3DX7X Volume 1 Unit Review Questions

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Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
- A. Communications Focal Point.
- B. Unit Deployment Monitor.
- C. Enterprise Service Desk.
- D. Quality Assurance.

About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge relevant to the 3DX7X AFSC, focusing on roles in computer systems, client systems personnel, and manpower management within the Air Force. It evaluates understanding of essential regulations and advancement requirements, crucial for personnel involved in military communications and operations.

3DX7X Volume 1 Unit Review Questions - Quiz

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2.

What is the most common wireless networking standard?
- A. 802.3.
- B. 802.9.
- C. 802.11.
- D. 802.14
Correct Answer

A. C. 802.11.

Explanation

The most common wireless networking standard is 802.11. This standard is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used for wireless communication between devices. It is widely used in homes, offices, and public places to connect devices to the internet or to create local area networks. The other options mentioned, 802.3, 802.9, and 802.14, are not wireless networking standards but rather refer to different standards for wired Ethernet networks.

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3.

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
- A. Bus.
- B. Star.
- C. Ring.
- D. Hybrid.
Correct Answer

A. B. Star.

Explanation

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, typically a hub or switch. In this configuration, all data traffic passes through the central component, which helps to manage and control the network. This topology is commonly used in Ethernet networks and allows for easy addition or removal of devices without disrupting the rest of the network.

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4.

A modem is a device that
- A. transmits on every link attached to it.
- B. modulates and demodulates data signals.
- C. uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.
- D. operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.
Correct Answer

A. B. modulates and demodulates data signals.

Explanation

A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a telephone line or cable. Demodulation is the reverse process, where the analog signals are converted back into digital data. This allows the modem to transmit and receive data over a communication network.

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5.

Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor?
- A. Information Management.
- B. Network-centric warfare.
- C. Information Superiority.
- D. Information Operations.
Correct Answer

A. C. Information Superiority.

Explanation

Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having a greater ability to collect, process, analyze, and disseminate information compared to one's adversaries. This advantage allows for better decision-making, faster response times, and the ability to exploit and disrupt enemy information systems. Information superiority is crucial in modern warfare and is achieved through effective information management and information operations, making options a, b, and d incorrect.

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6.

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?
- A. Patches.
- B. Antivirus.
- C. Software removal.
- D. Vulnerability scanner.
Correct Answer

A. A. Patches.

Explanation

Patches are small pieces of code that software developers create to address flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security and functionality of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor or developer as updates that users can install to protect their systems from known vulnerabilities. They are an important preventive measure in maintaining the security and integrity of software applications.

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7.

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?
- A. Token.
- B. Biometrics.
- C. Multifactor
- D. Knowledge-based.
Correct Answer

A. B. Biometrics.

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it is a form of identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the use of unique physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial recognition, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and matching the fingerprint of a user, biometrics provides a secure and reliable method of authentication.

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8.

Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?
- A. Computer Systems Programming.
- B. Cyber Systems Operations.
- C. Cyber Transport Systems.
- D. Cyber Surety.
Correct Answer

A. A. Computer Systems Programming.

Explanation

The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) for Computer Systems Programming requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test. This test is likely a prerequisite for this specialty as it ensures that individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which is essential for computer systems programming. The other options, Cyber Systems Operations, Cyber Transport Systems, and Cyber Surety, may require different tests or qualifications specific to their respective specialties.

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9.

Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
- A. Minimum rank of SSgt.
- B. 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.
- Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements.
- D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.
Correct Answer

A. D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses. This is because the question asks for a requirement that is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, on-the-job training, and completion of AFSC specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement to the 7-skill level.

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10.

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
- A. AF Form 55.
- B. AF Form 971.
- C. AF Form 623A.
- D. AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.
Correct Answer

A. A. AF Form 55.

Explanation

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is used to record and track safety training for individuals within the Air Force. It allows supervisors to keep a record of who has completed the required safety training and when it was completed. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can ensure that all personnel have received the necessary safety training and maintain a comprehensive record of their training history.

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11.

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
- A. misuse of position.
- B. a covered relationships.
- C. non-public information.
- D. personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer

A. A. misuse of position.

Explanation

When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This means that they are taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their role or organization. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences, such as a loss of trust, damage to reputation, or legal repercussions.

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12.

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
- A. Monitor.
- B. Scanner.
- C. Keyboard.
- D. Graphics card.
Correct Answer

A. C. Keyboard.

Explanation

A device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board is a keyboard. Keyboards typically have multiple switches, each representing a different character or function, and when a key is pressed, it completes a circuit and sends a signal to the computer. This allows the user to input data or commands into the computer system.

