3DX7X Volume 2 UREs
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises,determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
Deliberate planning.
- B.
Crisis action planning.
- C.
Mobilization planning.
- D.
Force rotational planning
Correct Answer
A. Deliberate planning.Explanation
Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is comprehensive and proactive, allowing for effective preparation and response to potential crises or conflicts. Crisis action planning focuses on immediate response to unforeseen events, mobilization planning is specific to the activation and deployment of military forces, and force rotational planning is related to the rotation of forces in and out of a specific area of operations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference sourcefor general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
Volume 1
- B.
Volume 2.
- C.
Volume 3.
- D.
Volume 4.
Correct Answer
A. Volume 1Explanation
Volume 1 provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
- B.
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
- C.
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
- D.
Joint Staff
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) CenterExplanation
The correct answer is Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center. This center is responsible for initiating the requirements or deployment sourcing process in the Air Force. They coordinate and manage the deployment of personnel and resources for aerospace expeditionary forces, ensuring that the necessary requirements are met for successful deployments.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force orcapability in place of another service’s core mission?
- A.
Standard unit type code (UTC).
- B.
Joint force/capability.
- C.
In-lieu-of (ILO).
- D.
Ad hoc.
Correct Answer
B. Joint force/capability.Explanation
The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to perform the core mission of another service. It is a collaborative effort where different services work together to achieve a common objective, ensuring that the required capabilities are available even if the original service is unable to provide them. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in joint operations.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and TrainingSystem (SORTS)?
- A.
Training.
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Facility condition
- D.
Equipment condition.
Correct Answer
C. Facility conditionExplanation
SORTS, or Status of Resources and Training System, is a system used to measure and report various areas related to military resources and training. It includes measuring and reporting on personnel, equipment condition, and facility condition. However, training is not an area measured and reported by SORTS.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and SpaceExpeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A.
Training.
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Home station mission.
- D.
Equipment condition
Correct Answer
C. Home station mission.Explanation
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories in order to assess the preparedness of Air and Space forces. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, home station mission is not a readiness category measured by ART. This means that the readiness of Air and Space forces is not evaluated based on their ability to carry out their home station mission.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)reporting is AFI
- A.
10–201.
- B.
10–244.
- C.
10–401.
- D.
10–403.
Correct Answer
B. 10–244.Explanation
The correct answer is 10-244 because it is the only option that is related to the topic of Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting. The other options do not mention anything about this specific tool or reporting. Therefore, 10-244 is the most appropriate choice.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated OperationalCapability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10–201.
- B.
AFI 10–244
- C.
AFI 10–401.
- D.
AFI 10–403.
Correct Answer
A. AFI 10–201.Explanation
AFI 10–201 provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements. This document is likely to outline the requirements and guidelines for developing and submitting DOC statements, as well as any specific procedures or documentation that may be required. It is important for individuals involved in the development and implementation of DOC statements to refer to this document to ensure compliance with the established standards and protocols.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit typecodes (UTC)?
- A.
Pilot Units.
- B.
Joint Planners.
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron.
- D.
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET
Correct Answer
A. Pilot Units.Explanation
Pilot Units are responsible for developing logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit typecodes (UTC). This means that the Pilot Units are in charge of planning and organizing the necessary logistics support to ensure that the unit has the resources and supplies needed to sustain operations for a 30-day period. This responsibility is specific to Pilot Units and not the Joint Planners or the Logistics Readiness Squadron. Additionally, it is not a shared responsibility among units; each unit is individually responsible for building its own LOGDET.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
Force protection
- B.
Airfield operations
- C.
Force accountability.
- D.
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
Correct Answer
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).Explanation
The open the airbase force module is designed to provide initial capabilities for various tasks and operations in an airbase. Force protection is an essential initial capability to ensure the safety and security of the airbase and its personnel. Airfield operations refer to the ability to manage and maintain the airfield for smooth operations. Force accountability is crucial for keeping track of personnel and resources within the module. However, explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) is not an initial capability of the module, as it involves specialized skills and equipment for handling and disposing of explosive devices.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A.
