3P071 Volume 2 UREs 2017

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1. 14.          (205) What is the Navy's largest formation?  

Explanation

The Navy's largest formation is a Fleet. A fleet is a large group of ships, submarines, and aircraft that are organized and deployed together for a specific mission or operation. It is the highest level of naval organization and can consist of multiple task forces, strike groups, and other smaller units. Fleets are responsible for conducting major operations and projecting naval power in a specific region or theater of operations.

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About This Quiz
Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

UREs taken directly out of Volume 2 CDCs Security Forces 3P071 CDCs

2. 91. (224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?

Explanation

The range is a measure of how far a projectile or weapon can travel. It is commonly measured in meters, as it is an internationally recognized unit of measurement for distance. Feet, yards, and kilometers are also units of measurement for distance, but meters are the most commonly used unit for measuring range.

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3. 19. (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

Explanation

Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic to cause fear, destruction, and casualties. Bombs can be placed in public areas, transportation systems, or targeted at specific individuals or buildings. This method allows terrorists to inflict maximum damage and casualties, while also attracting widespread media attention. Bombings have been used by various terrorist groups around the world, making it the most commonly employed tactic.

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4. 13.          (205) "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the  

Explanation

The given mission statement emphasizes the goal of providing land dominance in support of combatant commanders across all types of military operations and conflicts. This aligns with the primary role of the Army, which is to conduct ground warfare and land-based operations. The Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps have different missions and focus on different domains of warfare, such as maritime, air, and amphibious operations respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Army.

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5. 28. (209) Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for

Explanation

Rules of engagement (ROE) are guidelines that outline the circumstances and limitations under which military personnel are authorized to use force. These rules are established by the commander and serve as a framework for decision-making in combat situations. They ensure that military actions are conducted within the boundaries of international law and adhere to the principles of proportionality and distinction. ROE help prevent unnecessary casualties and ensure that force is used effectively and responsibly. Therefore, option c, "the use of force," is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of ROE.

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6. 89. (224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?

Explanation

In fire control, the leader controls the fire directly. This means that the leader is actively involved in directing and managing the fire, making decisions on where and how to deploy resources to combat the fire. This can include tasks such as positioning firefighters, directing the use of fire suppression equipment, and coordinating communication and resources on the ground. The leader has direct control over the firefighting operations and is responsible for ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the fire control measures.

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7. 8.            (203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?  

Explanation

Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders because they create obstacles that prevent or slow down unauthorized access. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, and other physical structures that are designed to deter and impede intruders. By delaying intruders, security forces have more time to assess the threat, classify it, and respond appropriately. This allows for a more effective and coordinated response to potential security breaches.

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8. 3.            (201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to  

Explanation

Integrated defense refers to a comprehensive and coordinated approach to protecting against threats. In this context, "defuse" means to neutralize or de-escalate a threat or potential conflict. This suggests that integrated defense does not necessarily require the capability to deny, deter, or delay an attack, but rather focuses on resolving conflicts and diffusing tensions.

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9. 86. (223) Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered

Explanation

A Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered a controlled area because it requires strict access control and security measures. The nature of the responsibilities in a BDOC, which involve coordinating and monitoring base defense operations, necessitates a controlled environment to ensure the safety and security of the base. This may involve restricted access, security clearances, and surveillance systems to maintain control over who enters and exits the area.

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10. 16. (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

Explanation

The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is "state-supported." This means that the group is not directly controlled or organized by the government, but the government provides assistance, such as funding, weapons, or training, to the group. This support allows the group to carry out its activities and achieve its objectives.

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11. 74. (219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with

Explanation

The question asks for the technique that requires great patience. Out of the given options, movement with stealth requires the most patience. Stealth involves moving quietly and carefully, taking slow and deliberate steps to avoid detection. This requires a lot of patience as it involves moving slowly and cautiously, often over long periods of time.

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12. 78. (221) In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from

Explanation

In fire and maneuver operations, the maneuvering forces rely mostly on their own weapons for fire support. This means that they use the weapons carried by their own team members to provide covering fire while they advance or maneuver on the battlefield. This allows the team to maintain control over their own firepower and adapt their tactics based on the situation at hand. It also ensures that the team can quickly react to changing circumstances and engage the enemy effectively.

