3DX7X Volume 2 UREs

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1. What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

Explanation

The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This means that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military. The O-6 pay grade is typically associated with senior officers who have significant leadership responsibilities and extensive experience in their field. As the commander of a Contingency Response Group, the individual would be responsible for overseeing and coordinating the group's operations and ensuring the successful execution of their assigned missions.

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About This Quiz
Deployment Planning Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled '3DX7X Volume 2 UREs', assesses knowledge in military deployment planning, including crisis response, mobilization policies, and tasking processes. It is essential for personnel involved in... see morestrategic and operational planning in the Air Force. see less

2. Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. This is because the other options listed are all career fields related to engineering installation units, such as Cyber Transport Systems, RF Transmission Systems, and Cable and Antenna Systems. However, Cyber Surety is not directly related to engineering installation units and focuses more on ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks.

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3. The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location where the Contingency Response Wing headquarters is situated.

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4. Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

Explanation

The open the airbase force module is designed to provide initial capabilities for various tasks and operations in an airbase. Force protection is an essential initial capability to ensure the safety and security of the airbase and its personnel. Airfield operations refer to the ability to manage and maintain the airfield for smooth operations. Force accountability is crucial for keeping track of personnel and resources within the module. However, explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) is not an initial capability of the module, as it involves specialized skills and equipment for handling and disposing of explosive devices.

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5. The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as

Explanation

A deliverable is the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It refers to the tangible or intangible item that is produced or provided at the end of a project. This can include documents, reports, software, prototypes, or any other tangible or intangible result that is expected from the project. A deliverable is something that can be measured and evaluated to determine if the project has been successfully completed. It is an essential component of project management and helps to define the scope and objectives of the project.

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6. Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center. This center is responsible for initiating the requirements or deployment sourcing process in the Air Force. They coordinate and manage the deployment of personnel and resources for aerospace expeditionary forces, ensuring that the necessary requirements are met for successful deployments.

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7. The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are

Explanation

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications are essential for transmitting sensitive information and coordinating operations securely. Intelligence is crucial for gathering and analyzing information to make informed decisions and effectively control the situation. Force protection and logistics are important aspects of command and control, but they are not the primary capabilities for establishing control in this module. Force accountability is also important, but it is not mentioned as one of the key capabilities in the given options.

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8. Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

Explanation

The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight, hand-launched surveillance and reconnaissance drone. It is designed for short-range reconnaissance missions and is commonly used by military forces for tactical operations. The other options listed, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems, which are categorized as medium-altitude, long-endurance (MALE) UAS.

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9. Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force orcapability in place of another service's core mission?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to perform the core mission of another service. It is a collaborative effort where different services work together to achieve a common objective, ensuring that the required capabilities are available even if the original service is unable to provide them. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in joint operations.

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10. Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and TrainingSystem (SORTS)?

Explanation

SORTS, or Status of Resources and Training System, is a system used to measure and report various areas related to military resources and training. It includes measuring and reporting on personnel, equipment condition, and facility condition. However, training is not an area measured and reported by SORTS.

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11. Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and SpaceExpeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories in order to assess the preparedness of Air and Space forces. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, home station mission is not a readiness category measured by ART. This means that the readiness of Air and Space forces is not evaluated based on their ability to carry out their home station mission.

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12. Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hourrapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support intelecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

Explanation

The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one mentioned that provides specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis. It also supports a 72-hour rapid response force during a crisis, indicating its role in emergency situations. The other units mentioned do not have the same focus or capabilities as the 85 Engineering Installation Squadron.

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13. Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy therequirement for supplies or services?

Explanation

When there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services, a sole source contract is permissible. This means that there is no competition for the contract as there is only one supplier or provider that can meet the specific requirements. Sole source contracts are typically used when there is a unique product or service that only one company can provide, or when there are exceptional circumstances that require a specific supplier or provider to be chosen.

