Everything You Need To Know About Air Force Specialty(AFS)- Quiz

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Gtarrant
G
Gtarrant
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 17,164
Questions: 100 | Attempts: 10,737

SettingsSettingsSettings
Everything You Need To Know About Air Force Specialty(AFS)- Quiz - Quiz

What does specialty mean in Air Force? Think you can pass the quiz? The air force specialty can be stated as the enlisted jobs for air force personal and officers. Check out our online quiz to see how much you know and learn interesting trivia
.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty position task
    Explanation
    In accordance with AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel, the supervisor is responsible for assigning duty position tasks to enlisted personnel. These tasks are specific to the individual's assigned position and outline the responsibilities and duties they are expected to fulfill. By assigning duty position tasks, supervisors ensure that personnel are trained and qualified to perform their job effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is "Duty position task."

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    C. Core competency
    Explanation
    A core competency is a set of integrated expert knowledge and organizational skills specific to a particular career field. It represents the essential capabilities that individuals in that field must possess to perform their duties effectively. Core competencies encompass a wide range of skills, including technical expertise, problem-solving abilities, and communication skills. They are crucial for individuals to excel in their career and contribute to the overall success of their organization.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    D. Cyber Systems Operations
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer because this Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses on the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations worldwide. This role involves managing and maintaining the operation of computer systems, networks, and associated infrastructure to ensure smooth functioning and security. It includes tasks like installing, configuring, and troubleshooting servers, as well as monitoring and optimizing their performance. This AFS plays a crucial role in ensuring the availability and reliability of server systems, which are essential for the Air Force's operations.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber System Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. Client Systems
    Explanation
    Client Systems is the correct answer because this Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for providing local base helpdesk and client support. They also perform "hands-on" maintenance actions, which involve troubleshooting and fixing technical issues with computer systems and networks. This AFS ensures that the client systems are operational and functioning efficiently, supporting the overall cyber infrastructure of the Air Force.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sigh, wideband and ground bades satelitte devices?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar System

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    Radio Frequency Transmission is the correct answer because this specialty involves the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This means that individuals in this specialty are responsible for ensuring the proper functioning of these devices and maintaining communication capabilities through RF transmission.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployed air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    B. Ground Radar Systems
    Explanation
    Ground Radar Systems is the correct answer because this specialty is responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployed air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. This involves ensuring that these radar systems are functioning properly and accurately detecting and tracking aircraft and weather patterns. Ground Radar Systems technicians may also be involved in troubleshooting and resolving any issues with the radar systems to ensure their continuous operation.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems.
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This involves setting up and maintaining the cables and antennas that are essential for communication and data transfer within a network. They ensure that the network wiring is properly installed, functioning efficiently, and able to support the operational needs of the Air Force.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They provide guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary training and resources to succeed. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing the development and implementation of career field policies and programs, and they work closely with other managers and leaders to ensure that the career field is effectively managed.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). The AFCFM has the highest level of authority and oversight in the career field, and is responsible for making decisions regarding training and education requirements for personnel within that field.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    Explanation
    The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career field within the major command and plays a key role in ensuring that the appropriate SMEs are involved in the development of training materials and assessments. They work closely with the unit training manager (UTM) and the base functional manager (BFM) to ensure that the training and development needs of the career field are met. The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is not directly involved in the identification of SMEs for these purposes.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    B. Base functional manager (BFM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO).

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Modify training.

    • B.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • C.

      Conduct climate training surveys.

    • D.

      Review the occupational analysis report.

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for education and training within a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary skills, knowledge, and training requirements for individuals in that field, ensuring that they are properly equipped to perform their job duties effectively. This goal focuses on the development and improvement of training programs to meet the needs of the career field.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”

    • A.

      91–46.

    • B.

      91–50

    • C.

      91–64

    • D.