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13. 27. (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?

Explanation

Decoy is the correct answer because it refers to simulating an object or using a signature generator to simulate a potential target. A decoy is something that is used to distract or deceive others, often by imitating or mimicking something else. In this context, using a decoy would involve creating a simulated object or generating a signature that mimics a potential target in order to divert attention or mislead others.

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14. 85. (223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty?

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty. This is because the BDOC serves as the central command and control center for security forces operations, and it is responsible for coordinating and monitoring the activities of all SF units. The BDOC controller ensures that all SF units are accounted for and properly deployed to their assigned locations, and they maintain situational awareness to effectively respond to any security threats or emergencies.

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15. 60. (216) If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of

Explanation

If an emergency arises and all personnel are not accounted for, it indicates that some individuals may have chosen to stay behind instead of evacuating. This poses a threat because these individuals may be in danger or may hinder the effectiveness of the evacuation process. Therefore, the correct answer is "a. a stay behind threat."

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16. 73. (219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. High crawl. In the high crawl method of movement, the body is kept off the ground and the person rests on their forearms and lower legs. This allows for a faster movement compared to low crawl, where the body is in contact with the ground, and spider crawl, which involves moving on all fours. Rush is not a method of movement and is therefore incorrect.

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17. 29. (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?

Explanation

The Rules of Engagement are guidelines that dictate the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. These rules are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions comply with international laws and regulations. Policy considerations align military actions with the objectives and goals of the government or organization. Military considerations take into account the capabilities and limitations of the military forces involved. However, civilian considerations do not drive the Rules of Engagement as they are focused on the operational and strategic aspects of military actions rather than the welfare or interests of civilians.

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18. 83. (222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Mission. The mission paragraph provides a clear and concise statement of the task to be accomplished. It outlines the overall objective and purpose of the operation, giving the reader a clear understanding of what needs to be done. The mission paragraph sets the foundation for the rest of the operations order, guiding the planning and execution of the mission.

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19. 95. (226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?

Explanation

The M4 is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman. This rifle is a lightweight, gas-operated, magazine-fed, air-cooled, shoulder-fired weapon that can fire in semi-automatic and three-round burst modes. It is commonly used by the U.S. military and is known for its reliability, accuracy, and versatility. The M4 is preferred for its compact size and maneuverability, making it suitable for designated marksmen who require mobility and precision in their roles. The M24, M40, and M110 are also commonly used rifles in the military, but they are typically assigned to snipers rather than designated marksmen.

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20. 98. (227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training?

Explanation

Every defender must perform shoot, move, and communicate training between months 5 and 7. This suggests that this training is required on a specific timeline, indicating that it is not a one-time event. The answer options of every 4 months, between months 8 and 10, and annually with qualification do not align with the specific timeframe mentioned in the correct answer. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Between months 5 and 7.

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21. 58. (216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have

Explanation

Members requesting entry to an exclusion area must have a valid reason to be there. This means that they must have a legitimate purpose or justification for entering the exclusion area. It is not enough for them to simply have technical knowledge of the task being performed or a valid restricted area badge. Additionally, a valid entry authority list may be required for access to certain areas, but it is not the primary requirement for entry into an exclusion area. Therefore, the most important requirement for entry into an exclusion area is having a valid reason.

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22. 68. (217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Courier and SF representative. The question asks who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF). The EALs are lists that determine who has access and authority to enter the PNAF. Both the courier and the SF (Security Forces) representative are responsible for verifying and authenticating these lists, ensuring that only authorized personnel are granted entry.

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23. 22. (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?

Explanation

Terrorists are defined as individuals or small groups who use a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices. They engage in acts of violence and intimidation to achieve their political, religious, or ideological goals. This term accurately describes the behavior and tactics mentioned in the question.

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24. 80. (221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique?

Explanation

During limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is a technique used for navigation. Dead reckoning involves estimating one's current position based on a previously known position and the direction and distance traveled since then. This technique is particularly useful when visual references are obscured or unavailable, such as during fog, darkness, or heavy rain. By using dead reckoning, navigators can maintain a sense of direction and progress, even when visual cues are limited. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Navigation.

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25. 87. (223) Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter information up to?