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14. Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises,determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

Explanation

Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is comprehensive and proactive, allowing for effective preparation and response to potential crises or conflicts. Crisis action planning focuses on immediate response to unforeseen events, mobilization planning is specific to the activation and deployment of military forces, and force rotational planning is related to the rotation of forces in and out of a specific area of operations.

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15. In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can belocated from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

Explanation

The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.

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16. All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network(AFN) in

Explanation

In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a more streamlined and efficient broadcasting system for the armed forces. It also ensured that all members of the military had access to the same programming and information, regardless of their location. By consolidating the broadcasting affiliates, AFN was able to provide a consistent and reliable source of news, entertainment, and communication for military personnel around the world.

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17. What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?

Explanation

In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education. This means that they are responsible for providing information, advice, and support to the team members and stakeholders. They help to clarify any doubts or questions, provide direction and guidance on the project objectives and processes, and educate the team on any necessary skills or knowledge required for the project. This ensures that everyone is on the same page and has a clear understanding of their roles and responsibilities, ultimately setting the project up for success.

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18. Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit typecodes (UTC)?

Explanation

Pilot Units are responsible for developing logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit typecodes (UTC). This means that the Pilot Units are in charge of planning and organizing the necessary logistics support to ensure that the unit has the resources and supplies needed to sustain operations for a 30-day period. This responsibility is specific to Pilot Units and not the Joint Planners or the Logistics Readiness Squadron. Additionally, it is not a shared responsibility among units; each unit is individually responsible for building its own LOGDET.

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19. Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force modulearrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

Explanation

The airbase force module is estimated to arrive within 2 days after opening the airbase. The delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.

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20. What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capabilitycalled? 

Explanation

Requirements are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability. They outline the specific criteria, functions, and features that the infrastructure must have in order to meet the desired objectives. These requirements serve as the foundation for the design and development of the infrastructure and help ensure that it aligns with the desired goals and objectives.

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21. Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supportsenhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?

Explanation

The functional area of "Work orders" in the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order. This means that work orders are used to request and track maintenance tasks that need to be completed within a short timeframe to improve the existing capabilities of the system.

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22. Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs forsupplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply?

Explanation

A Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply. It allows the buyer to make multiple purchases over a period of time, usually a year, with predetermined terms and conditions. This streamlines the procurement process by eliminating the need for repetitive negotiations and paperwork for each individual purchase.

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23. Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meetsapplicable standards?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards.

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24. What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly,regardless of the phase?

Explanation

Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. By regularly following up on tasks and milestones, project managers can identify any issues or deviations from the plan, take corrective actions, and keep the project on track. Follow-up also helps in monitoring the project's progress, maintaining communication with team members, and ensuring that everyone is aligned and accountable for their responsibilities. It allows for timely adjustments and prevents any potential delays or risks from going unnoticed.

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25. Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implementusing base level support and resources?

Explanation

The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of utilizing internal capabilities and resources to address and solve problems without relying on external assistance or funding. In this case, the squadron is able to fund their operations and projects by utilizing their own resources and support within the base.

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26. Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

Explanation

Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, strategy, combat plans, and combat operations, are all divisions that are typically found within an Air and Space Operations Center. Combat support, on the other hand, refers to the various support functions provided to combat operations, such as logistics, intelligence, and communications. While combat support is important for the overall success of operations, it is not considered a separate division within the Air and Space Operations Center structure.

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27. Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements aretermed

Explanation

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "major". This means that these exceptions are significant and have a significant impact on the system's ability to meet its operational requirements. Minor exceptions, on the other hand, would have a lesser impact and may not significantly hinder the system's functionality. Major and critical exceptions are not the correct answer because critical exceptions would refer to those that pose a severe threat to the system's operation, whereas major exceptions are significant but not necessarily critical.

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28. If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on basefunctional area support is placed in the

Explanation

The given correct answer is the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because when the instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the OPLAN major paragraph. The OPLAN serves as a comprehensive guide for conducting military operations and includes information on various aspects such as mission, tasks, logistics, and support. Therefore, it is logical to include information on base functional area support within the OPLAN major paragraph when detailed instructions are not provided.

