3P071 Volume 2 UREs 2017

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  • 1/98 Questions

    14.          (205) What is the Navy’s largest formation?  

    • A. Fleet.
    • B. Flotilla.
    • C. Task Force.
    • D. Strike Group.
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About This Quiz

UREs taken directly out of Volume 2 CDCs Security Forces 3P071 CDCs

Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    19. (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

    • A. arson.

    • B. bombing.

    • C. hijacking.

    • D. assassination.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. bombing.
    Explanation
    Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic to cause fear, destruction, and casualties. Bombs can be placed in public areas, transportation systems, or targeted at specific individuals or buildings. This method allows terrorists to inflict maximum damage and casualties, while also attracting widespread media attention. Bombings have been used by various terrorist groups around the world, making it the most commonly employed tactic.

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  • 3. 

    91. (224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?

    • A. Feet.

    • B. Yards.

    • C. Meters.

    • D. Kilometers.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Meters.
    Explanation
    The range is a measure of how far a projectile or weapon can travel. It is commonly measured in meters, as it is an internationally recognized unit of measurement for distance. Feet, yards, and kilometers are also units of measurement for distance, but meters are the most commonly used unit for measuring range.

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  • 4. 

    13.          (205) “To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders” is the mission of the  

    • A. Army.

    • B. Navy.

    • C. Air Force.

    • D. Marine Corps.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Army.
    Explanation
    The given mission statement emphasizes the goal of providing land dominance in support of combatant commanders across all types of military operations and conflicts. This aligns with the primary role of the Army, which is to conduct ground warfare and land-based operations. The Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps have different missions and focus on different domains of warfare, such as maritime, air, and amphibious operations respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Army.

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  • 5. 

    8.            (203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?  

    • A. Physical barriers.

    • B. Night vision device.

    • C. Infrared imaging device.

    • D. Closed-circuit television.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Physical barriers.
    Explanation
    Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders because they create obstacles that prevent or slow down unauthorized access. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, and other physical structures that are designed to deter and impede intruders. By delaying intruders, security forces have more time to assess the threat, classify it, and respond appropriately. This allows for a more effective and coordinated response to potential security breaches.

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  • 6. 

    28. (209) Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander’s rules for

    • A. mission requirements.

    • B. national policy goals.

    • C. the use of force.

    • D. the rule of law.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. the use of force.
    Explanation
    Rules of engagement (ROE) are guidelines that outline the circumstances and limitations under which military personnel are authorized to use force. These rules are established by the commander and serve as a framework for decision-making in combat situations. They ensure that military actions are conducted within the boundaries of international law and adhere to the principles of proportionality and distinction. ROE help prevent unnecessary casualties and ensure that force is used effectively and responsibly. Therefore, option c, "the use of force," is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of ROE.

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  • 7. 

    89. (224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?

    • A. Secondary.

    • B. Standoff.

    • C. Indirect.

    • D. Direct.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Direct.
    Explanation
    In fire control, the leader controls the fire directly. This means that the leader is actively involved in directing and managing the fire, making decisions on where and how to deploy resources to combat the fire. This can include tasks such as positioning firefighters, directing the use of fire suppression equipment, and coordinating communication and resources on the ground. The leader has direct control over the firefighting operations and is responsible for ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the fire control measures.

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  • 8. 

    3.            (201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to  

    • A. deny.

    • B. deter.

    • C. delay.

    • D. defuse.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. defuse.
    Explanation
    Integrated defense refers to a comprehensive and coordinated approach to protecting against threats. In this context, "defuse" means to neutralize or de-escalate a threat or potential conflict. This suggests that integrated defense does not necessarily require the capability to deny, deter, or delay an attack, but rather focuses on resolving conflicts and diffusing tensions.

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  • 9. 

    16. (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

    • A. non-state-supported.

    • B. state-supported.

    • C. state-organized.

    • D. stated-directed.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. state-supported.
    Explanation
    The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is "state-supported." This means that the group is not directly controlled or organized by the government, but the government provides assistance, such as funding, weapons, or training, to the group. This support allows the group to carry out its activities and achieve its objectives.

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  • 10. 

    74. (219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with

    • A. speed.

    • B. stealth.

    • C. purpose.

    • D. precision.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. stealth.
    Explanation
    The question asks for the technique that requires great patience. Out of the given options, movement with stealth requires the most patience. Stealth involves moving quietly and carefully, taking slow and deliberate steps to avoid detection. This requires a lot of patience as it involves moving slowly and cautiously, often over long periods of time.

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  • 11. 

    86. (223) Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered

    • A. a limited area.

