3DX7X - Volume 1&2 Ure 170 Questions.

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  • 1/170 Questions

    (023) What is the most common wireless networking standard?

    • 802.3
    • 802.9
    • 802.11
    • 802.14
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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz should only be used as reference material and does not include all the questions that may be given on the final test. It is also possible that there were errors made in the creation of this quiz and as such should be considered with caution and not be used as the sole source of study material(s). This quiz contains ONLY the questions that are outlined in the Unit Review Exercises (UREs).

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  • 2. 

    (027) Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

    • Token

    • Biometrics.

    • Multifactor.

    • Knowledge-based.

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometrics.
    Explanation
    Biometrics is the correct answer because it is the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics refers to the measurement and analysis of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, to verify an individual's identity. By using a fingerprint, biometric systems can accurately identify and authenticate users, providing a high level of security and convenience.

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  • 3. 

    (011) What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

    • Monitor

    • Scanner

    • Keyboard

    • Graphics Card

    Correct Answer
    A. Keyboard
    Explanation
    A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as keys, are used to input data or commands into a computer or other electronic devices. When a key is pressed, it completes an electrical circuit and sends a signal to the computer, which then registers the corresponding character or action. Therefore, a keyboard is the correct answer to this question.

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  • 4. 

    (021) A modem is a device that

    • Transmits on every link attached to it

    • Modulates and demodulates data signals

    • Uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination

    • Operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model

    Correct Answer
    A. Modulates and demodulates data signals
    Explanation
    A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a communication channel, while demodulation is the process of converting the analog signals back into digital data at the receiving end. Therefore, a modem is responsible for encoding and decoding data signals, allowing them to be transmitted over a network.

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  • 5. 

    (025) Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?

    • Information Management

    • Network-centric warfare

    • Information Superiority

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Information Superiority
    Explanation
    Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having access to accurate, timely, relevant, and reliable information that enables better decision-making and actions. With information superiority, one can effectively gather, analyze, and disseminate information, giving them a competitive edge over others. It involves leveraging technology, processes, and strategies to gain a comprehensive understanding of the information environment and exploit it to achieve desired outcomes.

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  • 6. 

    (027) Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

    • Virus.

    • Spam.

    • Spyware.

    • Phishing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spam.
    Explanation
    Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically through email. While spam can be a nuisance and waste of time, it does not typically pose a direct threat to the security or integrity of a system or personal information. On the other hand, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are designed to infiltrate, damage, or steal sensitive data, making them more dangerous and malicious threat vectors.

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  • 7. 

    (027) Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

    • Patches.

    • Antivirus.

    • Software removal.

    • Vulnerability scanner.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patches.
    Explanation
    Patches are small pieces of code that software developers create to fix flaws or vulnerabilities in the original code of a program. These flaws could potentially be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. Patches are released by software vendors to address these vulnerabilities and improve the security of the software. They are essential for keeping software up to date and protecting it from potential threats.

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  • 8. 

    (027) Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

    • Token.

    • Biometrics.

    • Multifactor.

    • Knowledge-based.

    Correct Answer
    A. Knowledge-based.
    Explanation
    Knowledge-based identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user. In this process, the user is required to provide specific information or answer security questions that only they should know. This method verifies the user's identity based on their knowledge of the password or other personal information, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access the system or data.

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  • 9. 

    (001) Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

    • Communications Focal Point

    • Unit Deployment Monitor

    • Enterprise Service Desk

    • Quality Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications Focal Point
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Communications Focal Point. This function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, who are responsible for managing and maintaining communication systems. However, the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) assigned to individuals in this role may vary depending on the unit's mission and requirements.

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  • 10. 

    (008) When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

    • Misuse of position

    • A covered relationships

    • Non-public information

    • Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position
    Explanation
    When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered as a misuse of position. This means that the individual is abusing their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of the organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences, such as loss of trust, damage to reputation, and potential legal implications.

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  • 11. 

    (012) Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

    • Norton Utilities

    • Acrobat Reader

    • Virus Scan

    • WinZip

    Correct Answer
    A. Norton Utilities
    Explanation
    Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that includes various tools designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. These tools can scan for and repair disk errors, recover deleted files, optimize system performance, and provide backup and recovery options. Norton Utilities is specifically designed to provide comprehensive system maintenance and protection, making it an ideal choice for addressing file recovery and computer failure concerns.

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  • 12. 

    (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address  is used for loop back?

    • 0.0.0.0

    • 127.0.0.1

    • 207.55.157.255

    • 255.255.255.255

    Correct Answer
    A. 127.0.0.1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 127.0.0.1. This address is reserved for loopback, which means it is used to test network connectivity on a local device. When a device sends data to the loopback address, it is immediately returned back to itself without being sent over the network. This allows the device to test its own network stack and ensure that it is functioning correctly.

