3DX7X Volume 1. Cyberspace Management And Operations

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?

    • Information Management
    • Network-centric Warfare
    • Information Superiority
    • Information Operations
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3DX7X Volume 1. Cyberspace Management And Operations - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Cyberspace Management and Operations, focusing on AFSC requirements, skill level advancements, and manpower planning in the Air Force. It is crucial for personnel involved in military IT and cybersecurity roles.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authorize a user?

    • Token

    • Biometrics

    • Multifactor

    • Knowledge-Based

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometrics
    Explanation
    Biometrics is the correct answer because it refers to the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authorize a user. Biometrics involves the use of unique physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial features, to verify and authenticate an individual's identity. By scanning and comparing the fingerprint of a user, biometric systems can accurately determine their identity and grant access to authorized resources or systems. This process provides a high level of security as fingerprints are difficult to forge or replicate, making it an effective method for user authorization.

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  • 3. 

    A modem is a device that?

    • Transmits on every link attached to it

    • Modulates and demodulates data signals

    • Uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination

    • Operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model

    Correct Answer
    A. Modulates and demodulates data signals
    Explanation
    A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation refers to the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a communication channel, while demodulation is the reverse process of converting analog signals back into digital data. Modems are commonly used to connect computers or other devices to the internet by transmitting data signals over telephone lines, cable lines, or wireless connections.

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  • 4. 

    What is the most common wireless networking standard?

    • 802.3

    • 802.9

    • 802.11

    • 802.14

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11
    Explanation
    The most common wireless networking standard is 802.11. This standard is widely used for wireless local area networks (WLANs) and provides high-speed internet access and network connectivity. It is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used in various devices such as smartphones, laptops, and routers. The 802.11 standard supports different frequencies and data transfer rates, allowing for reliable and efficient wireless communication.

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  • 5. 

    Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

    • Virus

    • Spam

    • Spyware

    • Phishing

    Correct Answer
    A. Spam
    Explanation
    Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it refers to unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically sent in bulk. While spam can be a nuisance and consume resources, it is usually not intended to directly harm or compromise a system or user's data. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing are all malicious threats that aim to infect systems, steal information, or deceive users for nefarious purposes.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

    • Communications Focal Point

    • Unit Deployment Monitor

    • Enterprise Service Desk

    • Quality Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications Focal Point
    Explanation
    The Communications Focal Point function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, who are responsible for managing and maintaining communication systems within the unit. However, the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) required for this function may vary depending on the mission of the unit. This suggests that different units may have different AFSCs assigned to the Communications Focal Point role based on their specific needs and requirements.

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  • 7. 

    What document directs the Communications Focal Point key processes?

    • TO 00-5-15

    • MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

    • Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II

    Correct Answer
    A. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA. This document directs the Communications Focal Point key processes.

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  • 8. 

    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on?

    • AF Form 55

    • AF Form 971

    • AF Form 623A

    • AF Form 623A and AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 55. This form is used by supervisors to document and maintain completed safety training. It serves as a record of the training that has been completed by individuals and allows supervisors to track and monitor the safety training progress of their personnel.

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  • 9. 

    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called?

    • Misuse of position

    • A covered relationships

    • Non-public information

    • Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position
    Explanation
    Misuse of position refers to the act of using one's authority or position for personal gain or benefit. This can include actions such as accepting bribes, embezzlement, or favoritism. It is a form of unethical behavior where an individual abuses their power for personal interests, disregarding the responsibilities and obligations associated with their position.

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  • 10. 

    What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

    • Monitor

    • Scanner

    • Keyboard

    • Graphics card

    Correct Answer
    A. Keyboard
    Explanation
    A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as keys, are used to input data and commands into a computer or other electronic device. When a key is pressed, it completes a circuit and sends a signal to the device, which then interprets the input accordingly. Keyboards are essential input devices for computers and are commonly used for typing, gaming, and navigating through software interfaces.

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  • 11. 

    The design of communications network is known as?

    • An internet suite

    • The physical layer

    • Network architecture

    • Network implementation

    Correct Answer
    A. Network architecture
    Explanation
    Network architecture refers to the design and structure of a communications network. It includes the layout of the network, the protocols and technologies used, and the overall organization of the network components. This encompasses the design of both the hardware and software aspects of the network, as well as the logical and physical connections between devices. Network architecture is crucial for ensuring efficient and reliable communication between devices and for providing the necessary infrastructure to support various applications and services.

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  • 12. 

