3P071 Volume 2 UREs 2017

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1/98 Questions

(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?
- A. Security Forces.
- B. Intelligence fusion cell.
- C. Other Air Force members.
- D. Air Force Office of Special Investigation.

About This Quiz

UREs taken directly out of Volume 2 CDCs Security Forces 3P071 CDCs

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2.

2. (201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except
- A. focused logistics.
- B. full dimensional protection.
- C. capabilites for dominanting mass.
- D. concept of the full spectrum dominance.
Correct Answer

A. C. capabilites for dominanting mass.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. capabilities for dominating mass. The guiding principles of the integrated defense concept include focused logistics, full dimensional protection, and the concept of full spectrum dominance. However, there is no mention of "capabilities for dominating mass" as one of the guiding principles.

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3.

3. (201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to
- A. deny.
- B. deter.
- C. delay.
- D. defuse.
Correct Answer

A. D. defuse.

Explanation

Integrated defense refers to a comprehensive and coordinated approach to protecting against threats. In this context, "defuse" means to neutralize or de-escalate a threat or potential conflict. This suggests that integrated defense does not necessarily require the capability to deny, deter, or delay an attack, but rather focuses on resolving conflicts and diffusing tensions.

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4.

4. (201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the
- A. MAJCOM commander
- B. installation commander.
- C. Defense force commander.
- D. Integrated Defense Working Group.
Correct Answer

A. C. Defense force commander.

Explanation

The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly support the Defense force commander. This means that the intelligence fusion cell provides crucial information and analysis to the Defense force commander, enabling them to make informed decisions and effectively lead the defense force. The fusion cell's products likely include intelligence reports, assessments, and other information that is vital for the commander's situational awareness and decision-making process.

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5.

5. (202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as
- A. conventional weapons.
- B. mission support assets.
- C. power projection assets.
- D. non-nuclear weapon systems.
Correct Answer

A. C. power projection assets.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. power projection assets. Power projection assets are non-nuclear assets that are crucial for the Air Force's ability to project decisive combat power and wage war. These assets include aircraft, missiles, and other equipment that are used to project military force and engage in combat operations. The loss or disablement of these assets would significantly harm the Air Force's effectiveness in carrying out its mission.

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6.

6. (203) What is defined as “organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for”?
- A. Integrated Defense Plan.
- B. Integrated Defense Concepts.
- C. Integrated Defense Security Systems.
- D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process.
Correct Answer

A. A. Integrated Defense Plan.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Integrated Defense Plan." This term refers to the act of organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal and external agencies. It ensures that all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for. The Integrated Defense Plan is a comprehensive strategy that outlines the measures and actions needed to protect the installation and its assets from potential threats and risks. It involves coordination and collaboration between various agencies and stakeholders to ensure a cohesive and effective defense strategy.

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7.

7. (203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units
- A. only if the installation is a full time reserve or guard installation/unit.
- B. only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources.
- C. only if the installation has non-Protection Level (PL) resources.
- D. only during war.
Correct Answer

A. B. only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources.

Explanation

IDPs are plans that integrate the defense capabilities of Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units. These plans are only accomplished by installations/units that are responsible for protection level resources. This means that only installations/units that have the responsibility to protect important resources and assets will have IDPs in place. The other options are not correct because they do not accurately describe the conditions under which IDPs are accomplished.

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8.

8. (203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?
- A. Physical barriers.
- B. Night vision device.
- C. Infrared imaging device.
- D. Closed-circuit television.
Correct Answer

A. A. Physical barriers.

Explanation

Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders because they create obstacles that prevent or slow down unauthorized access. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, and other physical structures that are designed to deter and impede intruders. By delaying intruders, security forces have more time to assess the threat, classify it, and respond appropriately. This allows for a more effective and coordinated response to potential security breaches.

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9.