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filters information up to the Flight Sergeant. This means that the Flight Sergeant is responsible for receiving and reviewing information from the BDOC controller, and then disseminating it to the appropriate individuals or departments within the organization. The Flight Sergeant acts as a central point of contact for information flow and ensures that relevant information is shared with the appropriate personnel for decision-making and action.

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26. 9.            (204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as  

Explanation

A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as a search area. This suggests that the purpose of this area is to conduct thorough searches and inspections to ensure the security and safety of the personnel and vehicles entering or passing through it. It implies that there may be specific protocols and procedures in place to identify and verify the individuals and vehicles, possibly including searches for prohibited items or contraband.

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27. 59. (216) One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area?

Explanation

One escort official can escort up to six people into an exclusion area.

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28. 12.          (204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are

Explanation

The correct answer is a. existing and reinforcing. This answer is supported by the information provided in the question, which states that the two types of obstacles typically encountered are existing and reinforcing. The other answer choices (disrupting and turning, blocking and turning, turning and fixing) are not mentioned in the question and therefore do not align with the given information.

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29. 15.          (205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force  

Explanation

A Marine Corps platoon is a smaller unit compared to a squadron, group, or wing, which are typically larger units. In the Air Force, a flight is the equivalent of a platoon in the Marine Corps. Therefore, the correct answer is c. flight.

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30. 79. (221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed?

Explanation

When contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed, the movement technique used is traveling. This technique involves moving quickly and continuously, with the focus on covering ground efficiently rather than maintaining security. Bounding overwatch and traveling overwatch are used when contact with the enemy is expected, and they prioritize both movement and security. Squad file is a formation used for movement, but it is not specifically associated with situations where speed is needed and contact with the enemy is not likely.

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31. (201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Security Forces. Security Forces play a crucial role in providing the foundation for the integrated defense (ID) concept. They are responsible for protecting Air Force installations and personnel, conducting law enforcement operations, and ensuring the security of resources and assets. Their expertise in physical security, force protection, and emergency response contributes to the overall effectiveness of the ID concept.

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32. 30. (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?

Explanation

Hostile intent is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces, including the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces. This means that hostile intent refers to the intention or plan to use force against the U.S. or its forces, even if the force has not yet been carried out. It encompasses the potential danger and harm that may be caused by an individual or group who intends to harm U.S. forces or hinder their mission.

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33. 33. (210) What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBA. QFEBA is the unit type code (UTC) that provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit. QFEBU, QFEPR, and QFEBF are not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be the correct answer.

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34. 88. (223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function?

Explanation

Consolidating reports involves gathering and combining information from various sources into a single report. This task is typically performed in the Analyzing Information function of a Tactical Operations Center (TOC). Analyzing information involves reviewing and interpreting data to identify trends, patterns, and insights that can inform decision-making. It is an essential function in the TOC as it helps in assessing the current situation, evaluating the effectiveness of operations, and providing recommendations for future actions.

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35. 92. (225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?

Explanation

A ridge, draw, and spur are all potential directions of attack in military strategy, as they provide advantageous positions for an attacking force. However, a cliff is not a probable direction of attack because it is a natural obstacle that would be difficult to overcome and would not provide any strategic advantage. Therefore, option d, cliff, is not a probable direction of attack.

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36. 41. (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?

Explanation

At a minimum, two after action reports (AARs) must be submitted. This suggests that there are multiple events or scenarios that need to be analyzed and reported on. One AAR would not be sufficient to capture all the necessary information and insights. Three or four AARs would be excessive and unnecessary, as the question specifically asks for the minimum number. Therefore, the correct answer is two.

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37. 7.            (203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units  

Explanation

IDPs are plans that integrate the defense capabilities of Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units. These plans are only accomplished by installations/units that are responsible for protection level resources. This means that only installations/units that have the responsibility to protect important resources and assets will have IDPs in place. The other options are not correct because they do not accurately describe the conditions under which IDPs are accomplished.

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38. 57. (216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exlusion area?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Sole vouching authority. The sole vouching authority is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exclusion area. This means that they are the only person who can verify and authorize someone's entry into the area, ensuring that only those who have a legitimate reason to be there are allowed access. This role is important for maintaining security and safety within the exclusion area.

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39. 61. (217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?