    What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component called a hub or switch. In this topology, all communication between computers is routed through the central hub, which helps to manage and control the flow of data. This type of topology provides a high level of reliability and scalability as individual computers can be easily added or removed without affecting the rest of the network.

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  • 13. 

    Which vulnerability preventative measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

    • Patches

    • Antivirus

    • Software Removal

    • Vulnerability Scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. Patches
    Explanation
    A patch is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. It is used to fix vulnerabilities and bugs in the software, improving its security and functionality. Patches are released by software vendors to provide updates and enhancements to their products, ensuring that users have the latest and most secure version of the software. By applying patches, developers can prevent potential exploits and attacks that could be launched through the vulnerabilities in the original code.

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  • 14. 

    What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force / Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

    • 1 October - 30 September

    • 1 January - 31 December

    • 1 April - 31 March

    • 1 July - 30 June

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 October - 30 September
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force / Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a full year, starting in October and ending in September of the following year.

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  • 15. 

    Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare

    • Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity of the mission

    • Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on - and off - duty activities

    • Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost
    Explanation
    The goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM) is to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate ORM into mission processes, and create a culture where everyone is trained and motivated to manage risk. The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" goes against the goals of ORM as it focuses on decreasing effectiveness rather than enhancing it.

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  • 16. 

    How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identify, assess, and control risks in operational processes. It typically consists of six steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk analysis, risk control, risk monitoring, and risk communication. These steps are crucial in managing and mitigating operational risks effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

    • Wing

    • Group

    • Squadron

    • Major Command

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    In the military hierarchy, the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. A Wing is a large organizational unit that consists of multiple groups, squadrons, and other subordinate units. It is responsible for carrying out specific missions and tasks. The Wing level is higher than the Group, Squadron, and Major Command levels, making it the correct answer.

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  • 18. 

    Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

    • Norton Utilities

    • Acrobat Reader

    • Virus Scan

    • WinZip

    Correct Answer
    A. Norton Utilities
    Explanation
    Norton Utilities is an application that includes tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It offers features such as file recovery, disk optimization, and system diagnostics to ensure the smooth functioning of the computer. Acrobat Reader is a PDF viewer, Virus Scan is an antivirus software, and WinZip is a file compression tool, none of which have the specific tools for file recovery and computer failure protection that Norton Utilities provides.

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  • 19. 

    Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

    • Token

    • Biometrics

    • Multifactor

    • Knowledge-Based

    Correct Answer
    A. Knowledge-Based
    Explanation
    The knowledge-based identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user. This process involves the user providing a unique password that only they should know, which is then compared to the stored password in the system. If the passwords match, the user is authenticated and granted access. This method is commonly used in various systems and platforms to verify the identity of users.

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  • 20. 

    Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

    • Computer Systems Programming

    • Cyber Systems Operations

    • Cyber Transport Systems

    • Cyber Surety

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Systems Programming
    Explanation
    The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This specialty code involves programming and developing software for computer systems. To ensure proficiency in this area, members are required to pass the test, which assesses their knowledge and skills in electronic data processing.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

    • Program Element Code (PEC)

    • Special Experience Identifier (SEI)

    • Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Program Element Code (PEC)
    Explanation
    Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. PEC is a unique identifier assigned to each program element within the Department of Defense (DoD) budget. It helps in tracking and managing the cost associated with specific elements of a program. This allows for better budgeting, resource allocation, and cost analysis within the defense system. PECs are used to categorize and track costs for specific weapon systems or support functions, making it the correct answer to the question.

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  • 22. 

    Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

    • Military Personnel (MILPERS)

    • Military Construction (MILCON)

    • Operation and Maintenance (O&M)

    • Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Construction (MILCON)
    Explanation
    Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated specifically for the construction, expansion, and improvement of military facilities. This includes the relocation of existing facilities to better serve the needs of the military. These funds are separate from other types of funds, such as Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds, which cover day-to-day operations and maintenance expenses. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the cost of relocating facilities.

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  • 23. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

    • High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

    • Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)

    • Distance Vector and Link State

    • RS-232 and RS-530

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The LLC sublayer is responsible for flow control, error checking, and framing of data packets. It also provides a connectionless service to the Network Layer. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media, such as Ethernet or Wi-Fi. It handles tasks like addressing, collision detection, and media arbitration. By dividing the Data Link Layer into these two sublayers, the IEEE ensures efficient and reliable communication between network devices.

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  • 24. 

