3DX7X Volume 1 Unit Review Questions

1. What is the most common wireless networking standard?

A. 802.3.

B. 802.9.

C. 802.11.

D. 802.14

The most common wireless networking standard is 802.11. This standard is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used for wireless communication between devices. It is widely used in homes, offices, and public places to connect devices to the internet or to create local area networks. The other options mentioned, 802.3, 802.9, and 802.14, are not wireless networking standards but rather refer to different standards for wired Ethernet networks.

Explanation

The most common wireless networking standard is 802.11. This standard is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used for wireless communication between devices. It is widely used in homes, offices, and public places to connect devices to the internet or to create local area networks. The other options mentioned, 802.3, 802.9, and 802.14, are not wireless networking standards but rather refer to different standards for wired Ethernet networks.

2. Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

A. Communications Focal Point.

B. Unit Deployment Monitor.

C. Enterprise Service Desk.

D. Quality Assurance.

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Explanation

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3. What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

A. Bus.

B. Star.

C. Ring.

D. Hybrid.

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, typically a hub or switch. In this configuration, all data traffic passes through the central component, which helps to manage and control the network. This topology is commonly used in Ethernet networks and allows for easy addition or removal of devices without disrupting the rest of the network.

Explanation

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, typically a hub or switch. In this configuration, all data traffic passes through the central component, which helps to manage and control the network. This topology is commonly used in Ethernet networks and allows for easy addition or removal of devices without disrupting the rest of the network.

4. Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?

A. Information Management.

B. Network-centric warfare.

C. Information Superiority.

D. Information Operations.

Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having a greater ability to collect, process, analyze, and disseminate information compared to one's adversaries. This advantage allows for better decision-making, faster response times, and the ability to exploit and disrupt enemy information systems. Information superiority is crucial in modern warfare and is achieved through effective information management and information operations, making options a, b, and d incorrect.

Explanation

Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having a greater ability to collect, process, analyze, and disseminate information compared to one's adversaries. This advantage allows for better decision-making, faster response times, and the ability to exploit and disrupt enemy information systems. Information superiority is crucial in modern warfare and is achieved through effective information management and information operations, making options a, b, and d incorrect.

5. A modem is a device that

A. transmits on every link attached to it.

B. modulates and demodulates data signals.

C. uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.

D. operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a telephone line or cable. Demodulation is the reverse process, where the analog signals are converted back into digital data. This allows the modem to transmit and receive data over a communication network.

Explanation

A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a telephone line or cable. Demodulation is the reverse process, where the analog signals are converted back into digital data. This allows the modem to transmit and receive data over a communication network.

6. Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

A. Patches.

B. Antivirus.

C. Software removal.

D. Vulnerability scanner.

Patches are small pieces of code that software developers create to address flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security and functionality of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor or developer as updates that users can install to protect their systems from known vulnerabilities. They are an important preventive measure in maintaining the security and integrity of software applications.

Explanation

Patches are small pieces of code that software developers create to address flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security and functionality of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor or developer as updates that users can install to protect their systems from known vulnerabilities. They are an important preventive measure in maintaining the security and integrity of software applications.

7. Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

A. Token.

B. Biometrics.

C. Multifactor

D. Knowledge-based.

Biometrics is the correct answer because it is a form of identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the use of unique physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial recognition, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and matching the fingerprint of a user, biometrics provides a secure and reliable method of authentication.

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it is a form of identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the use of unique physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial recognition, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and matching the fingerprint of a user, biometrics provides a secure and reliable method of authentication.

8. Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

A. AF Form 55.

B. AF Form 971.

C. AF Form 623A.

D. AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is used to record and track safety training for individuals within the Air Force. It allows supervisors to keep a record of who has completed the required safety training and when it was completed. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can ensure that all personnel have received the necessary safety training and maintain a comprehensive record of their training history.

Explanation

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is used to record and track safety training for individuals within the Air Force. It allows supervisors to keep a record of who has completed the required safety training and when it was completed. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can ensure that all personnel have received the necessary safety training and maintain a comprehensive record of their training history.

9. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

A. 0.0.0.0.

B. 127.0.0.1.

C. 207.55.157.255.

D. 255.255.255.255.

The loopback address is a reserved IP address that is used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It allows a device to send and receive data to itself, without actually transmitting the data over a physical network. The loopback address for IPv4 is 127.0.0.1, which is the correct answer in this case.

Explanation

The loopback address is a reserved IP address that is used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It allows a device to send and receive data to itself, without actually transmitting the data over a physical network. The loopback address for IPv4 is 127.0.0.1, which is the correct answer in this case.

10. What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

A. Monitor.

B. Scanner.

C. Keyboard.

D. Graphics card.

A device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board is a keyboard. Keyboards typically have multiple switches, each representing a different character or function, and when a key is pressed, it completes a circuit and sends a signal to the computer. This allows the user to input data or commands into the computer system.

Explanation

A device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board is a keyboard. Keyboards typically have multiple switches, each representing a different character or function, and when a key is pressed, it completes a circuit and sends a signal to the computer. This allows the user to input data or commands into the computer system.

11. Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

A. Computer Systems Programming.

B. Cyber Systems Operations.

C. Cyber Transport Systems.

D. Cyber Surety.

The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) for Computer Systems Programming requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test. This test is likely a prerequisite for this specialty as it ensures that individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which is essential for computer systems programming. The other options, Cyber Systems Operations, Cyber Transport Systems, and Cyber Surety, may require different tests or qualifications specific to their respective specialties.

Explanation

The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) for Computer Systems Programming requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test. This test is likely a prerequisite for this specialty as it ensures that individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which is essential for computer systems programming. The other options, Cyber Systems Operations, Cyber Transport Systems, and Cyber Surety, may require different tests or qualifications specific to their respective specialties.

12. Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

A. Minimum rank of SSgt.

B. 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.

Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements.

D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

The correct answer is d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses. This is because the question asks for a requirement that is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, on-the-job training, and completion of AFSC specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement to the 7-skill level.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses. This is because the question asks for a requirement that is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, on-the-job training, and completion of AFSC specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement to the 7-skill level.

13. When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

A. misuse of position.

B. a covered relationships.

C. non-public information.

D. personal conflict of interest.

When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This means that they are taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their role or organization. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences, such as a loss of trust, damage to reputation, or legal repercussions.

Explanation

When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This means that they are taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their role or organization. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences, such as a loss of trust, damage to reputation, or legal repercussions.

14. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

A. Construct career paths.

B. Manage skill-level training requirements.

C. Establish requirements for entry into the career field

D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for various tasks related to managing and developing the career field. They are responsible for constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM.

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for various tasks related to managing and developing the career field. They are responsible for constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM.

15. Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

A. Wing.

B. Group.

C. Squadron.

D. major command.

The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. This suggests that the Wing is a higher organizational unit compared to the Group, Squadron, and major command. Quarterly awards are typically given to recognize outstanding performance and achievements, and it is likely that the Wing level encompasses multiple Groups, Squadrons, and major commands, making it the highest level for such presentations.