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29. Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 daysafter the deployed location is established?

Explanation

The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase." This implies that the process of strengthening or fortifying the airbase with additional support forces takes time and is not immediately available upon establishment.

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30. Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Cost management plan. The Project Plan is a document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and schedule of a project. It also includes various management plans, such as the Cost management plan, which defines how costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout the project. The Allied support plan, Technical plan, and Material plan are not typically included in the Project Plan.

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31. What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of acommunications system?

Explanation

AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document used in the military to validate the successful installation of a communications system. This form marks the end of a project and serves as a record of the completed installation. It is specifically designed for documenting the completion and acceptance of communication systems in the Air Force.

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32. What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling programmanagement duties?

Explanation

A program action officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. This role involves assisting in the planning, coordination, and execution of program activities, as well as monitoring progress and ensuring that actions are taken to achieve program objectives. The program action officer works closely with the program manager to support the successful implementation of the program.

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33. When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared insupport of the contingency plans?

Explanation

When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. A supporting plan is designed to provide assistance and resources to the main or primary plan. It outlines the specific actions, resources, and strategies that will be used to support the overall mission or objective. In this case, the supporting plan would be developed to provide support to the contingency plans, which are the main plans for addressing potential emergencies or unforeseen events.

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34. Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specifiedfixed hourly rates?

Explanation

A Time and Material contract is a type of contract that acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates. This type of contract is commonly used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is not possible to accurately estimate the total cost of the project. It allows for flexibility in terms of the quantity of work to be performed and the associated costs. The contractor is paid based on the actual hours worked and the materials used, ensuring that the government only pays for the actual work performed.

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35. What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as theapplication of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet projectobjectives?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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36. The five phases of Project Management are initiate,

Explanation

The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." In project management, the first phase is planning, where the project objectives, scope, and deliverables are defined. The second phase is execution, where the project plan is put into action and tasks are completed. The third phase is closure, where the project is finalized, and any remaining tasks or documentation are completed. The final phase is control, where the project progress is monitored, and any necessary adjustments or changes are made to ensure project success.

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37. Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation ofthe Competition in Contracting Act?

Explanation

The unit commander's interest is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act. This means that even if the unit commander has a personal interest or preference, it does not justify bypassing the requirement for fair and open competition in the contracting process. The Act aims to promote fair competition and ensure that contracts are awarded based on merit and value for money.

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38. Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference sourcefor general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

Explanation

Volume 1 provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.

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39. Who implements a technical solution for a base?

Explanation

The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means they are in charge of actually putting the solution into action and ensuring it is successfully implemented. The project monitor may oversee the implementation process, but they do not actually carry out the implementation themselves. The project manager is responsible for overall project management, but may not have the technical expertise to implement the solution. The communication squadron may be involved in communication aspects of the project, but not necessarily the technical implementation. Therefore, the implementing organization is the most suitable choice for this role.

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40. Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

Explanation

Requiring additional funding is not a cause for requirements to be considered special because it is a common aspect of many projects or initiatives. Special requirements typically refer to unique or specific needs that go beyond the standard or typical requirements. While additional funding may be necessary for certain projects, it does not inherently make the requirements special or unique.

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41. What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining thecommunications systems under contract during peacetime?

Explanation

The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This area likely covers the logistical aspects of maintaining the communications systems, such as supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and transportation. It would outline the procedures and protocols to ensure that the communication systems remain operational and effective during wartime.

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42. Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including newconstruction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?

Explanation

The Facilities Utilization Board is the type of planning meeting that identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations. This board is responsible for making decisions and recommendations regarding the utilization and allocation of facilities within an organization. They assess the need for new construction or renovations, evaluate the feasibility of demolitions, and determine the best course of action for relocating organizations.

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43. As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date? 