9. (204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as
- A. a safe area.
- B. a search area.
- C. a denial area.
- D. an exclusion area.
Correct Answer

A. B. a search area.

Explanation

A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as a search area. This suggests that the purpose of this area is to conduct thorough searches and inspections to ensure the security and safety of the personnel and vehicles entering or passing through it. It implies that there may be specific protocols and procedures in place to identify and verify the individuals and vehicles, possibly including searches for prohibited items or contraband.

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10.

10. (204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
- A. Parking area.
- B. Staging area.
- C. Overwatch.
- D. Search pit.
Correct Answer

A. B. Staging area.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Staging area. The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible to ensure that it does not interfere with the search operations. This area is typically used for organizing and preparing equipment, personnel, and resources before they are deployed for the search. By keeping the staging area further away, it allows for a clear and unobstructed path for search teams to move in and out of the search facility without any hindrance.

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11.

11. (204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and
- A. separating the enemy from vehicle support when they are using mounted operations.
- B. channeling the enemy into places where they can more easily be engaged.
- C. protecting defending units.
- D. isolating objectives.
Correct Answer

A. D. isolating objectives.

Explanation

Obstacles in offense serve multiple purposes such as limiting enemy counterattacks, cutting off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and separating the enemy from vehicle support. However, the correct answer is isolating objectives. This means that obstacles are used to create a physical barrier around the objectives, preventing the enemy from reaching or accessing them easily. By isolating objectives, the defending units can focus on protecting them without being easily overwhelmed or distracted by enemy forces.

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12.

12. (204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are
- A. existing and reinforcing.
- B. disrupting and turning.
- C. blocking and turning.
- D. turning and fixing.
Correct Answer

A. A. existing and reinforcing.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. existing and reinforcing. This answer is supported by the information provided in the question, which states that the two types of obstacles typically encountered are existing and reinforcing. The other answer choices (disrupting and turning, blocking and turning, turning and fixing) are not mentioned in the question and therefore do not align with the given information.

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13.

13. (205) “To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders” is the mission of the
- A. Army.
- B. Navy.
- C. Air Force.
- D. Marine Corps.
Correct Answer

A. A. Army.

Explanation

The given mission statement emphasizes the goal of providing land dominance in support of combatant commanders across all types of military operations and conflicts. This aligns with the primary role of the Army, which is to conduct ground warfare and land-based operations. The Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps have different missions and focus on different domains of warfare, such as maritime, air, and amphibious operations respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Army.

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14.

14. (205) What is the Navy’s largest formation?
- A. Fleet.
- B. Flotilla.
- C. Task Force.
- D. Strike Group.
Correct Answer

A. A. Fleet.

Explanation

The Navy's largest formation is a Fleet. A fleet is a large group of ships, submarines, and aircraft that are organized and deployed together for a specific mission or operation. It is the highest level of naval organization and can consist of multiple task forces, strike groups, and other smaller units. Fleets are responsible for conducting major operations and projecting naval power in a specific region or theater of operations.

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15.

15. (205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force
- A. squadron.
- B. group.
- C. flight.
- D. wing.
Correct Answer

A. C. flight.

Explanation

A Marine Corps platoon is a smaller unit compared to a squadron, group, or wing, which are typically larger units. In the Air Force, a flight is the equivalent of a platoon in the Marine Corps. Therefore, the correct answer is c. flight.

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16.

16. (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A. non-state-supported.
- B. state-supported.
- C. state-organized.
- D. stated-directed.
Correct Answer

A. B. state-supported.

Explanation

The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is "state-supported." This means that the group is not directly controlled or organized by the government, but the government provides assistance, such as funding, weapons, or training, to the group. This support allows the group to carry out its activities and achieve its objectives.

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17.

17. (206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A. 16 and 24.
- B. 21 and 28.
- C. 23 and 30.
- D. 25 and 32.
Correct Answer

A. C. 23 and 30.

Explanation

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of 23 and 30. This age range is considered to be the prime time for physical and mental capabilities, which makes individuals in this age group more suitable for carrying out terrorist activities. Additionally, individuals in this age range are often more easily influenced and manipulated, making them vulnerable to recruitment by terrorist organizations.