    What is the combat Information Technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

    • Defense Intelligence Agency

    • Defense Information Systems Agency

    • Defense Information Systems Network

    • Department of Defense Information Networks

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. This agency is responsible for providing combat Information Technology (IT) communication support to the Department of Defense (DoD). They ensure the secure and reliable operation of the DoD's IT infrastructure and networks, enabling effective communication and information sharing among military personnel and organizations.

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  • 25. 

    What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

    • 0.0.0.0

    • 127.0.0.1

    • 207.55.157.255

    • 255.255.255.255

    Correct Answer
    A. 127.0.0.1
    Explanation
    The IPv4 reserved address 127.0.0.1 is used for loopback. Loopback allows a network device to send data to itself, testing its own network interface card.

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  • 26. 

    Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

    • Port 80

    • Port 110

    • Port 443

    • Port 8080

    Correct Answer
    A. Port 8080
    Explanation
    Port 8080 is commonly used for hosting HTTP servers and proxies. While port 80 is the default port for HTTP, port 8080 is often used as an alternative to avoid conflicts with other services running on port 80. It allows HTTP traffic to be directed to a specific server or proxy, ensuring smooth communication between clients and the server/proxy.

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  • 27. 

    What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local Area Network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a type of network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows for the sharing of resources, such as files, printers, and internet access, among the connected devices. LANs are typically faster and more secure than other types of networks, as they are confined to a specific location and can be easily controlled and managed. Therefore, a LAN is the most suitable option for a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area.

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  • 28. 

    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It analyzes the network's current conditions, such as congestion or link failures, and determines the most efficient route for data transmission between the source and destination nodes. By dynamically adjusting the routing paths, it optimizes network performance and ensures efficient data transfer. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 29. 

    Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

    • Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)

    • Base Defense Operations Center

    • 624th Operations Center

    • Air Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by keeping a close eye on network activity and identifying any suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC also reports these activities to higher authorities for further investigation and response.

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  • 30. 

    What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

    • Remedy

    • Situational Report (SITREP)

    • Telephone Management System (TMS)

    • Integrated Data Maintenance System (IMDS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Data Maintenance System (IMDS)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Data Maintenance System (IMDS) is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). It is a system designed to manage and maintain data related to various items, such as equipment, materials, and supplies. IMDS allows users to record and track actions taken on these items, ensuring accurate documentation and reporting. This system is specifically designed for the purpose of maintaining and managing data related to items with SRDs, making it the correct answer for this question.

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  • 31. 

    What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

    • Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)

    • Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)

    • Commercial Off-the-shelf (COTS)

    • Military Only

    Correct Answer
    A. Commercial Off-the-shelf (COTS)
    Explanation
    Commercial Off-the-shelf (COTS) systems refer to software or hardware products that are readily available in the commercial market. These systems are commonly understood as they are widely used and familiar to many users. They are also maintainable as updates and support are provided by the vendors. COTS systems are defendable as they are supported by a large user base and have undergone rigorous testing and evaluation. Therefore, implementing COTS systems in both federal and non-federal systems ensures a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain.

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  • 32. 

    Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

    • The Customer

    • Security Manager

    • National Security Agency

    • Communications Squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. The Customer
    Explanation
    The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service securely.

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  • 33. 

    What are two classifications of transport protocols?

    • Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented

    • Classful and Connectionless Oriented

    • Connectionless Oriented and Classless

    • Classful and Classless

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. These are two classifications of transport protocols. Connection-oriented protocols establish a connection between the sender and receiver before transmitting data, ensuring reliable delivery. Connectionless-oriented protocols do not establish a connection and send data packets independently, without guaranteeing delivery.

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  • 34. 

    What topology defines the layout of a network's device and media?

    • Physical

    • Logical

    • Hybrid

    • Star

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Physical". The physical topology refers to the physical arrangement of devices and media in a network. It defines how devices are connected to each other and the physical layout of cables, routers, switches, and other network components. This includes the physical placement of devices such as computers, servers, and printers, as well as the type of cables used to connect them. The physical topology is important for understanding the physical structure and organization of a network.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

    • EW concerns radiated energy

    • CNO concerns radiated energy

    • EW is only used for offensive purposes

    • CNO is only used for defensive purposes

    Correct Answer
    A. EW concerns radiated energy
    Explanation
    Electronic Warfare (EW) is the correct answer because EW indeed concerns radiated energy. EW involves the use of electromagnetic energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum, which includes activities such as electronic countermeasures and electronic counter-countermeasures. It focuses on disrupting or manipulating the enemy's use of the electromagnetic spectrum, including radio waves, radar, and communication signals. This can be done for both offensive and defensive purposes, depending on the specific objectives and strategies of the military operation.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

    • Minimum rank of SSgt

    • 6 months on-the-job-training (OJT) for retrainees

    • Completion of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSC) specific requirements

    • Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC)supplemental training courses

    Correct Answer
    A. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC)supplemental training courses
    Explanation
    The completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is a tool to manage positions?

