An Ultimate Quiz About Air Force Methods And Procedures

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An Ultimate Quiz About Air Force Methods And Procedures - Quiz

The Air Force is one of the vital component of the US armed forces. Are you interested to learn about great opportunities for enlisted airmen, officers, how they operate, what security measures they need to follow? If yes, take the quiz and get on the learning journey.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) What are the Air Force core values?

    • A.

      Integrity, service before self, and quality.

    • B.

      Integrity, service before self, and excellence.

    • C.

      Integrity, service to customer, and excellence.

    • D.

      Honesty, service before self, and professionalism.

    Correct Answer
    B. Integrity, service before self, and excellence.
    Explanation
    The Air Force core values are integrity, service before self, and excellence. These values reflect the principles and ideals that guide the behavior and actions of Air Force personnel. Integrity emphasizes honesty, trustworthiness, and doing what is right even when no one is watching. Service before self emphasizes the importance of putting the needs of others and the mission before personal interests. Excellence emphasizes the pursuit of the highest standards and continuous improvement in all aspects of work and service.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the

    • A.

      A. leader.

    • B.

      B. trainer.

    • C.

      C. worker.

    • D.

      D. student.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. leader.
    Explanation
    Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the leader because they are in a position of power and influence. If a leader is solely focused on their own career advancement and personal gain, they may neglect the needs and well-being of their team or organization. This can lead to a toxic work environment, lack of trust, and poor decision-making. A leader's actions and priorities set the tone for the entire team, so when they prioritize their own interests over the greater good, it can have a detrimental impact on the overall success and morale of the group.

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  • 3. 

    (002) When people are taught the right way to do something, they’re also being taught the

    • A.

      Quickest way.

    • B.

      Only way.

    • C.

      Safe way.

    • D.

      Short cuts to take.

    Correct Answer
    C. Safe way.
    Explanation
    When people are taught the right way to do something, they are also being taught the safe way. This implies that the correct method is not only the most effective or efficient, but it also ensures the individual's safety. Teaching the safe way is crucial in order to prevent accidents, injuries, or any potential harm that may occur while performing the task. It emphasizes the importance of following proper procedures and guidelines to minimize risks and maintain a safe environment.

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  • 4. 

    (002) How should you treat safety, when it is integrated effectively into your job training?

    • A.

      As part of the training.

    • B.

      As the same as the training.

    • C.

      As a separate item from the training.

    • D.

      Do not treat it as part of the training.

    Correct Answer
    C. As a separate item from the training.
    Explanation
    When safety is integrated effectively into job training, it should be treated as a separate item from the training. This means that safety should be given its own dedicated focus and attention, separate from the other aspects of the training. By treating safety as a separate item, it emphasizes its importance and ensures that it is not overlooked or overshadowed by other training topics. This approach helps to prioritize safety and ensure that it is given the necessary time and resources for effective implementation.

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  • 5. 

    (002) If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment improperly, you should

    • A.

      Write them a letter of counseling.

    • B.

      Give them refresher training.

    • C.

      Do nothing, they out rank you.

    • D.

      Alert them to the potential hazards.

    Correct Answer
    D. Alert them to the potential hazards.
    Explanation
    If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment improperly, it is important to alert them to the potential hazards. This is because their actions could potentially lead to accidents or injuries. By bringing this to their attention, you are helping to ensure their safety as well as the safety of others around them. Writing them a letter of counseling or giving them refresher training may not be necessary in this situation, as simply alerting them to the potential hazards should be sufficient. Doing nothing because they outrank you is not a responsible course of action.

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  • 6. 

    (003) A major cause of accidents is

    • A.

      Haste.

    • B.

      Laziness.

    • C.

      Horseplay.

    • D.

      Inexperience.

    Correct Answer
    C. Horseplay.
    Explanation
    Horseplay refers to rough or playful behavior that can be dangerous and lead to accidents. Engaging in horseplay can distract individuals from their surroundings and cause them to lose focus on their tasks, increasing the likelihood of accidents occurring. This behavior often involves physical contact or reckless actions that can result in injuries or damage to property. Therefore, horseplay is a major cause of accidents as it disregards safety precautions and can create hazardous situations.