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18.

18. (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A. Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
- B. One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
- C. Just before departing for the target.
- D. Before executing the attack.
Correct Answer

A. C. Just before departing for the target.

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for final rehearsal just before departing for the target. This allows them to review their plans, coordinate their actions, and ensure that everyone is prepared for the attack. By conducting a final rehearsal at this stage, the team can identify any potential issues or weaknesses in their plan and make any necessary adjustments before executing the attack. This increases the chances of a successful operation and minimizes the risk of failure or capture.

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19.

19. (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A. arson.
- B. bombing.
- C. hijacking.
- D. assassination.
Correct Answer

A. B. bombing.

Explanation

Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic to cause fear, destruction, and casualties. Bombs can be placed in public areas, transportation systems, or targeted at specific individuals or buildings. This method allows terrorists to inflict maximum damage and casualties, while also attracting widespread media attention. Bombings have been used by various terrorist groups around the world, making it the most commonly employed tactic.

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20.

20. (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A. Activity.
- B. Intentions.
- C. Operational capability.
- D. Operating environment.
Correct Answer

A. B. Intentions.

Explanation

The term that describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is "intentions." This refers to the expressed or documented plans or goals of terrorists to carry out attacks on US targets. It indicates their motivation and purpose behind their actions.

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21.

21. (207) Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A. Agent activity.
- B. Sympathizers.
- C. Terrorists.
- D. Partisans.
Correct Answer

A. B. Sympathizers.

Explanation

Random acts against targets of opportunity suggest that the individuals involved are not organized or part of a larger group, but rather acting individually or in small, uncoordinated groups. Sympathizers are individuals who may share the same beliefs or ideologies as a terrorist group, but are not officially part of the group and may carry out attacks on their own. This aligns with the description of random acts against targets of opportunity, making option b, sympathizers, the correct answer.

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22.

22. (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?
- A. Agent activity.
- B. Sympathizers.
- C. Terrorists.
- D. Partisans.
Correct Answer

A. C. Terrorists.

Explanation

Terrorists are defined as individuals or small groups who use a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices. They engage in acts of violence and intimidation to achieve their political, religious, or ideological goals. This term accurately describes the behavior and tactics mentioned in the question.

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23.

23. (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
- A. I.
- B. II.
- C. III.
- D. IV.
Correct Answer

A. C. III.

Explanation

Threat level doctrine III stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers. This means that in threat level III, the military strategy involves deploying battalion-size units using helicopters to penetrate enemy territory up to a distance of 50 kilometers. This doctrine emphasizes the use of helicopters for quick and efficient insertion of troops into enemy territory.

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24.

24. (208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
- A. Deter.
- B. Detect.
- C. Defuse.
- D. Mitigate.
Correct Answer

A. C. Defuse.

Explanation

The term "force protection" refers to measures taken to safeguard military personnel, equipment, and resources from threats. The options listed are all actions that contribute to force protection, except for "defuse." Deterrence refers to actions taken to discourage potential adversaries from attacking. Detection involves identifying and recognizing threats. Mitigation refers to reducing the impact of an attack or threat. However, "defuse" does not directly relate to force protection, as it typically refers to reducing the tension or hostility in a potentially dangerous situation.

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25.

25. (208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
- A. a classified protection plan.
- B. an offensive force protection plan.
- C. a defensive force protection plan.
- D. protecting sensitive information.
Correct Answer

A. D. protecting sensitive information.

Explanation

The key to force protection countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This means safeguarding any information that could be used by adversaries to harm or exploit the force. By ensuring the confidentiality of sensitive information, the force can prevent potential threats and effectively plan and implement countermeasures to protect itself.

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26.

26. (208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?
- A. Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).
- B. Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).
- C. Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC).
- D. Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD).
Correct Answer

A. D. Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD).

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD). This is the correct answer because it accurately describes the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy. Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD) is a commonly used term in military tactics and strategies. Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD) and deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC) are not accurate descriptions of this capability.

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27.