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  • 13. 

    (024) Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

    • Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)

    • Base Defense Operations Center

    • 624th Operations Center

    • Air Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness and reports any suspicious or malicious activity. The other options, Base Defense Operations Center, 624th Operations Center, and Air Operations Center, are not specifically focused on network operations and security.

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  • 14. 

    (208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

    • 3D0X3, Cyber Surety

    • 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems

    • 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems

    • 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems

    Correct Answer
    A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety
  • 15. 

    (006) Which statement is not a goal of Operation Risk Management (ORM)?

    • Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare

    • Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission

    • Create an Air Force in which ever leader, Airman, and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities

    • Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost
    Explanation
    The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM). ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate risk assessments into decision-making processes, and train and motivate individuals to manage risk. The given statement suggests actively seeking opportunities to decrease effectiveness, which is contrary to the goals of ORM.

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  • 16. 

    (010) Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented

    • Wing

    • Group

    • Squadron

    • Major command

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    In the military hierarchy, the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. The Wing is a larger organizational unit that consists of multiple groups, squadrons, and other subunits. It is responsible for overseeing operations and providing support to subordinate units. Quarterly awards are typically given at the Wing level to recognize outstanding performance and achievements within the entire Wing, making it the highest level for such awards.

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  • 17. 

    (010) What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

    • 1 October - 30 September

    • 1 January - 31 December

    • 1 April - 31 March

    • 1 July - 30 June

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 October - 30 September
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are 1 October - 30 September. This means that the awards are given out for achievements and contributions made within this time frame.

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  • 18. 

    (013) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

    • High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

    • Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)

    • Distance Vector and Link State

    • RS-232 and RS-530

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The LLC sublayer is responsible for flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. It also provides a service interface to the network layer. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium, handling collisions, and providing a unique identifier for each device on the network. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient communication between devices in a network.

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  • 19. 

    (018) The design of communications network is known as

    • An internet suite

    • The physical layer

    • Network architecture

    • Network implementation

    Correct Answer
    A. Network architecture
    Explanation
    The design of a communications network refers to the overall structure, layout, and organization of the network. This includes the arrangement of various components such as routers, switches, servers, and cables, as well as the protocols and technologies used for communication. Network architecture encompasses the planning, design, and implementation of a network, considering factors like scalability, reliability, security, and performance. It involves determining the network topology, addressing scheme, and the selection of appropriate network protocols. Therefore, "network architecture" is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process of designing a communications network.

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  • 20. 

    (018) What kind of network is a group of computer and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local Area Network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a type of network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows for the sharing of resources, such as files and printers, and enables communication between connected devices. LANs are typically faster and more secure than other types of networks, such as Wide Area Networks (WANs) or Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs), due to their limited size and localized nature. Therefore, a LAN is the most appropriate answer for a network that connects computers and associated devices within a small geographic area.

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  • 21. 

    (019) What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, typically a switch or hub. In this configuration, all communication between computers goes through the central component, which allows for easy management and troubleshooting. Unlike a bus or ring topology, where all computers are connected in a linear or circular manner, a star topology provides better reliability since a failure in one cable segment does not affect the entire network. Additionally, it allows for more flexibility as new computers can be easily added or removed without disrupting the rest of the network.

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  • 22. 

    (006) How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identify, assess, and control risks in operational processes. It typically consists of six steps: 1) Identify hazards, 2) Assess hazards, 3) Make risk decisions, 4) Implement controls, 5) Supervise, and 6) Review. These steps enable organizations to proactively manage and mitigate operational risks, ensuring the safety and efficiency of their processes. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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  • 23. 

    (006) Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

    • AF Form 55

    • AF Form 971

    • AF Form 623A

    • AF Form 623A and AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting safety training and is used by supervisors to track and record the completion of safety training for their personnel. It serves as a centralized record for all safety training completed by individuals within the organization, allowing supervisors to easily monitor and verify that all required training has been completed. Using AF Form 55 ensures that there is a standardized and organized system for documenting and maintaining safety training records.

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  • 24. 

    (007) What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

    • Air Force Network Operating Instruction (AFNOI)

    • Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)

    • Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)

    • Military Only

    Correct Answer
    A. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)
    Explanation
    Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domains that can be used in both federal and non-federal systems. These systems are commercially available and can be easily integrated into existing infrastructure. They are designed to meet industry standards and regulations, making them reliable and widely accepted. Using COTS systems ensures interoperability, reduces costs, and allows for efficient maintenance and support.

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  • 25. 

    (014) What is the combat information technology (IT) communications support agency of the DoD called?