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  • 7. 

    (003) Which item may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems?

    • A.

      Rings.

    • B.

      Dog tags.

    • C.

      Wristwatches.

    • D.

      Plastic rim glasses.

    Correct Answer
    D. Plastic rim glasses.
    Explanation
    Plastic rim glasses may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems because they provide protection for the eyes. Rings, dog tags, and wristwatches do not provide any protection and may even pose a risk of getting caught in machinery or causing electrical shock.

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  • 8. 

    (003) If the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, what should you do?

    • A.

      Attempt to lift it anyway.

    • B.

      Use a hand truck or forklift.

    • C.

      Get as many people as you can to help.

    • D.

      Slide the load across the floor, instead of lifting it.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use a hand truck or forklift.
    Explanation
    When the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, it is important to use a hand truck or forklift. These tools are designed to handle heavy loads and make it easier to transport them without putting excessive strain on the workers' bodies. Attempting to lift the load anyway can lead to injuries, and sliding the load across the floor can cause damage to the load as well as the floor. Getting more people to help may not be enough to ensure safe lifting, so using appropriate equipment is the best solution.

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  • 9. 

    (004) Which symptom is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation?

    • A.

      Dizziness.

    • B.

      Headaches.

    • C.

      Emotional irritability.

    • D.

      Muscular incoordination.

    Correct Answer
    C. Emotional irritability.
    Explanation
    Emotional irritability is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation. Dizziness, headaches, and muscular incoordination are common symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation due to the toxic effects of the chemicals in the fuel. However, emotional irritability is not directly related to fuel vapor inhalation and may have other causes.

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  • 10. 

    (004) When using compressed air for cleaning, use a diffuser nozzle and make sure the pressure does not exceed how many pounds per square inch (psi)?

    • A.

      15.

    • B.

      30.

    • C.

      45.

    • D.

      60.

    Correct Answer
    B. 30.
    Explanation
    When using compressed air for cleaning, it is important to use a diffuser nozzle to prevent the air from being too concentrated and causing damage or injury. Additionally, it is crucial to control the pressure of the compressed air. The correct answer is 30 pounds per square inch (psi), as exceeding this pressure can increase the risk of harm.

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  • 11. 

    (004) You use compressed air to clean clothing when

    • A.

      The air pressure is regulated and a diffuser nozzle is used.

    • B.

      The air pressure is regulated to 45 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • C.

      Using air regulated to 30 psi.

    • D.

      It is not on the body.

    Correct Answer
    D. It is not on the body.
    Explanation
    When using compressed air to clean clothing, it is important to ensure that the air is not directed towards the body. This is because the high pressure of the compressed air can cause injury to the skin, eyes, or other body parts. Therefore, the correct answer is "it is not on the body."

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  • 12. 

    (004) What are the grounding procedures for hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing operations?

    • A.

      Do not need to ground.

    • B.

      Ramp to hydraulic servicing cart.

    • C.

      Hydraulic servicing cart to ramp.

    • D.

      Hydraulic servicing cart to ramp, then cart to aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not need to ground.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Do not need to ground." This means that there is no requirement to ground the hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing operations. Grounding is not necessary in this case, which implies that the carts are not at risk of generating static electricity or causing electrical hazards during the servicing process.

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  • 13. 

    (005) During engine runup, all unnecessary personnel and equipment will be kept clear at least what distance from the rotary wing aircraft?

    • A.

      75 feet.

    • B.

      150 feet.

    • C.

      A distance equal to its length.

    • D.

      A distance equal to its rotor disk.

    Correct Answer
    C. A distance equal to its length.
    Explanation
    During engine runup, it is necessary to keep all unnecessary personnel and equipment clear of the rotary wing aircraft. The correct answer states that the distance should be equal to the length of the aircraft. This is important to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential accidents or damage to the aircraft. By maintaining this distance, there is enough space to avoid any potential hazards that may arise during the engine runup process.

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  • 14. 