      91–68

    Correct Answer
    A. 91–46.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-46. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard specifically deals with safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment." It provides guidelines and regulations to ensure the safe handling and storage of materials, reducing the risk of accidents and injuries. By referencing this standard, Air Force personnel can access the necessary information and protocols to maintain a safe working environment when dealing with material handling and storage equipment.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    B. 91-50
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-50. The reason is that the question specifically asks for the AFOSH standard document that contains safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems." Among the options given, 91-50 is the only one that matches this description.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    C. 91-64
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-64. The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that provides safety information for data processing facilities is AFOSH standard 91-64. This standard outlines the guidelines and requirements for ensuring the safety and security of data processing facilities in the Air Force. It covers various aspects such as electrical safety, fire protection, environmental controls, and emergency response procedures. By referencing AFOSH standard 91-64, personnel can ensure that data processing facilities are compliant with safety regulations and minimize potential risks and hazards.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • A.

      Sunlight.

    • B.

      Microwaves

    • C.

      Ionizing radiation.

    • D.

      Nonionizing radiation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Nonionizing radiation.
    Explanation
    Nonionizing radiation refers to radiation that does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, therefore it does not cause ionization in tissues. This means that it does not have enough energy to cause immediate damage to deep tissue or organs, even if absorbed in large amounts. On the other hand, ionizing radiation, such as X-rays and gamma rays, have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms and can cause immediate damage to tissues. Sunlight and microwaves are examples of nonionizing radiation, while ionizing radiation is not selectively absorbed and can cause harm to deep tissue.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
    Explanation
    The principle "Accept no unnecessary risk" states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk. This means that any risks taken should be necessary and unavoidable for the mission's success. By accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can prioritize the safety and well-being of their personnel and resources while still achieving their objectives effectively.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

     Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
    Explanation
    This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) suggests that it is acceptable to take on risks when the potential benefits outweigh the costs involved. In other words, if the advantages and opportunities gained from a particular action or decision are greater than the potential negative consequences or risks, it is reasonable to accept that risk. This approach helps to maximize the capability of the unit by allowing for calculated risks that can lead to positive outcomes.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels is the principle that involves conducting risk assessments of mission supportive operations as a normal way of conducting a mission, rather than as an add-on process. This means that ORM is incorporated into all aspects of operations and planning, making risk assessment an integral part of the entire mission process rather than a separate step. This ensures that risk assessments are consistently and thoroughly conducted, enhancing the overall effectiveness of occupational risk management.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

    • A.

      Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

    • B.

      Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

    • C.

      Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.

    • D.

      Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.

    Correct Answer
    C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.
    Explanation
    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace. This means that the primary goal of offensive operations is to hinder the adversary's ability to operate effectively in the cyberspace domain. By taking offensive measures, the United States aims to impede the adversary's access, control, and utilization of cyberspace resources, ultimately diminishing their capability to carry out cyber attacks or gather sensitive information.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

    • A.

      Joint Operability network.

    • B.

      Tactical data links network.

    • C.

      Strategic data control network.

    • D.

      Supervisory control and data acquisition.

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.
    Explanation
    Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are commonly used in industries such as manufacturing, energy, and telecommunications to gather and analyze real-time data, control processes, and make informed decisions. They provide a centralized platform for monitoring and controlling various devices and processes, allowing operators to remotely manage and optimize operations. Therefore, SCADA is the correct option that refers to the described centralized systems.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC).

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. AFNOC is specifically designed to monitor and manage Air Force networks, ensuring their security, availability, and operational efficiency. It serves as the central hub for network operations and provides critical support to maintain the integrity and functionality of Air Force networks.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC).

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    B. Network Control Center (NCC).
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and provides Tier 3 on-site support. It is responsible for implementing technical and physical network changes. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), may have different roles and responsibilities within the network infrastructure, but they do not specifically align with the given criteria of providing Tier 3 on-site support and implementing network changes.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Combat Communications Squadron (CCS). This function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
    Explanation
    The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This unit is responsible for providing communication support in expeditionary environments, ensuring that the AETF has the necessary communication capabilities to carry out its mission effectively. The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Combat Communications Squadron (CCS) are not specifically designed for this purpose, making the Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) the correct answer.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) is the correct answer because it is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. The ESU's goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs, increase operational flexibility, and enhance capacity for the warfighter. This implies that the ESU focuses on providing efficient and effective services to support military operations while optimizing resources. The other options, such as the Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), Combat Communications Squadron (CCS), and Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS), do not specifically mention the goal of managing AF core services or reducing costs and increasing operational flexibility.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights.

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10.