27. (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?
- A. Disguise.
- B. Decoy.
- C. Blend.
- D. Hide.
Correct Answer

A. B. Decoy.

Explanation

Decoy is the correct answer because it refers to simulating an object or using a signature generator to simulate a potential target. A decoy is something that is used to distract or deceive others, often by imitating or mimicking something else. In this context, using a decoy would involve creating a simulated object or generating a signature that mimics a potential target in order to divert attention or mislead others.

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28.

28. (209) Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander’s rules for
- A. mission requirements.
- B. national policy goals.
- C. the use of force.
- D. the rule of law.
Correct Answer

A. C. the use of force.

Explanation

Rules of engagement (ROE) are guidelines that outline the circumstances and limitations under which military personnel are authorized to use force. These rules are established by the commander and serve as a framework for decision-making in combat situations. They ensure that military actions are conducted within the boundaries of international law and adhere to the principles of proportionality and distinction. ROE help prevent unnecessary casualties and ensure that force is used effectively and responsibly. Therefore, option c, "the use of force," is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of ROE.

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29.

29. (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
- A. Legal.
- B. Policy.
- C. Military.
- D. Civilian.
Correct Answer

A. D. Civilian.

Explanation

The Rules of Engagement are guidelines that dictate the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. These rules are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions comply with international laws and regulations. Policy considerations align military actions with the objectives and goals of the government or organization. Military considerations take into account the capabilities and limitations of the military forces involved. However, civilian considerations do not drive the Rules of Engagement as they are focused on the operational and strategic aspects of military actions rather than the welfare or interests of civilians.

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30.

30. (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?
- A. Hostile act.
- B. Hostile force.
- C. Hostile intent.
- D. Elements of self-defense.
Correct Answer

A. C. Hostile intent.

Explanation

Hostile intent is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces, including the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces. This means that hostile intent refers to the intention or plan to use force against the U.S. or its forces, even if the force has not yet been carried out. It encompasses the potential danger and harm that may be caused by an individual or group who intends to harm U.S. forces or hinder their mission.

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31.

31. (210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?
- A. 2.
- B. 4.
- C. 6.
- D. 8.
Correct Answer

A. C. 6.

Explanation

The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has six posturing codes.

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32.

32. (210) When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at
- A. any level.
- B. unit level.
- C. MAJCOM level.
- D. Air Staff level only.
Correct Answer

A. A. any level.

Explanation

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change can be initiated at any level within the organization. This means that individuals at any level, whether it be unit level, MAJCOM level, or Air Staff level, have the authority to initiate the change. This allows for flexibility and decentralization in the decision-making process, ensuring that changes can be made efficiently and effectively wherever they are needed within the organization.

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33.

33. (210) What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?
- A. QFEBU.
- B. QFEPR.
- C. QFEBF.
- D. QFEBA.
Correct Answer

A. D. QFEBA.

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBA. QFEBA is the unit type code (UTC) that provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit. QFEBU, QFEPR, and QFEBF are not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be the correct answer.

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1
34.

34. (211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?
- A. Five.
- B. Four.
- C. Three.
- D. Two.
Correct Answer

A. B. Four.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Four. The deployment process consists of four phases. These phases include planning, building, testing, and releasing. Each phase plays a crucial role in ensuring a successful deployment. Planning involves determining the goals, requirements, and timeline for the deployment. Building involves creating the necessary infrastructure and configurations. Testing involves verifying that the deployment functions correctly and meets the desired specifications. Releasing involves making the deployment available to users.

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35.

35. (211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?
- A. Deployment.
- B. Employment.
- C. Re-deployment.
- D. Pre-deployment.
Correct Answer

A. A. Deployment.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Deployment. The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration (RSOI) begins in the deployment phase. RSOI involves receiving and processing personnel and equipment, preparing them for onward movement to their operational area, and integrating them into the existing infrastructure and support systems. This phase is crucial for ensuring that all necessary resources and personnel are in place before the actual employment phase begins. Re-deployment refers to the process of returning personnel and equipment back to their home base after the mission is completed, while pre-deployment refers to the activities conducted before the actual deployment phase.

