What is the Navy's largest formation?
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
Range is given in what unit of measurement?
What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive...
Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for
If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel...
Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest...
The technique that requires great patience is movement with
Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are...
Integrated defense does not require the capability to
At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be...
When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an...
In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire...
In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?
The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates...
Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations...
"To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained...
Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator...
When are terrorist team members brought together for final...
Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations...
Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID)...
What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation...
A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force
What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
(DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the...
Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or...
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average...
What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks...
A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel...
What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so...
The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is...
Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter...
Which of these is not a force protection effect?
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS,...
Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must...
(DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear...
What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of...
Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept...
The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are
Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and...
Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or...
Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations...
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against...
When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the...
When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is...
Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement...
What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate...
Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action...
The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating,...
The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be
How many types of nuclear movements are there on an...
Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not...
Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of five or...
What area should be as far back from the search facility as...
In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy...
The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days...
What is essential to our security?
The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
Security deviations are documented on AF form
How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas...
"A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either...
Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an...
One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion...
When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat...
How many categories of patrols are there?
Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units...
The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary...
The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or...
The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration...
In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all...
Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted...
What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among...
Where would you find a weapon security vault?
What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear...
How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear...
What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of...
Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
How many phases are there in the deployment process?
What type of danger area would be passed on the downwind side?
The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?
By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security...
(DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition?
Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes...
Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program...
Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which...
A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been...
All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense...
The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the
The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing...
Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft...
The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the
Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to...
What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the...
The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the...