    • B. a restricted area.

    • C. a controlled area.

    • D. an exclusion area.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. a controlled area.
    Explanation
    A Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered a controlled area because it requires strict access control and security measures. The nature of the responsibilities in a BDOC, which involve coordinating and monitoring base defense operations, necessitates a controlled environment to ensure the safety and security of the base. This may involve restricted access, security clearances, and surveillance systems to maintain control over who enters and exits the area.

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  • 12. 

    27. (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?

    • A. Disguise.

    • B. Decoy.

    • C. Blend.

    • D. Hide.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Decoy.
    Explanation
    Decoy is the correct answer because it refers to simulating an object or using a signature generator to simulate a potential target. A decoy is something that is used to distract or deceive others, often by imitating or mimicking something else. In this context, using a decoy would involve creating a simulated object or generating a signature that mimics a potential target in order to divert attention or mislead others.

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  • 13. 

    60. (216) If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of

    • A. a stay behind threat.

    • B. a two-person concept violation.

    • C. an error on the Entry Authority List (EAL).

    • D. an incorrect count by the Sole Vouching Authority (SVA).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. a stay behind threat.
    Explanation
    If an emergency arises and all personnel are not accounted for, it indicates that some individuals may have chosen to stay behind instead of evacuating. This poses a threat because these individuals may be in danger or may hinder the effectiveness of the evacuation process. Therefore, the correct answer is "a. a stay behind threat."

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  • 14. 

    73. (219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs?

    • .a. Rush.

    • B. Low crawl.

    • C. High crawl.

    • D. Spider crawl.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. High crawl.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. High crawl. In the high crawl method of movement, the body is kept off the ground and the person rests on their forearms and lower legs. This allows for a faster movement compared to low crawl, where the body is in contact with the ground, and spider crawl, which involves moving on all fours. Rush is not a method of movement and is therefore incorrect.

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  • 15. 

    78. (221) In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from

    • A. M2s

    • B. MK19s.

    • C. Mortars.

    • D. team’s own weapons.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. team’s own weapons.
    Explanation
    In fire and maneuver operations, the maneuvering forces rely mostly on their own weapons for fire support. This means that they use the weapons carried by their own team members to provide covering fire while they advance or maneuver on the battlefield. This allows the team to maintain control over their own firepower and adapt their tactics based on the situation at hand. It also ensures that the team can quickly react to changing circumstances and engage the enemy effectively.

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  • 16. 

    85. (223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty?

    • A. Flight sergeant.

    • B. Area supervisor.

    • C. Flight commander.

    • D. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller.
    Explanation
    The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty. This is because the BDOC serves as the central command and control center for security forces operations, and it is responsible for coordinating and monitoring the activities of all SF units. The BDOC controller ensures that all SF units are accounted for and properly deployed to their assigned locations, and they maintain situational awareness to effectively respond to any security threats or emergencies.

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  • 17. 

    22. (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?

    • A. Agent activity.

    • B. Sympathizers.

    • C. Terrorists.

    • D. Partisans.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Terrorists.
    Explanation
    Terrorists are defined as individuals or small groups who use a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices. They engage in acts of violence and intimidation to achieve their political, religious, or ideological goals. This term accurately describes the behavior and tactics mentioned in the question.

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  • 18. 

    29. (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?

    • A. Legal.

    • B. Policy.

    • C. Military.

    • D. Civilian.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Civilian.
    Explanation
    The Rules of Engagement are guidelines that dictate the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. These rules are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions comply with international laws and regulations. Policy considerations align military actions with the objectives and goals of the government or organization. Military considerations take into account the capabilities and limitations of the military forces involved. However, civilian considerations do not drive the Rules of Engagement as they are focused on the operational and strategic aspects of military actions rather than the welfare or interests of civilians.

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  • 19. 

    58. (216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have

    • A. technical knowledge of the task being performed.

    • B. a valid reason to be in the exclusion area.

    • C. a valid restricted area badge.

    • D. a valid entry authority list.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. a valid reason to be in the exclusion area.
    Explanation
    Members requesting entry to an exclusion area must have a valid reason to be there. This means that they must have a legitimate purpose or justification for entering the exclusion area. It is not enough for them to simply have technical knowledge of the task being performed or a valid restricted area badge. Additionally, a valid entry authority list may be required for access to certain areas, but it is not the primary requirement for entry into an exclusion area. Therefore, the most important requirement for entry into an exclusion area is having a valid reason.

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  • 20. 

    68. (217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)?

    • A. Courier only.

    • B. Entry controller.

