14. (205) What...
91. (224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?
19. (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
13. (205) "To...
28. (209) Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for
89. (224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the...
8. ...
3. ...
86. (223) Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense...
16. (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates...
74. (219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with
78. (221) In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering...
27. (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature...
85. (223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF...
60. (216) If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all...
73. (219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the...
29. (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
83. (222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise...
95. (226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
98. (227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and...
58. (216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry...
68. (217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists...
22. (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small...
80. (221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead...
87. (223) Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)...
9. ...
59. (216) One escort official can escort how many people into an...
12. (204) The...
15. (205) A...
79. (221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy...
(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID)...
30. (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force...
33. (210) What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and...
88. (223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical...
92. (225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
41. (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be...
7. ...
57. (216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to...
61. (217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
63. (217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
76. (220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or...
90. (224) Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of...
40. (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified...
43. (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what...
54. (215) The product resulting from collecting, processing,...
66. (217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a...
100. (227) When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the...
50. (214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person...
56. (216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form
17. (206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average...
71. (218) (DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on...
35. (211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and...
93. (225) The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire...
53. (215) "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view,...
18. (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final...
20. (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of...
82. (222) Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the...
42. (213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how...
10. (204) What...
24. (208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
32. (210) When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major...
36. (211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point...
47. (214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to...
64. (217) Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable...
70. (218) The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be
45. (214) What is essential to our security?
77. (220) Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
26. (208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the...
46. (214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
5. ...
65. (217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals...
84. (222) What would not be discussed in the service and support...
62. (217) Where would you find a weapon security vault?
75. (220) How many categories of patrols are there?
23. (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of...
94. (225) By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with...
6. ...
11. (204) In...
72. (218) How many types of nuclear movements are there on an...
25. (208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
37. (212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
2. ...
34. (211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?
21. (207) Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts...
38. (212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how...
39. (212) A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has...
48. (214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the...
31. (210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many...
49. (214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve...
67. (217) (DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition?
97. (226) Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post...
52. (215) How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern...
69. (218) Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to...
4. ...
44. (214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the
51. (215) The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA)...
55. (216) The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the
96. (226) Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the...