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13.

What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?
- A. 0.0.0.0.
- B. 127.0.0.1.
- C. 207.55.157.255.
- D. 255.255.255.255.
Correct Answer

A. B. 127.0.0.1.

Explanation

The loopback address is a reserved IP address that is used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It allows a device to send and receive data to itself, without actually transmitting the data over a physical network. The loopback address for IPv4 is 127.0.0.1, which is the correct answer in this case.

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14.

What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
- A. TO 00–5–15.
- B. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.
- C. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.
- D. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.
Correct Answer

A. B. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA. This document, known as the Military Personnel Testing Office (MPTO) 00–33A–1001–WA, directs the Communications Focal Point key processes. It provides guidance and instructions on how to effectively manage and operate the Communications Focal Point, ensuring smooth communication within the organization.

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15.

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
- A. Construct career paths.
- B. Manage skill-level training requirements.
- C. Establish requirements for entry into the career field
- D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer

A. D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for various tasks related to managing and developing the career field. They are responsible for constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM.

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16.

Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?
- A. Wing.
- B. Group.
- C. Squadron.
- D. major command.
Correct Answer

A. A. Wing.

Explanation

The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. This suggests that the Wing is a higher organizational unit compared to the Group, Squadron, and major command. Quarterly awards are typically given to recognize outstanding performance and achievements, and it is likely that the Wing level encompasses multiple Groups, Squadrons, and major commands, making it the highest level for such presentations.

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17.

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?
- A. Norton Utilities.
- B. Acrobat Reader.
- C. Virus Scan.
- D. WinZip.
Correct Answer

A. A. Norton Utilities.

Explanation

Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that includes tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. Norton Utilities provides features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection, making it a comprehensive solution for maintaining the health and performance of a computer system. Acrobat Reader, Virus Scan, and WinZip do not offer the same set of tools and functionalities as Norton Utilities in terms of file recovery and computer failure protection.

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18.

What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?
- A. Defense Intelligence Agency.
- B. Defense Information Systems Agency.
- C. Defense Information Systems Network.
- D. Department of Defense Information Networks.
Correct Answer

A. B. Defense Information Systems Agency.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides a wide range of IT services and capabilities to support the military's information and communication needs. They are responsible for managing and operating the DoD's global information infrastructure, including networks, systems, and applications. DISA plays a critical role in ensuring secure and reliable communication for the military, enabling effective command and control, intelligence sharing, and coordination of military operations.

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19.

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?
- A. Virus.
- B. Spam.
- C. Spyware.
- D. Phishing.
Correct Answer

A. B. Spam.

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically for advertising purposes. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming to deal with, it does not typically pose a direct threat to the security or integrity of a system or user's personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are all forms of malicious software or techniques that can cause significant damage and compromise the security of a system or individual.

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20.

Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?
- A. Token.
- B. Biometrics.
- C. Multifactor.
- D. Knowledge-based.
Correct Answer

A. D. Knowledge-based.

Explanation

The identity management process that uses a password to authenticate a user is known as knowledge-based authentication. In this process, the user is required to provide a password that they know in order to prove their identity and gain access to a system or application. This method is commonly used in various systems and platforms to ensure that only authorized users are granted access.

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21.

Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?
- A. Program Element Code (PEC)
- B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- C. Authorization Change Request (ACR).
- D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer

A. B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the manpower requirements, authorized positions, and personnel assigned to each position within the organization. The UMD helps in planning and allocating resources effectively, ensuring that the organization has the right number of personnel with the required skills and qualifications to perform the necessary tasks. It also helps in tracking changes in manpower requirements and managing personnel assignments accordingly.

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22.

What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer(SAF/CIO) annual awards?
- A. 1 October - 30 September.
- B. 1 January - 31 December.
- C. 1 April - 31 March.
- D. 1 July - 30 June.
Correct Answer

A. A. 1 October - 30 September.

Explanation

The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September.

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23.

Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?
- A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).
- B. Base Defense Operations Center.
- C. 624th Operations Center.
- D. Air Operations Center.
Correct Answer

A. A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC). This is the operations center that is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. They provide situational awareness and report any suspicious or malicious activity. The other options, Base Defense Operations Center, 624th Operations Center, and Air Operations Center, are not specifically focused on network monitoring and control.

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24.

Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?
- A. at major command functional managers
- B. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
- C. at the Air Force Personnel Center.
- D. with career field managers.
Correct Answer

A. B. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

Explanation

The Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming for the Air Force is done at the highest level of command, which is the HAF. This centralization allows for better coordination and alignment of manpower resources across the entire Air Force, ensuring efficient and effective utilization of personnel.