    (005) Exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, especially during engine runup and shut down, because the rotor blades tend to

    • A.

      Flap at increased speeds.

    • B.

      Flap at decreased speeds.

    • C.

      Droop at increased speeds.

    • D.

      Droop at decreased speeds.

    Correct Answer
    D. Droop at decreased speeds.
    Explanation
    When approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, especially during engine runup and shut down, the rotor blades tend to droop at decreased speeds. This means that the blades will hang down or sag at slower speeds. It is important to exercise caution in this situation to avoid any potential hazards or accidents.

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  • 15. 

    (005) Radiation hazards vary based on the

    • A.

      Input power and amount of training.

    • B.

      Strength of emission and input power.

    • C.

      Time of exposure and amount of training.

    • D.

      Strength of emission and time of exposure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Strength of emission and time of exposure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "strength of emission and time of exposure." This is because radiation hazards depend on two main factors: the strength of the radiation emission and the duration of exposure to that radiation. The stronger the emission and the longer the exposure, the higher the risk of radiation hazards. The other options mentioned, such as input power and amount of training, are not directly related to radiation hazards.

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  • 16. 

    (005) What is normally a safe distance to the front and sides of the intake duct when a jet engine is operating?

    • A.

      5 feet.

    • B.

      15 feet.

    • C.

      25 feet.

    • D.

      50 feet.

    Correct Answer
    C. 25 feet.
    Explanation
    A safe distance of 25 feet is normally recommended to be maintained from the front and sides of the intake duct when a jet engine is operating. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals as jet engines can generate powerful airflows and debris that may pose a risk to anyone standing too close. By maintaining a distance of 25 feet, the risk of injury from the engine's operations is minimized.

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  • 17. 

    (006) Which object would cause an aircraft to be considered “explosives-loaded”?

    • A.

      Flares.

    • B.

      Survival kit.

    • C.

      Pyrotechnics rescue kit.

    • D.

      Fire-extinguisher cartridges.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flares.
    Explanation
    Flares are pyrotechnic devices that are used to create a bright light or smoke. They can also be used as a distress signal. Flares contain explosive materials that can cause a fire or explosion if mishandled or ignited improperly. Therefore, if an aircraft is carrying flares, it would be considered "explosives-loaded" due to the potential danger they pose.

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  • 18. 

    (006) What precaution must be observed before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar?

    • A.

      Install shorting plugs and clips.

    • B.

      Install mechanical safetying devices.

    • C.

      Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • D.

      Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF.

    Correct Answer
    C. Remove all ammunition and explosives.
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is important to remove all ammunition and explosives. This precaution is necessary to prevent any potential accidents or explosions that could occur if the ammunition or explosives were to accidentally ignite or detonate during the movement or while inside the hangar. Removing these hazardous materials ensures the safety of personnel and the aircraft.

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  • 19. 

    (007) The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by

    • A.

      Distance criteria.

    • B.

      Maintenance criteria.

    • C.

      The type of fire extinguisher.

    • D.

      The availability of fire extinguishers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distance criteria.
    Explanation
    The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by distance criteria. This means that fire extinguishers should be placed at appropriate distances from potential fire hazards, ensuring that they are easily accessible in case of an emergency. By considering distance criteria, fire extinguishers can be strategically placed to maximize their effectiveness in suppressing fires and ensuring the safety of individuals in the vicinity.

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  • 20. 

    (007) When possible, from where should you fight a fire?

    • A.

      Does not matter.

    • B.

      The upwind side.

    • C.

      With a side wind.

    • D.

      The downwind side.

    Correct Answer
    B. The upwind side.
    Explanation
    When fighting a fire, it is best to position yourself on the upwind side. This means that you should stand in a location where the wind is blowing from the fire towards you. By doing so, the smoke and heat from the fire will be blown away from you, reducing your exposure to harmful gases and increasing your visibility. Additionally, being upwind allows you to direct water or firefighting agents towards the fire more effectively, as the wind will help carry them towards the flames.

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  • 21. 

    (007) A fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products is a class

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      B.

    • C.

      C.

    • D.

      D.

