3DX7X Vol 1 Cyberspace Support Craftsman
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What is the most common wireless networking standard?
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802.3.
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802.9.
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802.11.
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802.14.
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The air force being a very important section and part of the military, we have different Air Force Specialty Codes that determine the different ranks within the force. Cyberspace support craftsman quiz below has more on this.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?
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Token.
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Biometrics.
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Multifactor.
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Knowledge-based.
Correct Answer
A. Biometrics.Explanation
Biometrics is the correct answer because it refers to the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial recognition, to verify a person's identity. By comparing the fingerprint provided by the user with the stored fingerprint data, the system can authenticate the user's identity. This method is considered highly secure as it is difficult to replicate or forge someone's unique biometric traits.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor?
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Information Management.
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Network-centric warfare.
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Information Superiority.
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Information Operations.
Correct Answer
A. Information Superiority.Explanation
Information Superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having access to accurate, relevant, and timely information, as well as the ability to process and analyze it effectively. With information superiority, individuals or organizations can make informed decisions, gain a competitive edge, and achieve their objectives more efficiently. It encompasses the management, control, and exploitation of information to gain an advantage over adversaries or competitors.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?
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Virus.
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Spam.
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Spyware.
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Phishing.
Correct Answer
A. Spam.Explanation
Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically for advertising purposes. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming to deal with, it does not directly compromise the security or integrity of a system or personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are designed to infiltrate and harm systems, steal sensitive data, or deceive users into revealing confidential information. Therefore, spam is generally seen as a nuisance rather than a direct threat.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?
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Patches.
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Antivirus.
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Software removal.
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Vulnerability scanner.
Correct Answer
A. Patches.Explanation
Patches are small pieces of code that software developers create to fix or address the flaws found in the original code of a program. These patches are designed to prevent vulnerabilities and improve the security of the software. They are typically released by the software developers as updates or upgrades to the existing program, providing fixes for identified security issues or bugs. By applying patches, users can protect their systems from potential exploits and ensure that their software is up to date with the latest security enhancements.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
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Communications Focal Point
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Unit Deployment Monitor
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Enterprise Service Desk
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Quality Assurance
Correct Answer
A. Communications Focal PointExplanation
The Communications Focal Point function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission. This means that while Client Systems personnel are the main staff for this function, there may be individuals from different AFSCs assigned to this role depending on the specific mission of the unit.Rate this question:
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- 7.
When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
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Misuse of position.
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A covered relationships.
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Non-public information.
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Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
A. Misuse of position.Explanation
When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of their position. This implies that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own personal benefit, which is unethical and often against regulations or policies. It involves using one's position to gain advantages, privileges, or benefits that are not available to others.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
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Monitor.
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Scanner.
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Keyboard.
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Graphics card.
Correct Answer
A. Keyboard.Explanation
A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches are responsible for registering the keystrokes made by the user and transmitting them to the computer. This allows the user to input data and commands into the computer system. Therefore, the correct answer is Keyboard.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?
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Norton Utilities.
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Acrobat Reader.
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Virus Scan.
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WinZip.
Correct Answer
A. Norton Utilities.Explanation
Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It offers features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection. Acrobat Reader is a PDF reader, Virus Scan is an antivirus software, and WinZip is a file compression tool, none of which are primarily focused on file recovery or computer failure protection.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A modem is a device that
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Transmits on every link attached to it.
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Modulates and demodulates data signals.
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Uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.
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Operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.
Correct Answer
A. Modulates and demodulates data signals.Explanation
A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. This means that it converts digital data from a computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over a telephone or cable line, and then converts the analog signals back into digital data at the receiving end. This process allows for the transmission of data over long distances using existing infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?
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Token.
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Biometrics.
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Multifactor.
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Knowledge-based.
Correct Answer
A. Knowledge-based.Explanation
The identity management process that uses a password to authenticate a user is known as knowledge-based authentication. In this process, the user is required to provide a password that they have previously chosen and is associated with their account. This method is commonly used in various systems and platforms to verify the identity of users and grant them access to their accounts or resources.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?
