3P071 Volume 2 UREs 2017

98 Questions | By Williamstravis | Updated: Mar 21, 2022 | Attempts: 2412

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UREs taken directly out of Volume 2 CDCs Security Forces 3P071 CDCs

Questions and Answers

1.

(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?
- A.
  
  A. Security Forces.
- B.
  
  B. Intelligence fusion cell.
- C.
  
  C. Other Air Force members.
- D.
  
  D. Air Force Office of Special Investigation.
2.

2. (201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except
- A.
  
  A. focused logistics.
- B.
  
  B. full dimensional protection.
- C.
  
  C. capabilites for dominanting mass.
- D.
  
  D. concept of the full spectrum dominance.
3.

3. (201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to
- A.
  
  A. deny.
- B.
  
  B. deter.
- C.
  
  C. delay.
- D.
  
  D. defuse.
4.

4. (201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the
- A.
  
  A. MAJCOM commander
- B.
  
  B. installation commander.
- C.
  
  C. Defense force commander.
- D.
  
  D. Integrated Defense Working Group.
5.

5. (202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as
- A.
  
  A. conventional weapons.
- B.
  
  B. mission support assets.
- C.
  
  C. power projection assets.
- D.
  
  D. non-nuclear weapon systems.
6.

6. (203) What is defined as “organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for”?
- A.
  
  A. Integrated Defense Plan.
- B.
  
  B. Integrated Defense Concepts.
- C.
  
  C. Integrated Defense Security Systems.
- D.
  
  D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process.
7.

7. (203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units
- A.
  
  A. only if the installation is a full time reserve or guard installation/unit.
- B.
  
  B. only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources.
- C.
  
  C. only if the installation has non-Protection Level (PL) resources.
- D.
  
  D. only during war.
8.

8. (203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?
- A.
  
  A. Physical barriers.
- B.
  
  B. Night vision device.
- C.
  
  C. Infrared imaging device.
- D.
  
  D. Closed-circuit television.
9.

9. (204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as
- A.
  
  A. a safe area.
- B.
  
  B. a search area.
- C.
  
  C. a denial area.
- D.
  
  D. an exclusion area.
10.

10. (204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
- A.
  
  A. Parking area.
- B.
  
  B. Staging area.
- C.
  
  C. Overwatch.
- D.
  
  D. Search pit.
11.

11. (204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and
- A.
  
  A. separating the enemy from vehicle support when they are using mounted operations.
- B.
  
  B. channeling the enemy into places where they can more easily be engaged.
- C.
  
  C. protecting defending units.
- D.
  
  D. isolating objectives.
12.

12. (204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are
- A.
  
  A. existing and reinforcing.
- B.
  
  B. disrupting and turning.
- C.
  
  C. blocking and turning.
- D.
  
  D. turning and fixing.
13.

13. (205) “To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders” is the mission of the
- A.
  
  A. Army.
- B.
  
  B. Navy.
- C.
  
  C. Air Force.
- D.
  
  D. Marine Corps.
14.

14. (205) What is the Navy’s largest formation?
- A.
  
  A. Fleet.
- B.
  
  B. Flotilla.
- C.
  
  C. Task Force.
- D.
  
  D. Strike Group.
15.

15. (205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force
- A.
  
  A. squadron.
- B.
  
  B. group.
- C.
  
  C. flight.
- D.
  
  D. wing.
16.

16. (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
  
  A. non-state-supported.
- B.
  
  B. state-supported.
- C.
  
  C. state-organized.
- D.
  
  D. stated-directed.
17.

17. (206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
  
  A. 16 and 24.
- B.
  
  B. 21 and 28.
- C.
  
  C. 23 and 30.
- D.
  
  D. 25 and 32.
18.

18. (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A.
  
  A. Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
- B.
  
  B. One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
- C.
  
  C. Just before departing for the target.
- D.
  
  D. Before executing the attack.
19.

19. (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
  
  A. arson.
- B.
  
  B. bombing.
- C.
  
  C. hijacking.
- D.
  
  D. assassination.
20.

20. (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
  
  A. Activity.
- B.
  
  B. Intentions.
- C.
  
  C. Operational capability.
- D.
  
  D. Operating environment.
21.

21. (207) Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
  
  A. Agent activity.
- B.
  
  B. Sympathizers.
- C.
  
  C. Terrorists.
- D.
  
  D. Partisans.
22.

22. (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?
- A.
  
  A. Agent activity.
- B.
  
  B. Sympathizers.
- C.
  
  C. Terrorists.
- D.
  
  D. Partisans.
23.

23. (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
- A.
  
  A. I.
- B.
  
  B. II.
- C.
  
  C. III.
- D.
  
  D. IV.
24.

24. (208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
- A.
  
  A. Deter.
- B.
  
  B. Detect.
- C.
  
  C. Defuse.
- D.
  
  D. Mitigate.
25.

25. (208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
- A.
  
  A. a classified protection plan.
- B.
  
  B. an offensive force protection plan.
- C.
  
  C. a defensive force protection plan.
- D.
  
  D. protecting sensitive information.