    • C. SF representative only.

    • D. Courier and SF representative.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Courier and SF representative.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Courier and SF representative. The question asks who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF). The EALs are lists that determine who has access and authority to enter the PNAF. Both the courier and the SF (Security Forces) representative are responsible for verifying and authenticating these lists, ensuring that only authorized personnel are granted entry.

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  • 21. 

    83. (222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished?

    • A. Mission.

    • B. Situation.

    • C. Execution.

    • D. Service and support.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Mission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Mission. The mission paragraph provides a clear and concise statement of the task to be accomplished. It outlines the overall objective and purpose of the operation, giving the reader a clear understanding of what needs to be done. The mission paragraph sets the foundation for the rest of the operations order, guiding the planning and execution of the mission.

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  • 22. 

    95. (226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?

    • A. M4.

    • B. M24.

    • C. M40

    • D. M110.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. M4.
    Explanation
    The M4 is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman. This rifle is a lightweight, gas-operated, magazine-fed, air-cooled, shoulder-fired weapon that can fire in semi-automatic and three-round burst modes. It is commonly used by the U.S. military and is known for its reliability, accuracy, and versatility. The M4 is preferred for its compact size and maneuverability, making it suitable for designated marksmen who require mobility and precision in their roles. The M24, M40, and M110 are also commonly used rifles in the military, but they are typically assigned to snipers rather than designated marksmen.

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  • 23. 

    98. (227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training?

    • A. Every 4 months.

    • B. Between months 5 and 7.

    • C. Between months 8 and 10.

    • D. Annually with qualifcation.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Between months 5 and 7.
    Explanation
    Every defender must perform shoot, move, and communicate training between months 5 and 7. This suggests that this training is required on a specific timeline, indicating that it is not a one-time event. The answer options of every 4 months, between months 8 and 10, and annually with qualification do not align with the specific timeframe mentioned in the correct answer. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Between months 5 and 7.

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  • 24. 

    9.            (204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as  

    • A. a safe area.

    • B. a search area.

    • C. a denial area.

    • D. an exclusion area.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. a search area.
    Explanation
    A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as a search area. This suggests that the purpose of this area is to conduct thorough searches and inspections to ensure the security and safety of the personnel and vehicles entering or passing through it. It implies that there may be specific protocols and procedures in place to identify and verify the individuals and vehicles, possibly including searches for prohibited items or contraband.

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  • 25. 

    59. (216) One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area?

    • A. Three.

    • B. Six.

    • C. 10.

    • D. Unlimited.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Six.
    Explanation
    One escort official can escort up to six people into an exclusion area.

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  • 26. 

    80. (221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique?

    • A. Navigation.

    • B. Stalking.

    • C. Security.

    • D. Control.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Navigation.
    Explanation
    During limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is a technique used for navigation. Dead reckoning involves estimating one's current position based on a previously known position and the direction and distance traveled since then. This technique is particularly useful when visual references are obscured or unavailable, such as during fog, darkness, or heavy rain. By using dead reckoning, navigators can maintain a sense of direction and progress, even when visual cues are limited. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Navigation.

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  • 27. 

    87. (223) Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter information up to?

    • A. Flight sergeant.

    • B. Area supervisor.

    • C. Flight commander.

    • D. Operations superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Flight sergeant.
    Explanation
    The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filters information up to the Flight Sergeant. This means that the Flight Sergeant is responsible for receiving and reviewing information from the BDOC controller, and then disseminating it to the appropriate individuals or departments within the organization. The Flight Sergeant acts as a central point of contact for information flow and ensures that relevant information is shared with the appropriate personnel for decision-making and action.

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  • 28. 

    12.          (204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are

    • A. existing and reinforcing.

    • B. disrupting and turning.

    • C. blocking and turning.

    • D. turning and fixing.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. existing and reinforcing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. existing and reinforcing. This answer is supported by the information provided in the question, which states that the two types of obstacles typically encountered are existing and reinforcing. The other answer choices (disrupting and turning, blocking and turning, turning and fixing) are not mentioned in the question and therefore do not align with the given information.

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  • 29. 

    15.          (205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force  

    • A. squadron.

    • B. group.

    • C. flight.

    • D. wing.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. flight.
    Explanation
    A Marine Corps platoon is a smaller unit compared to a squadron, group, or wing, which are typically larger units. In the Air Force, a flight is the equivalent of a platoon in the Marine Corps. Therefore, the correct answer is c. flight.

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  • 30. 

    (201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept? 

    • A. Security Forces.

    • B. Intelligence fusion cell.