    • Program Element Code (PEC)

    • Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is a tool to manage positions. It provides details about the authorized manpower positions within the organization, including job titles, responsibilities, and required qualifications. The UMD helps in tracking and managing the allocation of personnel resources, ensuring that the organization has the right number and types of positions to effectively carry out its mission. It is an essential document for workforce planning and management.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

    • Construct Career Paths

    • Manage skill-level training requirements

    • Establish requirements for entry into the career field

    • Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or manpower offices within the MAJCOM.

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  • 39. 

    The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government of the government is authorized bu United States Code (USC) Title?

    • 10

    • 15

    • 37

    • 50

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 because the United States Code (USC) Title 10 specifically authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government. Title 10 outlines the roles, responsibilities, and organization of the DOD, including its various branches such as the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. It is the primary legal foundation for the DOD's existence and operations.

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  • 40. 

    What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal circumstances?

    • $100,000

    • $250,000

    • $750,000

    • $1,000,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $750,000
    Explanation
    Under normal circumstances, the maximum amount that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover for minor construction projects is $750,000.

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  • 41. 

    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to?

    • 53

    • 63

    • 73

    • 83

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
    Explanation
    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to 63. This means that a FireWire bus can support a maximum of 63 devices connected to it.

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  • 42. 

    What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A
    Explanation
    Class A is the correct answer because it is the class that uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. Class A addresses are used for large networks and can support up to 16 million hosts. The first bit in the first octet is always set to 0 in Class A addresses, allowing for a range of 1-126.

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  • 43. 

    What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
    Explanation
    A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that connects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area, such as a city or a large campus. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but is smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are designed to provide high-speed connectivity within a metropolitan area, allowing users to access shared resources and communicate with each other. Therefore, a MAN is the most suitable network for interconnecting users with computer resources in a city or a region.

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  • 44. 

    Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

    • Communications Focal Point

    • Flight Commander / Chief

    • Production Controller

    • Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Commander / Chief
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This role is in charge of overseeing and coordinating all aspects of the flight operations, including inspections. They ensure that the necessary inspections are scheduled, conducted, and documented according to the established procedures and regulations. By taking on this responsibility, the Flight Commander/Chief ensures the safety and compliance of the operations.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

    • Job Safety Training (JST)

    • Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)

    • Task Hazard Analysis (THA)

    • Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Safety Training (JST)
    Explanation
    The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that involves identifying potential hazards associated with a specific job or task and determining the appropriate controls to mitigate those hazards. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers to the training provided to employees to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their job safely. While both JSA and JST are important components of a comprehensive safety program, they serve different purposes.

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  • 46. 

    Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

    • Wing Commander

    • Numbered Air Force Commander

    • Communications Squadron Commander

    • Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Commander
    Explanation
    The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for both public and private websites. They have the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites.

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  • 47. 

    The range of well-known port numbers is?

    • 1024 to 49151

    • 49152 to 65535

    • 0 to 1023

    • 0 to 1024

    Correct Answer
    A. 0 to 1023
    Explanation
    The range of well-known port numbers is from 0 to 1023. Well-known ports are reserved for specific services or protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These ports are commonly used and recognized by most operating systems and network devices. Port numbers from 1024 to 49151 are registered ports, which can be used by applications upon registration with the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). Port numbers from 49152 to 65535 are dynamic or private ports, which can be used by applications for temporary connections.

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  • 48. 

    What title status must National Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    National Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the section of the United States Code that governs the organization and role of the armed forces, including the National Guard. This status allows National Guardsmen to be activated by the federal government and operate under federal authority. It provides them with the legal framework and authority to engage in cyber operations as part of their duties.

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  • 49. 

    What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

    • Careful Planning

    • Reactive Operations

    • Immediate Response

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Careful Planning
    Explanation
    Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority because it allows for proactive measures to be taken. By carefully planning and strategizing, potential risks and vulnerabilities can be identified and addressed before they can be exploited by adversaries. It also enables the development of effective countermeasures and response plans to minimize the impact of any cyber threats or attacks. Careful planning ensures that resources are allocated efficiently and that actions are taken in a coordinated and strategic manner, ultimately enhancing overall cybersecurity and maintaining an advantage in cyberspace.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Nov 07, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Edwarj1795

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