    Correct Answer
    B. B.
    Explanation
    A fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products is a class B fire. Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases.

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  • 22. 

    (007) A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      B.

    • C.

      C.

    • D.

      D.

    Correct Answer
    C. C.
    Explanation
    A fire occurring in electrical equipment is classified as a Class C fire. Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring, circuit breakers, and outlets. These fires can be extremely dangerous as they can cause electrocution and spread quickly if not properly extinguished. It is important to use appropriate fire extinguishers, such as carbon dioxide or dry chemical extinguishers, specifically designed for Class C fires to safely put out the fire without risking further electrical damage or harm.

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  • 23. 

    (007) A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc sodium, and etc., is a

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      B.

    • C.

      C.

    • D.

      D.

    Correct Answer
    D. D.
    Explanation
    A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc, sodium, etc., is classified as a Class D fire. Class D fires involve combustible metals and require specific fire extinguishing agents, such as dry powder extinguishers, to effectively extinguish the fire. These fires can be extremely dangerous and can release toxic fumes and explosions if not properly managed.

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  • 24. 

    (008) Which type of auxiliary publication augments directive-type publications issued by higher headquarters?

    • A.

      Supplement.

    • B.

      Change sheet.

    • C.

      Staff summary sheet.

    • D.

      Operating instruction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supplement.
    Explanation
    A supplement is an auxiliary publication that provides additional information or updates to a directive-type publication issued by higher headquarters. It serves to expand on or clarify the information provided in the original publication. Unlike a change sheet, which only includes updates or revisions, a supplement can include new information or procedures. A staff summary sheet is a summary of information or recommendations, typically used for briefing purposes. An operating instruction is a directive that provides detailed procedures for carrying out a specific task or operation.

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  • 25. 

    (008) Which publication contains official and professional information on matters related to defense policies and programs of interest?

    • A.

      Bulletins.

    • B.

      Pamphlets.

    • C.

      Staff digests.

    • D.

      Supplements.

    Correct Answer
    C. Staff digests.
    Explanation
    Staff digests contain official and professional information on matters related to defense policies and programs of interest. They are a publication that provides concise summaries and analysis of important topics, making them a valuable resource for individuals interested in staying informed about defense policies and programs. Bulletins, pamphlets, and supplements may also contain information related to defense, but staff digests are specifically designed to provide official and professional information on these matters.

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  • 26. 

    (009) Which type of technical order (TO) files normally are established and maintained by Air Force bases and activities?

    • A.

      Distribution

    • B.

      Expanded.

    • C.

      Limited.

    • D.

      Shop.

    Correct Answer
    C. Limited.
    Explanation
    Limited technical order (TO) files are normally established and maintained by Air Force bases and activities. Limited TO files contain TOs that are specific to a particular base or activity and are not distributed to other bases or activities. These TOs may include local procedures, instructions, or equipment specific to that base or activity.

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  • 27. 

    (009) Technical orders (TO) are filed and updated in accordance with

    • A.

      TO 00–5–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B.

      TO 00–5–18-WA–1, USAF Technical Order Numbering System.

    • C.

      TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies

    • D.

      TO 00–20–2-WA–1, Maintenance Data Management

    Correct Answer
    A. TO 00–5–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System.
    Explanation
    TO 00–5–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System is the correct answer because it specifically relates to the filing and updating of Technical Orders (TO). The other options are related to different aspects of the technical order system, such as numbering, maintenance inspection, and maintenance data management, but they do not directly address the filing and updating process. Therefore, TO 00–5–1-WA–1 is the most relevant choice.

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  • 28. 

    (009) In a general technical order (TO), which part of the number identifies an individual TO?

    • A.

      First.

    • B.

      Second.

    • C.

      Third.

    • D.

      Fourth.

    Correct Answer
    C. Third.
    Explanation
    The third part of the number in a general technical order (TO) identifies an individual TO.

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  • 29. 

    (010) Which technical order (TO) establishes functional-check-flight requirements for the HH–60G helicopter?

    • A.

      TO 1H–1(H)G–01.

    • B.

      TO 1H–1(H)G–17.

