3dx7x Volume 2 Ures

71 Questions | Total Attempts: 748

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3dx7x Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises,determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
    • A. 

      Deliberate planning.

    • B. 

      Crisis action planning.

    • C. 

      Mobilization planning.

    • D. 

      Force rotational planning

  • 2. 
    Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference sourcefor general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
    • A. 

      Volume 1

    • B. 

      Volume 2.

    • C. 

      Volume 3.

    • D. 

      Volume 4.

  • 3. 
    Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
    • A. 

      Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center

    • B. 

      Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).

    • C. 

      Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).

    • D. 

      Joint Staff

  • 4. 
    Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force orcapability in place of another service’s core mission?
    • A. 

      Standard unit type code (UTC).

    • B. 

      Joint force/capability.

    • C. 

      In-lieu-of (ILO).

    • D. 

      Ad hoc.

  • 5. 
    Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and TrainingSystem (SORTS)?
    • A. 

      Training.

    • B. 

      Personnel

    • C. 

      Facility condition

    • D. 

      Equipment condition.

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and SpaceExpeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
    • A. 

      Training.

    • B. 

      Personnel

    • C. 

      Home station mission.

    • D. 

      Equipment condition

  • 7. 
    The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)reporting is AFI
    • A. 

      10–201.

    • B. 

      10–244.

    • C. 

      10–401.

    • D. 

      10–403.

  • 8. 
    Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated OperationalCapability (DOC) statements?
    • A. 

      AFI 10–201.

    • B. 

      AFI 10–244

    • C. 

      AFI 10–401.

    • D. 

      AFI 10–403.

  • 9. 
    Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit typecodes (UTC)?
    • A. 

      Pilot Units.

    • B. 

      Joint Planners.

    • C. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron.

    • D. 

      Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET

  • 10. 
    Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
    • A. 

      Force protection

    • B. 

      Airfield operations

    • C. 

      Force accountability.

    • D. 

      Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

  • 11. 
    The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
    • A. 

      Force protection and logistics

    • B. 

      Intelligence and force protection

    • C. 

      Secure communications and intelligence.

    • D. 

      Secure communications and force accountability.

  • 12. 
    Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and controlforce module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
    • A. 

      Robust the airbase.

    • B. 

      Operate the airbase

    • C. 

      Establish the airbase.

    • D. 

      Generate the mission.

  • 13. 
    Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force modulearrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
    • A. 

      2 days, 7 days.

    • B. 

      2 days, 14 days

    • C. 

      7 days, 14 days

    • D. 

      14 days, 30 days.

  • 14. 
    Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 daysafter the deployed location is established?
    • A. 

      Generate the mission.

    • B. 

      Establish the airbase

    • C. 

      Operate the airbase

    • D. 

      Robust the airbase

  • 15. 
    The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
    • A. 

      Scott AFB, IL.

    • B. 

      Travis AFB, CA.

    • C. 

      Peterson AFB, CO.

    • D. 

      Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

  • 16. 
    What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
    • A. 

      O–4.

    • B. 

      O–5

    • C. 

      O–6.

    • D. 

      O–7.

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Command and control

    • B. 

      Operate the airbase

    • C. 

      Robust the airbase.

    • D. 

      Open the airbase

  • 18. 
    In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can belocated from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
    • A. 

      2 kilometers (km).

    • B. 

      4 km.

    • C. 

      8 km.

    • D. 

      16 km.

  • 19. 
    Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
    • A. 

      Strategy.

    • B. 

      Combat plans.

    • C. 

      Combat support.

    • D. 

      Combat operations.

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
    • A. 

      MQ–9 Reaper.

    • B. 

      RQ–11B Raven.

    • C. 

      MQ–1B Predator

    • D. 

      RQ–4B Global Hawk.

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
    • A. 

      3D0X3, Cyber Surety

    • B. 

      3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems

    • C. 

      3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems

    • D. 

      3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.

  • 22. 
    Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hourrapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support intelecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
    • A. 

      38 Engineering Squadron (ES).

    • B. 

      38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).

    • C. 

      38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).

    • D. 

      85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

  • 23. 
    All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network(AFN) in
    • A. 

      1942.

    • B. 

      1954.

    • C. 

      1988.

    • D. 

      1998.

  • 24. 
    What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as theapplication of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet projectobjectives?
    • A. 

      MPTO 00–33A–1001.

    • B. 

      MPTO 00–33A–1002.

    • C. 

