3DX7X Volume 2 Cyberspace Support Craftsman: Quiz!

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1. Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

Explanation

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About This Quiz
3DX7X Volume 2 Cyberspace Support Craftsman: Quiz! - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in cyberspace support within the Air Force, focusing on deployment planning, mobilization policies, and readiness reporting. It is designed for craftsmen to evaluate their... see moreunderstanding of strategic responses and readiness in potential crises. see less

2. What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

Explanation

The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6.

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3. Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

Explanation

The open the airbase force module has various initial capabilities, including force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability. However, explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) is not one of the initial capabilities of this module. EOD involves the detection, identification, and disposal of explosive devices, which is a specialized skill set that falls outside the scope of the open the airbase force module's initial capabilities.

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4. Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

Explanation

The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process. This center is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources. They ensure that the necessary personnel and equipment are available for deployment and coordinate with other units and agencies to meet deployment requirements. The AFPC AEF Center plays a crucial role in the overall deployment process and is responsible for initiating the sourcing of requirements.

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5. Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories such as training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the readiness category that is not measured by ART is the home station mission. This means that ART does not assess the readiness of the mission being conducted at the home station.

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6. The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

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7. Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

Explanation

The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and portable drone that is used for short-range surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployed and operated by a small team of soldiers or operators. The MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk are larger and more advanced UASs that are used for long-range and high-altitude missions, making them not categorized as small UASs.

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8. All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

Explanation

In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger was a significant step in consolidating the various broadcasting entities within the armed forces, allowing for better coordination and efficiency in delivering news, entertainment, and information to military personnel stationed around the world. This merger likely aimed to streamline operations, reduce costs, and improve the overall quality and reach of the broadcasting services provided to the armed forces.

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9. The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as

Explanation

The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as a deliverable. A deliverable is a tangible or intangible item that is produced or provided as a result of completing a project. It can be a document, a software system, a physical product, or any other measurable outcome. Deliverables are typically defined and agreed upon at the beginning of a project and serve as the basis for project planning and execution. They are essential for assessing project progress and ensuring that the project meets its objectives.

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10. Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

Explanation

SORTS measures and reports on the status of resources and training in various areas. This includes personnel, equipment condition, and training. However, facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS.

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11. Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?

Explanation

When there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services, a sole source contract is permissible. This means that the contract is awarded to a single supplier or contractor without competition from other potential vendors. This can occur when the supplies or services are unique or specialized, or when there is a specific reason that limits the pool of available vendors. In a sole source contract, the terms and conditions are negotiated directly with the supplier or contractor.

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12. Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

Explanation

The 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS) is the correct answer because it is the only Engineering Installation (EI) unit mentioned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during a crisis. This unit provides specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis, indicating its role in emergency situations and its expertise in these specific areas.

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13. Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

Explanation

Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is done in advance and is based on careful analysis and consideration of various factors, such as the mission, resources, and potential risks. It helps ensure that the necessary preparations and actions are taken to effectively respond to potential crises and achieve the desired objectives.

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14. The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are

Explanation

The Command and Control module requires secure communications to ensure that information is transmitted accurately and efficiently between different units and levels of command. Intelligence is also crucial for establishing control as it provides commanders with the necessary information about the enemy, the environment, and their own forces to make informed decisions. By having secure communications and intelligence, commanders can effectively establish control over their forces and make strategic decisions based on accurate and timely information.

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15. In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

Explanation

The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.

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16. Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. This department is typically in charge of maintaining and managing the physical infrastructure of an installation, including buildings, utilities, and other facilities. They are responsible for conducting regular inspections to ensure that all real property meets safety, quality, and regulatory standards.

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17. What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

Explanation

The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the specific functionalities, features, and performance criteria that a cyberspace infrastructure capability must have in order to meet the needs and objectives of an organization or system. These documents serve as a guide for designing, developing, and implementing the necessary technical solutions and processes to fulfill the requirements. Priorities, on the other hand, refer to the order or ranking of importance of different requirements, while technical solutions are the actual tools, technologies, or systems used to meet the requirements.

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18. Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to perform another service's core mission. This means that one service is substituting for another service to fulfill a specific task or mission. This can occur in situations where one service may not have the necessary resources or capabilities to complete a mission, so another service steps in to provide support.

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19. Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?

Explanation

Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC).

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20. Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?