Explanation

A support agreement should be reviewed at least once every three years after its effective date. This ensures that the agreement remains up to date and relevant to the current needs and circumstances of both parties involved. Regular reviews help identify any necessary updates or changes that may be required to ensure the agreement continues to meet the expectations and requirements of both parties.

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44. Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the projectnot meeting requirement specifications?

Explanation

Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet requirement specifications. When a defect or error is identified in the project, a change request is made to fix the issue and bring the project back in line with the specified requirements. This type of change request focuses specifically on addressing and repairing defects or errors in the project.

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45. The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service lifecycle are service strategy,

Explanation

The correct answer is service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. This answer aligns with the key stages of the ITIL service lifecycle. The service design stage involves designing new or changed services, while the service transition stage focuses on transitioning these services into operation. The service operation stage is responsible for managing the services on a day-to-day basis. Continual service improvement is an ongoing process that aims to improve the quality and efficiency of the services.

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46. Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because the question states that engineering support for MAJCOMs (Major Commands) is provided by a Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier. This suggests that there are different tiers or levels of support, and the correct answer is tier 2.

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47. Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirementfor a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 besubmitted to the Base Contracting Office?

Explanation

A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to gather all necessary information and documentation related to the contract, ensuring that the contracting office has all the required details to proceed with the contract.

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48. Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated OperationalCapability (DOC) statements?

Explanation

AFI 10–201 provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements. This document is likely to outline the requirements and guidelines for developing and submitting DOC statements, as well as any specific procedures or documentation that may be required. It is important for individuals involved in the development and implementation of DOC statements to refer to this document to ensure compliance with the established standards and protocols.

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49. Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization andappropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

Explanation

All military construction projects require authorization and appropriation from the Secretary of Defense and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees. This means that any construction projects related to the military, regardless of their scale or significance, must go through this process in order to receive the necessary funding and approval.

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50. As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technicalsolutions?

Explanation

To review and validate technical solutions, various stakeholders need to be involved, including Base Communications Systems Officer, Affected Work Center, and Project Managers. However, the presence of a Base Civil Engineer is not necessary for this process. The role of a Base Civil Engineer typically involves planning, designing, and managing construction projects, which may not directly relate to reviewing and validating technical solutions. Therefore, their involvement is not required in this specific context.

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51. The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for

Explanation

The AF Form 1067 is a document that is used to define, validate, and approve requirements for modifications. These modifications can be either temporary or permanent in nature. Therefore, the correct answer is that the AF Form 1067 is used for all temporary and permanent modifications.

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52. Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base CivilEngineering (CE) support?

Explanation

The unit plans, planning, and agreements section acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support. This section is responsible for coordinating and managing the planning and design process within the unit, as well as ensuring that all necessary agreements and plans are in place for CE support. They work closely with the Facility Manager, Quality Assurance Evaluator, and Functional Director/Commander to ensure that the unit's design needs are met and that CE support is obtained when necessary.

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53. Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel andfunctional directors/commanders?

Explanation

The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders. This role ensures that the QA personnel and directors/commanders have the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their responsibilities effectively. The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator coordinates and oversees the training programs, ensuring that they meet the needs of the organization and comply with relevant standards and regulations. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the QA personnel and directors/commanders are well-trained and equipped to maintain and improve the quality of products or services.

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54. In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept ofoperations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but onlysummarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

Explanation

A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only provide a summary of the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach rather than the specific details of how to execute the plan logistically.

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55. The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance(O&M) funds is

Explanation

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is $1.5 million (M). This means that any construction project with a cost below $1.5 million can be considered a minor construction project and does not require the use of O&M funds.

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56. The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)reporting is AFI

Explanation

The correct answer is 10-244 because it is the only option that is related to the topic of Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting. The other options do not mention anything about this specific tool or reporting. Therefore, 10-244 is the most appropriate choice.

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57. Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?