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36.

36. (211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?
- A. Installation deployment readiness cell.
- B. Installation personnel readiness team.
- C. Installation deployment officer.
- D. Unit deployment manager.
Correct Answer

A. A. Installation deployment readiness cell.

Explanation

The focal point for all base deployments in the deployment process is the Installation deployment readiness cell. This cell is responsible for ensuring that all necessary preparations and resources are in place for a successful deployment. They coordinate with various teams and personnel to ensure that everything is ready, including personnel readiness, equipment readiness, and logistical support. They play a crucial role in the overall planning and execution of deployments at the base.

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37.

37. (212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
- A. Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS).
- B. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.
- C. Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART).
- D. Mission-essential task list (METL).
Correct Answer

A. B. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.

Explanation

The question asks for a readiness reporting tool that is not included in the given options. The options include SORTS, ART, and METL, which are all well-known readiness reporting tools used in the military. However, the DOC statement is not a readiness reporting tool but rather a document that outlines the capabilities and requirements of a unit or organization. Therefore, option b is the correct answer as it is not a readiness reporting tool.

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38.

38. (212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?
- A. 4.
- B. 7.
- C. 10.
- D. 15.
Correct Answer

A. A. 4.

Explanation

The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has four areas of reporting.

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39.

39. (212) A summary of a unit’s mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as
- A. a Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS).
- B. a Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement.
- C. an Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART).
- D. a Mission Essential Task List (METL).
Correct Answer

A. B. a Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement.

Explanation

A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement is a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, and equipped with. It outlines the unit's capabilities and objectives, providing a clear understanding of what the unit is capable of achieving. The DOC Statement is an important tool for planning and decision-making within the unit, as it helps leaders assess and allocate resources effectively to accomplish the mission.

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40.

40. (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?
- A. Any deficiencies.
- B. Any hazards.
- C. Any threats.
- D. Any risks.
Correct Answer

A. A. Any deficiencies.

Explanation

Security Forces (SF) must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force. This means that SF needs to be vigilant in identifying any shortcomings or weaknesses in security measures, equipment, or procedures. By identifying and addressing these deficiencies promptly, SF can help to enhance the overall security and safety of the Air Force. This proactive approach allows for timely mitigation of any potential vulnerabilities or risks that could pose a threat to the Air Force's operations and personnel.

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41.

41. (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?
- A. One.
- B. Two.
- C. Three.
- D. Four.
Correct Answer

A. B. Two.

Explanation

At a minimum, two after action reports (AARs) must be submitted. This suggests that there are multiple events or scenarios that need to be analyzed and reported on. One AAR would not be sufficient to capture all the necessary information and insights. Three or four AARs would be excessive and unnecessary, as the question specifically asks for the minimum number. Therefore, the correct answer is two.

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42.

42. (213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?
- A. 45 days.
- B. 30 days.
- C. 15 days.
- D. 5 days.
Correct Answer

A. C. 15 days.

Explanation

The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted 15 days prior to the end of a deployment. This allows for sufficient time for the report to be reviewed and any necessary actions or changes to be implemented before the deployment concludes.

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43.

43. (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?
- A. Combat arms or training incident.
- B. Shooting Incident.
- C. Security Incident.
- D. Miscellaneous.
Correct Answer

A. D. Miscellaneous.

Explanation

The use of electronic control devices does not fall under combat arms or training incidents, shooting incidents, or security incidents. Instead, it is classified as a miscellaneous incident.

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44.

44. (214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the
- A. tactical level.
- B. strategic level.
- C. operational level.
- D. administrative level.
Correct Answer

A. C. operational level.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. operational level. The nuclear roadmap, as mentioned in the question, focuses primarily on the operational level. This means that it deals with the practical aspects and implementation of nuclear strategies and plans. The operational level is concerned with the day-to-day activities and decision-making related to nuclear operations, such as deployment, targeting, and employment of nuclear weapons.