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25.

Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
- A. Program Element Code (PEC).
- B. Special Experience Identifier (SEI).
- C. Authorization Change Request (ACR).
- D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer

A. A. Program Element Code (PEC).

Explanation

Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique identifier used to track and manage the costs associated with specific program elements within a larger program. PECs are typically used in budgeting and financial management systems to allocate and track costs at a detailed level. This allows for better control and visibility of costs, and helps in making informed decisions regarding resource allocation and program management.

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26.

What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
- A. Remedy
- B. Situational Report (SITREP).
- C. Telephone Management System (TMS).
- D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
Correct Answer

A. D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). This system allows for the tracking and recording of maintenance activities and data for various items within an organization. It provides a centralized database for storing and retrieving information related to maintenance, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date records are maintained. IMDS helps in streamlining maintenance processes and improving overall efficiency and effectiveness in managing maintenance activities.

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27.

Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
- B. Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
- C. Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
- D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
Correct Answer

A. D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
28.

How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A. 2.
- B. 4.
- C. 6.
- D. 8.
Correct Answer

A. C. 6.

Explanation

Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic process to identify, assess, and control risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: 1) Identify risks, 2) Assess risks, 3) Evaluate risks, 4) Develop risk controls, 5) Implement risk controls, and 6) Monitor and review risks. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 6.

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29.

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title
- A. 10.
- B. 15.
- C. 37.
- D. 50.
Correct Answer

A. A. 10.

Explanation

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This means that the establishment and structure of the Department of Defense is outlined and authorized by the laws and regulations stated in Title 10 of the United States Code.

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30.

What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
- A. Class A.
- B. Class B.
- C. Class C.
- D. Class D.
Correct Answer

A. A. Class A.

Explanation

Class A IP addresses use a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. This class is used for large networks, as it allows for a large number of hosts to be connected to the network. The first octet in a Class A address represents the network portion of the address, while the remaining three octets represent the host portion.

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31.

What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?
- A. Local Area Network (LAN).
- B. Wide Area Network (WAN).
- C. Virtual Private Network (VPN).
- D. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
Correct Answer

A. D. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

Explanation

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that interconnects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, such as a city. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but is smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used by organizations or institutions that require high-speed connectivity over a larger area, allowing users to access shared resources and services within the metropolitan area.

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32.

Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?
- A. Segment 1
- B. Segment 2.
- C. Segment 3.
- D. Segment 4.
Correct Answer

A. B. Segment 2.

Explanation

Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment likely involves assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources needed for their training. It may involve identifying gaps in skills or knowledge and developing a plan to address them through appropriate training resources.

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33.

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
- A. Communications Focal Point.
- B. Flight Commander/Chief.
- C. Production Controller.
- D. Commander.
Correct Answer

A. B. Flight Commander/Chief.

Explanation

The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure that periodic inspections are accomplished. They have the authority to set up and enforce procedures and guidelines for inspections, ensuring that they are conducted regularly and according to the required standards. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and efficiency of the operations within the flight.

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34.

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?
- A. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).
- B. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
- C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
- D. Military only.
Correct Answer

A. C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

Explanation

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems refer to pre-existing software or hardware components that are readily available in the market. These systems are widely used in both federal and non-federal systems because they provide a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain. COTS solutions are developed by experienced vendors and have undergone rigorous testing and validation, ensuring their reliability and compatibility with different systems. By using COTS systems, organizations can avoid the cost and time associated with developing custom solutions, while still benefiting from a standardized and well-supported domain that can be easily maintained and defended.

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35.

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
- A. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
- B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
- C. Distance Vector and Link State.
- D. RS–232 and RS–530.
Correct Answer

A. B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer is responsible for error control, flow control, and framing. It ensures that data is delivered reliably between two devices on the network. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and managing the transmission of data frames. It handles tasks such as addressing, collision detection, and media arbitration.

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36.

The design of communications network is known as
- A. an internet suite.
- B. the physical layer.
- C. network architecture.
- D. network implementation.
Correct Answer

A. C. network architecture.

Explanation

The design of communications network refers to the overall structure and organization of the network, including the arrangement of its components and their connections. This encompasses decisions regarding the network's layout, protocols, and technologies used. Therefore, the term "network architecture" accurately describes the design aspect of a communications network.

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37.

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
- A. 2.
- B. 3.
- C. 4.
- D. 5.
Correct Answer

A. A. 2.

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between 2 nodes. This means that the routing algorithm analyzes the network topology and determines the most efficient route for data packets to travel from one node to another. By dynamically calculating the best path, dynamic routing protocols can adapt to changes in the network, such as link failures or congestion, and reroute traffic accordingly. This helps to optimize network performance and ensure efficient data transmission.

