3DX7X Vol 1 Cyberspace Support Craftsman

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3DX7X Quizzes & Trivia

The air force being a very important section and part of the military, we have different Air Force Specialty Codes that determine the different ranks within the force. Cyberspace support craftsman quiz below has more on this.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

    • A.

      Computer Systems Programming.

    • B.

      Cyber Systems Operations.

    • C.

      Cyber Transport Systems.

    • D.

      Cyber Surety.

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Systems Programming.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This test is likely a requirement for this specialty because computer systems programmers need to have a strong understanding of electronic data processing in order to effectively develop and maintain software programs. The other AFSC options listed may also involve working with computer systems and technology, but they do not specifically mention the requirement of passing the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

    • A.

      Minimum rank of SSgt.

    • B.

      6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.

    • C.

      Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements.

    • D.

      Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

    Correct Answer
    D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.
    Explanation
    The completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months on-the-job training for retrainees, and completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement to the 7-skill level.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

    • A.

      Communications Focal Point

    • B.

      Unit Deployment Monitor

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk

    • D.

      Quality Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications Focal Point
    Explanation
    The Communications Focal Point function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission. This means that while Client Systems personnel are the main staff for this function, there may be individuals from different AFSCs assigned to this role depending on the specific mission of the unit.

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  • 4. 

    What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

    • A.

      TO 00-5-15

    • B.

      MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

    • C.

      Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory

    • D.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II

    Correct Answer
    B. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
    Explanation
    The document that directs the Communications Focal Point key processes is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.

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  • 5. 

    Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

    • A.

      At major command functional managers.

    • B.

      At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

    • C.

      At the Air Force Personnel Center.

    • D.

      With career field managers.

    Correct Answer
    B. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming activities occur at the highest level of the Air Force organization.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

    • A.

      Program Element Code (PEC).

    • B.

      Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

    • C.

      Authorization Change Request (ACR).

    • D.

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized manpower positions within an organization, including the number of personnel required for each position, the skill sets needed, and the specific duties and responsibilities associated with each position. The UMD is an essential tool for organizations to effectively manage their workforce and ensure that they have the right personnel in the right positions to meet their operational needs.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

    • A.

      Program Element Code (PEC).

    • B.

      Special Experience Identifier (SEI).

    • C.

      Authorization Change Request (ACR).

    • D.

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    Correct Answer
    A. Program Element Code (PEC).
    Explanation
    The Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is used to identify and track specific elements within a program's budget. PECs are typically assigned to various components or tasks within a program, allowing for better cost management and analysis.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

    • A.

      Construct career paths.

    • B.

      Manage skill-level training requirements.

    • C.

      Establish requirements for entry into the career field.

    • D.

      Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for various tasks related to managing and developing a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by personnel managers or assignment officers who are responsible for assigning individuals to specific positions within the Air Force.

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  • 9. 

    Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).

    • B.

      MAJCOM Functional Manager.

    • C.

      Career Field Manager (CFM).

    • D.

      SAF/CIO A6.

    Correct Answer
    B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM in these meetings, ensuring that the training requirements and utilization of personnel within the career field align with the command's objectives and priorities. They work closely with other stakeholders, such as the Career Field Manager and SAF/CIO A6, but it is the MAJCOM Functional Manager who specifically serves as the voting representative in these meetings.

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  • 10. 

    Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?

    • A.

      Segment 1.

    • B.

      Segment 2.

    • C.

      Segment 3.

    • D.

      Segment 4.

    Correct Answer
    B. Segment 2.
    Explanation
    Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment involves assessing the proficiency levels of personnel and determining the resources needed for their training. It involves identifying the training gaps and requirements to ensure that personnel have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively. This segment plays a crucial role in ensuring that training is adequately planned and resources are allocated appropriately to meet the training needs of the organization.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

    • A.

      Draft and sign minutes.

    • B.

      Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).

    • C.

      Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description.

    • D.

      Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

    Correct Answer
    D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.
    Explanation
    The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to career field education and training. These actions include drafting and signing minutes, finalizing part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalizing the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, the team is not responsible for finalizing Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

    • B.

      AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer.

    • C.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).

    • D.

      MAJCOM Functional Manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer.
    Explanation
    The AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This means that their presence at the workshop is not mandatory but they can choose to attend if they wish. The other options listed, such as the Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM), Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM), and MAJCOM Functional Manager, are not specified as optional attendees, so they may be required to attend the workshop.

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  • 13. 

    What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).

    • B.

      Quality Training Package (QTP).

    • C.

      Subject Matter Experts (SME).

    • D.

      Job Quality Standards (JQS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).
    Explanation
    The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the specific occupational requirements, tasks, and competencies needed for a particular career field. This information is then used to develop the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR is considered a crucial source of information and guidance in the development of these training plans.

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  • 14. 

    What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

    • A.

      Remedy.

    • B.

      Situational Report (SITREP).

    • C.

      Telephone Management System (TMS).

    • D.

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is specifically designed for maintenance management and provides a centralized database for recording and tracking maintenance actions, including work orders, repairs, and inspections. It allows for efficient documentation and analysis of maintenance activities, ensuring that all actions on items with SRD are properly recorded and managed.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?

    • A.

      Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.

    • B.

      Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).

    • C.

      Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).

    • D.

      Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).
    Explanation
    The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing IMDS reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions. However, ensuring equipment status is entered into ESR is not listed as a common duty of the MDC monitor.

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  • 16. 

    Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

    • A.

      Communications Focal Point.

    • B.

      Flight Commander/Chief.

    • C.

      Production Controller.

    • D.

      Commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight Commander/Chief.
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This includes setting up a system to schedule and track inspections, assigning personnel to carry out the inspections, and ensuring that the inspections are conducted according to regulations and standards. The Flight Commander/Chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and operational readiness of the aircraft by overseeing the inspection process.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?

    • A.

      Master Task List.

    • B.

      Job Qualification Standard.

    • C.

      Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D.

      Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.

    Correct Answer
    B. Job Qualification Standard.
    Explanation
    The Master Training Plan includes various elements that are relevant to the work center. The Master Task List is a comprehensive list of tasks that need to be completed. The Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field. The Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion provide a timeline for completing tasks and courses. The Job Qualification Standard, on the other hand, is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This suggests that not all work centers may have a Job Qualification Standard included in their Master Training Plan.

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  • 18. 

    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

    • A.

      30.

    • B.

      60.

    • C.

      90.

    • D.

      120.

    Correct Answer
    D. 120.
    Explanation
    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after new equipment or a system is accepted, a certain number of ARC personnel will undergo evaluations within 120 days. This is important to ensure that the personnel are properly trained and qualified to operate the new equipment or system effectively and safely.

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  • 19. 

    Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • A.

      Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

    • B.

      Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.

    • C.

      Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.

    • D.

      Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

    Correct Answer
    D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
  • 20. 

    How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 6
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) typically involves a six-step process. These steps include identifying risks, assessing and analyzing risks, evaluating and prioritizing risks, developing risk management strategies, implementing risk controls, and monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of these controls. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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  • 21. 

    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

    • A.

      AF Form 55.

    • B.

      AF Form 971.

    • C.

      AF Form 623A.

    • D.

      AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55.
    Explanation
    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting and tracking safety training completion. It serves as a record of an individual's safety training history and can be used to ensure compliance with safety regulations. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can easily keep track of who has completed the required safety training and ensure that all necessary training is documented and maintained.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

    • A.

      Job Safety Training (JST).

    • B.

      Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).

    • C.

      Task Hazard Analysis (THA).

    • D.

      Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Safety Training (JST).
    Explanation
    The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA) are all terms used to describe the process of identifying and evaluating potential hazards and risks associated with a specific job or task. However, Job Safety Training (JST) refers specifically to the training provided to employees to ensure their safety while performing their job duties, rather than the analysis of those job duties themselves.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?

    • A.

      Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

    • B.

      Resources required to manage and use TOs.

    • C.

      Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

    • D.

      Training to manage and use TOs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
    Explanation
    The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The passage mentions the resources, infrastructure, and training required to manage and use TOs, but it does not specifically mention TCTO procedures.

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  • 24. 

    Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

    • A.

      AFTO Form 673.

    • B.

      AFTO Form 22.

    • C.

      AF Form 673.

    • D.

      AF Form 22.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFTO Form 22.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFTO Form 22. This form is used for submitting recommended technical order (TO) changes. The other forms mentioned (AFTO Form 673 and AF Form 673) are not specifically used for submitting TO changes. Therefore, AFTO Form 22 is the most appropriate form for submitting recommended TO changes.

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  • 25. 

    Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

    • A.

      Library Custodian.

    • B.

      Flight commander/chief.

    • C.

      Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

    • D.

      Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight commander/chief.
    Explanation
    The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the needs of their flight operations and ensure that the necessary documentation is in place for the safe and efficient use of equipment. The library custodian is responsible for managing technical publications, but they do not determine the need for local checklists and work cards. The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) and Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA) are involved in the distribution of technical orders, but they do not have the authority to determine the requirement for local checklists and work cards.

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  • 26. 

    Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

    • A.

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

    • B.

      American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

    • C.

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • D.

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

    Correct Answer
    B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
    Explanation
    The American National Standards Institute (ANSI) provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including telecommunications. TIA is a trade association that represents the telecommunications industry, and its standards are developed and accredited by ANSI to ensure industry-wide compatibility and quality.

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  • 27. 

    Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

    • A.

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

    • B.

      American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

    • C.

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • D.

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.

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  • 28. 

    Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

    • A.

      The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).

    • B.

      Commander/director responsible for the guidance.

    • C.

      The authoring OPR’s supervisor.

    • D.

      Publications Manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.
    Explanation
    The authoring OPR's supervisor should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official because they are responsible for overseeing the work of the authoring OPR and ensuring its accuracy and compliance with regulations. As the supervisor, they have the authority to review and approve the form, certifying its correctness and completeness.

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  • 29. 

    What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

    • A.

      Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).

    • B.

      Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • C.

      Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

    • D.

      Military only.

    Correct Answer
    C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
    Explanation
    Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domains through all federal and non-federal systems. COTS refers to ready-made, commercially available software or hardware that can be easily integrated into various systems. These systems are widely used across different industries and are designed to meet industry standards and regulations. By using COTS systems, organizations can ensure interoperability, ease of maintenance, and the ability to defend against potential security threats.

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  • 30. 

    The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      37

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This means that the legal basis for establishing the Department of Defense (DOD) can be found in Title 10 of the United States Code, which is a compilation of all federal laws pertaining to the armed forces. Title 10 outlines the roles, responsibilities, and organization of the DOD, including its relationship with the President and Congress.

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  • 31. 

    Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      18

    • C.

      32

    • D.

      37

    Correct Answer
    C. 32
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 32. The procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32. This title specifically outlines the authority and guidelines for the National Guard, including the conditions under which they can be called into federal service. It is important for Congress to have clear procedures and guidelines in place to ensure the proper and lawful activation of units when necessary.

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  • 32. 

    Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

    • A.

      Wing Commander.

    • B.

      Numbered Air Force Commander.

    • C.

      Communications Squadron Commander.

    • D.

      Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Commander.
    Explanation
    The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select individuals who will oversee and manage the content on these websites.

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  • 33. 

    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

    • A.

      Misuse of position.

    • B.

      A covered relationships.

    • C.

      Non-public information.

    • D.

      Personal conflict of interest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position.
    Explanation
    When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of their position. This implies that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own personal benefit, which is unethical and often against regulations or policies. It involves using one's position to gain advantages, privileges, or benefits that are not available to others.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

    • A.

      Military Personnel (MILPERS).

    • B.

      Military Construction (MILCON).

    • C.

      Operation and Maintenance (O&M).

    • D.

      Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).

    Correct Answer
    B. Military Construction (MILCON).
    Explanation
    Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are specifically allocated for construction projects related to military facilities, including the relocation of existing facilities. These funds are used to build, expand, or upgrade military infrastructure such as barracks, hangars, training facilities, and other necessary structures. Therefore, MILCON funds are the appropriate type of fund to cover the cost of relocating facilities.

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  • 35. 

    What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

    • A.

      $100,000.

    • B.

      $250,000.

    • C.

      $750,000.

    • D.

      $1,000,000.

    Correct Answer
    C. $750,000.
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

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  • 36. 

    In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

    • A.

      10–401.

    • B.

      33–360.

    • C.

      38–101.

    • D.

      64–117.

    Correct Answer
    D. 64–117.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 64–117 because this Air Force Instruction provides detailed information on how to administer the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels. It is a comprehensive guide that outlines the procedures and guidelines for using the card and ensures that all personnel involved in the program are following the correct protocols. This instruction is specifically tailored to the Air Force and provides the necessary information for effective management of the Government Purchase Card program within the organization.

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  • 37. 

    At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

    • A.

      Approval Official (AO).

    • B.

      Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

    • C.

      DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).

    • D.

      Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
    Explanation
    The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, including ensuring compliance with regulations, providing guidance to cardholders, and conducting training sessions. The A/OPC acts as a liaison between the installation and higher-level program management offices, and is responsible for maintaining accurate records and reporting on program activities.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

    • A.

      Making authorized transactions.

    • B.

      Reconciling transactions.

    • C.

      Logging transactions.

    • D.

      Funds accountability.

    Correct Answer
    D. Funds accountability.
    Explanation
    Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders have several responsibilities, including making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not one of their responsibilities. This means that GPC cardholders are not responsible for ensuring the proper allocation and management of funds related to the transactions made using the GPC. This responsibility typically falls on higher-level financial personnel or designated individuals within the government organization.

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  • 39. 

    Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.

    • B.

      Joint Publication 1–02.

    • C.

      Joint Publication 1–03.

    • D.