Explanation

The force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) that is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is Command and control.

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21. Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order

Explanation

The Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order is work orders. Work orders are used to request and track maintenance tasks and are typically used for smaller-scale enhancements that can be completed within a short timeframe.

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22. Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

Explanation

The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase". This means that after the airbase has been established and is operational, additional support forces will be brought in to strengthen and enhance its capabilities. These support forces may include personnel, equipment, supplies, or any other resources that are needed to ensure the airbase is fully functional and able to sustain operations for an extended period of time.

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23. What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?

Explanation

In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education. This means that the project manager is responsible for providing information, advice, and training to the team members and stakeholders involved in the project. This helps to ensure that everyone has a clear understanding of the project goals, objectives, and processes. By providing answers, guidance, and education, the project manager sets the foundation for a successful project by ensuring that everyone is on the same page and has the necessary knowledge and skills to contribute effectively.

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24. What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

Explanation

AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document that is used to mark the end of a project and validate the successful installation of a communications system. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is used by the Air Force to ensure that all necessary steps have been taken and all requirements have been met before considering a project complete. It serves as a formal record of the completion and success of the installation process.

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25. Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed

Explanation

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed major. This means that there are certain issues or problems that are significant enough to impact the overall functioning and performance of the system. These exceptions are not minor or insignificant, but rather have a major impact on the system's ability to meet its intended operational requirements.

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26. What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?

Explanation

Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. Follow-up involves regularly checking on the status of tasks, monitoring progress, and addressing any issues or roadblocks that may arise. It helps to keep the project on track, identify potential problems early on, and take corrective actions as needed. Without proper follow-up, it is difficult to ensure that the project is moving forward as planned and that all necessary actions are being taken to achieve the desired outcomes.

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27. Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply?

Explanation

A Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply. It allows government agencies to set up accounts with specific vendors to purchase goods or services as needed, without the need for individual contracts for each purchase. This streamlines the procurement process and provides flexibility for agencies to meet their ongoing needs. A BPA is typically used when there is a recurring need for certain items or services, and it helps to establish long-term relationships with vendors.

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28. Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

Explanation

The airbase force module arrives within 2 days after opening the airbase. The delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.

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29. Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

Explanation

Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, Strategy, Combat plans, and Combat operations, are all divisions that are typically found within an Air and Space Operations Center. Combat support refers to the logistical and administrative support provided to combat operations, rather than being a separate division within the operations center itself.

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30. Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?

Explanation

The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of using internal resources and personnel to accomplish tasks or projects without relying on external assistance or funding. This option allows the squadron to utilize their own resources and expertise to fund and support their communication needs, rather than relying on outside contracts or assistance.

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31. Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Cost Management Plan. The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines all the necessary components and details of a project. It includes various plans such as the scope management plan, schedule management plan, and cost management plan. The cost management plan specifically focuses on how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled. It outlines the processes, tools, and techniques that will be used to manage costs throughout the project's lifecycle.

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32. Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?

Explanation

The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because this type of planning meeting specifically focuses on identifying civil engineering projects such as new construction, renovations, demolitions, and relocations of organizations. The other options, Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum, Mission Briefings, and Informal Meeting, do not specifically address civil engineering projects or facilities planning.

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33. Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

Explanation

All military construction projects require authorization and appropriation from the Secretary of Defense and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees. This means that any construction project related to the military, regardless of its scale or significance, must go through the process of obtaining approval and funding from these entities. This ensures that proper oversight and decision-making are in place for military construction endeavors.

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34. When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?

Explanation

When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. This plan is designed to provide specific support and resources to the main operational plan. It outlines the actions, capabilities, and resources needed to support the overall mission and ensure its success. The supporting plan focuses on logistics, intelligence, communications, and other support functions that are crucial for the execution of the operational plan.

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35. If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the

Explanation

The correct answer is Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. The explanation for this answer is that if the instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the major paragraph of the Operations Plan (OPLAN). This means that the OPLAN contains the necessary information for base functional area support when detailed instructions are not provided.

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36. Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates?

Explanation

A Time and Material contract is a type of contract that acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates. This means that the contractor is paid for the actual hours worked, as well as the cost of materials used. This type of contract is commonly used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is not possible to determine a firm fixed price for the project. It allows for flexibility in terms of the amount of work required and provides a transparent way of compensating the contractor for their time and materials.