Explanation

A launch facility (LF) is surrounded by two lines of sensors. This means that there are two layers of sensors placed around the LF to provide security and detect any unauthorized access or intrusion. Having two lines of sensors helps to enhance the security measures and ensure the safety of the launch facility.

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40. 63. (217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC) is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons. This facility is located at Kirtland Air Force Base in New Mexico and is responsible for storing and maintaining nuclear weapons. It is an underground complex designed to ensure the security and safety of the weapons. The KUMMSC plays a crucial role in the nation's nuclear deterrence strategy by providing a secure and reliable storage facility for these weapons.

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41. 76. (220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal?

Explanation

A raid is a type of patrol that involves conducting attacks on a position or installation and then withdrawing according to a planned strategy. This type of patrol is characterized by its offensive nature and the element of surprise. It is typically used to disrupt enemy operations, gather intelligence, or capture or destroy specific targets.

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42. 90. (224) Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of five or more in the secondary sector?

Explanation

Machine gun gunners have an engagement priority of groups of five or more in the secondary sector. This means that when faced with multiple targets, the machine gun gunners will prioritize engaging groups of five or more enemies over other targets. This is because machine guns are highly effective at suppressing and taking out multiple targets at once, making them the ideal choice for engaging larger groups of enemies.

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43. 40. (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?

Explanation

Security Forces (SF) must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force. This means that SF needs to be vigilant in identifying any shortcomings or weaknesses in security measures, equipment, or procedures. By identifying and addressing these deficiencies promptly, SF can help to enhance the overall security and safety of the Air Force. This proactive approach allows for timely mitigation of any potential vulnerabilities or risks that could pose a threat to the Air Force's operations and personnel.

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44. 43. (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?

Explanation

The use of electronic control devices does not fall under combat arms or training incidents, shooting incidents, or security incidents. Instead, it is classified as a miscellaneous incident.

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45. 54. (215) The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing and interpreting of available information concerning foreign countries or areas is

Explanation

The question asks for the product that is obtained after various steps such as collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing, and interpreting information about foreign countries or areas. The correct answer, "d. intelligence," refers to the final result of this process. Intelligence is the information that is gathered and analyzed to provide insights and knowledge about foreign countries or areas. It helps in understanding their motivations, objectives, likely tactics, and vulnerabilities, thus enabling informed decision-making and strategic planning.

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46. 66. (217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons?

Explanation

A Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons would be afforded Type I aircraft security. This level of security is the highest and is specifically designated for aircraft carrying nuclear weapons. It includes stringent measures to ensure the safety and protection of the weapons, such as armed guards, restricted access, and advanced surveillance systems.

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47. 100. (227) When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat what tactical movement is being peformed?

Explanation

When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat, they are performing a tactical movement known as "Contact rear." This means that the shooter is repositioning themselves to face a threat that is approaching from behind.

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48. 50. (214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft?

Explanation

Couriers ensure that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft. They are responsible for transporting sensitive materials and ensuring that proper security measures are followed.

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49. 56. (216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form

Explanation

Security deviations are documented on AF Form 116.

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50. 17. (206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

Explanation

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of 23 and 30. This age range is considered to be the prime time for physical and mental capabilities, which makes individuals in this age group more suitable for carrying out terrorist activities. Additionally, individuals in this age range are often more easily influenced and manipulated, making them vulnerable to recruitment by terrorist organizations.

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51. 71. (218) (DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the generation area becomes

Explanation

When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert, the generation area becomes an alert aircraft parking area. This means that the area is designated specifically for parking the alert aircraft, indicating that they are ready and prepared for immediate deployment if needed. The term "alert" implies a state of readiness, and by designating the area as a parking area, it suggests that the aircraft are positioned and ready for quick action.

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52. 35. (211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Deployment. The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration (RSOI) begins in the deployment phase. RSOI involves receiving and processing personnel and equipment, preparing them for onward movement to their operational area, and integrating them into the existing infrastructure and support systems. This phase is crucial for ensuring that all necessary resources and personnel are in place before the actual employment phase begins. Re-deployment refers to the process of returning personnel and equipment back to their home base after the mission is completed, while pre-deployment refers to the activities conducted before the actual deployment phase.