      MPTO 00–33A–2001.

    • D. 

      MPTO 00–33A–2002.

  • 25. 
    The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
    • A. 

      Funding, execute, close, and control.

    • B. 

      Plan, execute, monitor, and control.

    • C. 

      Plan, execute, close, and control.

    • D. 

      Plan, control, close, and support.

  • 26. 
    What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
    • A. 

      Funding

    • B. 

      Technical solution

    • C. 

      Requirements management plan

    • D. 

      Answers, guidance, and education

  • 27. 
    What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capabilitycalled? 
    • A. 

      Processes

    • B. 

      Priorities.

    • C. 

      Requirements

    • D. 

      Technical solutions

  • 28. 
    Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
    • A. 

      Cost management plan.

    • B. 

      Allied support plan

    • C. 

      Technical plan.

    • D. 

      Material plan

  • 29. 
    The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
    • A. 

      The status.

    • B. 

      A milestone

    • C. 

      A deliverable

    • D. 

      The final result

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the projectnot meeting requirement specifications?
    • A. 

      Status request.

    • B. 

      Defect repairs

    • C. 

      Preventive action.

    • D. 

      Corrective action.

  • 31. 
    What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of acommunications system?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 745.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 747.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 749.

    • D. 

      AF Form 1747

  • 32. 
    Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements aretermed
    • A. 

      Major.

    • B. 

      Minor

    • C. 

      Major and minor

    • D. 

      Major and critical

  • 33. 
    What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly,regardless of the phase?
    • A. 

      Follow-up.

    • B. 

      Controlling.

    • C. 

      Organization.

    • D. 

      Documenting.

  • 34. 
    Changes are requested during a project using an
    • A. 

      AF Form 1146

    • B. 

      AF Form 1747.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 46

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 47.

  • 35. 
    Who implements a technical solution for a base?
    • A. 

      Project monitor

    • B. 

      Project manager

    • C. 

      Communication squadron

    • D. 

      Implementing organization.

  • 36. 
    What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling programmanagement duties?
    • A. 

      Project monitor

    • B. 

      Project manager

    • C. 

      Program action officer.

    • D. 

      Program action monitor

  • 37. 
    The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service lifecycle are service strategy,
    • A. 

      Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement

    • B. 

      Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.

    • C. 

      Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.

    • D. 

      Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement

  • 38. 
    In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine theunderlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processesrequired throughout the Service Life Cycle?
    • A. 

      Service improvement

    • B. 

      Service transition.

    • C. 

      Service strategy

    • D. 

      Service design

  • 39. 
    In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create theframework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
    • A. 

      Service design

    • B. 

      Service strategy

    • C. 

      Service transition.

    • D. 

      Service operation

  • 40. 
    Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 41. 
    Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
    • A. 

      AFI 33–115.

    • B. 

      AFI 33–150.

    • C. 

      TO 00–33D–3001.

    • D. 

      TO 00–33D–3004.

  • 42. 
    Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supportsenhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
    • A. 

      Work orders

    • B. 

      Trouble tickets.

    • C. 

      Infrastructure requirements.

    • D. 

      Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).

  • 43. 
    Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implementusing base level support and resources?
    • A. 

      Organic

    • B. 

      Contract.

    • C. 

      Inorganic.

    • D. 

      Self-Help.

  • 44. 
    Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for eachmajor program?
    • A. 

      TO 00–33A–1001.

    • B. 

      TO 00–33D–3003

    • C. 

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

    • D. 

      Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).

  • 45. 
    As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technicalsolutions?
    • A. 

      Base Communications Systems Officer

    • B. 

      Affected Work Center.

    • C. 

      Base Civil Engineer.

    • D. 

      Project Managers

  • 46. 
    Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
    • A. 

      Requires services from outside agencies

    • B. 

      Mobility (deployment) equipment

    • C. 

      Requires additional manpower

    • D. 

      Requires additional funding

  • 47. 
    In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept ofoperations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but onlysummarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
    • A. 

      Concept Plan

    • B. 

      Functional Plan.

    • C. 

      Supporting Plan.

    • D. 

      Operational Plan.

  • 48. 
    When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared insupport of the contingency plans?
    • A. 

      Concept Plan

    • B. 

      Functional Plan.

    • C. 

      Supporting Plan.

    • D. 

      Operational Plan.

  • 49. 
    If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on basefunctional area support is placed in the
    • A. 

      Programming Plan (PPLAN).