    • C.

      TO 1H–1(H)G–2–1.

    • D.

      TO 1H–1(H)G–6.

    Correct Answer
    D. TO 1H–1(H)G–6.
    Explanation
    TO 1H-1(H)G-6 is the correct answer because it specifically establishes the functional-check-flight requirements for the HH-60G helicopter. The other technical orders listed do not pertain to the functional-check-flight requirements of this particular helicopter model.

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  • 30. 

    (011) Which technical order (TO) gives instructions for time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?

    • A.

      TO 00–1–2, Technical Order System.

    • B.

      TO 00–5–15-WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System.

    • C.

      TO 00–20–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.

    • D.

      TO 00–20–5-WA–1, Technical System.

    Correct Answer
    B. TO 00–5–15-WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00–5–15-WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System. This technical order provides instructions specifically for time compliance technical orders (TCTO). It is a system that ensures compliance with time-sensitive maintenance requirements for Air Force equipment.

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  • 31. 

    (011) An urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) must be completed within one to

    • A.

      5 days.

    • B.

      10 days.

    • C.

      15 days.

    • D.

      20 days.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 days.
    Explanation
    An urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) must be completed within 10 days. This means that the task or action specified in the TCTO needs to be carried out within a period of 10 days to ensure the safety or operational readiness of the equipment or system. It is important to complete the TCTO within this timeframe to prevent any potential issues or risks that may arise from the delay in addressing the specified task.

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  • 32. 

    (011) What time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for a deficiency that constitutes a hazard through prolonged continued usage?

    • A.

      Emergency action.

    • B.

      Immediate action.

    • C.

      Routine action.

    • D.

      Urgent action.

    Correct Answer
    C. Routine action.
    Explanation
    Routine action is the correct answer because a deficiency that constitutes a hazard through prolonged continued usage would typically require a TCTO that addresses the issue in a timely manner but does not require immediate or emergency action. Routine action would allow for the necessary steps to be taken to address the deficiency within a reasonable timeframe, ensuring safety without causing unnecessary disruption or panic. Urgent action may be required for more immediate or critical hazards, while immediate action would imply an even more urgent response.

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  • 33. 

    (011) Which device or publication enables you to accomplish scheduled inspections on aircraft efficiently?

    • A.

      Checklists.

    • B.

      Inspection workcards.

    • C.

      Structural repair manual.

    • D.

      Inspection sequence charts.

    Correct Answer
    D. Inspection sequence charts.
    Explanation
    Inspection sequence charts enable efficient scheduled inspections on aircraft by providing a step-by-step guide for the inspection process. These charts outline the specific sequence in which different parts of the aircraft need to be inspected, ensuring that no steps are missed and that the inspection is conducted in a systematic and efficient manner. This helps to streamline the inspection process and ensure that all necessary inspections are completed accurately and on time. Checklists, inspection workcards, and structural repair manuals may also be useful tools in aircraft inspections, but they do not specifically address the efficiency of scheduled inspections like inspection sequence charts do.

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  • 34. 

    (011) How soon should you submit a technical order (TO) deficiency report if you discover an error in the TO that involves flight safety that would result in serious injury?

    • A.

      Immediately.

    • B.

      Within 30 days.

    • C.

      At the next TO revision.

    • D.

      Within one to five days or before the next flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately.
    Explanation
    If you discover an error in the technical order (TO) that involves flight safety and could result in serious injury, you should submit a TO deficiency report immediately. This is because flight safety is of utmost importance and any potential risks should be reported and addressed as soon as possible to prevent accidents or injuries. Waiting for the next TO revision or delaying the report for one to five days or before the next flight could pose unnecessary risks and compromise safety. Therefore, immediate action is necessary in such cases.

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  • 35. 

    (012) Which level of maintenance performs off-equipment maintenance for the direct support of using organizations?

    • A.

      Phased.

    • B.

      Sectional.

    • C.

      Intermediate.

    • D.

      Organizational.