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    A. Constitution
    Explanation
    The Constitution is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It is the supreme law of the land and outlines the structure of the government, the powers and limitations of each branch, and the rights and freedoms of the people. It serves as a framework for legislation and provides a system of checks and balances to ensure the government operates within its boundaries. The Bill of Rights, United States Title Code 10, and Uniform Code of Military Justice are all important documents, but they are not the primary basis for federal laws in the United States.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • A.

      Constitution.

    • B.

      Bill of Rights.

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10.

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice.

    Correct Answer
    C. United States Title Code 10.
  • 29. 

    Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

    • A.

      Constitution.

    • B.

      Bill of Rights.

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10.

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice.

    Correct Answer
    D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
    Explanation
    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breaches in binding instruction and law. The UCMJ is a federal law that applies to all branches of the United States military and it outlines the legal system for the military. It covers a wide range of offenses, including but not limited to, misconduct, dereliction of duty, and disobedience of orders. The UCMJ ensures that military members are held to a high standard of conduct and provides a framework for disciplinary actions and legal proceedings within the military justice system.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    B. 1995
    Explanation
    In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD. This suggests that it was in this year that they finalized and shared their initial drafts, indicating a significant milestone in the development of joint and Armed Services doctrine.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    D. 1998
    Explanation
    The Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine. Therefore, the correct answer is 1998.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

    • A.

      Air Force Doctrines.

    • B.

      Air Force Pamphlets.

    • C.

      Air Force Instructions.

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Policy Directives.
    Explanation
    Air Force Policy Directives are directive policy statements issued by the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF. These directives are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. They provide guidance and instructions to personnel on how to carry out specific policies and procedures within the Air Force. Air Force Doctrines, Air Force Pamphlets, and Air Force Instructions may also contain policy statements, but Air Force Policy Directives specifically refer to the directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?

    • A.

      Air Force Pamphlets.

    • B.

      Air Force Instructions.

    • C.

      Air Force Publications.

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Pamphlets.
    Explanation
    Air Force Pamphlets are the correct answer because they are informational publications that provide guidance on how to perform certain tasks or procedures. These pamphlets are designed to provide step-by-step instructions and practical advice on various topics, making them ideal for individuals seeking "how to" information within the Air Force. Air Force Instructions, Air Force Publications, and Air Force Policy Directives may also contain informational content, but they are not specifically categorized as "how to" documents like Air Force Pamphlets.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

    • A.

      Broadcasts

    • B.

      Transmissions

    • C.

      Telecommunications.

    • D.

      Voice over Internet Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    C. Telecommunications.
    Explanation
    Telecommunications is the correct answer because it refers to the technology and process of transmitting information over long distances. It encompasses various methods such as broadcasting, transmissions, and voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) to convey analog or digital bits of data. Telecommunications enables communication over significant geographical distances, allowing people to connect and exchange information efficiently.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-publishing.

    • C.

      Air Force Portal

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It serves as a central hub where Air Force personnel can access various resources such as news, information, documents, and applications relevant to their duties and responsibilities. The Air Force Portal helps streamline communication and access to important information, making it a valuable tool for the Air Force and its users.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces

    • A.

      MyPay.

    • B.

      E-publishing.

    • C.

      Air Force Portal.

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. It provides a centralized platform for accessing various information and resources related to the Air Force. This tool allows personnel to access important documents, communicate with others, and perform administrative tasks efficiently. It plays a crucial role in streamlining processes and facilitating effective communication within the Air Force.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

    • A.

      my base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    B. Single-sign-on
    Explanation
    Single-sign-on is a feature in the Air Force Portal that allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without needing to log in again. This feature saves time and effort for users by eliminating the need to remember multiple passwords for different applications. It enhances convenience and efficiency by providing seamless access to various resources within the portal.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

    • A.

      My base.

    • B.

      Single-sign-on.

    • C.

      Community of practice.

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    D. Virtual Military Personnel Flight.
    Explanation
    The virtual Military Personnel Flight is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it provides a convenient and efficient way for Air Force personnel to access and manage their personnel records and administrative tasks online. It eliminates the need for physical visits to a Military Personnel Flight office, saving time and resources. This feature allows individuals to update their personal information, request leave, access pay and benefits information, and perform other personnel-related tasks from anywhere with internet access.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on.

    • C.

      Community of practice.

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Community of practice.
    Explanation
    A community of practice is a feature within the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems. This feature fosters collaboration and knowledge sharing among individuals with similar interests or expertise within the Air Force community.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”

    • A.

      AFI 33-118

    • B.

      AFI 33-119

    • C.

      AFI 33-127

    • D.

      AFI 33-129

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 33-129
    Explanation
    AFI 33-129 would be the correct document to reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use." The other options, AFI 33-118, AFI 33-119, and AFI 33-127, do not specifically address this topic.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

     Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

    • A.

      AFI 33-127

    • B.

      AFI 33-129

    • C.

      AFI 33-101

    • D.

      AFI 33-108

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 33-101
    Explanation
    AFI 33-101 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides guidance on the management of information and information systems, including compliance with public affairs procedures for posting information to the internet and public websites. This document would outline the specific clearance and approval procedures that need to be followed before posting web content on an Air Force web page. AFI 33-127, AFI 33-129, and AFI 33-108 may contain relevant information, but they do not specifically address compliance with local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

    • A.

      Keep emails brief and to the point.

    • B.

      Read your email out loud to yourself.

    • C.

      Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.

    • D.

      Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.

    Correct Answer
    C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
    Explanation
    Using the "Reply-to-All" feature consistently would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for everyone included in the original email to be aware of the response. Using "Reply-to-All" unnecessarily can clutter inboxes and lead to confusion, especially if the response is not relevant to all recipients. It is best to use this feature sparingly and only when it is truly needed.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    Which document is not considered an official government record?

    • A.

      Published doctrines.

    • B.

      Geographical base maps.

    • C.

      Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

    • D.

      Library reference or museum exhibitions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are typically created by libraries or museums for informational or educational purposes rather than for official government documentation. While they may contain valuable information and artifacts, they do not hold the same legal or administrative significance as official government records.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • A.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • B.

      Can’t be altered, but are officially released.

    • C.

      Can’t be altered and are officially signed.

    • D.

      Officially signed and officially released

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released.
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered, meaning that they can be changed or modified. However, these records are not officially released, which means that they have not been made available to the public or authorized for distribution.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic

    • A.

      Officially signed and not released.

    • B.

      Officially signed and officially released

    • C.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • D.

      Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.

    Correct Answer
    B. Officially signed and officially released
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in final format have the characteristic of being officially signed and officially released. This means that they have gone through the necessary approval process and have been authorized by the appropriate authorities. Being officially signed indicates that the records have been reviewed and verified for accuracy and authenticity. Being officially released means that they are made available to the intended audience or users for reference or use. This ensures that the records are considered official and can be relied upon for their accuracy and validity.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Command records manager.
    Explanation
    The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that base records managers are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage records within their respective bases. The command records manager oversees the development and implementation of training programs that cover various aspects of records management, including recordkeeping policies, procedures, and best practices. This ensures consistency and standardization in records management practices across the command.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base records manager.
    Explanation
    The base records manager is responsible for providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. This role involves coordinating and overseeing the organization's records management activities, ensuring that records are properly stored, maintained, and accessible when needed. They also provide support and guidance to other staff members in managing records and ensuring compliance with records management policies and procedures.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    D. Functional area records manager.
    Explanation
    A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management of records within their specific functional area, ensuring that records are properly organized, stored, and disposed of in accordance with established guidelines and regulations. They work closely with other records managers and personnel to ensure that records are accurate, accessible, and maintained in a manner that supports the organization's mission and objectives.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief of Office of Records.
    Explanation
    The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. As the head of the office, they are responsible for managing and overseeing all records-related activities, including the appointment of custodians who will be responsible for the proper maintenance and management of records within their respective areas. This ensures that there is a designated person in each area who is accountable for the records and can ensure their proper handling and preservation.

    Rate this question:

  • 50. 

    A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an

    • A.

      File.

    • B.

      Record.

    • C.

      Database.

    • D.

      Enterprise.

    Correct Answer
    B. Record.
    Explanation
    A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a record. This term is commonly used in the context of databases, where a record represents a single row of data that contains specific information about an entity or an object. Records are typically organized and stored within a larger structure called a database, which can contain multiple records and provide a structured way to store and retrieve data.

    Rate this question:

Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.