    • C. Other Air Force members.

    • D. Air Force Office of Special Investigation.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Security Forces.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Security Forces. Security Forces play a crucial role in providing the foundation for the integrated defense (ID) concept. They are responsible for protecting Air Force installations and personnel, conducting law enforcement operations, and ensuring the security of resources and assets. Their expertise in physical security, force protection, and emergency response contributes to the overall effectiveness of the ID concept.

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  • 31. 

    79. (221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed?

    • A. Bounding overwatch.

    • B. Traveling overwatch.

    • C. Squad File.

    • D. Traveling.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Traveling.
    Explanation
    When contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed, the movement technique used is traveling. This technique involves moving quickly and continuously, with the focus on covering ground efficiently rather than maintaining security. Bounding overwatch and traveling overwatch are used when contact with the enemy is expected, and they prioritize both movement and security. Squad file is a formation used for movement, but it is not specifically associated with situations where speed is needed and contact with the enemy is not likely.

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  • 32. 

    7.            (203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units  

    • A. only if the installation is a full time reserve or guard installation/unit.

    • B. only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources.

    • C. only if the installation has non-Protection Level (PL) resources.

    • D. only during war.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources.
    Explanation
    IDPs are plans that integrate the defense capabilities of Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units. These plans are only accomplished by installations/units that are responsible for protection level resources. This means that only installations/units that have the responsibility to protect important resources and assets will have IDPs in place. The other options are not correct because they do not accurately describe the conditions under which IDPs are accomplished.

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  • 33. 

    30. (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?

    • A. Hostile act.

    • B. Hostile force.

    • C. Hostile intent.

    • D. Elements of self-defense.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Hostile intent.
    Explanation
    Hostile intent is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces, including the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces. This means that hostile intent refers to the intention or plan to use force against the U.S. or its forces, even if the force has not yet been carried out. It encompasses the potential danger and harm that may be caused by an individual or group who intends to harm U.S. forces or hinder their mission.

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  • 34. 

    33. (210) What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?

    • A. QFEBU.

    • B. QFEPR.

    • C. QFEBF.

    • D. QFEBA.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. QFEBA.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QFEBA. QFEBA is the unit type code (UTC) that provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit. QFEBU, QFEPR, and QFEBF are not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be the correct answer.

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  • 35. 

    41. (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?

    • A. One.

    • B. Two.

    • C. Three.

    • D. Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Two.
    Explanation
    At a minimum, two after action reports (AARs) must be submitted. This suggests that there are multiple events or scenarios that need to be analyzed and reported on. One AAR would not be sufficient to capture all the necessary information and insights. Three or four AARs would be excessive and unnecessary, as the question specifically asks for the minimum number. Therefore, the correct answer is two.

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  • 36. 

    57. (216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exlusion area?

    • A. Area supervisor

    • B. Entry controller.

    • C. Sole vouching authority.

    • D. Two-person concept team.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Sole vouching authority.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Sole vouching authority. The sole vouching authority is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exclusion area. This means that they are the only person who can verify and authorize someone's entry into the area, ensuring that only those who have a legitimate reason to be there are allowed access. This role is important for maintaining security and safety within the exclusion area.

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  • 37. 

    61. (217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?

    • A. Two.

    • B. Three.

    • C. Four.

    • D. Five

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Two.
    Explanation
    A launch facility (LF) is surrounded by two lines of sensors. This means that there are two layers of sensors placed around the LF to provide security and detect any unauthorized access or intrusion. Having two lines of sensors helps to enhance the security measures and ensure the safety of the launch facility.

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  • 38. 

    63. (217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?

    • A. Missile field.

    • B. Weapons storage area (WSA).

    • C. Weapons storage and security system (WS3).

    • D. Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC).
    Explanation
    The Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC) is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons. This facility is located at Kirtland Air Force Base in New Mexico and is responsible for storing and maintaining nuclear weapons. It is an underground complex designed to ensure the security and safety of the weapons. The KUMMSC plays a crucial role in the nation's nuclear deterrence strategy by providing a secure and reliable storage facility for these weapons.

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  • 39. 

    88. (223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function?

    • A. Analyzing information.

    • B. Receiving information.

    • C. Distributing information.

    • D. Submitting recommendations.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Analyzing information.
    Explanation
    Consolidating reports involves gathering and combining information from various sources into a single report. This task is typically performed in the Analyzing Information function of a Tactical Operations Center (TOC). Analyzing information involves reviewing and interpreting data to identify trends, patterns, and insights that can inform decision-making. It is an essential function in the TOC as it helps in assessing the current situation, evaluating the effectiveness of operations, and providing recommendations for future actions.