Explanation

The work center manager certification and approval is not a step required in the modification proposal process. The other three options, which include requesting for action and organization validation, using command and lead command validation, and program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution, are all necessary steps in the process.

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58. Changes are requested during a project using an

Explanation

The AF Form 1146 is used to request changes during a project. This form is specifically designed for requesting changes and provides a standardized format for documenting the requested changes. The other forms mentioned (AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, AFTO Form 47) are not specifically designed for requesting changes during a project, therefore the AF Form 1146 is the correct answer.

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59. Which one do you like?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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60. Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate theextent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?

Explanation

The correct answer is Time and Material. This type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy. Time and Material contracts are commonly used in situations where the scope of work is uncertain or where there is a need for flexibility in terms of time and resources. This type of contract allows for the payment of labor and materials based on actual hours worked and materials used, with an agreed-upon hourly rate and materials cost.

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61. Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance,operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?

Explanation

T-2 temporary modification evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel capabilities. This type of modification is specifically designed to be temporary and is used to assess the performance and suitability of the materiel before permanent modifications are made.

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62. Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and controlforce module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Establish the airbase." This force module is responsible for integrating open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities. Its main purpose is to enable the airfield to generate air support in order to successfully accomplish its assigned mission.

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63. Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary andalternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?

Explanation

The Functional Director/Commander is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR). This individual has the authority and knowledge to select individuals who have the necessary expertise and qualifications to effectively oversee and manage contracts within their respective functional areas.

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64. In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine theunderlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processesrequired throughout the Service Life Cycle?

Explanation

In the Service Strategy stage of the ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on aligning IT services with the overall business strategy and identifying opportunities for improvement. It involves creating a strategy for delivering value to customers and defining the services that will be offered. Therefore, Service Strategy is the correct answer.

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65. Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for eachmajor program?

Explanation

TO 00–33D–3003 is the correct answer because it is a technical order that provides information on lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. It is likely to contain a comprehensive list of these commands or offices, making it a reliable source for finding this information.

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66. Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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67. Support agreements are documented on

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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68. In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create theframework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?

Explanation

In the service design stage of ITIL, the framework is created to ensure that the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment. This stage focuses on designing new services or modifying existing ones to meet the business requirements and objectives. It involves activities such as defining service levels, designing service architecture, and creating service policies and processes. By creating a well-designed framework, organizations can ensure that the service is implemented smoothly and meets the desired outcomes in the live environment.

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69. What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review andapproval if major or minor construction is required?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering (CE) must prepare and forward the DD Form 1391 to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required. The DD Form 1391 is the document used to request authorization and funding for military construction projects. It provides detailed information about the project, including the purpose, scope, cost estimate, and justification. This form is essential for obtaining the necessary approvals and funding for construction projects in the military.

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70. Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract QualityAssurance Program?

Explanation

The contracting office is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program. This includes ensuring that the program meets all contractual requirements and that the contractors are performing according to the agreed-upon standards. The contracting office oversees the entire contract process, from solicitation to award and administration, making them the appropriate entity to handle the Quality Assurance Program.

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71. Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) isestablished within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?

Explanation

The force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) that is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is "Open the airbase".

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What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response...
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering...
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force...
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to...
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and...
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial...
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service...
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of...
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and...
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned...
Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable...
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to...
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an...
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American...
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of...
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the...
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace...
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area...
Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated...
Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an...
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project...
Which of the following funding options does the local communications...
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified...
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex,...
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not...
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful...
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager...
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is...
Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct...
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project...
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open...
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated...
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be...
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for...
Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects...
As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its...
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a...
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure...
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems...
Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched,...
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on...
Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees...
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and...
The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving...
Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or...
Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA)...
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation,...
The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using...
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting...
Which of the following is not a step required in the modification...
Changes are requested during a project using an
Which one do you like?
Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to...
Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the...
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and...
Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional...
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do...
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices...
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning...
Support agreements are documented on
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do...
What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM...
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's...
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications...
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