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53. 93. (225) The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within

Explanation

The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within 800 meters. This means that machine guns are effective in engaging targets within a distance of 800 meters. They are able to provide suppressive fire and support the maneuver element by engaging enemy forces at this range.

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54. 53. (215) "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue" is the definition of

Explanation

The definition provided in the question describes a person or group that holds extreme ideological views, either politically or in support of a specific issue. This aligns with the behavior of protestors who often express their strong beliefs and opinions through demonstrations, rallies, and other forms of public activism. Criminals, terrorists, and insider threats do not necessarily share the same characteristic of holding extreme ideological views, making them incorrect options.

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55. 18. (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for final rehearsal just before departing for the target. This allows them to review their plans, coordinate their actions, and ensure that everyone is prepared for the attack. By conducting a final rehearsal at this stage, the team can identify any potential issues or weaknesses in their plan and make any necessary adjustments before executing the attack. This increases the chances of a successful operation and minimizes the risk of failure or capture.

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56. 20. (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Explanation

The term that describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is "intentions." This refers to the expressed or documented plans or goals of terrorists to carry out attacks on US targets. It indicates their motivation and purpose behind their actions.

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57. 82. (222) Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations order?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Situation. In an operations order, the situation paragraph provides information about the current conditions and factors that may affect the mission. This includes weather and light data, which are important considerations for planning and executing operations.

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58. 42. (213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?

Explanation

The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted 15 days prior to the end of a deployment. This allows for sufficient time for the report to be reviewed and any necessary actions or changes to be implemented before the deployment concludes.

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59. 10.          (204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?  

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Staging area. The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible to ensure that it does not interfere with the search operations. This area is typically used for organizing and preparing equipment, personnel, and resources before they are deployed for the search. By keeping the staging area further away, it allows for a clear and unobstructed path for search teams to move in and out of the search facility without any hindrance.

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60. 24. (208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?

Explanation

The term "force protection" refers to measures taken to safeguard military personnel, equipment, and resources from threats. The options listed are all actions that contribute to force protection, except for "defuse." Deterrence refers to actions taken to discourage potential adversaries from attacking. Detection involves identifying and recognizing threats. Mitigation refers to reducing the impact of an attack or threat. However, "defuse" does not directly relate to force protection, as it typically refers to reducing the tension or hostility in a potentially dangerous situation.

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61. 32. (210) When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at

Explanation

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change can be initiated at any level within the organization. This means that individuals at any level, whether it be unit level, MAJCOM level, or Air Staff level, have the authority to initiate the change. This allows for flexibility and decentralization in the decision-making process, ensuring that changes can be made efficiently and effectively wherever they are needed within the organization.

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62. 36. (211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?

Explanation

The focal point for all base deployments in the deployment process is the Installation deployment readiness cell. This cell is responsible for ensuring that all necessary preparations and resources are in place for a successful deployment. They coordinate with various teams and personnel to ensure that everything is ready, including personnel readiness, equipment readiness, and logistical support. They play a crucial role in the overall planning and execution of deployments at the base.

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63. 47. (214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Nuclear Weapon Security Standard. This refers to the set of guidelines and protocols put in place to prevent unauthorized access to nuclear weapons. It ensures that strict security measures are followed to protect these weapons from falling into the wrong hands. The standard includes physical security measures, such as secure storage facilities and access controls, as well as personnel security measures, such as background checks and training. By implementing and adhering to this standard, the risk of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons is significantly reduced.

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64. 64. (217) Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?

Explanation

The B-1 is not considered a nuclear capable aircraft. The B-1 is a long-range strategic bomber that is capable of carrying a variety of conventional weapons, but it does not have the capability to carry nuclear weapons. The B-2 and B-52, on the other hand, are both nuclear capable aircraft, meaning they have the ability to carry and deliver nuclear weapons. The F-16 is a fighter jet and is not typically used for nuclear missions.

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65. 70. (218) The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be no closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet. This means that anyone or any object should not be within 10 feet of the aircraft to avoid any potential hazards, but should also not be further than 60 feet away in order to maintain a safe distance for communication and monitoring purposes.

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66. 45. (214) What is essential to our security?