Force protection and logistics
- B.
Intelligence and force protection
- C.
Secure communications and intelligence.
- D.
Secure communications and force accountability.
Correct Answer
C. Secure communications and intelligence.Explanation
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications are essential for transmitting sensitive information and coordinating operations securely. Intelligence is crucial for gathering and analyzing information to make informed decisions and effectively control the situation. Force protection and logistics are important aspects of command and control, but they are not the primary capabilities for establishing control in this module. Force accountability is also important, but it is not mentioned as one of the key capabilities in the given options.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and controlforce module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
Robust the airbase.
- B.
Operate the airbase
- C.
Establish the airbase.
- D.
Generate the mission.
Correct Answer
C. Establish the airbase.Explanation
The correct answer is "Establish the airbase." This force module is responsible for integrating open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities. Its main purpose is to enable the airfield to generate air support in order to successfully accomplish its assigned mission.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force modulearrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
2 days, 7 days.
- B.
2 days, 14 days
- C.
7 days, 14 days
- D.
14 days, 30 days.
Correct Answer
B. 2 days, 14 daysExplanation
The airbase force module is estimated to arrive within 2 days after opening the airbase. The delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 daysafter the deployed location is established?
- A.
Generate the mission.
- B.
Establish the airbase
- C.
Operate the airbase
- D.
Robust the airbase
Correct Answer
D. Robust the airbaseExplanation
The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase." This implies that the process of strengthening or fortifying the airbase with additional support forces takes time and is not immediately available upon establishment.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A.
Scott AFB, IL.
- B.
Travis AFB, CA.
- C.
Peterson AFB, CO.
- D.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
Correct Answer
D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.Explanation
The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location where the Contingency Response Wing headquarters is situated.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
O–4.
- B.
O–5
- C.
O–6.
- D.
O–7.
Correct Answer
C. O–6.Explanation
The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This means that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military. The O-6 pay grade is typically associated with senior officers who have significant leadership responsibilities and extensive experience in their field. As the commander of a Contingency Response Group, the individual would be responsible for overseeing and coordinating the group's operations and ensuring the successful execution of their assigned missions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) isestablished within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
- A.
Command and control
- B.
Operate the airbase
- C.
Robust the airbase.
- D.
Open the airbase
Correct Answer
D. Open the airbaseExplanation
The force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) that is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is "Open the airbase".Rate this question:
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- 18.
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can belocated from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
2 kilometers (km).
- B.
4 km.
- C.
8 km.
- D.
16 km.
Correct Answer
D. 16 km.Explanation
The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy.
- B.
Combat plans.
- C.
Combat support.
- D.
Combat operations.
Correct Answer
C. Combat support.Explanation
Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, strategy, combat plans, and combat operations, are all divisions that are typically found within an Air and Space Operations Center. Combat support, on the other hand, refers to the various support functions provided to combat operations, such as logistics, intelligence, and communications. While combat support is important for the overall success of operations, it is not considered a separate division within the Air and Space Operations Center structure.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
MQ–9 Reaper.
- B.
RQ–11B Raven.
- C.
MQ–1B Predator
- D.
RQ–4B Global Hawk.
Correct Answer
B. RQ–11B Raven.Explanation
The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight, hand-launched surveillance and reconnaissance drone. It is designed for short-range reconnaissance missions and is commonly used by military forces for tactical operations. The other options listed, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems, which are categorized as medium-altitude, long-endurance (MALE) UAS.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3, Cyber Surety
- B.
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems
- C.
3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems
- D.
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
Correct Answer
A. 3D0X3, Cyber SuretyExplanation
The correct answer is 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. This is because the other options listed are all career fields related to engineering installation units, such as Cyber Transport Systems, RF Transmission Systems, and Cable and Antenna Systems. However, Cyber Surety is not directly related to engineering installation units and focuses more on ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hourrapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support intelecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
- B.
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
- C.