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38.

Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
- B. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.
- C. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).
- D. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
Correct Answer

A. B. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.

Explanation

The optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is the AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer. This means that the presence of this individual is not mandatory for the workshop, but they can choose to attend if they wish. The other options listed are not specified as optional attendees, so they are not the correct answer.

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39.

Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
- A. Military Personnel (MILPERS).
- B. Military Construction (MILCON).
- C. Operation and Maintenance (O&M).
- D. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).
Correct Answer

A. B. Military Construction (MILCON).

Explanation

Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated specifically for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities, including bases, barracks, training centers, and other infrastructure. These funds are used to support the military's operational needs and to ensure that facilities are up to date and able to meet the demands of the military mission. Relocating facilities may be necessary due to changes in strategic priorities, the need for more space, or the need to consolidate resources. MILCON funds provide the financial resources to make these relocations possible.

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40.

What are the two classifications of transport protocols?
- A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.
- B. Classful and Connectionless Oriented.
- C. Connectionless Oriented and Classless.
- D. Classful and Classless.
Correct Answer

A. A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. This is because transport protocols can be classified based on whether they establish a connection before data transfer (connection-oriented) or not (connectionless-oriented). Connection-oriented protocols ensure reliable delivery of data by establishing a connection, while connectionless-oriented protocols do not establish a connection and rely on the underlying network for reliability.

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41.

Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?
- A. Twisted pair cable.
- B. Fiber optic cable.
- C. Coaxial cable.
- D. Twinax cable.
Correct Answer

A. A. Twisted pair cable.

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a widely used and cost-effective transmission medium for telephone systems. It consists of pairs of insulated copper wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference. Twisted pair cables can transmit analog voice signals effectively over short to medium distances, making them ideal for voice communication applications. Fiber optic cables, coaxial cables, and twinax cables are also used for data transmission, but twisted pair cables are specifically designed for voice communications.

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42.

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).
- B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
- C. Career Field Manager (CFM).
- D. SAF/CIO A6.
Correct Answer

A. B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.

Explanation

The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization are properly addressed and implemented. They have the authority to make decisions and vote on behalf of the MAJCOM during these important meetings and workshops.

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43.

What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?
- A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
- B. Virtual Private Network (VPN).
- C. Local Area Network (LAN).
- D. Wide Area Network (WAN).
Correct Answer

A. C. Local Area Network (LAN).

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows for the sharing of resources, such as files and printers, and enables communication between devices on the network. In this case, the group of computers and associated devices are connected through a common communications line, indicating a LAN.

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44.

Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title
- A. 15.
- B. 18.
- C. 32.
- D. 37.
Correct Answer

A. C. 32.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 32. The explanation for this answer is that the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32.

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45.

What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
- A. $100,000.
- B. $250,000.
- C. $750,000.
- D. $1,000,000.
Correct Answer

A. C. $750,000.

Explanation

Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

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46.

Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
- A. Colon Hexadecimal Format.
- B. Dotted Decimal Notation.
- C. Hexadecimal.
- D. Octal.
Correct Answer

A. A. Colon Hexadecimal Format.

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are expressed in a colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. This format uses eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons. This allows for a larger address space compared to IPv4, which uses dotted decimal notation. The colon hexadecimal format also simplifies address allocation and configuration, making it easier for users to understand and work with IPv6 addresses.

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47.

What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?
- A. Title 10.
- B. Title 30.
- C. Title 50.
- D. Title 52.
Correct Answer

A. A. Title 10.

Explanation

National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the federal status of the National Guard, which allows them to be called into active duty by the President. This status grants the National Guard the authority to conduct various operations, including cyber operations, in support of national security.

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48.

Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
- A. Job Safety Training (JST).
- B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).
- C. Task Hazard Analysis (THA).
- D. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).
Correct Answer

A. A. Job Safety Training (JST).

Explanation

The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis is a process that involves identifying potential hazards and analyzing the steps required to complete a job safely. The correct terms for Job Safety Analysis are Job Hazard Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

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49.

Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?
- A. Wing Commander.
- B. Numbered Air Force Commander.
- C. Communications Squadron Commander.
- D. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.
Correct Answer

A. A. Wing Commander.

Explanation

The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites.

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3DX7X Volume 1 Unit Review Questions

Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

Quiz Preview

What is the most common wireless networking standard?

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

A modem is a device that

Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor?

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer(SAF/CIO) annual awards?

Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?

Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

The design of communications network is known as

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?