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1 October - 30 September.
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1 January - 31 December.
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1 April - 31 March.
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1 July - 30 June.
Correct Answer
A. 1 October - 30 September.Explanation
The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a one-year period starting from October 1st and ending on September 30th of the following year.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?
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0.0.0.0.
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127.0.0.1.
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207.55.157.255.
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255.255.255.255.
Correct Answer
A. 127.0.0.1.Explanation
The Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address used for loop back is 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly referred to as the "localhost" address and is used to test network connections on a local machine. It allows a computer to send and receive data within its own network interface without actually connecting to an external network.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The design of communications network is known as
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An internet suite.
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The physical layer.
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Network architecture.
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Network implementation.
Correct Answer
A. Network architecture.Explanation
The design of a communications network refers to the overall structure and organization of the network, including its layout, protocols, and components. This encompasses decisions regarding the arrangement of devices, the flow of data, and the overall functionality of the network. Therefore, "network architecture" is the most appropriate term to describe the design of a communications network.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
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Bus.
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Star.
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Ring.
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Hybrid.
Correct Answer
A. Star.Explanation
A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a hub or switch. In this topology, all communication between computers is done through the centralized component, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easy management and troubleshooting of the network, as well as the ability to add or remove computers without disrupting the entire network.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?
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Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).
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Base Defense Operations Center.
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624th Operations Center.
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Air Operations Center.
Correct Answer
A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).Explanation
The correct answer is Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC). This center is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness and reports any suspicious or malicious activity. The other options mentioned, such as Base Defense Operations Center, 624th Operations Center, and Air Operations Center, are not specifically focused on network monitoring and control.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
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Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
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Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
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Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
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Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
Correct Answer
A. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost. -
- 18.
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
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AF Form 55.
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AF Form 971.
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AF Form 623A.
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AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 55.Explanation
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting and tracking safety training completion. It serves as a record of an individual's safety training history and can be used to ensure compliance with safety regulations. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can easily keep track of who has completed the required safety training and ensure that all necessary training is documented and maintained.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?
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Wing.
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Group.
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Squadron.
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Major command.
Correct Answer
A. Wing.Explanation
The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. This indicates that the awards are given at the level of a Wing, which is typically higher in hierarchy compared to a Group, Squadron, or major command.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
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High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
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Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
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Distance Vector and Link State.
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RS–232 and RS–530.
Correct Answer
A. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).Explanation
The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The LLC sublayer is responsible for managing flow control, error control, and framing of data, while the MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling data transmission between devices. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient communication between network devices.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
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Class A
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Class B
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Class C
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Class D
Correct Answer
A. Class AExplanation
Class A uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. Class A addresses are used for large networks with a large number of hosts. The first bit in the first octet is always 0, indicating that it is a Class A address. This allows for a maximum of 126 networks, with each network capable of accommodating a large number of hosts.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?
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Computer Systems Programming.
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Cyber Systems Operations.
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Cyber Transport Systems.
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Cyber Surety.
Correct Answer
A. Computer Systems Programming.Explanation
The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This test is likely a requirement for this specialty because computer systems programmers need to have a strong understanding of electronic data processing in order to effectively develop and maintain software programs. The other AFSC options listed may also involve working with computer systems and technology, but they do not specifically mention the requirement of passing the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
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2
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4
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6
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8
Correct Answer
A. 6Explanation
Operational Risk Management (ORM) typically involves a six-step process. These steps include identifying risks, assessing and analyzing risks, evaluating and prioritizing risks, developing risk management strategies, implementing risk controls, and monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of these controls. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?
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Defense Intelligence Agency.
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Defense Information Systems Agency.
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Defense Information Systems Network.
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Department of Defense Information Networks.
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency.Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides information technology and communications support to the military services, combatant commands, and other DoD components. It is responsible for managing and operating the Defense Information Systems Network (DISN), which is the global enterprise network for the DoD.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What are the two classifications of transport protocols?
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Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.
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Classful and Connectionless Oriented.
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Connectionless Oriented and Classless.
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Classful and Classless.
Correct Answer
A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.Explanation
The correct answer is "Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented." This is because transport protocols can be classified into two main categories based on their connection establishment and management. Connection-oriented protocols, such as TCP, establish a dedicated connection between the sender and receiver before data transmission, ensuring reliable and ordered delivery. On the other hand, connectionless protocols, like UDP, do not establish a connection and simply send data packets without any guarantee of delivery or order.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?
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Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
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Virtual Private Network (VPN).
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Local Area Network (LAN).
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Wide Area Network (WAN).
Correct Answer
A. Local Area Network (LAN).Explanation
A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects a group of computers and associated devices within a small geographic area, such as a building or campus. It allows for the sharing of resources and communication between devices, making it ideal for small businesses or homes. Unlike a Wide Area Network (WAN) that covers a larger area, a LAN is limited to a specific location. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a larger network that covers a city or metropolitan area, while a Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure network that allows users to access a private network over a public network.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
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2
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3
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4
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5
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. This means that it determines the most efficient route for data packets to travel from the source node to the destination node. By continuously analyzing network conditions and updating routing tables, dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF or BGP can adapt to changes in the network topology and select the optimal path based on factors such as link cost, bandwidth, or delay.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?
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Local Area Network (LAN).
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Wide Area Network (WAN).
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Virtual Private Network (VPN).
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Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
Correct Answer
A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).Explanation
A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that interconnects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, typically a city. This network provides high-speed connectivity and covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are commonly used by organizations or institutions that have multiple locations within a city and need to share resources and data efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
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Minimum rank of SSgt.
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6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.
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Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements.
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Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.
Correct Answer
A. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.Explanation
The completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months on-the-job training for retrainees, and completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement to the 7-skill level.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
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TO 00-5-15
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MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
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Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory
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Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II
Correct Answer
A. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WAExplanation
The document that directs the Communications Focal Point key processes is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
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Construct career paths.
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Manage skill-level training requirements.
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Establish requirements for entry into the career field.
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Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
A. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for various tasks related to managing and developing a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by personnel managers or assignment officers who are responsible for assigning individuals to specific positions within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
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Remedy.
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Situational Report (SITREP).
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Telephone Management System (TMS).
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Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
Correct Answer
A. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is specifically designed for maintenance management and provides a centralized database for recording and tracking maintenance actions, including work orders, repairs, and inspections. It allows for efficient documentation and analysis of maintenance activities, ensuring that all actions on items with SRD are properly recorded and managed.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?
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Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).
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Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
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Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
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Military only.
Correct Answer
A. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).Explanation
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domains through all federal and non-federal systems. COTS refers to ready-made, commercially available software or hardware that can be easily integrated into various systems. These systems are widely used across different industries and are designed to meet industry standards and regulations. By using COTS systems, organizations can ensure interoperability, ease of maintenance, and the ability to defend against potential security threats.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
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Military Personnel (MILPERS).
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Military Construction (MILCON).
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Operation and Maintenance (O&M).
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Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).
Correct Answer
A. Military Construction (MILCON).Explanation
Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are specifically allocated for construction projects related to military facilities, including the relocation of existing facilities. These funds are used to build, expand, or upgrade military infrastructure such as barracks, hangars, training facilities, and other necessary structures. Therefore, MILCON funds are the appropriate type of fund to cover the cost of relocating facilities.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to
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53
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63
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73
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83
Correct Answer
A. 63Explanation
A FireWire bus can support a maximum of 63 devices. FireWire is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows multiple devices to be connected to a computer. Each device on the bus is assigned a unique address, and the bus can handle up to 63 unique addresses. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?
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Title 10.
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Title 30.
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Title 50.
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Title 52.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the federal status of the National Guard, which means they are under the control of the President and can be deployed for federal missions. This status allows them to participate in cyber operations, which often involve national security and defense. Title 30, Title 50, and Title 52 do not specifically pertain to the National Guard's authority for cyber operations.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized
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At major command functional managers.
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At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
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At the Air Force Personnel Center.
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With career field managers.
Correct Answer
A. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).Explanation
The correct answer is at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming activities occur at the highest level of the Air Force organization.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?