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
- D.
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).
Correct Answer
D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).Explanation
The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one mentioned that provides specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis. It also supports a 72-hour rapid response force during a crisis, indicating its role in emergency situations. The other units mentioned do not have the same focus or capabilities as the 85 Engineering Installation Squadron.Rate this question:
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- 23.
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network(AFN) in
- A.
1942.
- B.
1954.
- C.
1988.
- D.
1998.
Correct Answer
D. 1998.Explanation
In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a more streamlined and efficient broadcasting system for the armed forces. It also ensured that all members of the military had access to the same programming and information, regardless of their location. By consolidating the broadcasting affiliates, AFN was able to provide a consistent and reliable source of news, entertainment, and communication for military personnel around the world.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as theapplication of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet projectobjectives?
- A.
MPTO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
MPTO 00–33A–1002.
- C.
MPTO 00–33A–2001.
- D.
MPTO 00–33A–2002.
Correct Answer
A. MPTO 00–33A–1001. -
- 25.
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
Funding, execute, close, and control.
- B.
Plan, execute, monitor, and control.
- C.
Plan, execute, close, and control.
- D.
Plan, control, close, and support.
Correct Answer
C. Plan, execute, close, and control.Explanation
The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." In project management, the first phase is planning, where the project objectives, scope, and deliverables are defined. The second phase is execution, where the project plan is put into action and tasks are completed. The third phase is closure, where the project is finalized, and any remaining tasks or documentation are completed. The final phase is control, where the project progress is monitored, and any necessary adjustments or changes are made to ensure project success.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
Funding
- B.
Technical solution
- C.
Requirements management plan
- D.
Answers, guidance, and education
Correct Answer
D. Answers, guidance, and educationExplanation
In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education. This means that they are responsible for providing information, advice, and support to the team members and stakeholders. They help to clarify any doubts or questions, provide direction and guidance on the project objectives and processes, and educate the team on any necessary skills or knowledge required for the project. This ensures that everyone is on the same page and has a clear understanding of their roles and responsibilities, ultimately setting the project up for success.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capabilitycalled?
- A.
Processes
- B.
Priorities.
- C.
Requirements
- D.
Technical solutions
Correct Answer
C. RequirementsExplanation
Requirements are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability. They outline the specific criteria, functions, and features that the infrastructure must have in order to meet the desired objectives. These requirements serve as the foundation for the design and development of the infrastructure and help ensure that it aligns with the desired goals and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- A.
Cost management plan.
- B.
Allied support plan
- C.
Technical plan.
- D.
Material plan
Correct Answer
A. Cost management plan.Explanation
The correct answer is the Cost management plan. The Project Plan is a document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and schedule of a project. It also includes various management plans, such as the Cost management plan, which defines how costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout the project. The Allied support plan, Technical plan, and Material plan are not typically included in the Project Plan.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
- A.
The status.
- B.
A milestone
- C.
A deliverable
- D.
The final result
Correct Answer
C. A deliverableExplanation
A deliverable is the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It refers to the tangible or intangible item that is produced or provided at the end of a project. This can include documents, reports, software, prototypes, or any other tangible or intangible result that is expected from the project. A deliverable is something that can be measured and evaluated to determine if the project has been successfully completed. It is an essential component of project management and helps to define the scope and objectives of the project.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the projectnot meeting requirement specifications?
- A.
Status request.
- B.
Defect repairs
- C.
Preventive action.
- D.
Corrective action.
Correct Answer
B. Defect repairsExplanation
Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet requirement specifications. When a defect or error is identified in the project, a change request is made to fix the issue and bring the project back in line with the specified requirements. This type of change request focuses specifically on addressing and repairing defects or errors in the project.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of acommunications system?
- A.
AFTO Form 745.
- B.
AFTO Form 747.
- C.
AFTO Form 749.
- D.
AF Form 1747
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 747.Explanation
AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document used in the military to validate the successful installation of a communications system. This form marks the end of a project and serves as a record of the completed installation. It is specifically designed for documenting the completion and acceptance of communication systems in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements aretermed
- A.