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37. Who implements a technical solution for a base?

Explanation

The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. They are the ones who take the necessary actions to put the solution into practice and ensure its successful execution. The project monitor oversees the progress of the project, the project manager is responsible for overall project management, and the communication squadron handles communication-related tasks. However, it is the implementing organization that actually carries out the implementation of the technical solution.

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38. Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

Explanation

The given options list various causes for requirements to be considered special, such as requiring services from outside agencies, mobility equipment, and additional manpower. However, the option "Requires additional funding" does not fit into the category of causes for requirements to be considered special. While additional funding may be necessary for certain requirements, it does not inherently make them special.

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39. Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

Explanation

Volume 1 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. This volume is likely to contain information on various aspects of mobilization planning, such as the allocation of resources, deployment of forces, and coordination of logistics. It serves as a comprehensive guide for military planners and decision-makers in preparing for and executing mobilization efforts during times of war.

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40. Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Unit commander’s interest." The "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act requires that government contracts be awarded through a competitive process to ensure fairness and transparency. However, the unit commander's interest is not considered an exception to this requirement. The other options, such as unusual or compelling urgency, national security interests, and sole source, can be exceptions to the full and open competition requirement under certain circumstances.

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41. What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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42. The five phases of Project Management are initiate,

Explanation

The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This is because project management typically involves these phases. The planning phase involves defining the project objectives, scope, and deliverables. The execution phase involves carrying out the project tasks and activities. The closure phase involves finalizing and delivering the project results. The control phase involves monitoring the project progress and making necessary adjustments to ensure it stays on track.

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43. What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?

Explanation

A program action officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. They are responsible for coordinating and implementing various actions and activities within the program, ensuring that all tasks are completed on time and within budget. They work closely with the program manager to support the overall success of the program.

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44. The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,

Explanation

The correct answer is "service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement." The ITIL service life cycle consists of these four stages. Service design involves designing new or changed services based on the organization's strategy and requirements. Service transition focuses on transitioning the designed services into the live environment. Service operation involves managing and delivering the services on a day-to-day basis. Continual service improvement is an ongoing process of identifying and implementing improvements to the services.

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45. Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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46. As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 years because a support agreement must be reviewed at least once every three years after its effective date. This ensures that the agreement remains relevant and effective in meeting the needs and requirements of both parties involved. Regular reviews allow for any necessary updates or modifications to be made to the agreement, ensuring that it continues to provide the necessary support and services.

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47. Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office?

Explanation

A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date.

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48. Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?

Explanation

Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet requirement specifications. This type of change request is made when there are errors or defects in the project that need to be fixed in order to align with the specified requirements. Preventive action, on the other hand, focuses on avoiding future issues, while corrective action addresses broader problems in the project. Status request is not related to correcting requirement specifications.

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49. As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?

Explanation

To review and validate technical solutions, various stakeholders are required, including the Base Communications Systems Officer, Affected Work Center, and Project Managers. These individuals possess the necessary expertise and knowledge to assess the technical aspects of the solutions. However, the presence of a Base Civil Engineer is not necessary for this process. The role of a Base Civil Engineer primarily revolves around construction and maintenance projects, which may not directly relate to reviewing and validating technical solutions. Therefore, their involvement is not required in this particular context.

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50. What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime

Explanation

The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This section likely includes information on how to ensure the availability and functionality of communication systems during wartime, including procedures for maintenance, repair, and supply chain management.

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51. Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?

Explanation

AFI 10-201 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements. The other options, AFI 10-244, AFI 10-401, and AFI 10-403, do not specifically address DOC statements.

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52. The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for

Explanation

The AF Form 1067 is a document that is used to define, validate, and approve requirements for safety modifications. It is also used for T-1 temporary modifications and T-2 temporary modifications. Therefore, the correct answer is that the AF Form 1067 is used for all temporary and permanent modifications.

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53. Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?

Explanation

The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders. They oversee the QA program and ensure that personnel are trained in quality assurance procedures and standards. They coordinate and organize training sessions, develop training materials, and ensure that all QA personnel receive the necessary training to effectively carry out their roles and responsibilities.

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54. In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

Explanation

A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. In other words, a concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach rather than the specific details of how the plan will be executed logistically.

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55. Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?

Explanation

The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase." This force module is responsible for setting up and organizing the necessary infrastructure, resources, and personnel required for the airbase to operate effectively. It involves tasks such as constructing runways, establishing communication systems, setting up command and control centers, and coordinating with other force modules to ensure smooth operations and mission accomplishment.

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56. Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support?

Explanation

The Unit plans, planning, and agreements section acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support. They are responsible for coordinating and managing the design process and ensuring that all necessary support is obtained from the base Civil Engineering department. This section plays a crucial role in ensuring that the unit's design needs are met and that they receive the necessary support from the CE department.

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57. The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is

Explanation

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is $1.5 million (M). This means that any construction project with a cost below $1.5 million can be considered a minor project.

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58. Changes are requested during a project using an

Explanation

AF Form 1146 is the correct answer because it is the form used to request changes during a project. The other forms listed, AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, and AFTO Form 47, are not specifically used for this purpose. Therefore, AF Form 1146 is the most appropriate form to use when requesting changes during a project.

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59. Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?

Explanation

The Functional Director/Commander is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR). The COR plays a crucial role in overseeing and managing the contract, ensuring that the contractor performs according to the terms and conditions of the contract. By assigning competent and capable individuals to this role, the Functional Director/Commander ensures that the contract is effectively managed and that the interests of the contracting agency are protected.

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60. Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?

Explanation

T-2 temporary modification evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities. This type of modification is specifically designed for testing purposes and is not intended to be a permanent change to the materiel.

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61. Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?

Explanation

In the modification proposal process, the steps typically involve requesting action and organization validation, using command and lead command validation, and program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution. However, work center manager certification and approval is not mentioned as a required step in the process.

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62. The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI

Explanation

The correct answer is 10–244. This is because AFI 10–244 provides the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting.

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63. Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?

Explanation

The Time and Material contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy. This type of contract is typically used when the scope of work is uncertain or when the project involves a high level of complexity and risk. With a Time and Material contract, the contractor is paid based on the actual hours worked and the materials used, allowing for flexibility in terms of changes and adjustments throughout the project.

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64. In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?

Explanation

In the service transition stage of ITIL, the framework is created to ensure that the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment. This stage focuses on planning, coordinating, and managing the transition of new or changed services into the operational environment. It includes activities such as testing, training, deployment, and release management to ensure a smooth transition and minimize any disruption to the live environment.

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65. In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?

Explanation

In the Service Strategy stage of the ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the organization's business objectives and customer needs, and then developing strategies to meet those needs through IT services. It involves defining the overall service strategy, identifying opportunities for improvement, and aligning IT services with business goals. Therefore, Service Strategy is the correct answer for this question.

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66. Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?

Explanation

AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides guidance on the use of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS). AFI 33-115 is not relevant to CIPS, and TO 00-33D-3001 and TO 00-33D-3004 are technical orders that do not specifically address the use of CIPS.

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67. Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 00–33D–3003. This document is likely to contain a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. The other options, TO 00–33A–1001, Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS), and Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS), do not specifically mention providing a list of lead commands or SPOs.

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68. Support agreements are documented on

Explanation

Support agreements are documented on DD Form 1144.

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69. Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program?

Explanation

The contracting office is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program. They are in charge of overseeing the contracting process and ensuring that the terms and conditions of the contract are met. This includes monitoring the quality of the work being performed by the contractor and conducting inspections and audits to ensure compliance. The contracting office plays a crucial role in ensuring that the installation's contracts are executed effectively and meet the required standards.

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70. What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering (CE) must prepare and forward DD Form 1391 to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required.

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Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering...
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response...
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force...
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and...
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial...
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American...
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to...
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of...
Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable...
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned...
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to...
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and...
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an...
Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an...
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace...
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service...
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of...
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications...
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area...
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not...
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful...
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified...
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project...
Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated...
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the...
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
Which of the following funding options does the local communications...
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects...
Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees...
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is...
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex,...
Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct...
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be...
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated...
Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open...
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project...
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager...
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure...
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems...
As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its...
Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched,...
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a...
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and...
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for...
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on...
The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving...
Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA)...
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation,...
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and...
Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or...
The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using...
Changes are requested during a project using an
Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional...
Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the...
Which of the following is not a step required in the modification...
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting...
Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to...
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do...
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do...
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning...
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices...
Support agreements are documented on
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's...
What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM...
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