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Program Element Code (PEC).
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Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
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Authorization Change Request (ACR).
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Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized manpower positions within an organization, including the number of personnel required for each position, the skill sets needed, and the specific duties and responsibilities associated with each position. The UMD is an essential tool for organizations to effectively manage their workforce and ensure that they have the right personnel in the right positions to meet their operational needs.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title
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10
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15
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37
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50
Correct Answer
A. 10Explanation
The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This means that the legal basis for establishing the Department of Defense (DOD) can be found in Title 10 of the United States Code, which is a compilation of all federal laws pertaining to the armed forces. Title 10 outlines the roles, responsibilities, and organization of the DOD, including its relationship with the President and Congress.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?
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The customer.
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Security Manager.
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National Security Agency.
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Communications Squadron.
Correct Answer
A. The customer.Explanation
The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service securely. The Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron do not have the obligation to provide encryption devices in this context.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
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Program Element Code (PEC).
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Special Experience Identifier (SEI).
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Authorization Change Request (ACR).
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Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
A. Program Element Code (PEC).Explanation
The Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is used to identify and track specific elements within a program's budget. PECs are typically assigned to various components or tasks within a program, allowing for better cost management and analysis.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
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Communications Focal Point.
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Flight Commander/Chief.
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Production Controller.
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Commander.
Correct Answer
A. Flight Commander/Chief.Explanation
The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This includes setting up a system to schedule and track inspections, assigning personnel to carry out the inspections, and ensuring that the inspections are conducted according to regulations and standards. The Flight Commander/Chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and operational readiness of the aircraft by overseeing the inspection process.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?
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Wing Commander.
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Numbered Air Force Commander.
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Communications Squadron Commander.
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Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.
Correct Answer
A. Wing Commander.Explanation
The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select individuals who will oversee and manage the content on these websites.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
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$100,000.
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$250,000.
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$750,000.
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$1,000,000.
Correct Answer
A. $750,000.Explanation
Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?
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At least 5.
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No more than 10.
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No more than 20.
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20 or more.
Correct Answer
A. No more than 20.Explanation
A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers that typically consists of a small number of computers, usually less than 20. This allows for easy communication and file sharing among the computers within the workgroup. It is important to keep the number of computers in a workgroup limited to ensure efficient collaboration and management.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?
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Data receive message.
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Sliding Window.
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Buffer.
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Socket.
Correct Answer
A. Sliding Window.Explanation
The sliding window is a mechanism that regulates how much data can be sent over a TCP connection before receiving an acknowledgement. It allows the sender to transmit a certain amount of data without waiting for an acknowledgement, improving efficiency. As the receiver acknowledges the received data, the window slides, allowing more data to be sent. This helps in optimizing the flow of data and ensuring reliable communication between the sender and receiver in a TCP connection.Rate this question:
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- 47.
How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?
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16
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32
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64
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128
Correct Answer
A. 32Explanation
An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. This means that there are a total of 2^32 (4,294,967,296) unique IPv4 addresses available. Each bit in the address represents a binary value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a 32-bit address format.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?
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Port 80.
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Port 110.
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Port 443.
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Port 8080.
Correct Answer
A. Port 8080.Explanation
Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While Port 80 is the standard port for HTTP, some organizations may choose to use Port 8080 as an alternative. This can be done for various reasons, such as avoiding conflicts with other services or providing additional security. However, it is important to note that Port 8080 is not as widely used as Port 80 for HTTP, which is why it is considered the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?
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Physical.
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Logical.
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Hybrid.
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Star.
Correct Answer
A. Physical.Explanation
The correct answer is physical because the physical topology refers to the actual layout of the network, including the devices and media used to connect them. It describes how the devices are physically connected to each other and to the network medium, such as cables or wireless connections. This includes the arrangement of devices, the types of cables used, and the location of network components. Logical topology, on the other hand, refers to the way data flows within the network, regardless of the physical layout. Hybrid topology combines multiple physical topologies, while star topology is a specific type of physical topology where all devices are connected to a central hub or switch.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 09, 2016Quiz Created by
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