Major.
- B.
Minor
- C.
Major and minor
- D.
Major and critical
Correct Answer
A. Major.Explanation
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "major". This means that these exceptions are significant and have a significant impact on the system's ability to meet its operational requirements. Minor exceptions, on the other hand, would have a lesser impact and may not significantly hinder the system's functionality. Major and critical exceptions are not the correct answer because critical exceptions would refer to those that pose a severe threat to the system's operation, whereas major exceptions are significant but not necessarily critical.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly,regardless of the phase?
- A.
Follow-up.
- B.
Controlling.
- C.
Organization.
- D.
Documenting.
Correct Answer
A. Follow-up.Explanation
Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. By regularly following up on tasks and milestones, project managers can identify any issues or deviations from the plan, take corrective actions, and keep the project on track. Follow-up also helps in monitoring the project's progress, maintaining communication with team members, and ensuring that everyone is aligned and accountable for their responsibilities. It allows for timely adjustments and prevents any potential delays or risks from going unnoticed.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Changes are requested during a project using an
- A.
AF Form 1146
- B.
AF Form 1747.
- C.
AFTO Form 46
- D.
AFTO Form 47.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 1146Explanation
The AF Form 1146 is used to request changes during a project. This form is specifically designed for requesting changes and provides a standardized format for documenting the requested changes. The other forms mentioned (AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, AFTO Form 47) are not specifically designed for requesting changes during a project, therefore the AF Form 1146 is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A.
Project monitor
- B.
Project manager
- C.
Communication squadron
- D.
Implementing organization.
Correct Answer
D. Implementing organization.Explanation
The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means they are in charge of actually putting the solution into action and ensuring it is successfully implemented. The project monitor may oversee the implementation process, but they do not actually carry out the implementation themselves. The project manager is responsible for overall project management, but may not have the technical expertise to implement the solution. The communication squadron may be involved in communication aspects of the project, but not necessarily the technical implementation. Therefore, the implementing organization is the most suitable choice for this role.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling programmanagement duties?
- A.
Project monitor
- B.
Project manager
- C.
Program action officer.
- D.
Program action monitor
Correct Answer
C. Program action officer.Explanation
A program action officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. This role involves assisting in the planning, coordination, and execution of program activities, as well as monitoring progress and ensuring that actions are taken to achieve program objectives. The program action officer works closely with the program manager to support the successful implementation of the program.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service lifecycle are service strategy,
- A.
Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement
- B.
Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- C.
Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- D.
Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement
Correct Answer
C. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.Explanation
The correct answer is service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. This answer aligns with the key stages of the ITIL service lifecycle. The service design stage involves designing new or changed services, while the service transition stage focuses on transitioning these services into operation. The service operation stage is responsible for managing the services on a day-to-day basis. Continual service improvement is an ongoing process that aims to improve the quality and efficiency of the services.Rate this question:
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- 38.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine theunderlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processesrequired throughout the Service Life Cycle?
- A.
Service improvement
- B.
Service transition.
- C.
Service strategy
- D.
Service design
Correct Answer
C. Service strategyExplanation
In the Service Strategy stage of the ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on aligning IT services with the overall business strategy and identifying opportunities for improvement. It involves creating a strategy for delivering value to customers and defining the services that will be offered. Therefore, Service Strategy is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create theframework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
- A.
Service design
- B.
Service strategy
- C.
Service transition.
- D.
Service operation
Correct Answer
A. Service designExplanation
In the service design stage of ITIL, the framework is created to ensure that the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment. This stage focuses on designing new services or modifying existing ones to meet the business requirements and objectives. It involves activities such as defining service levels, designing service architecture, and creating service policies and processes. By creating a well-designed framework, organizations can ensure that the service is implemented smoothly and meets the desired outcomes in the live environment.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2 because the question states that engineering support for MAJCOMs (Major Commands) is provided by a Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier. This suggests that there are different tiers or levels of support, and the correct answer is tier 2.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
- A.