Explanation

Nuclear deterrence is essential to our security because it serves as a deterrent against potential adversaries by maintaining a credible nuclear arsenal. It aims to discourage any hostile actions by making the cost of aggression too high for an enemy to bear. By possessing a strong nuclear deterrent, a country can protect its national security and prevent potential conflicts. This strategy has been a key element of global security and stability for many nations.

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67. 77. (220) Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?

Explanation

Defense Force Commanders (DFC) use area reconnaissance patrols to gather information. These patrols are conducted to gather intelligence about the terrain, enemy positions, and other relevant information that can assist in planning and executing military operations. The DFC is responsible for making strategic decisions and coordinating the overall operations, and therefore, they rely on area reconnaissance patrols to provide them with accurate and timely information to support their decision-making process. The S2, patrol leader, and squad leader may also be involved in the reconnaissance process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the DFC.

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68. 26. (208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD). This is the correct answer because it accurately describes the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy. Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD) is a commonly used term in military tactics and strategies. Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD) and deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC) are not accurate descriptions of this capability.

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69. 46. (214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with

Explanation

The correct answer is b. combatant commanders. The nuclear roadmap is a strategic plan that aligns the mission focus of the nuclear enterprise with the priorities and objectives of the combatant commanders. The combatant commanders are responsible for the military operations in their respective geographic or functional areas of responsibility, and they play a key role in shaping and executing the nuclear mission. By aligning the nuclear roadmap with the combatant commanders, the military can ensure that its nuclear capabilities are effectively integrated into overall military operations and national security strategy.

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70. 5.            (202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as  

Explanation

The correct answer is c. power projection assets. Power projection assets are non-nuclear assets that are crucial for the Air Force's ability to project decisive combat power and wage war. These assets include aircraft, missiles, and other equipment that are used to project military force and engage in combat operations. The loss or disablement of these assets would significantly harm the Air Force's effectiveness in carrying out its mission.

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71. 65. (217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within what timeframe of the pre-arrival window?

Explanation

PNAF rehearsals should be conducted within 48 hours of the pre-arrival window. This ensures that the rehearsals are conducted with enough time before the actual arrival, allowing for any necessary adjustments or changes to be made. Conducting the rehearsals within this timeframe also allows for proper coordination and preparation, ensuring a smooth and efficient execution of the airlift operation.

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72. 84. (222) What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of the operations order?

Explanation

The service and support paragraph of the operations order would discuss various aspects related to logistics and supplies, such as casualty collection points, cache and resupply points, and materials and supply items. However, it would not include any discussion about support fire, as that would be covered in a different paragraph or section of the operations order.

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73. 62. (217) Where would you find a weapon security vault?

Explanation

A weapon security vault can be found in the Weapons storage and security system (WS3). This system is specifically designed to store and secure weapons, ensuring their safety and preventing unauthorized access. It is a specialized facility that provides a high level of security measures to protect the weapons stored within it.

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74. 75. (220) How many categories of patrols are there?

Explanation

There are two categories of patrols.

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75. 23. (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?

Explanation

Threat level doctrine III stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers. This means that in threat level III, the military strategy involves deploying battalion-size units using helicopters to penetrate enemy territory up to a distance of 50 kilometers. This doctrine emphasizes the use of helicopters for quick and efficient insertion of troops into enemy territory.

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76. 94. (225) By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security detachments effectively achieves all of the following except

Explanation

Machine guns with security detachments are highly effective in achieving delay, attack, and defense. However, they are not specifically designed to defeat the enemy. While they can certainly cause casualties and suppress enemy forces, the primary goal of machine guns with security detachments is to provide cover and support for friendly troops rather than to completely defeat the enemy.

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77. 6.            (203) What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for"?  

Explanation

The correct answer is "Integrated Defense Plan." This term refers to the act of organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal and external agencies. It ensures that all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for. The Integrated Defense Plan is a comprehensive strategy that outlines the measures and actions needed to protect the installation and its assets from potential threats and risks. It involves coordination and collaboration between various agencies and stakeholders to ensure a cohesive and effective defense strategy.

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78. 11.          (204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and  

Explanation

Obstacles in offense serve multiple purposes such as limiting enemy counterattacks, cutting off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and separating the enemy from vehicle support. However, the correct answer is isolating objectives. This means that obstacles are used to create a physical barrier around the objectives, preventing the enemy from reaching or accessing them easily. By isolating objectives, the defending units can focus on protecting them without being easily overwhelmed or distracted by enemy forces.