    • Defense Intelligence Agency

    • Defense Information Systems Agency

    • Defense Information Systems Network

    • Department of Defense Information Networks

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. Defense Information Systems Agency is the combat information technology (IT) communications support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). It provides and manages the IT and communications support for the military and other government organizations.

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  • 26. 

    (018) What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
    Explanation
    A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that connects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, such as a city. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN), which is limited to a small area like a building or campus, a MAN covers a larger area and can connect multiple LANs together. A Wide Area Network (WAN) is even larger and covers a wider geographical area, such as multiple cities or countries. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure connection that allows users to access a private network over a public network, but it is not specifically designed for connecting users with computer resources in a geographic area or region.

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  • 27. 

    (021) Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. This means that it determines the most efficient route for data to travel from the source node to the destination node. By continuously updating and adjusting the routing tables, dynamic routing protocols ensure that data is sent through the most optimal path, taking into account factors such as network congestion, link failures, and traffic load. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 28. 

    (206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

    • O–4

    • O–5

    • O–6

    • O–7

    Correct Answer
    A. O–6
    Explanation
    The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6.

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  • 29. 

    (211) The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as

    • The status.

    • A milestone

    • A deliverable.

    • The final result

    Correct Answer
    A. A deliverable.
    Explanation
    A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is something that can be tangible or intangible and is usually provided to the stakeholders or clients upon completion of the project. This term is commonly used in project management to define the specific results or outputs that need to be achieved within a given timeframe.

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  • 30. 

    (001) Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

    • Minimum rank of SSgt

    • 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees

    • Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements

    • Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses

    Correct Answer
    A. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses
    Explanation
    The completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options listed, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months on-the-job training for retrainees, and completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement.

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  • 31. 

    (004) What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

    • Remedy

    • Situational Report (SITREP)

    • Telephone Management System (TMS)

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an automated information system used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is commonly used in maintenance and logistics operations to track and manage maintenance actions, repair orders, and other related data for equipment and systems. It allows for efficient documentation and reporting of actions taken on items with SRDs, ensuring accurate and up-to-date information is available for maintenance and repair purposes.

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  • 32. 

    (015) What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

    • Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented

    • Classful and Connectionless Oriented

    • Connectionless Oriented and Classless

    • Classful and Classless

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. These two classifications refer to different ways of establishing and maintaining a communication channel between two devices. Connection-oriented protocols, such as TCP, establish a reliable and ordered connection before transmitting data, ensuring that all packets are received and in the correct order. Connectionless-oriented protocols, such as UDP, do not establish a dedicated connection and simply send packets without any guarantee of delivery or order.

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  • 33. 

    (016) What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A
    Explanation
    Class A uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. This class is used for large networks as it allows for a large number of hosts. The first bit in the first octet is always 0 in Class A addresses, which allows for up to 126 networks with 16,777,214 hosts each.

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  • 34. 

    (024) What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the section of the United States Code that outlines the role and responsibilities of the Armed Forces, including the National Guard. This status allows Guardsmen to be called into federal service and operate under federal authority. Therefore, to carry out cyber operations, National Guard Guardsmen need to be in Title 10 status.

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  • 35. 

    (205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

    • Force protection.

    • Airfield operations

    • Force accountability

    • Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
    Explanation
    The open the airbase force module is designed to provide initial capabilities for various tasks related to airbase operations. Force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability are all initial capabilities of the module, meaning they are included in its primary functions. However, explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) is not listed as an initial capability, suggesting that it is not part of the module's primary functions.

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  • 36. 

    (001) Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

    • Computer Systems Programming

    • Cyber Systems Operations

    • Cyber Transport Systems

    • Cyber Surety

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Systems Programming
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Computer Systems Programming. This Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test. This test is likely to assess the candidate's knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which are essential for computer systems programming.

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  • 37. 

    (003) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

    • Construct career paths

    • Manage skill-level training requirements

    • Establish requirements for entry into the career field

    • Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)
    Explanation
    The responsibility of distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) does not fall under the role of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM). The AFCFM is responsible for constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, the distribution of personnel is typically handled by other personnel management entities within the Air Force.

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  • 38. 

    (004) Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

    • Communications Focal Point

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Production Controller

    • Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Commander/Chief
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This includes implementing protocols and procedures to ensure that inspections are conducted regularly and that any issues or discrepancies are addressed promptly. They oversee the inspection process and ensure that all necessary documentation and records are maintained. By establishing these controls, the Flight Commander/Chief helps to ensure the safety and efficiency of operations.

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  • 39. 