AFI 33–115.
- B.
AFI 33–150.
- C.
TO 00–33D–3001.
- D.
TO 00–33D–3004.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33–150. -
- 42.
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supportsenhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- A.
Work orders
- B.
Trouble tickets.
- C.
Infrastructure requirements.
- D.
Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).
Correct Answer
A. Work ordersExplanation
The functional area of "Work orders" in the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order. This means that work orders are used to request and track maintenance tasks that need to be completed within a short timeframe to improve the existing capabilities of the system.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implementusing base level support and resources?
- A.
Organic
- B.
Contract.
- C.
Inorganic.
- D.
Self-Help.
Correct Answer
D. Self-Help.Explanation
The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of utilizing internal capabilities and resources to address and solve problems without relying on external assistance or funding. In this case, the squadron is able to fund their operations and projects by utilizing their own resources and support within the base.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for eachmajor program?
- A.
TO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
TO 00–33D–3003
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- D.
Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).
Correct Answer
B. TO 00–33D–3003Explanation
TO 00–33D–3003 is the correct answer because it is a technical order that provides information on lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. It is likely to contain a comprehensive list of these commands or offices, making it a reliable source for finding this information.Rate this question:
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- 45.
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technicalsolutions?
- A.
Base Communications Systems Officer
- B.
Affected Work Center.
- C.
Base Civil Engineer.
- D.
Project Managers
Correct Answer
C. Base Civil Engineer.Explanation
To review and validate technical solutions, various stakeholders need to be involved, including Base Communications Systems Officer, Affected Work Center, and Project Managers. However, the presence of a Base Civil Engineer is not necessary for this process. The role of a Base Civil Engineer typically involves planning, designing, and managing construction projects, which may not directly relate to reviewing and validating technical solutions. Therefore, their involvement is not required in this specific context.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A.
Requires services from outside agencies
- B.
Mobility (deployment) equipment
- C.
Requires additional manpower
- D.
Requires additional funding
Correct Answer
D. Requires additional fundingExplanation
Requiring additional funding is not a cause for requirements to be considered special because it is a common aspect of many projects or initiatives. Special requirements typically refer to unique or specific needs that go beyond the standard or typical requirements. While additional funding may be necessary for certain projects, it does not inherently make the requirements special or unique.Rate this question:
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- 47.
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept ofoperations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but onlysummarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A.
Concept Plan
- B.
Functional Plan.
- C.
Supporting Plan.
- D.
Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
A. Concept PlanExplanation
A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only provide a summary of the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach rather than the specific details of how to execute the plan logistically.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared insupport of the contingency plans?
- A.
Concept Plan
- B.
Functional Plan.
- C.
Supporting Plan.
- D.
Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
C. Supporting Plan.Explanation
When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. A supporting plan is designed to provide assistance and resources to the main or primary plan. It outlines the specific actions, resources, and strategies that will be used to support the overall mission or objective. In this case, the supporting plan would be developed to provide support to the contingency plans, which are the main plans for addressing potential emergencies or unforeseen events.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on basefunctional area support is placed in the
- A.
Programming Plan (PPLAN).
- B.
Program Action Directive (PAD).
- C.
Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph
- D.
Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).
Correct Answer
C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraphExplanation
The given correct answer is the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because when the instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the OPLAN major paragraph. The OPLAN serves as a comprehensive guide for conducting military operations and includes information on various aspects such as mission, tasks, logistics, and support. Therefore, it is logical to include information on base functional area support within the OPLAN major paragraph when detailed instructions are not provided.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining thecommunications systems under contract during peacetime?
- A.
Special Measures.
- B.
Administration.
- C.
Assumptions.
- D.
Logistics
Correct Answer
D. LogisticsExplanation
The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This area likely covers the logistical aspects of maintaining the communications systems, such as supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and transportation. It would outline the procedures and protocols to ensure that the communication systems remain operational and effective during wartime.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Sep 10, 2016Quiz Created by
Fallon
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