    Correct Answer
    C. Intermediate.
    Explanation
    Intermediate level of maintenance performs off-equipment maintenance for the direct support of using organizations. This means that they are responsible for repairing and maintaining equipment that is not currently in use by the organization. This level of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available for use when needed. Sectional maintenance focuses on specific sections or components of equipment, while organizational maintenance is performed by the using organization itself. Phased maintenance refers to a planned sequence of maintenance tasks.

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  • 36. 

    (013) Who uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur discrepancy trends, and documents the discrepancies accordingly on Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form/IMT 781A, after an aircraft flight is completed?

    • A.

      Section noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B.

      Dedicated crew chief.

    • C.

      Maintenance superintendent.

    • D.

      Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section.

    Correct Answer
    D. Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section.
    Explanation
    The Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur discrepancy trends, and documents the discrepancies accordingly on Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form/IMT 781A, after an aircraft flight is completed.

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  • 37. 

    (014) What must units develop to insure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) coverage after duty hours?

    • A.

      CDDAR duty roster.

    • B.

      Emergency recall or mobilization rosters.

    • C.

      On call beeper program.

    • D.

      A permanent CDDAR crew that works during non duty hours.

    Correct Answer
    B. Emergency recall or mobilization rosters.
    Explanation
    Units must develop emergency recall or mobilization rosters to ensure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) coverage after duty hours. This allows for a quick and efficient response in case of emergencies, ensuring that the necessary personnel can be mobilized and deployed to handle the situation. Having these rosters in place helps to minimize downtime and maximize the chances of successful aircraft recovery.

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  • 38. 

    (014) Who appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief?

    • A.

      Wing Commander (WG/CC).

    • B.

      Production Superintendant (pro super).

    • C.

      Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).

    • D.

      Flight Chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief.

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  • 39. 

    (015) During the fix phase of an aircraft inspection, besides performing maintenance found during the look phase, what other maintenance is performed?

    • A.

      Scheduled inspections.

    • B.

      Preplanned maintenance.

    • C.

      Unscheduled maintenance.

    • D.

      Lubrication of the helicopter.

    Correct Answer
    B. Preplanned maintenance.
    Explanation
    During the fix phase of an aircraft inspection, preplanned maintenance is performed in addition to the maintenance found during the look phase. This means that there are specific maintenance tasks that are scheduled to be carried out during this phase, rather than being a result of any issues or problems found during the inspection. These preplanned maintenance tasks are typically routine procedures that are necessary for the proper functioning and maintenance of the aircraft.

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  • 40. 

    (017) Which individual or activity determines the inspection method used to inspect aircraft?

    • A.

      Branch chief.

    • B.

      Chief of maintenance.

    • C.

      Inspection team chief.

    • D.

      Local or major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Local or major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The local or major command (MAJCOM) determines the inspection method used to inspect aircraft. This means that the decision on which inspection method to use is made at a higher level within the command structure, rather than by an individual or activity such as the branch chief, chief of maintenance, or inspection team chief. The MAJCOM is responsible for setting policies and guidelines for inspections, which are then followed by the lower-level individuals and activities involved in aircraft inspection.

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  • 41. 

    (017) How many authorized inspection concepts are used by the Air Force?

    • A.

      Two.

    • B.

      Three.

    • C.

      Four.

    • D.

      Five.

    Correct Answer
    D. Five.
    Explanation
    The question asks about the number of authorized inspection concepts used by the Air Force. The answer states that there are five authorized inspection concepts.

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  • 42. 

    (018) When an H–60 is scheduled to fly after being idle for 48 hours, what type of inspection should you perform?

    • A.

      Pre-flight.

    • B.

      Thru-flight.

    • C.

      Basic post-flight.

    • D.

      Hourly post-flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-flight.
    Explanation
    When an H-60 helicopter has been idle for 48 hours, a pre-flight inspection should be performed before it is scheduled to fly. This type of inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and operational condition before each flight. It includes checking various components and systems such as the fuel, oil, landing gear, controls, and overall condition of the aircraft. This inspection is crucial for identifying any potential issues or malfunctions that may have occurred during the idle period and ensuring the safety of the flight.

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  • 43. 