    (009) Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

    • Military Personnel (MILPERS)

    • Military construction (MILCON)

    • Operation and Maintenance (O&M)

    • Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E)

    Correct Answer
    A. Military construction (MILCON)
    Explanation
    Military construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are specifically allocated for the construction, expansion, or improvement of military facilities and infrastructure. This includes the relocation of existing facilities to new locations. MILCON funds are separate from other types of funds such as Military Personnel (MILPERS), Operation and Maintenance (O&M), and Research, Development, Test, and Evaluation (RDT&E) funds, which are used for different purposes within the military budget.

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  • 40. 

    (011) The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

    • 53

    • 63

    • 73

    • 83

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
    Explanation
    FireWire is a high-speed serial bus interface commonly used for connecting devices such as external hard drives, cameras, and audio interfaces to a computer. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is determined by the number of unique device IDs available on the bus. In the case of FireWire, there are 64 possible device IDs, numbered from 0 to 63. Therefore, the correct answer is 63, as it represents the maximum number of devices that can be connected to a FireWire bus.

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  • 41. 

    (012) A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

    • At least 5

    • No more than 10

    • No more than 20

    • 20 or more

    Correct Answer
    A. No more than 20
    Explanation
    A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers that typically consists of no more than 20 computers. This means that the maximum number of computers in a workgroup is 20, but it could be less than 20 as well. Workgroups are commonly used in small businesses or home networks to facilitate file and printer sharing, as well as collaboration among the computers within the group.

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  • 42. 

    (014) Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

    • The customer

    • Security Manager

    • National Security Agency

    • Communications Squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. The customer
    Explanation
    The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service securely.

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  • 43. 

    (017) Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

    • Port 80

    • Port 110

    • Port 443

    • Port 8080

    Correct Answer
    A. Port 8080
    Explanation
    Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While the default port for HTTP is 80, port 8080 is often used as an alternative for running web servers or proxies. It allows for multiple web servers to run on the same machine without conflicts. Additionally, some internet service providers or organizations may choose to use port 8080 for security reasons or to bypass restrictions on port 80. Therefore, port 8080 is a valid option for hosting HTTP servers and proxies.

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  • 44. 

    (021) Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and

    • Modulation of datagrams through an internetwork

    • Layer-1 error determination and correction through an internetwork

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel determination through an internetwork

    • Transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork.
    Explanation
    The given answer correctly identifies one of the two basic routing activities, which is transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork. This refers to the process of forwarding data packets from the source to the destination through various network devices and routes. Routing involves making decisions based on network protocols, routing tables, and algorithms to determine the optimal path for the packets to reach their destination efficiently and reliably.

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  • 45. 

    (025) Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

    • EW concerns radiated energy

    • CNO concerns radiated energy.

    • EW is only used for offensive purposes.

    • CNO is only used for defensive purposes.

    Correct Answer
    A. EW concerns radiated energy
    Explanation
    Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to control or disrupt enemy communication systems. It focuses on the manipulation of radiated energy to gain an advantage in warfare. On the other hand, Computer Network Operations (CNO) refers to activities conducted in cyberspace, including the use of computer networks to gather intelligence, launch attacks, or defend against cyber threats. While both EW and CNO involve the manipulation of information and energy, EW specifically deals with radiated energy, while CNO encompasses a broader range of activities in the cyber domain.

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  • 46. 

    (206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

    • Scott AFB, IL.

    • Travis AFB, CA.

    • Peterson AFB, CO.

    • Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
    Explanation
    The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This means that the main headquarters of the Contingency Response Wing is situated in Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, New Jersey.

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  • 47. 

    (208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

    • 1942

    • 1954

    • 1988

    • 1998

    Correct Answer
    A. 1998
    Explanation
    In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a centralized broadcasting system that could reach military personnel stationed around the world. By combining the various broadcasting affiliates, AFN was able to provide a consistent and reliable source of news, entertainment, and information to members of the armed forces. This merger also helped to streamline operations and improve efficiency in delivering programming to military bases and ships.

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  • 48. 

    (223) Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?

    • Sole Source

    • Firm Fixed Price

    • Time and Material

    • Performance Based

    Correct Answer
    A. Sole Source
    Explanation
    A sole source contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services. This means that there is no competition or alternative options available, and the contract can be awarded directly to the sole source without going through a competitive bidding process. This type of contract is usually used when there is a unique product or service that only one supplier can provide, or when there is an urgent need that cannot be met by other suppliers in a timely manner.

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  • 49. 

    (226) Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

    • Base Civil Engineering.

    • Gaining Work Center.

    • Contracting Office.

    • Quality Assurance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Civil Engineering.
    Explanation
    Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. This includes conducting regular inspections, identifying any issues or deficiencies, and coordinating with other departments or contractors to address and resolve them. They play a crucial role in maintaining the overall infrastructure and safety of the installation.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 20, 2025 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jan 20, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jul 06, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Bgilb00c

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