3DX7X - Volume 1&2 Ure 170 Questions.
This quiz should only be used as reference material and does not include all the questions that may be given on the final test. It is also possible that there were errors made in the creation of this quiz and as such should be considered with caution and not be used as the sole source of study material(s). This quiz contains ONLY the questions that are outlined in the Unit Review Exercises (UREs).
- 1.(001) Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?
- A.
Computer Systems Programming
- B.
Cyber Systems Operations
- C.
Cyber Transport Systems
- D.
Cyber Surety
- 2.(001) Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
- A.
Minimum rank of SSgt
- B.
6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees
- C.
Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements
- D.
Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses
- 3.(001) Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
- A.
Communications Focal Point
- B.
Unit Deployment Monitor
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk
- D.
Quality Assurance
- 4.(001) What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
- A.
TO 00-5-15
- B.
MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
- C.
Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory
- D.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II
- 5.(002) Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?
- A.
At major command functional managers
- B.
At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
- C.
At the Air Force Personnel Center
- D.
With career field managers
- 6.(002) Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?
- A.
Program Element Code (PEC)
- B.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR)
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
- 7.(002) which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
- A.
Program Element Code (PEC)
- B.
Special Experience Identifier (SEI)
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR)
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
- 8.(003) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
- A.
Construct career paths
- B.
Manage skill-level training requirements
- C.
Establish requirements for entry into the career field
- D.
Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)
- 9.(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
MAJCOM direction of Communications (A6)
- B.
MAJCOM Functional Manager
- C.
Career Field Manager (CFM)
- D.
SAF/CIO A6
- 10.(003) Which segment of the Utilization of Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?
- A.
Segment 1
- B.
Segment 2
- C.
Segment 3
- D.
Segment 4
- 11.(003) Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
Draft and sign minutes
- B.
Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)
- C.
Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description
- D.
Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses
- 12.(003) Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- B.
AETC Career Development (CDC) writer
- C.
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
- D.
MAJCOM Functional Manager
- 13.(003) What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
- B.
Quality Training Package (QTP)
- C.
Subject Matter Experts (SME)
- D.
Job Quality Standards (JQS)
- 14.(004) What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
- A.
Remedy
- B.
Situational Report (SITREP)
- C.
Telephone Management System (TMS)
- D.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
- 15.(004) Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?
- A.
Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.
- B.
Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)
- C.
Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL)
- D.
Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.
- 16.(004) Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
- A.
Communications Focal Point
- B.
Flight Commander/Chief
- C.
Production Controller
- D.
Commander
- 17.(005) Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?
- A.
Master Task List
- B.
Job Qualification Standard
- C.
Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- D.
Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion
- 18.(005) Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
- 19.(006) Which statement is not a goal of Operation Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare
- B.
Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission
- C.
Create an Air Force in which ever leader, Airman, and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities
- D.
Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost
- 20.(006) How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
- 21.(006) Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
- A.
AF Form 55
- B.
AF Form 971
- C.
AF Form 623A
- D.
AF Form 623A and AF Form 55
- 22.(006) Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
- A.
Job Safety Training (JST)
- B.
Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
- C.
Task Hazard Analysis (THA)
- D.
Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)
- 23.(007) Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?
- A.
Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures
- B.
Resources required to manage and use TOs
- C.
Infrastructure to manage and use TOs
- D.
Training to manage and use TOs
- 24.(007) Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on
- A.
AFTO Form 673
- B.
AFTO Form 22
- C.
AF Form 673
- D.
AF Form 22
- 25.(007) Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?
- A.
Library Custodian
- B.
Flight commander/chief
- C.
Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
- D.
Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)
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