This principle is not mentioned or implied in the context of integrated defense, suggesting that it is not a guiding principle of the ID concept.

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94. The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the 

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander is the correct answer for the risk acceptance authority for security deviations. This individual holds the highest level of authority within a major command and is responsible for overseeing all operations and security measures. As such, they have the final say in accepting or rejecting any security deviations that may arise within their command. The other options, such as the Installation Commander, Defense Force Commander, and NAF commander, do not hold the same level of authority as the MAJCOM commander in terms of security deviations.

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95. The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes

Explanation

The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has a total of six posturing codes.

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96. Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems are designated as 

Explanation

The correct answer is "limited area". This term refers to specific areas within an air base or facility where aircraft carrying nuclear weapons are located. These areas are tightly controlled and access is restricted to authorized personnel only. The designation of a limited area helps ensure the security and safety of nuclear weapons by limiting access and reducing the risk of unauthorized use or tampering.

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97. The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the 

Explanation

The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the operational level. This means that it emphasizes the practical implementation and execution of nuclear strategies and plans. It involves the day-to-day activities, decision-making, and coordination necessary to effectively manage and operate nuclear facilities and systems. The operational level is crucial for ensuring the safety, security, and efficiency of nuclear operations, as well as for addressing any operational challenges or issues that may arise.

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98. Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to standoff from a target, assess the situation, and pass timely information? 

Explanation

The correct answer is response. In a close precision engagement (CPE) task, the response provides the capability to standoff from a target, assess the situation, and pass timely information. This means that the response task allows for a tactical approach where the engagement team can gather information from a safe distance before taking any action.

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99. What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces? 

Explanation

A hostile act is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces, including the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces. This means that a hostile act refers to any action or behavior that poses a direct threat to the U.S. or its military forces, either through the use of force or by obstructing their mission or duties. It can include actions such as attacks, aggression, or any other form of hostile behavior that endangers the U.S. or its forces.

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100. The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the cornerstone of threat 

Explanation

The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) is a comprehensive evaluation that assesses the capabilities of potential threats in the field of nuclear security. It helps in identifying and understanding the strengths and weaknesses of potential adversaries, their resources, and their ability to carry out security threats. By analyzing their capabilities, security agencies can develop effective countermeasures and strategies to mitigate the risks posed by these threats.

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What is the Navy's largest formation? 
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is 
Range is given in what unit of measurement? 
What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive...
Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for 
If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel...
Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest...
The technique that requires great patience is movement with 
Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are...
Integrated defense does not require the capability to 
At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be...
When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an...
In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire...
In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire? 
The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates...
Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations...
"To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained...
Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator...
When are terrorist team members brought together for final...
Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations...
Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID)...
What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman? 
What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation...
A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force 
What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons? 
(DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the...
Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or...
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average...
What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks...
A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel...
What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so...
The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is...
Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter...
Which of these is not a force protection effect? 
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS,...
Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must...
(DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear...
What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of...
Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept...
The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are 
Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and...
Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or...
Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations...
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against...
When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the...
When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is...
Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement...
What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement? 
When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate...
Which of these is not a probable direction of attack? 
The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action...
The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating,...
The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be 
How many types of nuclear movements are there on an...
Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not...
Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool? 
Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of five or...
What area should be as far back from the search facility as...
In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy...
The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days...
What is essential to our security? 
The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with 
Security deviations are documented on AF form
How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)? 
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas...
"A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either...
Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an...
One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion...
When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat...
How many categories of patrols are there? 
Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units...
The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary...
The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or...
The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration...
In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all...
Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted...
What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among...
Where would you find a weapon security vault? 
What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear...
How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear...
What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of...
Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information? 
How many phases are there in the deployment process? 
What type of danger area would be passed on the downwind side? 
The key to force protection countermeasure planning is 
Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable aircraft? 
By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security...
(DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition? 
Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes...
Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program...
Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which...
A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been...
All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense...
The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the 
The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing...
Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft...
The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the 
Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to...
What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the...
The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the...
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