    (018) When an aircraft lands following the last flight of a flying period, what type of inspection should you perform?

    • A.

      Pre-flight.

    • B.

      Thru-flight.

    • C.

      Basic post-flight.

    • D.

      Hourly post-flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Basic post-flight.
    Explanation
    After the last flight of a flying period, a basic post-flight inspection should be performed on the aircraft. This type of inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft is in proper working condition and any potential issues or damages are identified and addressed. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's systems, components, and overall condition to ensure its airworthiness and readiness for the next flight.

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  • 44. 

    (018) What type of inspection is performed when a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station?

    • A.

      Acceptance.

    • B.

      Periodic.

    • C.

      Pre-flight.

    • D.

      Special.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acceptance.
    Explanation
    When a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station, an acceptance inspection is performed. This type of inspection ensures that the aircraft meets all the necessary requirements and standards before it is put into service. It involves checking the overall condition of the aircraft, verifying the functionality of its systems, and ensuring that all necessary documentation and paperwork are in order. This inspection is crucial in ensuring the safety and reliability of the aircraft for its intended operations.

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  • 45. 

    (019) Which form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals?

    • A.

      Air Force (AF) Form 95, Historical Data.

    • B.

      AF Form 126, Flight Data Document.

    • C.

      Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

    • D.

      AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document. This form is used for logging flight activity for individuals in the Air Force. It is a standardized form that allows for accurate and consistent recording of flight data, including mission details, aircraft information, and crew member information. This form is an important tool for tracking and analyzing flight activity for operational and administrative purposes.

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  • 46. 

    (019) Which form is used to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times?

    • A.

      Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

    • B.

      AFTO Form 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document.

    • C.

      AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.

    • D.

      AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle-Engine (operating time, cycle, and oil added) Flight Document.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle-Engine (operating time, cycle, and oil added) Flight Document.
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 781J is used to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times. This form specifically focuses on the aerospace vehicle-engine, including operating time, cycle, and oil added during flight. This form is an important document for tracking and managing the maintenance and operation of aircraft engines.

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  • 47. 

    (019) Who is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms?

    • A.

      Crew chief.

    • B.

      Flight chief.

    • C.

      Flight engineer.

    • D.

      Maintenance expediter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Crew chief.
    Explanation
    The crew chief is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms. These forms are used to document maintenance actions and inspections on aircraft. The crew chief is typically the senior enlisted member of the maintenance team and is responsible for overseeing the maintenance and readiness of the aircraft. They are also responsible for ensuring that all necessary paperwork, including the AFTO 781-series forms, is properly filled out and maintained in the aircraft's binder.

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  • 48. 

    (019) The technical orders (TO) that authorize the use of abbreviations for use in Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms are listed in

    • A.

      TO 00–05–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B.

      TO 00–10–1, Maintenance Inspection.

    • C.

      TO 00–15–1, Policies, and Procedures

    • D.

      TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.

    Correct Answer
    D. TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures. This is because TO 00–20–1-WA–1 specifically addresses the use of abbreviations for use in AFTO 781-series forms, while the other technical orders mentioned do not mention this specific topic.

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  • 49. 

    (019) Which symbol represents an unknown condition and a more serious condition may exist?

    • A.

      Red X.

    • B.

      Red W.

    • C.

      Red dash.

    • D.

      Red diagonal.

    Correct Answer
    C. Red dash.
    Explanation
    The red dash symbol represents an unknown condition and also indicates that a more serious condition may exist. This symbol is commonly used in warning signs or cautionary labels to alert individuals to potential dangers or hazards that may be present. The red dash serves as a visual indicator to grab attention and prompt individuals to take necessary precautions or seek further information before proceeding.

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  • 50. 

    (020) Which Air Force form is used to show physical presence or absence of aircraft –21 equipment?

    • A.

      Air Force (AF) Form 126, Transfer/Shipping List.

    • B.

      Department of Defense (DD) Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document.

    • C.

      AF Form 2691, Aircraft/Missile Equipment Property Record.

    • D.

      AF Form 2721, Property Record.

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 2691, Aircraft/Missile Equipment Property Record.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
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