      AFI 10–401.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 10–401.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 10–401. This is because the question asks for the source that provides detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request. AFI 10–401 is an Air Force Instruction that specifically addresses the procedures and guidelines for submitting reclama or shortfall requests. Joint Publication 1–02 and Joint Publication 1–03 are not specific to Air Force instructions and may not contain the detailed instructions needed. Therefore, AFI 10–401 is the most appropriate source for the information required.

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  • 40. 

    Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

    • A.

      Air Force Chief of Staff.

    • B.

      Secretary of the Air Force.

    • C.

      Selected major command Command Chiefs.

    • D.

      Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Chief of Staff.
    Explanation
    After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds the highest-ranking position in the Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the operations and organization of the entire Air Force. As such, it is their role to ensure that the selections made by the board align with the goals and values of the Air Force. The Air Force Chief of Staff's review adds an additional layer of scrutiny and validation to the selection process.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

    • A.

      Wing.

    • B.

      Group.

    • C.

      Squadron.

    • D.

      Major command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing.
    Explanation
    The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. This indicates that the awards are given at the level of a Wing, which is typically higher in hierarchy compared to a Group, Squadron, or major command.

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  • 42. 

    Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

    • A.

      36–2604.

    • B.

      36–2803.

    • C.

      36–2805.

    • D.

      36–2845.

    Correct Answer
    D. 36–2845.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 36–2845 because this Air Force instruction specifically provides guidance for awards that are specific to the Cyber community. The other options (36–2604, 36–2803, and 36–2805) may cover different topics or areas, but they do not pertain specifically to awards in the Cyber community. Therefore, 36–2845 is the correct choice.

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  • 43. 

    What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

    • A.

      1 October - 30 September.

    • B.

      1 January - 31 December.

    • C.

      1 April - 31 March.

    • D.

      1 July - 30 June.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 October - 30 September.
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a one-year period starting from October 1st and ending on September 30th of the following year.

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  • 44. 

    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

    • A.

      53

    • B.

      63

    • C.

      73

    • D.

      83

    Correct Answer
    B. 63
    Explanation
    A FireWire bus can support a maximum of 63 devices. FireWire is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows multiple devices to be connected to a computer. Each device on the bus is assigned a unique address, and the bus can handle up to 63 unique addresses. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.

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  • 45. 

    What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

    • A.

      Monitor.

    • B.

      Scanner.

    • C.

      Keyboard.

    • D.

      Graphics card.

    Correct Answer
    C. Keyboard.
    Explanation
    A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches are responsible for registering the keystrokes made by the user and transmitting them to the computer. This allows the user to input data and commands into the computer system. Therefore, the correct answer is Keyboard.

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  • 46. 

    A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

    • A.

      At least 5.

    • B.

      No more than 10.

    • C.

      No more than 20.

    • D.

      20 or more.

    Correct Answer
    C. No more than 20.
    Explanation
    A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers that typically consists of a small number of computers, usually less than 20. This allows for easy communication and file sharing among the computers within the workgroup. It is important to keep the number of computers in a workgroup limited to ensure efficient collaboration and management.

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  • 47. 

    Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

    • A.

      Simple.

    • B.

      Relative.

    • C.

      Positive.

    • D.

      Absolute.

    Correct Answer
    C. Positive.
    Explanation
    The question is asking about the types of UNIX pathnames. A UNIX pathname refers to the location of a file or directory within the UNIX file system. The options provided are Simple, Relative, Positive, and Absolute. Simple, Relative, and Absolute are all valid types of UNIX pathnames. However, "Positive" is not a recognized type of UNIX pathname. Therefore, the correct answer is Positive.

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  • 48. 

    Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

    • A.

      Norton Utilities.

    • B.

      Acrobat Reader.

    • C.

      Virus Scan.

    • D.

      WinZip.

    Correct Answer
    A. Norton Utilities.
    Explanation
    Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It offers features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection. Acrobat Reader is a PDF reader, Virus Scan is an antivirus software, and WinZip is a file compression tool, none of which are primarily focused on file recovery or computer failure protection.

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  • 49. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

    • A.

      High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

    • B.

      Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

    • C.

      Distance Vector and Link State.

    • D.

      RS–232 and RS–530.

    Correct Answer
    B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The LLC sublayer is responsible for managing flow control, error control, and framing of data, while the MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling data transmission between devices. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient communication between network devices.

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  • 50. 

    Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

    • A.

      Network.

    • B.

      Physical.

    • C.

      Data Link.

    • D.

      Transport.

    Correct Answer
    C. Data Link.
    Explanation
    Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent nodes on a network. Switches and bridges are devices that connect multiple network segments together and make forwarding decisions based on the MAC addresses of the devices connected to them. They use the Data Link layer protocols, such as Ethernet, to perform these functions.

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