    • B. 

      Program Action Directive (PAD).

    • C. 

      Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph

    • D. 

      Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).

  • 50. 
    What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining thecommunications systems under contract during peacetime?
    • A. 

      Special Measures.

    • B. 

      Administration.

    • C. 

      Assumptions.

    • D. 

      Logistics

  • 51. 
    Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including newconstruction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?
    • A. 

      Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum

    • B. 

      Facilities Utilization Board.

    • C. 

      Mission Briefings

    • D. 

      Informal Meeting.

  • 52. 
    The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for
    • A. 

      Safety modifications

    • B. 

      T–1 temporary modifications.

    • C. 

      T–2 temporary modifications

    • D. 

      All temporary and permanent modifications

  • 53. 
    Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance,operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?
    • A. 

      Safety modifications.

    • B. 

      T–1 temporary modification

    • C. 

      T–2 temporary modification

    • D. 

      All temporary and permanent modifications

  • 54. 
    Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?
    • A. 

      Request for action and organization validation.

    • B. 

      Using command and lead command validation

    • C. 

      Work center manager certification and approval.

    • D. 

      Program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution.

  • 55. 
    Support agreements are documented on
    • A. 

      AF Form 1067.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1067.

    • C. 

      AF Form 1144

    • D. 

      DD Form 1144.

  • 56. 
    As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date? 
    • A. 

      6 months.

    • B. 

      1 year.

    • C. 

      2 years.

    • D. 

      3 years.

  • 57. 
    Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation ofthe Competition in Contracting Act?
    • A. 

      Unusual or compelling urgency

    • B. 

      Unit commander’s interest

    • C. 

      National security interests

    • D. 

      Sole Source

  • 58. 
    Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirementfor a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 besubmitted to the Base Contracting Office?
    • A. 

      10 calendar days.

    • B. 

      30 calendar days.

    • C. 

      35 calendar days.

    • D. 

      50 calendar days.

  • 59. 
    Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specifiedfixed hourly rates?
    • A. 

      Sole Source

    • B. 

      Firm Fixed Price

    • C. 

      Time and Material

    • D. 

      Performance Based.

  • 60. 
    Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate theextent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?
    • A. 

      Sole Source

    • B. 

      Firm Fixed Price

    • C. 

      Time and Material.

    • D. 

      Performance Based.

  • 61. 
    Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy therequirement for supplies or services?
    • A. 

      Sole Source

    • B. 

      Firm Fixed Price

    • C. 

      Time and Material

    • D. 

      Performance Based.

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs forsupplies or services by establishing “charge accounts” with qualified sources of supply?
    • A. 

      Sole Source.

    • B. 

      Time and Material

    • C. 

      Indefinite Delivery

    • D. 

      Blanket Purchase Agreement.

  • 63. 
    Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation’s contract QualityAssurance Program?
    • A. 

      Contracting Officer Representative

    • B. 

      Functional Director/Commander

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance Evaluator.

    • D. 

      Contracting Office.

  • 64. 
    Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary andalternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?
    • A. 

      Contracting Officer Representative

    • B. 

      Functional Director/Commander

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance Evaluator

    • D. 

      Contracting Office.

  • 65. 
    Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel andfunctional directors/commanders?
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance Program Coordinator

    • B. 

      Contracting Officer Representative

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance Evaluator

    • D. 

      Unit Contract Monitor.

  • 66. 
    Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base CivilEngineering (CE) support?
    • A. 

      Facility Manager

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance Evaluator

    • C. 

      Functional Director/Commander

    • D. 

      Unit plans, planning, and agreements section

  • 67. 
    What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review andapproval if major or minor construction is required?
    • A. 

      AF Form 332.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1146

    • C. 

      DD Form 1144

    • D. 

      DD Form 1391.

  • 68. 
    Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization andappropriation are required for what type of construction projects?
    • A. 

      Major Construction

    • B. 

      Minor Construction

    • C. 

      All military construction

    • D. 

      None, construction projects do not require authorization and appropriation

  • 69. 
    The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance(O&M) funds is
    • A. 

      $750 thousand (K).

    • B. 

      $1 million (M).

    • C. 

      $1.5 M.

    • D. 

      $5 M.

  • 70. 
    Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meetsapplicable standards?
    • A. 

      Base Civil Engineering.

    • B. 

      Gaining Work Center

    • C. 

      Contracting Office

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance

  • 71. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4