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  • 40. 

    92. (225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?

    • A. Ridge.

    • B. Draw.

    • C. Spur.

    • D. Cliff.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Cliff.
    Explanation
    A ridge, draw, and spur are all potential directions of attack in military strategy, as they provide advantageous positions for an attacking force. However, a cliff is not a probable direction of attack because it is a natural obstacle that would be difficult to overcome and would not provide any strategic advantage. Therefore, option d, cliff, is not a probable direction of attack.

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  • 41. 

    40. (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?

    • A. Any deficiencies.

    • B. Any hazards.

    • C. Any threats.

    • D. Any risks.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Any deficiencies.
    Explanation
    Security Forces (SF) must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force. This means that SF needs to be vigilant in identifying any shortcomings or weaknesses in security measures, equipment, or procedures. By identifying and addressing these deficiencies promptly, SF can help to enhance the overall security and safety of the Air Force. This proactive approach allows for timely mitigation of any potential vulnerabilities or risks that could pose a threat to the Air Force's operations and personnel.

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  • 42. 

    43. (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?

    • A. Combat arms or training incident.

    • B. Shooting Incident.

    • C. Security Incident.

    • D. Miscellaneous.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Miscellaneous.
    Explanation
    The use of electronic control devices does not fall under combat arms or training incidents, shooting incidents, or security incidents. Instead, it is classified as a miscellaneous incident.

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  • 43. 

    54. (215) The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing and interpreting of available information concerning foreign countries or areas is

    • A. vulnerability assessments and likely adversary tactics.

    • B. motivation, objectives, and plausible scenarios.

    • C. counterintelligence.

    • D. intelligence.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. intelligence.
    Explanation
    The question asks for the product that is obtained after various steps such as collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing, and interpreting information about foreign countries or areas. The correct answer, "d. intelligence," refers to the final result of this process. Intelligence is the information that is gathered and analyzed to provide insights and knowledge about foreign countries or areas. It helps in understanding their motivations, objectives, likely tactics, and vulnerabilities, thus enabling informed decision-making and strategic planning.

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  • 44. 

    66. (217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons?

    • A. Type IV.

    • B. Type III.

    • C. Type II

    • D. Type I.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Type I.
    Explanation
    A Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons would be afforded Type I aircraft security. This level of security is the highest and is specifically designated for aircraft carrying nuclear weapons. It includes stringent measures to ensure the safety and protection of the weapons, such as armed guards, restricted access, and advanced surveillance systems.

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  • 45. 

    76. (220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal?

    • A. Raid.

    • B. Ambush.

    • C. Area reconnaissance.

    • D. Zone reconnaissance.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Raid.
    Explanation
    A raid is a type of patrol that involves conducting attacks on a position or installation and then withdrawing according to a planned strategy. This type of patrol is characterized by its offensive nature and the element of surprise. It is typically used to disrupt enemy operations, gather intelligence, or capture or destroy specific targets.

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  • 46. 

    90. (224) Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of five or more in the secondary sector?

    • A. Machine gun gunners.

    • B. M203 grenadiers.

    • C. Automatic riflemen.

    • D. Riflemen.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Machine gun gunners.
    Explanation
    Machine gun gunners have an engagement priority of groups of five or more in the secondary sector. This means that when faced with multiple targets, the machine gun gunners will prioritize engaging groups of five or more enemies over other targets. This is because machine guns are highly effective at suppressing and taking out multiple targets at once, making them the ideal choice for engaging larger groups of enemies.

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  • 47. 

    17. (206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

    • A. 16 and 24.

    • B. 21 and 28.

    • C. 23 and 30.

    • D. 25 and 32.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 23 and 30.
    Explanation
    Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of 23 and 30. This age range is considered to be the prime time for physical and mental capabilities, which makes individuals in this age group more suitable for carrying out terrorist activities. Additionally, individuals in this age range are often more easily influenced and manipulated, making them vulnerable to recruitment by terrorist organizations.

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  • 48. 

    50. (214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft?

    • A. Entry control personnel

    • B. Nonqualified personnel.

    • C. Non-US personnel.

    • D. Couriers.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Couriers.
    Explanation
    Couriers ensure that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft. They are responsible for transporting sensitive materials and ensuring that proper security measures are followed.

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  • 49. 

    56. (216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form

    • A. 116.

    • B. 321.

    • C. 590.

    • D. 2583.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 116.
    Explanation
    Security deviations are documented on AF Form 116.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Feb 21, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Williamstravis
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