3DX7X - Volume 1&2 Ure 170 Questions.
This quiz should only be used as reference material and does not include all the questions that may be given on the final test. It is also possible that there were errors made in the creation of this quiz and as such should be considered with caution and not be used as the sole source of study material(s). This quiz contains ONLY the questions that are outlined in the Unit Review Exercises (UREs).
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?
- A.
Computer Systems Programming
- B.
Cyber Systems Operations
- C.
Cyber Transport Systems
- D.
Cyber Surety
Correct Answer
A. Computer Systems ProgrammingExplanation
The correct answer is Computer Systems Programming. This Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test. This test is likely to assess the candidate's knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which are essential for computer systems programming.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
- A.
Minimum rank of SSgt
- B.
6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees
- C.
Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements
- D.
Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses
Correct Answer
D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training coursesExplanation
The completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options listed, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months on-the-job training for retrainees, and completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(001) Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
- A.
Communications Focal Point
- B.
Unit Deployment Monitor
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk
- D.
Quality Assurance
Correct Answer
A. Communications Focal PointExplanation
The correct answer is Communications Focal Point. This function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, who are responsible for managing and maintaining communication systems. However, the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) assigned to individuals in this role may vary depending on the unit's mission and requirements.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(001) What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
- A.
TO 00-5-15
- B.
MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
- C.
Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory
- D.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II
Correct Answer
B. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WAExplanation
The correct answer is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA. This document directs the Communications Focal point key processes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(002) Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?
- A.
At major command functional managers
- B.
At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
- C.
At the Air Force Personnel Center
- D.
With career field managers
Correct Answer
B. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)Explanation
The correct answer is at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that decision-making and coordination regarding manpower planning and programming for the Air Force is done at the highest level of command.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(002) Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?
- A.
Program Element Code (PEC)
- B.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR)
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
Correct Answer
B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized positions within an organization, including the number of personnel required, their job titles, and any special qualifications or skills needed. The UMD is used to track and manage personnel assignments, monitor staffing levels, and ensure that the organization has the necessary manpower to fulfill its mission. It is an essential tool for workforce planning and management.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(002) which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
- A.
Program Element Code (PEC)
- B.
Special Experience Identifier (SEI)
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR)
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
Correct Answer
A. Program Element Code (PEC)Explanation
Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. PEC is a unique code assigned to each program element within a budget or financial system. It helps in tracking and allocating costs associated with specific elements of a program or project. By using PEC, cost data can be organized and analyzed more effectively, allowing for better budget planning and resource management. PEC provides a detailed breakdown of costs within a larger program or project, making it an essential tool for financial management in the defense industry.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(003) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
- A.
Construct career paths
- B.
Manage skill-level training requirements
- C.
Establish requirements for entry into the career field
- D.
Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)Explanation
The responsibility of distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) does not fall under the role of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM). The AFCFM is responsible for constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, the distribution of personnel is typically handled by other personnel management entities within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
MAJCOM direction of Communications (A6)
- B.
MAJCOM Functional Manager
- C.
Career Field Manager (CFM)
- D.
SAF/CIO A6
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOM Functional ManagerExplanation
The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM in these meetings and ensuring that the training and utilization requirements for the career field are met. They have a deep understanding of the career field and are able to provide valuable input and guidance during these discussions.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(003) Which segment of the Utilization of Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?
- A.
Segment 1
- B.
Segment 2
- C.
Segment 3
- D.
Segment 4
Correct Answer
B. Segment 2Explanation
Segment 2 of the Utilization of Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment likely involves assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources needed for their training. It may include evaluating the current skill levels, identifying any gaps or deficiencies, and developing a plan to address them through appropriate training resources.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(003) Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
Draft and sign minutes
- B.
Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)
- C.
Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description
- D.
Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses
Correct Answer
D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all coursesExplanation
The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education. They draft and sign minutes, finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalize the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they do not finalize the Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses. This task is likely handled by another team or department within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(003) Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- B.
AETC Career Development (CDC) writer
- C.
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
- D.
MAJCOM Functional Manager
Correct Answer
B. AETC Career Development (CDC) writerExplanation
The AETC Career Development (CDC) writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This means that their attendance is not mandatory, but they have the option to attend if they choose to do so.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(003) What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
- B.
Quality Training Package (QTP)
- C.
Subject Matter Experts (SME)
- D.
Job Quality Standards (JQS)
Correct Answer
A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)Explanation
The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides detailed information about the tasks, knowledge, and skills required for a particular job or career field. This information is then used to create the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR serves as a foundation for the development of these training documents and ensures that they accurately reflect the needs of the job.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(004) What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
- A.
Remedy
- B.
Situational Report (SITREP)
- C.
Telephone Management System (TMS)
- D.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
Correct Answer
D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an automated information system used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is commonly used in maintenance and logistics operations to track and manage maintenance actions, repair orders, and other related data for equipment and systems. It allows for efficient documentation and reporting of actions taken on items with SRDs, ensuring accurate and up-to-date information is available for maintenance and repair purposes.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(004) Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?
- A.
Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.
- B.
Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)
- C.
Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL)
- D.
Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.
Correct Answer
B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)Explanation
The correct answer is "Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)". This duty is not typically performed by the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, matching reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL), and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(004) Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
- A.
Communications Focal Point
- B.
Flight Commander/Chief
- C.
Production Controller
- D.
Commander
Correct Answer
B. Flight Commander/ChiefExplanation
The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This includes implementing protocols and procedures to ensure that inspections are conducted regularly and that any issues or discrepancies are addressed promptly. They oversee the inspection process and ensure that all necessary documentation and records are maintained. By establishing these controls, the Flight Commander/Chief helps to ensure the safety and efficiency of operations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(005) Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?
- A.
Master Task List
- B.
Job Qualification Standard
- C.
Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- D.
Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion
Correct Answer
B. Job Qualification StandardExplanation
The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires specific qualifications for certain job roles or tasks, the Job Qualification Standard will be included in the Master Training Plan. However, if the work center does not have any specific qualification requirements, the Job Qualification Standard may not be included in the plan.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(005) Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
D. 120Explanation
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after new equipment or systems are accepted, a certain number of ARC personnel will undergo evaluations within 120 days to assess their proficiency and effectiveness in operating the new equipment or systems. This evaluation helps ensure that the ARC personnel are properly trained and capable of effectively utilizing the new equipment or systems.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(006) Which statement is not a goal of Operation Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare
- B.
Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission
- C.
Create an Air Force in which ever leader, Airman, and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities
- D.
Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost
Correct Answer
D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible costExplanation
The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM). ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate risk assessments into decision-making processes, and train and motivate individuals to manage risk. The given statement suggests actively seeking opportunities to decrease effectiveness, which is contrary to the goals of ORM.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(006) How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identify, assess, and control risks in operational processes. It typically consists of six steps: 1) Identify hazards, 2) Assess hazards, 3) Make risk decisions, 4) Implement controls, 5) Supervise, and 6) Review. These steps enable organizations to proactively manage and mitigate operational risks, ensuring the safety and efficiency of their processes. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(006) Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
- A.
AF Form 55
- B.
AF Form 971
- C.
AF Form 623A
- D.
AF Form 623A and AF Form 55
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 55Explanation
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting safety training and is used by supervisors to track and record the completion of safety training for their personnel. It serves as a centralized record for all safety training completed by individuals within the organization, allowing supervisors to easily monitor and verify that all required training has been completed. Using AF Form 55 ensures that there is a standardized and organized system for documenting and maintaining safety training records.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(006) Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
- A.
Job Safety Training (JST)
- B.
Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
- C.
Task Hazard Analysis (THA)
- D.
Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)
Correct Answer
A. Job Safety Training (JST)Explanation
The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA) are all commonly used terms for the process of analyzing and identifying potential hazards in a job or task. However, Job Safety Training (JST) refers specifically to the training provided to employees to ensure their safety while performing their job duties. It is not the same as the analysis itself.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(007) Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?
- A.
Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures
- B.
Resources required to manage and use TOs
- C.
Infrastructure to manage and use TOs
- D.
Training to manage and use TOs
Correct Answer
A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) proceduresExplanation
The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. TO 00-5-1 provides information on resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs. However, it does not include information on TCTO procedures.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(007) Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on
- A.
AFTO Form 673
- B.
AFTO Form 22
- C.
AF Form 673
- D.
AF Form 22
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 22 -
- 25.
(007) Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?
- A.
Library Custodian
- B.
Flight commander/chief
- C.
Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
- D.
Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)
Correct Answer
B. Flight commander/chiefExplanation
The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They are responsible for making decisions regarding the operational procedures and requirements within their unit. This includes determining the need for checklists and work cards to ensure the proper maintenance and operation of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(007) Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?
- A.
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
- B.
American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
- C.
Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
- D.
Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)
Correct Answer
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI)Explanation
ANSI provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).Rate this question:
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- 27.
(007) Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
- A.
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
- B.
American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
- C.
Information and Communications Technology (ICT)
- D.
Electronic Components Industry Associate (ECIA)
Correct Answer
D. Electronic Components Industry Associate (ECIA)Explanation
The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Associate (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(007) Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?
- A.
The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR)
- B.
Commander/director responsible for the guidance
- C.
The authoring OPR's supervisor
- D.
Publications Manager
Correct Answer
C. The authoring OPR's supervisorExplanation
The correct answer is the authoring OPR's supervisor. The Certifying Official for the AF Form 673 should be the supervisor of the Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR) that authored the form. This ensures that the supervisor has reviewed and approved the information provided in the form before it is certified.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(007) What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?
- A.
Air Force Network Operating Instruction (AFNOI)
- B.
Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)
- C.
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)
- D.
Military Only
Correct Answer
C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)Explanation
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domains that can be used in both federal and non-federal systems. These systems are commercially available and can be easily integrated into existing infrastructure. They are designed to meet industry standards and regulations, making them reliable and widely accepted. Using COTS systems ensures interoperability, reduces costs, and allows for efficient maintenance and support.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(008) The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
37
- D.
50
Correct Answer
A. 10Explanation
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This means that the legal basis for establishing the Department of Defense (DOD) can be found in Title 10 of the United States Code, which is a compilation of federal laws that pertain to the armed forces and national defense. Title 10 outlines the organization and structure of the DOD, as well as its roles and responsibilities in national security and military affairs.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(008) Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title
- A.
15
- B.
18
- C.
32
- D.
37
Correct Answer
C. 32Explanation
The correct answer is 32. The procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32. This title specifically deals with the National Guard and provides the legal framework for its activation and deployment. It outlines the conditions under which the National Guard can be called into federal service, such as during emergencies or in cases of national defense.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(008) Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Mangers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?
- A.
Wing Commander
- B.
Numbered Air Force commander
- C.
Communications Squadron Commander
- D.
Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander
Correct Answer
A. Wing CommanderExplanation
The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(008) When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
- A.
Misuse of position
- B.
A covered relationships
- C.
Non-public information
- D.
Personal conflict of interest
Correct Answer
A. Misuse of positionExplanation
When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered as a misuse of position. This means that the individual is abusing their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of the organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences, such as loss of trust, damage to reputation, and potential legal implications.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(009) Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
- A.
Military Personnel (MILPERS)
- B.
Military construction (MILCON)
- C.
Operation and Maintenance (O&M)
- D.
Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E)
Correct Answer
B. Military construction (MILCON)Explanation
Military construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are specifically allocated for the construction, expansion, or improvement of military facilities and infrastructure. This includes the relocation of existing facilities to new locations. MILCON funds are separate from other types of funds such as Military Personnel (MILPERS), Operation and Maintenance (O&M), and Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) funds, which are used for different purposes within the military budget.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(009) What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
- A.
$100,000
- B.
$250,000
- C.
$750,000
- D.
$1,000,000
Correct Answer
C. $750,000Explanation
The maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions is $750,000. This means that O&M funds can be used to cover construction projects up to this amount, but any projects exceeding this limit would require funding from other sources.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(009) In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)
- A.
10-401
- B.
33-360
- C.
38-101
- D.
64-117
Correct Answer
D. 64-117Explanation
The correct answer is 64-117. This Air Force Instruction provides comprehensive guidance and instructions for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels. It contains in-depth information on the policies, procedures, and requirements for effectively managing the program.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(009) At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?
- A.
Approval Official (AO)
- B.
Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)
- C.
DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO)
- D.
Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC)
Correct Answer
B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)Explanation
The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, ensure compliance with policies and regulations, provide training to cardholders, and monitor card usage and transactions. The A/OPC acts as a liaison between the installation and the higher-level program management office, ensuring effective communication and coordination. They play a crucial role in managing and maintaining the GPC Program at the installation level.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(009) Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?
- A.
Making authorized transactions
- B.
Reconciling transactions
- C.
Logging transactions
- D.
Funds accountability
Correct Answer
D. Funds accountabilityExplanation
The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This means that they are not responsible for ensuring the proper allocation and management of funds related to the GPC. This responsibility typically falls on higher-level officials or the finance department within the government organization.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(009) Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-201
- B.
Joint Publication 1-02
- C.
Joint Publication 1-03
- D.
AFI 10-401
Correct Answer
D. AFI 10-401Explanation
AFI 10-401 contains the detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request. The other options, Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-201, Joint Publication 1-02, and Joint Publication 1-03, do not provide the specific instructions for this process. Therefore, AFI 10-401 is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(010) Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?
- A.
Air Force Chief of Staff
- B.
Secretary of the Air Force
- C.
Selected major command Command Chiefs
- D.
Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Chief of StaffExplanation
After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds a high-ranking position in the Air Force and is responsible for overseeing and making decisions regarding the overall operations and policies of the Air Force. Therefore, it is logical that the Air Force Chief of Staff would review the selections made by the board to ensure that they align with the objectives and standards of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(010) Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented
- A.
Wing
- B.
Group
- C.
Squadron
- D.
Major command
Correct Answer
A. WingExplanation
In the military hierarchy, the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. The Wing is a larger organizational unit that consists of multiple groups, squadrons, and other subunits. It is responsible for overseeing operations and providing support to subordinate units. Quarterly awards are typically given at the Wing level to recognize outstanding performance and achievements within the entire Wing, making it the highest level for such awards.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(010) Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction
- A.
36-2604
- B.
36-2803
- C.
36-2805
- D.
36-2845
Correct Answer
D. 36-2845 -
- 43.
(010) What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?
- A.
1 October - 30 September
- B.
1 January - 31 December
- C.
1 April - 31 March
- D.
1 July - 30 June
Correct Answer
A. 1 October - 30 SeptemberExplanation
The inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are 1 October - 30 September. This means that the awards are given out for achievements and contributions made within this time frame.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(011) The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to
- A.
53
- B.
63
- C.
73
- D.
83
Correct Answer
B. 63Explanation
FireWire is a high-speed serial bus interface commonly used for connecting devices such as external hard drives, cameras, and audio interfaces to a computer. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is determined by the number of unique device IDs available on the bus. In the case of FireWire, there are 64 possible device IDs, numbered from 0 to 63. Therefore, the correct answer is 63, as it represents the maximum number of devices that can be connected to a FireWire bus.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(011) What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
- A.
Monitor
- B.
Scanner
- C.
Keyboard
- D.
Graphics Card
Correct Answer
C. KeyboardExplanation
A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as keys, are used to input data or commands into a computer or other electronic devices. When a key is pressed, it completes an electrical circuit and sends a signal to the computer, which then registers the corresponding character or action. Therefore, a keyboard is the correct answer to this question.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(012) A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?
- A.
At least 5
- B.
No more than 10
- C.
No more than 20
- D.
20 or more
Correct Answer
C. No more than 20Explanation
A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers that typically consists of no more than 20 computers. This means that the maximum number of computers in a workgroup is 20, but it could be less than 20 as well. Workgroups are commonly used in small businesses or home networks to facilitate file and printer sharing, as well as collaboration among the computers within the group.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(012) Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?
- A.
Simple
- B.
Relative
- C.
Positive
- D.
Absolute
Correct Answer
C. PositiveExplanation
The correct answer is "Positive" because it is not a type of UNIX pathname. Simple, relative, and absolute are all valid types of UNIX pathnames. A simple pathname refers to a file or directory in the current directory, a relative pathname specifies the location of a file or directory relative to the current directory, and an absolute pathname specifies the exact location of a file or directory in the file system hierarchy. However, "positive" is not a recognized type of UNIX pathname.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(012) Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?
- A.
Norton Utilities
- B.
Acrobat Reader
- C.
Virus Scan
- D.
WinZip
Correct Answer
A. Norton UtilitiesExplanation
Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that includes various tools designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. These tools can scan for and repair disk errors, recover deleted files, optimize system performance, and provide backup and recovery options. Norton Utilities is specifically designed to provide comprehensive system maintenance and protection, making it an ideal choice for addressing file recovery and computer failure concerns.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(013) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
- A.
High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)
- B.
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
- C.
Distance Vector and Link State
- D.
RS-232 and RS-530
Correct Answer
B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)Explanation
The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The LLC sublayer is responsible for flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. It also provides a service interface to the network layer. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium, handling collisions, and providing a unique identifier for each device on the network. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient communication between devices in a network.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(013) Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
- A.
Network
- B.
Physical
- C.
Data Link
- D.
Transport
Correct Answer
C. Data LinkExplanation
Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on a network. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN) by examining the destination address in each packet and forwarding it to the appropriate port. They provide connectivity and manage the flow of data at the data link layer, ensuring efficient and secure communication between devices on the network.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 06, 2016Quiz Created by
Bgilb00c
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