Explanation

The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. This suggests that the Wing is a higher organizational unit compared to the Group, Squadron, and major command. Quarterly awards are typically given to recognize outstanding performance and achievements, and it is likely that the Wing level encompasses multiple Groups, Squadrons, and major commands, making it the highest level for such presentations.

16. Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

A. Norton Utilities.

B. Acrobat Reader.

C. Virus Scan.

D. WinZip.

Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that includes tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. Norton Utilities provides features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection, making it a comprehensive solution for maintaining the health and performance of a computer system. Acrobat Reader, Virus Scan, and WinZip do not offer the same set of tools and functionalities as Norton Utilities in terms of file recovery and computer failure protection.

Explanation

Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that includes tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. Norton Utilities provides features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection, making it a comprehensive solution for maintaining the health and performance of a computer system. Acrobat Reader, Virus Scan, and WinZip do not offer the same set of tools and functionalities as Norton Utilities in terms of file recovery and computer failure protection.

17. What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

A. TO 00–5–15.

B. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.

C. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.

D. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.

The correct answer is b. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA. This document, known as the Military Personnel Testing Office (MPTO) 00–33A–1001–WA, directs the Communications Focal Point key processes. It provides guidance and instructions on how to effectively manage and operate the Communications Focal Point, ensuring smooth communication within the organization.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA. This document, known as the Military Personnel Testing Office (MPTO) 00–33A–1001–WA, directs the Communications Focal Point key processes. It provides guidance and instructions on how to effectively manage and operate the Communications Focal Point, ensuring smooth communication within the organization.

18. Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

A. Virus.

B. Spam.

C. Spyware.

D. Phishing.

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically for advertising purposes. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming to deal with, it does not typically pose a direct threat to the security or integrity of a system or user's personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are all forms of malicious software or techniques that can cause significant damage and compromise the security of a system or individual.

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically for advertising purposes. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming to deal with, it does not typically pose a direct threat to the security or integrity of a system or user's personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are all forms of malicious software or techniques that can cause significant damage and compromise the security of a system or individual.

19. Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

A. Token.

B. Biometrics.

C. Multifactor.

D. Knowledge-based.

The identity management process that uses a password to authenticate a user is known as knowledge-based authentication. In this process, the user is required to provide a password that they know in order to prove their identity and gain access to a system or application. This method is commonly used in various systems and platforms to ensure that only authorized users are granted access.

Explanation

The identity management process that uses a password to authenticate a user is known as knowledge-based authentication. In this process, the user is required to provide a password that they know in order to prove their identity and gain access to a system or application. This method is commonly used in various systems and platforms to ensure that only authorized users are granted access.

20. What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

A. Defense Intelligence Agency.

B. Defense Information Systems Agency.

C. Defense Information Systems Network.

D. Department of Defense Information Networks.

The correct answer is b. Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides a wide range of IT services and capabilities to support the military's information and communication needs. They are responsible for managing and operating the DoD's global information infrastructure, including networks, systems, and applications. DISA plays a critical role in ensuring secure and reliable communication for the military, enabling effective command and control, intelligence sharing, and coordination of military operations.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides a wide range of IT services and capabilities to support the military's information and communication needs. They are responsible for managing and operating the DoD's global information infrastructure, including networks, systems, and applications. DISA plays a critical role in ensuring secure and reliable communication for the military, enabling effective command and control, intelligence sharing, and coordination of military operations.

21. Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

A. Program Element Code (PEC)

B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

C. Authorization Change Request (ACR).

D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the manpower requirements, authorized positions, and personnel assigned to each position within the organization. The UMD helps in planning and allocating resources effectively, ensuring that the organization has the right number of personnel with the required skills and qualifications to perform the necessary tasks. It also helps in tracking changes in manpower requirements and managing personnel assignments accordingly.

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the manpower requirements, authorized positions, and personnel assigned to each position within the organization. The UMD helps in planning and allocating resources effectively, ensuring that the organization has the right number of personnel with the required skills and qualifications to perform the necessary tasks. It also helps in tracking changes in manpower requirements and managing personnel assignments accordingly.

22. What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer(SAF/CIO) annual awards?

A. 1 October - 30 September.

B. 1 January - 31 December.

C. 1 April - 31 March.

D. 1 July - 30 June.

The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September.

Explanation

The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September.

23. Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

B. Base Defense Operations Center.

C. 624th Operations Center.

D. Air Operations Center.

The correct answer is a. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC). This is the operations center that is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. They provide situational awareness and report any suspicious or malicious activity. The other options, Base Defense Operations Center, 624th Operations Center, and Air Operations Center, are not specifically focused on network monitoring and control.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC). This is the operations center that is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. They provide situational awareness and report any suspicious or malicious activity. The other options, Base Defense Operations Center, 624th Operations Center, and Air Operations Center, are not specifically focused on network monitoring and control.

24. Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

A. Program Element Code (PEC).

B. Special Experience Identifier (SEI).

C. Authorization Change Request (ACR).

D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique identifier used to track and manage the costs associated with specific program elements within a larger program. PECs are typically used in budgeting and financial management systems to allocate and track costs at a detailed level. This allows for better control and visibility of costs, and helps in making informed decisions regarding resource allocation and program management.

Explanation

Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique identifier used to track and manage the costs associated with specific program elements within a larger program. PECs are typically used in budgeting and financial management systems to allocate and track costs at a detailed level. This allows for better control and visibility of costs, and helps in making informed decisions regarding resource allocation and program management.

25. What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

A. Class A.

B. Class B.

C. Class C.

D. Class D.

Class A IP addresses use a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. This class is used for large networks, as it allows for a large number of hosts to be connected to the network. The first octet in a Class A address represents the network portion of the address, while the remaining three octets represent the host portion.

Explanation

Class A IP addresses use a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. This class is used for large networks, as it allows for a large number of hosts to be connected to the network. The first octet in a Class A address represents the network portion of the address, while the remaining three octets represent the host portion.

26. What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

A. Local Area Network (LAN).

B. Wide Area Network (WAN).

C. Virtual Private Network (VPN).

D. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that interconnects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, such as a city. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but is smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used by organizations or institutions that require high-speed connectivity over a larger area, allowing users to access shared resources and services within the metropolitan area.

Explanation

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that interconnects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, such as a city. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but is smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used by organizations or institutions that require high-speed connectivity over a larger area, allowing users to access shared resources and services within the metropolitan area.

27. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

A. 10.

B. 15.

C. 37.

D. 50.

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This means that the establishment and structure of the Department of Defense is outlined and authorized by the laws and regulations stated in Title 10 of the United States Code.

Explanation

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This means that the establishment and structure of the Department of Defense is outlined and authorized by the laws and regulations stated in Title 10 of the United States Code.

28. Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

A. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

B. Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.

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Explanation

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29. How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

A. 2.

B. 4.

C. 6.

D. 8.

Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic process to identify, assess, and control risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: 1) Identify risks, 2) Assess risks, 3) Evaluate risks, 4) Develop risk controls, 5) Implement risk controls, and 6) Monitor and review risks. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 6.

Explanation

Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic process to identify, assess, and control risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: 1) Identify risks, 2) Assess risks, 3) Evaluate risks, 4) Develop risk controls, 5) Implement risk controls, and 6) Monitor and review risks. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 6.

30. What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

A. Remedy

B. Situational Report (SITREP).

C. Telephone Management System (TMS).

D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). This system allows for the tracking and recording of maintenance activities and data for various items within an organization. It provides a centralized database for storing and retrieving information related to maintenance, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date records are maintained. IMDS helps in streamlining maintenance processes and improving overall efficiency and effectiveness in managing maintenance activities.

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). This system allows for the tracking and recording of maintenance activities and data for various items within an organization. It provides a centralized database for storing and retrieving information related to maintenance, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date records are maintained. IMDS helps in streamlining maintenance processes and improving overall efficiency and effectiveness in managing maintenance activities.

31. Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?

A. at major command functional managers

B. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

C. at the Air Force Personnel Center.

D. with career field managers.

The Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming for the Air Force is done at the highest level of command, which is the HAF. This centralization allows for better coordination and alignment of manpower resources across the entire Air Force, ensuring efficient and effective utilization of personnel.

Explanation

The Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming for the Air Force is done at the highest level of command, which is the HAF. This centralization allows for better coordination and alignment of manpower resources across the entire Air Force, ensuring efficient and effective utilization of personnel.

32. Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?

A. Segment 1

B. Segment 2.

C. Segment 3.

D. Segment 4.

Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment likely involves assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources needed for their training. It may involve identifying gaps in skills or knowledge and developing a plan to address them through appropriate training resources.

Explanation

Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment likely involves assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources needed for their training. It may involve identifying gaps in skills or knowledge and developing a plan to address them through appropriate training resources.

33. The design of communications network is known as

A. an internet suite.

B. the physical layer.

C. network architecture.

D. network implementation.

The design of communications network refers to the overall structure and organization of the network, including the arrangement of its components and their connections. This encompasses decisions regarding the network's layout, protocols, and technologies used. Therefore, the term "network architecture" accurately describes the design aspect of a communications network.

Explanation

The design of communications network refers to the overall structure and organization of the network, including the arrangement of its components and their connections. This encompasses decisions regarding the network's layout, protocols, and technologies used. Therefore, the term "network architecture" accurately describes the design aspect of a communications network.

34. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

A. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

C. Distance Vector and Link State.

D. RS–232 and RS–530.

The correct answer is b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer is responsible for error control, flow control, and framing. It ensures that data is delivered reliably between two devices on the network. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and managing the transmission of data frames. It handles tasks such as addressing, collision detection, and media arbitration.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer is responsible for error control, flow control, and framing. It ensures that data is delivered reliably between two devices on the network. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and managing the transmission of data frames. It handles tasks such as addressing, collision detection, and media arbitration.

35. What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

A. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).

B. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

D. Military only.

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems refer to pre-existing software or hardware components that are readily available in the market. These systems are widely used in both federal and non-federal systems because they provide a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain. COTS solutions are developed by experienced vendors and have undergone rigorous testing and validation, ensuring their reliability and compatibility with different systems. By using COTS systems, organizations can avoid the cost and time associated with developing custom solutions, while still benefiting from a standardized and well-supported domain that can be easily maintained and defended.

Explanation

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems refer to pre-existing software or hardware components that are readily available in the market. These systems are widely used in both federal and non-federal systems because they provide a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain. COTS solutions are developed by experienced vendors and have undergone rigorous testing and validation, ensuring their reliability and compatibility with different systems. By using COTS systems, organizations can avoid the cost and time associated with developing custom solutions, while still benefiting from a standardized and well-supported domain that can be easily maintained and defended.

36. Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

A. 2.

B. 3.

C. 4.

D. 5.

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between 2 nodes. This means that the routing algorithm analyzes the network topology and determines the most efficient route for data packets to travel from one node to another. By dynamically calculating the best path, dynamic routing protocols can adapt to changes in the network, such as link failures or congestion, and reroute traffic accordingly. This helps to optimize network performance and ensure efficient data transmission.

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between 2 nodes. This means that the routing algorithm analyzes the network topology and determines the most efficient route for data packets to travel from one node to another. By dynamically calculating the best path, dynamic routing protocols can adapt to changes in the network, such as link failures or congestion, and reroute traffic accordingly. This helps to optimize network performance and ensure efficient data transmission.

37. Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

A. Communications Focal Point.

B. Flight Commander/Chief.

C. Production Controller.

D. Commander.

The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure that periodic inspections are accomplished. They have the authority to set up and enforce procedures and guidelines for inspections, ensuring that they are conducted regularly and according to the required standards. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and efficiency of the operations within the flight.

Explanation

The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure that periodic inspections are accomplished. They have the authority to set up and enforce procedures and guidelines for inspections, ensuring that they are conducted regularly and according to the required standards. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and efficiency of the operations within the flight.

38. What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.

B. Classful and Connectionless Oriented.

C. Connectionless Oriented and Classless.

D. Classful and Classless.

The correct answer is a. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. This is because transport protocols can be classified based on whether they establish a connection before data transfer (connection-oriented) or not (connectionless-oriented). Connection-oriented protocols ensure reliable delivery of data by establishing a connection, while connectionless-oriented protocols do not establish a connection and rely on the underlying network for reliability.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. This is because transport protocols can be classified based on whether they establish a connection before data transfer (connection-oriented) or not (connectionless-oriented). Connection-oriented protocols ensure reliable delivery of data by establishing a connection, while connectionless-oriented protocols do not establish a connection and rely on the underlying network for reliability.

39. Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

A. Twisted pair cable.

B. Fiber optic cable.

C. Coaxial cable.

D. Twinax cable.

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a widely used and cost-effective transmission medium for telephone systems. It consists of pairs of insulated copper wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference. Twisted pair cables can transmit analog voice signals effectively over short to medium distances, making them ideal for voice communication applications. Fiber optic cables, coaxial cables, and twinax cables are also used for data transmission, but twisted pair cables are specifically designed for voice communications.

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a widely used and cost-effective transmission medium for telephone systems. It consists of pairs of insulated copper wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference. Twisted pair cables can transmit analog voice signals effectively over short to medium distances, making them ideal for voice communication applications. Fiber optic cables, coaxial cables, and twinax cables are also used for data transmission, but twisted pair cables are specifically designed for voice communications.

40. Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

A. Military Personnel (MILPERS).

B. Military Construction (MILCON).

C. Operation and Maintenance (O&M).

D. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).

Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated specifically for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities, including bases, barracks, training centers, and other infrastructure. These funds are used to support the military's operational needs and to ensure that facilities are up to date and able to meet the demands of the military mission. Relocating facilities may be necessary due to changes in strategic priorities, the need for more space, or the need to consolidate resources. MILCON funds provide the financial resources to make these relocations possible.

Explanation

Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated specifically for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities, including bases, barracks, training centers, and other infrastructure. These funds are used to support the military's operational needs and to ensure that facilities are up to date and able to meet the demands of the military mission. Relocating facilities may be necessary due to changes in strategic priorities, the need for more space, or the need to consolidate resources. MILCON funds provide the financial resources to make these relocations possible.

41. Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

B. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.

C. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).

D. MAJCOM Functional Manager.

The optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is the AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer. This means that the presence of this individual is not mandatory for the workshop, but they can choose to attend if they wish. The other options listed are not specified as optional attendees, so they are not the correct answer.

Explanation

The optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is the AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer. This means that the presence of this individual is not mandatory for the workshop, but they can choose to attend if they wish. The other options listed are not specified as optional attendees, so they are not the correct answer.

42. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

A. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).

B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.

C. Career Field Manager (CFM).

D. SAF/CIO A6.

The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization are properly addressed and implemented. They have the authority to make decisions and vote on behalf of the MAJCOM during these important meetings and workshops.

Explanation

The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization are properly addressed and implemented. They have the authority to make decisions and vote on behalf of the MAJCOM during these important meetings and workshops.

43. What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

B. Virtual Private Network (VPN).

C. Local Area Network (LAN).

D. Wide Area Network (WAN).

A local area network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows for the sharing of resources, such as files and printers, and enables communication between devices on the network. In this case, the group of computers and associated devices are connected through a common communications line, indicating a LAN.

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows for the sharing of resources, such as files and printers, and enables communication between devices on the network. In this case, the group of computers and associated devices are connected through a common communications line, indicating a LAN.

44. Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

A. Colon Hexadecimal Format.

B. Dotted Decimal Notation.

C. Hexadecimal.

D. Octal.

IPv6 addresses are expressed in a colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. This format uses eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons. This allows for a larger address space compared to IPv4, which uses dotted decimal notation. The colon hexadecimal format also simplifies address allocation and configuration, making it easier for users to understand and work with IPv6 addresses.

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are expressed in a colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. This format uses eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons. This allows for a larger address space compared to IPv4, which uses dotted decimal notation. The colon hexadecimal format also simplifies address allocation and configuration, making it easier for users to understand and work with IPv6 addresses.

45. What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

A. Title 10.

B. Title 30.

C. Title 50.

D. Title 52.

National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the federal status of the National Guard, which allows them to be called into active duty by the President. This status grants the National Guard the authority to conduct various operations, including cyber operations, in support of national security.

Explanation

National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the federal status of the National Guard, which allows them to be called into active duty by the President. This status grants the National Guard the authority to conduct various operations, including cyber operations, in support of national security.

46. Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

A. 15.

B. 18.

C. 32.

D. 37.

The correct answer is c. 32. The explanation for this answer is that the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 32. The explanation for this answer is that the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32.

47. What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

A. $100,000.

B. $250,000.

C. $750,000.

D. $1,000,000.

Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

Explanation

Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

48. Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

A. The customer.

B. Security Manager.

C. National Security Agency.

D. Communications Squadron.

The customer is responsible for providing encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the customer's responsibility to ensure that their data is encrypted and secure when connecting to the service. The Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron may play a role in overseeing and enforcing security measures, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the customer.

Explanation

The customer is responsible for providing encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the customer's responsibility to ensure that their data is encrypted and secure when connecting to the service. The Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron may play a role in overseeing and enforcing security measures, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the customer.

49. Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

A. Making authorized transactions.

B. Reconciling transactions.

C. Logging transactions.

D. Funds accountability.

The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This responsibility typically falls on the finance or accounting department of the government agency or organization that issues the GPC.

Explanation

The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This responsibility typically falls on the finance or accounting department of the government agency or organization that issues the GPC.

50. What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

A. Data receive message.

B. Sliding Window.

C. Buffer.

D. Socket.

The correct answer is b. Sliding Window. In TCP, the sliding window is a mechanism that regulates the amount of data that can be sent by the sender before receiving an acknowledgement from the receiving host. It allows for efficient flow control and ensures that the sender does not overwhelm the receiver with too much data. The size of the sliding window can be adjusted dynamically based on network conditions, allowing for optimal data transfer over the TCP connection.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Sliding Window. In TCP, the sliding window is a mechanism that regulates the amount of data that can be sent by the sender before receiving an acknowledgement from the receiving host. It allows for efficient flow control and ensures that the sender does not overwhelm the receiver with too much data. The size of the sliding window can be adjusted dynamically based on network conditions, allowing for optimal data transfer over the TCP connection.

51. Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

A. Job Safety Training (JST).

B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).

C. Task Hazard Analysis (THA).

D. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis is a process that involves identifying potential hazards and analyzing the steps required to complete a job safely. The correct terms for Job Safety Analysis are Job Hazard Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

Explanation

The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis is a process that involves identifying potential hazards and analyzing the steps required to complete a job safely. The correct terms for Job Safety Analysis are Job Hazard Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

52. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?

A. Class C.

B. Class D.

C. Class E.

D. Class F.

IPv4 addresses are divided into different classes based on their range and purpose. Class D addresses are reserved for multicast addressing, which allows a single sender to communicate with multiple recipients simultaneously. These addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing. Class C addresses, on the other hand, are used for regular unicast addressing. Class E addresses are reserved for future use, while Class F addresses are not defined in the IPv4 protocol.

Explanation

IPv4 addresses are divided into different classes based on their range and purpose. Class D addresses are reserved for multicast addressing, which allows a single sender to communicate with multiple recipients simultaneously. These addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing. Class C addresses, on the other hand, are used for regular unicast addressing. Class E addresses are reserved for future use, while Class F addresses are not defined in the IPv4 protocol.

53. The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

A. 53.

B. 63.

C. 73.

D. 83.

FireWire, also known as IEEE 1394, is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows for the connection of multiple devices. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is 63. This is because FireWire uses a 6-bit field in its addressing scheme, allowing for a maximum of 64 unique addresses. However, one address is reserved for the bus itself, leaving 63 addresses available for devices. Therefore, the correct answer is b. 63.

Explanation

FireWire, also known as IEEE 1394, is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows for the connection of multiple devices. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is 63. This is because FireWire uses a 6-bit field in its addressing scheme, allowing for a maximum of 64 unique addresses. However, one address is reserved for the bus itself, leaving 63 addresses available for devices. Therefore, the correct answer is b. 63.

54. A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

A. At least 5.

B. No more than 10.

C. No more than 20.

D. 20 or more.

A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers, typically used in small businesses or home networks. It is designed to facilitate file sharing, printer sharing, and collaboration between computers. The correct answer is c. No more than 20 because a workgroup is generally limited to a small number of computers, usually under 20, to ensure efficient communication and management within the group.

Explanation

A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers, typically used in small businesses or home networks. It is designed to facilitate file sharing, printer sharing, and collaboration between computers. The correct answer is c. No more than 20 because a workgroup is generally limited to a small number of computers, usually under 20, to ensure efficient communication and management within the group.

55. Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

A. Wing Commander.

B. Numbered Air Force Commander.

C. Communications Squadron Commander.

D. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.

The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites.

Explanation

The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites.

56. Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?

A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

B. Resources required to manage and use TOs.

C. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

D. Training to manage and use TOs.

The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

Explanation

The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

57. Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

A. Air Force Chief of Staff.

B. Secretary of the Air Force.

C. Selected major command Command Chiefs.

D. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.

After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This implies that the Air Force Chief of Staff plays a role in the final approval or confirmation of the chosen individuals.

Explanation

After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This implies that the Air Force Chief of Staff plays a role in the final approval or confirmation of the chosen individuals.

58. The range of well-known port numbers is

A.1024 to 49151.

B. 49152 to 65535.

C. 0 to 1023.

D. 0 to 1024.

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). Ports in this range are commonly used by well-known applications and are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA).

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). Ports in this range are commonly used by well-known applications and are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA).

59. What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).

B. Quality Training Package (QTP).

C. Subject Matter Experts (SME).

D. Job Quality Standards (JQS).

The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the occupation, including the knowledge, skills, and abilities required. This analysis serves as the foundation for developing the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR ensures that the CFETP and STS are based on accurate and up-to-date information about the occupation.

Explanation

The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the occupation, including the knowledge, skills, and abilities required. This analysis serves as the foundation for developing the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR ensures that the CFETP and STS are based on accurate and up-to-date information about the occupation.

60. What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

A. Physical.

B. Logical.

C. Hybrid.

D. Star.

The correct answer is physical because the physical topology refers to the actual layout or arrangement of devices and media in a network. It describes how the devices are connected to each other physically, such as through cables or wireless connections. This includes the physical location of devices, the types of cables used, and the overall structure of the network. The physical topology is important for understanding the physical connections and limitations of a network.

Explanation

The correct answer is physical because the physical topology refers to the actual layout or arrangement of devices and media in a network. It describes how the devices are connected to each other physically, such as through cables or wireless connections. This includes the physical location of devices, the types of cables used, and the overall structure of the network. The physical topology is important for understanding the physical connections and limitations of a network.

61. Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?

A. Coaxial cable.

B. Fiber optic cable.

C. Shielded twisted-pair (STP).

D. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP).

The original designs of the Ethernet standard were associated with coaxial cable. Coaxial cable was commonly used in the early days of Ethernet for transmitting data signals. It consists of a central conductor surrounded by a layer of insulation, a metallic shield, and an outer protective jacket. Coaxial cable provided a reliable and efficient means of transmitting data over short distances, making it suitable for early Ethernet networks. However, with advancements in technology, other types of cables such as twisted-pair and fiber optic cables have become more prevalent in modern Ethernet networks.

Explanation

The original designs of the Ethernet standard were associated with coaxial cable. Coaxial cable was commonly used in the early days of Ethernet for transmitting data signals. It consists of a central conductor surrounded by a layer of insulation, a metallic shield, and an outer protective jacket. Coaxial cable provided a reliable and efficient means of transmitting data over short distances, making it suitable for early Ethernet networks. However, with advancements in technology, other types of cables such as twisted-pair and fiber optic cables have become more prevalent in modern Ethernet networks.

62. Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?

A. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

B. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data.

C. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data.

D. Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

The correct answer is a. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment includes the fields: Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, and Data. The Source Port field identifies the port number of the sender, the Destination Port field identifies the port number of the receiver, the Length field specifies the length of the UDP segment, the Checksum field is used for error detection, and the Data field contains the actual data being transmitted.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment includes the fields: Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, and Data. The Source Port field identifies the port number of the sender, the Destination Port field identifies the port number of the receiver, the Length field specifies the length of the UDP segment, the Checksum field is used for error detection, and the Data field contains the actual data being transmitted.

63. How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

A. 16.

B. 32.

C. 64.

D. 128.

An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. This means that there are 2^32 (over 4 billion) unique IPv4 addresses available. Each bit can be either a 0 or a 1, resulting in a total of 2^32 possible combinations. This allows for a large number of unique addresses to be assigned to devices connected to the internet.

Explanation

An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. This means that there are 2^32 (over 4 billion) unique IPv4 addresses available. Each bit can be either a 0 or a 1, resulting in a total of 2^32 possible combinations. This allows for a large number of unique addresses to be assigned to devices connected to the internet.

64. Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

A. Library Custodian.

B. Flight commander/chief.

C. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

D. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the necessary procedures and documentation needed for the equipment. The flight commander/chief understands the specific requirements and operational needs of the equipment and can ensure that the appropriate checklists and work cards are in place for the safety and efficiency of the operations.

Explanation

The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the necessary procedures and documentation needed for the equipment. The flight commander/chief understands the specific requirements and operational needs of the equipment and can ensure that the appropriate checklists and work cards are in place for the safety and efficiency of the operations.

65. Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

A. Port 80.

B. Port 110.

C. Port 443.

D. Port 8080.

Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While port 80 is the default port for HTTP, port 8080 is often used as an alternative port for HTTP servers and proxies. This allows for multiple web servers or applications to run on the same machine without conflicts. Port 110 is used for the POP3 email protocol, while port 443 is used for secure HTTP (HTTPS). Therefore, the correct answer is d. Port 8080.

Explanation

Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While port 80 is the default port for HTTP, port 8080 is often used as an alternative port for HTTP servers and proxies. This allows for multiple web servers or applications to run on the same machine without conflicts. Port 110 is used for the POP3 email protocol, while port 443 is used for secure HTTP (HTTPS). Therefore, the correct answer is d. Port 8080.

66. Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

A. Electronic attack.

B. Electronic protection.

C. Network Exploitation.

D. Electronic warfare support.

Electronic attack is the correct answer because it involves the use of jamming to disrupt or deny the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS). By jamming the adversary's communications or radar systems, electronic attack aims to degrade their ability to operate effectively and gain an advantage in the electronic warfare domain. Electronic protection, network exploitation, and electronic warfare support are other electronic warfare capabilities that serve different purposes and do not specifically involve jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the EMS.

Explanation

Electronic attack is the correct answer because it involves the use of jamming to disrupt or deny the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS). By jamming the adversary's communications or radar systems, electronic attack aims to degrade their ability to operate effectively and gain an advantage in the electronic warfare domain. Electronic protection, network exploitation, and electronic warfare support are other electronic warfare capabilities that serve different purposes and do not specifically involve jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the EMS.

67. Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

A. Network.

B. Physical.

C. Data Link.

D. Transport.

Routers operate at the Network layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding data packets to their destination. They make decisions based on network layer information, such as IP addresses and routing tables, to efficiently transmit data across multiple networks. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Network.

Explanation

Routers operate at the Network layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding data packets to their destination. They make decisions based on network layer information, such as IP addresses and routing tables, to efficiently transmit data across multiple networks. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Network.

68. In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

A. Authorization.

B. Connection establishment.

C. Establishment of a clear channel.

D. End-to-end connectivity between host applications.

Before data can be transmitted between clients in a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, a connection must be established. This involves a series of steps, including a handshake between the client and server to establish a reliable connection. Once the connection is established, data can be transmitted over the connection.

Explanation

Before data can be transmitted between clients in a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, a connection must be established. This involves a series of steps, including a handshake between the client and server to establish a reliable connection. Once the connection is established, data can be transmitted over the connection.

69. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

A. Class C.

B. Class D.

C. Class E.

D. Class F.

Class C addresses are used for networks with about 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a range of 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255, with the first octet reserved for network identification and the remaining three octets for host identification. This allows for a maximum of 256 networks and 254 hosts per network, which is suitable for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class D addresses are used for multicasting, Class E addresses are reserved for future use, and Class F addresses are not defined in the IP addressing scheme.

Explanation

Class C addresses are used for networks with about 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a range of 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255, with the first octet reserved for network identification and the remaining three octets for host identification. This allows for a maximum of 256 networks and 254 hosts per network, which is suitable for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class D addresses are used for multicasting, Class E addresses are reserved for future use, and Class F addresses are not defined in the IP addressing scheme.

70. Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

A. 30.

B. 60.

C. 90.

D. 120.

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after new equipment or system is accepted, a certain number of ARC personnel will be evaluated within 120 days to ensure that they are properly trained and qualified to operate the new equipment or system. This evaluation helps to ensure the readiness and effectiveness of the ARC personnel in utilizing the new equipment or system.

Explanation

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after new equipment or system is accepted, a certain number of ARC personnel will be evaluated within 120 days to ensure that they are properly trained and qualified to operate the new equipment or system. This evaluation helps to ensure the readiness and effectiveness of the ARC personnel in utilizing the new equipment or system.

71. Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

A. EW concerns radiated energy.

B. CNO concerns radiated energy.

C. EW is only used for offensive purposes.

D. CNO is only used for defensive purposes.

Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to disrupt or deceive enemy electronics and communication systems. This includes jamming enemy radar or communications, detecting and analyzing enemy signals, and protecting friendly systems from electronic attacks. Radiated energy is a key component of EW as it is used to transmit signals and interfere with enemy systems. Computer Network Operations (CNO), on the other hand, involve activities such as hacking, exploiting vulnerabilities, and conducting cyber attacks on computer networks. While CNO may also involve the manipulation of electronic signals, it is not solely focused on radiated energy like EW.

Explanation

Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to disrupt or deceive enemy electronics and communication systems. This includes jamming enemy radar or communications, detecting and analyzing enemy signals, and protecting friendly systems from electronic attacks. Radiated energy is a key component of EW as it is used to transmit signals and interfere with enemy systems. Computer Network Operations (CNO), on the other hand, involve activities such as hacking, exploiting vulnerabilities, and conducting cyber attacks on computer networks. While CNO may also involve the manipulation of electronic signals, it is not solely focused on radiated energy like EW.

72. Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?

A. Master Task List.

B. Job Qualification Standard.

C. Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

D. Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.

The Master Training Plan includes various components that are relevant to the work center. The Job Qualification Standard (JQS) is one such component that is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center. The JQS outlines the specific qualifications and skills required for a particular job or position within the work center. It serves as a guide for training and development, ensuring that individuals are adequately prepared and qualified to perform their assigned tasks. Therefore, the JQS is included in the Master Training Plan only when it is relevant to the work center.

Explanation

The Master Training Plan includes various components that are relevant to the work center. The Job Qualification Standard (JQS) is one such component that is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center. The JQS outlines the specific qualifications and skills required for a particular job or position within the work center. It serves as a guide for training and development, ensuring that individuals are adequately prepared and qualified to perform their assigned tasks. Therefore, the JQS is included in the Master Training Plan only when it is relevant to the work center.

73. Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

The American National Standard Institute (ANSI) provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including the telecommunications industry. Accreditation from ANSI ensures that TIA meets certain quality and performance standards, and that their products and services are reliable and trustworthy.

Explanation

The American National Standard Institute (ANSI) provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including the telecommunications industry. Accreditation from ANSI ensures that TIA meets certain quality and performance standards, and that their products and services are reliable and trustworthy.

74. Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

The correct answer is d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. The ECIA is a trade association that represents the electronic components industry and works to ensure the availability and quality of electronic components. They collaborate with manufacturers, distributors, and suppliers to establish industry standards for IP&E components.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. The ECIA is a trade association that represents the electronic components industry and works to ensure the availability and quality of electronic components. They collaborate with manufacturers, distributors, and suppliers to establish industry standards for IP&E components.

75. What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

A. Careful planning.

B. Reactive operations.

C. Immediate response.

D. Information Operations.

Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority. By carefully planning and strategizing, potential risks and threats can be identified and addressed beforehand. It allows for the development of effective countermeasures and proactive measures to prevent or minimize any negative consequences. Careful planning also ensures that resources are allocated efficiently and goals are aligned with the desired outcomes. This proactive approach helps to stay ahead of adversaries and maintain an advantage in cyberspace operations.

Explanation

Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority. By carefully planning and strategizing, potential risks and threats can be identified and addressed beforehand. It allows for the development of effective countermeasures and proactive measures to prevent or minimize any negative consequences. Careful planning also ensures that resources are allocated efficiently and goals are aligned with the desired outcomes. This proactive approach helps to stay ahead of adversaries and maintain an advantage in cyberspace operations.

76. Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

A. Network.

B. Physical.

C. Data Link.

D. Transport.

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between end systems. It provides services such as segmentation, reassembly, flow control, and error recovery. Virtual circuits are a connection-oriented communication method where a path is established before data transmission, and the Transport layer manages the virtual circuit setup and teardown. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Transport.

Explanation

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between end systems. It provides services such as segmentation, reassembly, flow control, and error recovery. Virtual circuits are a connection-oriented communication method where a path is established before data transmission, and the Transport layer manages the virtual circuit setup and teardown. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Transport.

77. What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

A. Hub.

B. Bridge.

C. Switch.

D. Router.

A bridge is a Data Link Layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It does this by analyzing the MAC addresses of the incoming frames and forwarding them only to the appropriate segment. This helps to reduce collisions and improve network performance by dividing the network into smaller, more manageable segments. A bridge operates at the Data Link Layer of the OSI model and can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and Wi-Fi.

Explanation

A bridge is a Data Link Layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It does this by analyzing the MAC addresses of the incoming frames and forwarding them only to the appropriate segment. This helps to reduce collisions and improve network performance by dividing the network into smaller, more manageable segments. A bridge operates at the Data Link Layer of the OSI model and can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and Wi-Fi.

78. Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

A. Draft and sign minutes.

B. Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).

C. Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description.

D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education plans. They draft and sign minutes, finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalize the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they do not finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses. This task is likely handled by another team or department within the organization.

Explanation

The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education plans. They draft and sign minutes, finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalize the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they do not finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses. This task is likely handled by another team or department within the organization.

79. Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and

A. modulation of datagrams through an internetwork.

B. Layer–1 error determination and correction through an internetwork .

C. Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel determination through an internetwork .

D. transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork .

The correct answer is d. Routing activities involve determining optimal routing paths and transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork. Routing is the process of selecting a path for network traffic to travel from its source to its destination. This involves analyzing network topology, traffic conditions, and other factors to determine the most efficient route for packets to follow. Once the optimal route is determined, the packets are then transported through the internetwork along that path.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Routing activities involve determining optimal routing paths and transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork. Routing is the process of selecting a path for network traffic to travel from its source to its destination. This involves analyzing network topology, traffic conditions, and other factors to determine the most efficient route for packets to follow. Once the optimal route is determined, the packets are then transported through the internetwork along that path.

80. Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

A. Simple.

B. Relative.

C. Positive.

D. Absolute.

The correct answer is c. Positive. In UNIX, there are three types of pathnames: simple, relative, and absolute. A simple pathname refers to a file or directory in the current directory. A relative pathname refers to a file or directory relative to the current directory. An absolute pathname refers to a file or directory starting from the root directory. However, there is no such thing as a positive pathname in UNIX.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Positive. In UNIX, there are three types of pathnames: simple, relative, and absolute. A simple pathname refers to a file or directory in the current directory. A relative pathname refers to a file or directory relative to the current directory. An absolute pathname refers to a file or directory starting from the root directory. However, there is no such thing as a positive pathname in UNIX.

81. Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

A. Supervisory System.

B. Remote Terminal Unit.

C. Human Machine Interface.

D. Programmable Logic Controller.

The correct answer is b. Remote Terminal Unit. A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) is a device that connects to sensors in a process and converts the analog signals from the sensors into digital data. The RTU then transmits this data to the supervisory system for monitoring and control. The RTU acts as an interface between the physical sensors and the SCADA system, allowing for the collection and transmission of real-time data. The other options, such as the supervisory system, human-machine interface, and programmable logic controller, are components of a SCADA system but do not directly connect to the sensors and convert sensor signals to digital data.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Remote Terminal Unit. A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) is a device that connects to sensors in a process and converts the analog signals from the sensors into digital data. The RTU then transmits this data to the supervisory system for monitoring and control. The RTU acts as an interface between the physical sensors and the SCADA system, allowing for the collection and transmission of real-time data. The other options, such as the supervisory system, human-machine interface, and programmable logic controller, are components of a SCADA system but do not directly connect to the sensors and convert sensor signals to digital data.

82. Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

A. AFTO Form 673.

B. AFTO Form 22.

C. AF Form 673.

D. AF Form 22.

The correct answer is AFTO Form 22. AFTO Form 22 is used for submitting recommended technical order (TO) changes. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of submitting changes to technical orders in the Air Force. AF Form 673 is not the correct form for this purpose, as it is used for documenting training and qualification records. Therefore, the correct form for submitting recommended TO changes is AFTO Form 22.

Explanation

The correct answer is AFTO Form 22. AFTO Form 22 is used for submitting recommended technical order (TO) changes. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of submitting changes to technical orders in the Air Force. AF Form 673 is not the correct form for this purpose, as it is used for documenting training and qualification records. Therefore, the correct form for submitting recommended TO changes is AFTO Form 22.

83. Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

A. The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).

B. Commander/director responsible for the guidance.

C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.

D. Publications Manager.

The AF Form 673 is a form that certifies an individual's qualification or completion of a task. The Certifying Official is the person who has the authority to endorse and verify this certification. In this case, the correct answer is c. The authoring OPR's supervisor. This means that the supervisor of the person or office responsible for creating and maintaining the form should be the one to endorse it. This ensures that there is proper oversight and accountability in the certification process.

Explanation

The AF Form 673 is a form that certifies an individual's qualification or completion of a task. The Certifying Official is the person who has the authority to endorse and verify this certification. In this case, the correct answer is c. The authoring OPR's supervisor. This means that the supervisor of the person or office responsible for creating and maintaining the form should be the one to endorse it. This ensures that there is proper oversight and accountability in the certification process.

84. Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

A. 802.11a.

B. 802.11b.

C. 802.11g.

D. 802.11n.

802.11n is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. This standard introduced multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which allows for improved data rates and increased range. It is backward compatible with previous standards and offers faster speeds and better overall performance compared to 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g.

Explanation

802.11n is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. This standard introduced multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which allows for improved data rates and increased range. It is backward compatible with previous standards and offers faster speeds and better overall performance compared to 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g.

85. Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

A. Network.

B. Physical.

C. Data Link.

D. Transport.

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes and ensures error-free transmission over the physical layer. Network switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN), making decisions based on the destination MAC address. Therefore, their operation falls under the Data Link layer.

Explanation

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes and ensures error-free transmission over the physical layer. Network switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN), making decisions based on the destination MAC address. Therefore, their operation falls under the Data Link layer.

86. At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

A. Approval Official (AO).

B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

C. DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).

D. Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).

The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. This role ensures that the program is properly implemented and followed within the organization, provides training to cardholders and approving officials, and monitors the usage of the GPC to ensure compliance with regulations and policies. The A/OPC acts as the point of contact for any issues or questions related to the GPC Program at the installation level.

Explanation

The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. This role ensures that the program is properly implemented and followed within the organization, provides training to cardholders and approving officials, and monitors the usage of the GPC to ensure compliance with regulations and policies. The A/OPC acts as the point of contact for any issues or questions related to the GPC Program at the installation level.

87. Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?

A. Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.

B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).

C. Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).

D. Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.

The correct answer is b. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR). This duty is not commonly associated with the role of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, matching reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL), and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR). This duty is not commonly associated with the role of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, matching reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL), and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions.

88. Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

A. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.

B. Joint Publication 1–02.

C. Joint Publication 1–03.

D. AFI 10–401.

The correct answer is d. AFI 10-401. The explanation for this answer is that the detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request can be found in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-401. This AFI is specifically related to the process and procedures for reclama and shortfall requests, making it the most relevant source for finding the detailed instructions. Joint Publication 1-02 and Joint Publication 1-03 may contain general information about military procedures, but they do not specifically address reclama and shortfall requests.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. AFI 10-401. The explanation for this answer is that the detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request can be found in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-401. This AFI is specifically related to the process and procedures for reclama and shortfall requests, making it the most relevant source for finding the detailed instructions. Joint Publication 1-02 and Joint Publication 1-03 may contain general information about military procedures, but they do not specifically address reclama and shortfall requests.

89. Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

A. Computer Forensics.

B. Incident Prevention.

C. Incident Detection.

D. Incident Response.

Incident Response is the correct answer because this sub-discipline is responsible for determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. It involves identifying and responding to security incidents in a timely and effective manner to minimize damage and recover from attacks. This includes activities such as analyzing and investigating incidents, containing and eradicating threats, and restoring systems and data to a secure state.

Explanation

Incident Response is the correct answer because this sub-discipline is responsible for determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. It involves identifying and responding to security incidents in a timely and effective manner to minimize damage and recover from attacks. This includes activities such as analyzing and investigating incidents, containing and eradicating threats, and restoring systems and data to a secure state.

90. What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?

A. Line encryption.

B. Link encryption.

C. Device encryption.

D. End-to-end encryption.

Link encryption is the type of encryption that is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network. It ensures that all information flowing through the link is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder. This type of encryption specifically focuses on securing the communication between two network devices or nodes, protecting the data as it traverses the link between them. It is an important security measure in maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of data in a distributed network.

Explanation

Link encryption is the type of encryption that is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network. It ensures that all information flowing through the link is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder. This type of encryption specifically focuses on securing the communication between two network devices or nodes, protecting the data as it traverses the link between them. It is an important security measure in maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of data in a distributed network.

91. Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of

A. 256 Kbps.

B. 256 Mbps.

C. 144 Mbps.

D. 144 Kbps.

ISDN is a telecommunications technology that allows for the transmission of digital data over a single pair cable. It is capable of transmission rates of 144 Kbps. This means that it can transmit data at a speed of 144 kilobits per second. It is important to note that ISDN is an older technology and has been largely replaced by faster and more efficient broadband options.

Explanation

ISDN is a telecommunications technology that allows for the transmission of digital data over a single pair cable. It is capable of transmission rates of 144 Kbps. This means that it can transmit data at a speed of 144 kilobits per second. It is important to note that ISDN is an older technology and has been largely replaced by faster and more efficient broadband options.

92. Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?

A. 802.11a.

B. 802.11b.

C. 802.11g.

D. 802.11n.

The correct answer is 802.11b. The 802.11b standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and operates at the 2.4 GHz frequency.

Explanation

The correct answer is 802.11b. The 802.11b standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and operates at the 2.4 GHz frequency.

93. The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

A. only full costs.

B. recommended course of action only.

C. full cost and recommended course of action.

D. full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements.

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes the full cost and recommended course of action. This means that it includes all the costs associated with implementing the solution, as well as the recommended steps or approach to be taken. It does not mention security requirements, so option d is not correct. Option a is incorrect because it does not include the recommended course of action. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

Explanation

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes the full cost and recommended course of action. This means that it includes all the costs associated with implementing the solution, as well as the recommended steps or approach to be taken. It does not mention security requirements, so option d is not correct. Option a is incorrect because it does not include the recommended course of action. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

94. What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

A. Policy, Security, Authority.

B. Authority, Security, Law.

C. Law, Authority, Policy.

D. Security, Policy, Law.

The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are law, authority, and policy. Law refers to the legal framework and regulations that govern cyberspace operations. Authority refers to the allocation of power and responsibility in cyberspace operations, including who has the authority to make decisions and take actions. Policy refers to the guidelines and procedures that guide cyberspace operations, including the goals and objectives that need to be achieved. These three considerations are crucial in ensuring the effective and lawful conduct of cyberspace operations.

Explanation

The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are law, authority, and policy. Law refers to the legal framework and regulations that govern cyberspace operations. Authority refers to the allocation of power and responsibility in cyberspace operations, including who has the authority to make decisions and take actions. Policy refers to the guidelines and procedures that guide cyberspace operations, including the goals and objectives that need to be achieved. These three considerations are crucial in ensuring the effective and lawful conduct of cyberspace operations.

95. Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

A. 36–2604.

B. 36–2803.

C. 36–2805.

D. 36–2845.

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Explanation

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96. In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

A. 10–401.

B. 33–360.

C. 38–101.

D. 64–117.

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Explanation

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97. Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

A. Defense-in-Depth.

B. Proactive Defense.

C. Situational Awareness.

D. Network Standardization.

The sub-discipline of Proactive Defense conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information in the Intranet Control Weapon System. This means that this sub-discipline focuses on actively identifying and addressing potential threats or vulnerabilities before they can cause any harm or disruption to the system. By constantly monitoring the system and taking proactive measures, such as implementing security protocols and conducting regular assessments, the Proactive Defense sub-discipline helps to maintain the integrity and availability of critical information within the system.

Explanation

The sub-discipline of Proactive Defense conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information in the Intranet Control Weapon System. This means that this sub-discipline focuses on actively identifying and addressing potential threats or vulnerabilities before they can cause any harm or disruption to the system. By constantly monitoring the system and taking proactive measures, such as implementing security protocols and conducting regular assessments, the Proactive Defense sub-discipline helps to maintain the integrity and availability of critical information within the system.

98. Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

A. Supervisory System.

B. Remote Terminal Unit.

C. Human Machine Interface.

D. Programmable Logic Controller.

The correct answer is "a. Supervisory System." The supervisory system in a SCADA subsystem is responsible for gathering data on the process and sending commands to the processor. It acts as the central control unit, monitoring and controlling various components of the SCADA system. The supervisory system communicates with other subsystems such as the remote terminal unit, human machine interface, and programmable logic controller to collect data and issue commands for process control.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Supervisory System." The supervisory system in a SCADA subsystem is responsible for gathering data on the process and sending commands to the processor. It acts as the central control unit, monitoring and controlling various components of the SCADA system. The supervisory system communicates with other subsystems such as the remote terminal unit, human machine interface, and programmable logic controller to collect data and issue commands for process control.

99. Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

A. Wing commander.

B. Authorizing Official (AO).

C. Wing information security office (WIAO).

D. Communications and information systems officer (CSO).

The Authorizing Official (AO) provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk. The AO is responsible for assessing the risk associated with the system and making the final decision on whether it can be authorized to operate. They have the authority to grant or deny authorization based on their evaluation of the system's security posture. The AO plays a crucial role in ensuring that information systems meet the necessary security requirements before they are allowed to operate.

Explanation

The Authorizing Official (AO) provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk. The AO is responsible for assessing the risk associated with the system and making the final decision on whether it can be authorized to operate. They have the authority to grant or deny authorization based on their evaluation of the system's security posture. The AO plays a crucial role in ensuring that information systems meet the necessary security requirements before they are allowed to operate.

100. What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

A. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems.

B. End-to-End Performance Monitoring.

C. Vulnerability scanners.

D. Capacity Planning.

Capacity planning is a system monitoring concept that involves analyzing long-term trends of network devices in order to identify future constraints. This analysis helps in understanding the capacity needs of the system and allows for the incorporation of these results into future technical baselines. This helps organizations to proactively allocate resources and plan for future growth and scalability.

Explanation

Capacity planning is a system monitoring concept that involves analyzing long-term trends of network devices in order to identify future constraints. This analysis helps in understanding the capacity needs of the system and allows for the incorporation of these results into future technical baselines. This helps organizations to proactively allocate resources and plan for future growth and scalability.