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79. 72. (218) How many types of nuclear movements are there on an installation?

Explanation

There are two types of nuclear movements on an installation. The question does not provide any further information about what these movements are, but based on the options given, it can be inferred that there are only two types.

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80. 25. (208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is

Explanation

The key to force protection countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This means safeguarding any information that could be used by adversaries to harm or exploit the force. By ensuring the confidentiality of sensitive information, the force can prevent potential threats and effectively plan and implement countermeasures to protect itself.

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81. 37. (212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?

Explanation

The question asks for a readiness reporting tool that is not included in the given options. The options include SORTS, ART, and METL, which are all well-known readiness reporting tools used in the military. However, the DOC statement is not a readiness reporting tool but rather a document that outlines the capabilities and requirements of a unit or organization. Therefore, option b is the correct answer as it is not a readiness reporting tool.

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82. 2.            (201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except  

Explanation

The correct answer is c. capabilities for dominating mass. The guiding principles of the integrated defense concept include focused logistics, full dimensional protection, and the concept of full spectrum dominance. However, there is no mention of "capabilities for dominating mass" as one of the guiding principles.

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83. 34. (211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Four. The deployment process consists of four phases. These phases include planning, building, testing, and releasing. Each phase plays a crucial role in ensuring a successful deployment. Planning involves determining the goals, requirements, and timeline for the deployment. Building involves creating the necessary infrastructure and configurations. Testing involves verifying that the deployment functions correctly and meets the desired specifications. Releasing involves making the deployment available to users.

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84. 21. (207) Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Explanation

Random acts against targets of opportunity suggest that the individuals involved are not organized or part of a larger group, but rather acting individually or in small, uncoordinated groups. Sympathizers are individuals who may share the same beliefs or ideologies as a terrorist group, but are not officially part of the group and may carry out attacks on their own. This aligns with the description of random acts against targets of opportunity, making option b, sympathizers, the correct answer.

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85. 38. (212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?

Explanation

The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has four areas of reporting.

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86. 39. (212) A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as

Explanation

A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement is a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, and equipped with. It outlines the unit's capabilities and objectives, providing a clear understanding of what the unit is capable of achieving. The DOC Statement is an important tool for planning and decision-making within the unit, as it helps leaders assess and allocate resources effectively to accomplish the mission.

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87. 48. (214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by

Explanation

Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA). This means that the DIA is responsible for assessing whether the security program is capable of meeting the standards set for nuclear weapon security. The DIA is likely to have the necessary expertise and knowledge to evaluate the program effectively.

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88. 31. (210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?

Explanation

The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has six posturing codes.

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89. 49. (214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle

Explanation

Active and passive security measures are used to achieve the principle of delay. Delaying an attacker's progress or access to a system or information is an effective way to buy time for detection and response. Active measures involve actively engaging with the attacker, such as through firewalls, intrusion detection systems, or access controls. Passive measures, on the other hand, involve creating physical or logical barriers to slow down an attacker, such as locks, encryption, or biometric authentication. Both types of measures work together to delay an attacker's progress and increase the chances of detection and response.

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90. 67. (217) (DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition?

Explanation

A Type II security forces composition refers to a security response team. This team is responsible for responding to security threats and emergencies. They are trained to handle various situations and ensure the safety and security of the area they are assigned to. The other options, such as response force, area supervisor, and CIS and CBS, do not specifically refer to a Type II security forces composition.

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91. 97. (226) Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes which task of Close Precision Engagement (CPE)?

Explanation

Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post is a task that falls under the category of screening in Close Precision Engagement (CPE). Screening involves providing security by observing and monitoring the surrounding area to detect any potential threats or enemy activities. By operating as a listening/observation post, the objective is to gather information and intelligence about the enemy's movements, intentions, and capabilities. This information is crucial for planning and executing effective defensive or offensive actions.

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92. 52. (215) How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear security?

Explanation

There are three potential adversary groups that are of primary concern in nuclear security. This means that there are three groups that pose the greatest threat or risk when it comes to nuclear security. The question does not provide any specific information about these groups, but it implies that these three groups are the most significant in terms of potential threats to nuclear security.

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93. 69. (218) Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems are designated as

Explanation

The correct answer is "a limited area." This designation is used to alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems. The term "limited area" implies that access to these areas is restricted or limited to authorized personnel only. This helps ensure the security and safety of the nuclear weapons and prevents unauthorized access or tampering.

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94. 4.            (201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the  

Explanation

The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly support the Defense force commander. This means that the intelligence fusion cell provides crucial information and analysis to the Defense force commander, enabling them to make informed decisions and effectively lead the defense force. The fusion cell's products likely include intelligence reports, assessments, and other information that is vital for the commander's situational awareness and decision-making process.

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95. 44. (214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the

Explanation

The correct answer is c. operational level. The nuclear roadmap, as mentioned in the question, focuses primarily on the operational level. This means that it deals with the practical aspects and implementation of nuclear strategies and plans. The operational level is concerned with the day-to-day activities and decision-making related to nuclear operations, such as deployment, targeting, and employment of nuclear weapons.

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96. 51. (215) The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the cornerstone of threat

Explanation

The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) is a comprehensive assessment that evaluates the capabilities of potential threats to nuclear security. It helps in identifying and understanding the potential risks and vulnerabilities associated with nuclear security. This assessment is used as a basis for planning and implementing measures to mitigate these threats and enhance nuclear security. Therefore, the correct answer is c. planning.

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97. 55. (216) The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the

Explanation

The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the MAJCOM commander. This means that the Major Command (MAJCOM) commander has the authority to accept the risks associated with security deviations. They are responsible for making decisions regarding the acceptance of these risks and determining the appropriate course of action. The MAJCOM commander has the highest level of authority in this context and is ultimately responsible for ensuring the security of the organization or installation.

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98. 96. (226) Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to standoff from a target, assess the situation, and pass timely information?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Response. The question is asking for the close precision engagement (CPE) task that allows for standing off from a target, assessing the situation, and passing timely information. Response is the most appropriate choice as it implies taking action in a timely manner based on the assessment of the situation. Screening, counter-sniper, and reconnaissance do not necessarily involve the capability to stand off from a target and pass timely information.

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14.          (205) What...
91. (224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?
19. (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
13.          (205) "To...
28. (209) Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for
89. (224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the...
8.           ...
3.           ...
86. (223) Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense...
16. (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates...
74. (219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with
78. (221) In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering...
27. (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature...
85. (223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF...
60. (216) If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all...
73. (219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the...
29. (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
83. (222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise...
95. (226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
98. (227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and...
58. (216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry...
68. (217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists...
22. (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small...
80. (221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead...
87. (223) Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)...
9.           ...
59. (216) One escort official can escort how many people into an...
12.          (204) The...
15.          (205) A...
79. (221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy...
(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID)...
30. (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force...
33. (210) What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and...
88. (223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical...
92. (225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
41. (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be...
7.           ...
57. (216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to...
61. (217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
63. (217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
76. (220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or...
90. (224) Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of...
40. (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified...
43. (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what...
54. (215) The product resulting from collecting, processing,...
66. (217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a...
100. (227) When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the...
50. (214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person...
56. (216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form
17. (206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average...
71. (218) (DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on...
35. (211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and...
93. (225) The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire...
53. (215) "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view,...
18. (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final...
20. (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of...
82. (222) Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the...
42. (213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how...
10.          (204) What...
24. (208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
32. (210) When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major...
36. (211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point...
47. (214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to...
64. (217) Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable...
70. (218) The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be 
45. (214) What is essential to our security?
77. (220) Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
26. (208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the...
46. (214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
5.           ...
65. (217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals...
84. (222) What would not be discussed in the service and support...
62. (217) Where would you find a weapon security vault?
75. (220) How many categories of patrols are there?
23. (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of...
94. (225) By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with...
6.           ...
11.          (204) In...
72. (218) How many types of nuclear movements are there on an...
25. (208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
37. (212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
2.           ...
34. (211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?
21. (207) Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts...
38. (212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how...
39. (212) A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has...
48. (214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the...
31. (210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many...
49. (214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve...
67. (217) (DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition?
97. (226) Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post...
52. (215) How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern...
69. (218) Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to...
4.           ...
44. (214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the
51. (215) The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA)...
55. (216) The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the
96. (226) Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the...
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