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45.

45. (214) What is essential to our security?
- A. Nuclear operations.
- B. Nuclear deterrence.
- C. Nuclear restraint.
- D. Nuclear surety.
Correct Answer

A. B. Nuclear deterrence.

Explanation

Nuclear deterrence is essential to our security because it serves as a deterrent against potential adversaries by maintaining a credible nuclear arsenal. It aims to discourage any hostile actions by making the cost of aggression too high for an enemy to bear. By possessing a strong nuclear deterrent, a country can protect its national security and prevent potential conflicts. This strategy has been a key element of global security and stability for many nations.

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46.

46. (214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
- A. installation commanders.
- B. combatant commanders.
- C. Secretary of Defense.
- D. the president.
Correct Answer

A. B. combatant commanders.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. combatant commanders. The nuclear roadmap is a strategic plan that aligns the mission focus of the nuclear enterprise with the priorities and objectives of the combatant commanders. The combatant commanders are responsible for the military operations in their respective geographic or functional areas of responsibility, and they play a key role in shaping and executing the nuclear mission. By aligning the nuclear roadmap with the combatant commanders, the military can ensure that its nuclear capabilities are effectively integrated into overall military operations and national security strategy.

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47.

47. (214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?
- A. Nuclear Weapon Security Standard
- B. Nuclear Weapon Security Principle.
- C. Nuclear Weapon Security Program.
- D. Two-Person Concept.
Correct Answer

A. A. Nuclear Weapon Security Standard

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Nuclear Weapon Security Standard. This refers to the set of guidelines and protocols put in place to prevent unauthorized access to nuclear weapons. It ensures that strict security measures are followed to protect these weapons from falling into the wrong hands. The standard includes physical security measures, such as secure storage facilities and access controls, as well as personnel security measures, such as background checks and training. By implementing and adhering to this standard, the risk of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons is significantly reduced.

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48.

48. (214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by
- A. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
- B. Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC).
- C. Major Command Inspector General (MAJCOM IG).
- D. Department of Defense Inspector General (DOD IG).
Correct Answer

A. A. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).

Explanation

Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA). This means that the DIA is responsible for assessing whether the security program is capable of meeting the standards set for nuclear weapon security. The DIA is likely to have the necessary expertise and knowledge to evaluate the program effectively.

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49.

49. (214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle
- A. Deter.
- B. Delay.
- C. Denial.
- D. Detect.
Correct Answer

A. B. Delay.

Explanation

Active and passive security measures are used to achieve the principle of delay. Delaying an attacker's progress or access to a system or information is an effective way to buy time for detection and response. Active measures involve actively engaging with the attacker, such as through firewalls, intrusion detection systems, or access controls. Passive measures, on the other hand, involve creating physical or logical barriers to slow down an attacker, such as locks, encryption, or biometric authentication. Both types of measures work together to delay an attacker's progress and increase the chances of detection and response.

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Quiz Edited by
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Feb 21, 2017

Quiz Created by
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3P071 Volume 2 UREs 2017

(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?

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2. (201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except

3. (201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to

4. (201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the

5. (202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as

6. (203) What is defined as “organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for”?

7. (203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units

8. (203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?

9. (204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as

10. (204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?

11. (204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and

12. (204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are

13. (205) “To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders” is the mission of the

14. (205) What is the Navy’s largest formation?

15. (205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force

16. (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

17. (206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

18. (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

19. (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

20. (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

21. (207) Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

22. (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?

23. (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?

24. (208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?

25. (208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is

26. (208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?

27. (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?

28. (209) Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander’s rules for

29. (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?

30. (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?

31. (210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?

32. (210) When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at

33. (210) What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?

34. (211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?

35. (211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?

36. (211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?

37. (212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?

38. (212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?

39. (212) A summary of a unit’s mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as

40. (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?

41. (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?

42. (213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?

43. (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?

44. (214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the

45. (214) What is essential to our security?

46. (214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with

47. (214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?

48. (214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by

49. (214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle