CDC Vol 1: Security Forces Journeyman Questions!

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1. Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the dog handler must

Explanation

The correct answer is to give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important for safety reasons, as it alerts anyone inside the building that a dog will be entering. It also allows the dog to be properly controlled and directed by the handler. Loudly announcing intentions to order the dog to bite may be unnecessary and potentially dangerous. Placing the dog on a leash and having it bark three times are not mentioned as necessary steps in the given scenario.

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CDC Vol 1: Security Forces Journeyman Questions! - Quiz

Explore the historical evolution of Security Forces in the 'CDC Vol 1: Security Forces Journeyman Questions!' quiz. Delve into key milestones like the establishment of the Air Police... see moreSchool and the integration of women into the security field, assessing your knowledge and readiness in this specialized military sector. see less

2. Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniforms items because

Explanation

Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniform items because other personnel need to readily identify SF members during crisis situations. This helps to prevent confusion and potential friendly fire incidents, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the security forces.

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3. Search authorizations are based upon

Explanation

Search authorizations are based on probable cause. Probable cause refers to the reasonable belief that a crime has been committed or that evidence of a crime can be found in a certain location. It is a necessary requirement for obtaining a search warrant or authorization. This means that law enforcement officers must have sufficient evidence or facts to support their belief that a search will uncover evidence related to a crime. Without probable cause, a search authorization may not be granted, as it is essential for protecting individuals' Fourth Amendment rights against unreasonable searches and seizures.

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4. The main source of stress can be found in your

Explanation

The main source of stress for individuals is often a combination of their personal life and their job. Personal life stress can be caused by various factors such as relationships, financial issues, health problems, or personal responsibilities. Job-related stress can arise from factors such as heavy workloads, long hours, demanding deadlines, conflicts with colleagues or supervisors, or lack of job satisfaction. The interaction between personal life stressors and job stressors can create a significant amount of stress for individuals, impacting their overall well-being and quality of life.

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5. What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?

Explanation

The first step in finding ways to reduce stress is recognizing stressors. This involves identifying the specific factors or situations that cause stress in one's life. By understanding what triggers stress, individuals can then take steps to manage or avoid these stressors. This may include making lifestyle changes, setting boundaries, seeking support, or developing coping strategies. Recognizing stressors is essential in developing an effective stress reduction plan.

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6. If you ask a person to grant consent for a search and they state, "Okay if I have to," what are your actions?

Explanation

When the person states, "Okay if I have to," it indicates that they are not giving a clear and definitive consent to the search. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to restate the request and ask for a yes or no answer. This ensures that the person fully understands the request and can provide a clear and unambiguous consent before proceeding with the search.

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7. If a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an interview,

Explanation

In order to ensure a fair and unbiased interview process, it is important to have a second investigator present if a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an interview. This helps to prevent any potential biases or discomfort that may arise from having only one investigator present. Having a second investigator can also provide additional perspectives and insights during the interview, enhancing the overall accuracy and reliability of the information gathered.

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8. You must complete Airman Leadership School prior to

Explanation

Assuming the rank of staff sergeant is a requirement to complete Airman Leadership School. This means that in order to attend Airman Leadership School, one must have already achieved the rank of staff sergeant. This indicates that the completion of Airman Leadership School is a necessary step in the career development of an individual in the military.

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9. Microorganisms that are present in blood and cause disease are called

Explanation

Bloodborne pathogens are microorganisms that are present in blood and can cause disease. These pathogens can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or other bodily fluids. They include viruses, bacteria, and parasites. It is important to take precautions and follow proper safety protocols to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens in healthcare settings and other environments where there is a risk of exposure to blood and bodily fluids.

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10. As a result of the reorganization of the War Department in 1943, which office was established?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Provost Marshal. In 1943, as part of the reorganization of the War Department, the office of Air Provost Marshal was established. This office was responsible for overseeing military aviation companies, military police guard companies, and air police companies, ensuring the enforcement of military laws and regulations within the air force.

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11. The military working dog's greatest advantage during security operations is

Explanation

The correct answer is "Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility." This means that the military working dog is able to detect potential threats or targets even when visibility is low, such as in foggy or rainy conditions. This ability is crucial during security operations as it allows the dog to assist in identifying and locating individuals or objects that may be hidden or difficult to see.

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12. Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 31 – 117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This AFI provides guidelines and regulations regarding the arming and use of force by Air Force personnel. It outlines the proper conduct and procedures for apprehending suspects, ensuring that personnel adhere to legal and ethical standards when using force. By following this AFI, Air Force personnel can ensure that their actions are in accordance with established protocols and regulations.

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13. Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be

Explanation

The correct answer is "Of reasonable intensity, duration, and magnitude." This means that the force used to counter hostile acts should be proportional and not excessive. It should be of a level that is reasonable and necessary to defend against the threat, without causing unnecessary harm or damage. The duration and magnitude of the force should also be reasonable, taking into account the specific circumstances and the threat posed.

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14. The punitive articles of the UCMJ are

Explanation

The punitive articles of the UCMJ are a set of rules and regulations that outline the various offenses and punishments within the military justice system. These articles cover a wide range of offenses, from minor infractions to serious crimes, and provide guidelines for the appropriate punishment for each offense. The correct answer, 77 through 134, indicates that the punitive articles of the UCMJ encompass a significant portion of the UCMJ, indicating the comprehensive nature of the military justice system.

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15. Under concurrent jurisdiction,

Explanation

Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal government have authority. This means that both levels of government have the power to enforce laws and regulations within their respective jurisdictions. This allows for a sharing of authority and responsibilities between the state and federal governments, ensuring that both can address and enforce laws in areas where their jurisdictions overlap. This arrangement helps to maintain a balance of power and allows for cooperation between the two levels of government.

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16. Through discussions, which international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva Convention?

Explanation

The correct answer is Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC). The Hague and Geneva Conventions are international treaties that establish the rules and regulations for conducting warfare and protecting victims of armed conflicts. These conventions outline the principles of LOAC, which govern the behavior of states and individuals during armed conflicts. LOAC aims to minimize the suffering and protect civilians, prisoners of war, and other non-combatants. It establishes guidelines for the treatment of wounded and sick individuals, the protection of cultural property, and the prohibition of certain weapons and tactics. The Hague and Geneva Conventions are crucial in promoting humanitarian values and ensuring the humane treatment of individuals during times of war.

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17. If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that person

Explanation

If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, they can be tried in the US and vice versa. This means that the person can be prosecuted under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) in the US, even if the offense occurred overseas. Similarly, if the offense is committed in the US, the person can still be tried under military law. This highlights the extraterritorial jurisdiction of military law and the ability of the military justice system to hold individuals accountable for their actions regardless of the location of the offense.

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18. The beret is properly worn when the headband is straight across the forehead and

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 in above the eyebrows. This means that the beret should be positioned on the head in such a way that it sits approximately 1 inch above the eyebrows. This ensures that the beret is properly worn and gives it the desired look.

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19. The taking of items by authorities for evidence at courts-martial is called

Explanation

Seizure is the correct answer because it refers to the action of authorities taking items as evidence during a court-martial. This term specifically signifies the act of confiscating or capturing items that are believed to be relevant to the case being tried. It is a standard procedure in legal proceedings to gather evidence, and seizure is the appropriate term to describe this action in the context of a court-martial.

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20. Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that the UCMJ

Explanation

The correct answer is "Applies everywhere." This means that Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) applies to all members of the military, regardless of their location or situation. It establishes the UCMJ as the legal authority for military personnel and governs their conduct and behavior. This ensures that military laws and regulations are upheld and enforced consistently across all military installations and operations worldwide.

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21. When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?

Explanation

During court proceedings, it is important to only give your opinion if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense. This is because as a witness or expert, your role is to provide factual information and evidence based on your expertise, rather than offering personal opinions. Your opinion should be presented only when specifically requested by the prosecution or defense, ensuring that it is relevant and necessary for the case at hand.

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22. On 1 September 1950, which organization was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?

Explanation

On 1 September 1950, the Air Police School was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This organization was responsible for training and educating personnel in the field of air police and security. The establishment of the Air Police School indicates the recognition of the importance of maintaining security and defense at military bases, particularly in the air domain.

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23. What happened to the air bases located in the forward areas during the Korean War?

Explanation

During the Korean War, the air bases located in the forward areas were suddenly overrun by the enemy. This means that the opposing forces captured or took control of these air bases, rendering them unusable for the original owners. This would have been a significant setback for the side that owned these air bases, as it would have hindered their ability to provide air support and carry out operations effectively.

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24. As part of a more distinctive uniform, Security Forces personnel wear a beret with a Defensor Fortis flash, which

Explanation

The beret with a Defensor Fortis flash identifies Security Forces personnel as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide. This distinctive uniform item sets them apart from other forces and signifies their specialized role and responsibilities.

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25. Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

Explanation

Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide a psychological deterrent. These teams are trained to detect and apprehend suspects, which creates a sense of fear and uncertainty among potential criminals. The presence of a well-trained dog can discourage individuals from engaging in illegal activities, as they are aware of the dog's ability to apprehend them. Therefore, the use of military working dog teams serves as a psychological deterrent, contributing to the overall effectiveness of law enforcement operations.

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26. The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

Explanation

The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary. Exclusive jurisdiction means that only one government has authority over the installation. Concurrent jurisdiction means that both the federal and state governments have authority. Partial jurisdiction means that the federal government has jurisdiction over certain aspects, while the state government has jurisdiction over others. Proprietary jurisdiction means that the federal government has ownership and control over the land.

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27. Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

Explanation

The US Army has the primary responsibility for operations and administration during military government. This branch of the military is specifically trained and equipped to handle the logistical and administrative tasks required to govern and maintain order in areas under military control. They are responsible for establishing security, providing essential services, and ensuring the overall stability and governance of the affected region.

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28. Which of the following is a simple courtroom rule Security Forces members follow?

Explanation

Security Forces members follow the simple courtroom rule of not talking to court members. This rule is important to maintain the integrity and impartiality of the court proceedings. By refraining from engaging in conversations with court members, Security Forces members avoid any potential bias or influence that may compromise the fairness of the trial. It ensures that the court proceedings are conducted in a professional and unbiased manner, upholding the principles of justice.

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29. The military working dog's greatest advantage to Security Forces is their

Explanation

The military working dog's superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility, is their greatest advantage to Security Forces. This means that the dog is highly skilled at finding and identifying individuals even in conditions where visibility is limited, such as at night or in dense fog. This makes them extremely valuable in situations where human security forces may struggle to locate potential threats.

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30. Which operation was launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001?

Explanation

The operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called "Enduring Freedom".

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31. Which statement describes our Security Forces symbol?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Falcon over crossed runways." This symbol represents our Security Forces, with the falcon being a symbol of power, agility, and vigilance, while the crossed runways symbolize the protection and defense of our airfields and military installations.

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32. What course is mandatory for award of the Air Force specialty code 3P051?

Explanation

The SF Journeyman career development course is mandatory for the award of the Air Force specialty code 3P051. This course is designed to provide training and development for Security Forces (SF) personnel at the journeyman level. It focuses on enhancing their knowledge and skills in various areas related to their job responsibilities, such as law enforcement, security operations, and force protection. By completing this course, SF personnel can further their career progression and demonstrate their competency in their field.

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33. The federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on installations

Explanation

When the government has exclusive jurisdiction, it means that they have complete control and authority over a particular area or installation. This means that they have the sole authority to enforce the law on that installation, without any interference or shared responsibility with other entities or jurisdictions. This is typically the case for federal government installations, where they have the power to enforce laws and regulations without any limitations or constraints from other governing bodies.

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34. Which Code of Conduct Article are you following if you continuously attempt to escape?

Explanation

Article III of the Code of Conduct is the relevant article in this scenario. This article states that if a member of the military is captured, they are required to make every effort to escape and aid others in their escape. Therefore, continuously attempting to escape would align with the principles outlined in Article III.

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35. What is the military working dog team's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?

Explanation

The military working dog team's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators is to protect the members of the apprehension team. The dogs are trained to provide security and ensure the safety of the personnel involved in the apprehension process. They can be used to deter potential threats and provide support in controlling the situation. Their presence helps to create a sense of security and can help prevent any potential harm to the members of the apprehension team.

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36. What are the interviewee classifications?

Explanation

The interviewee classifications refer to the different roles that individuals can have in an interview. In this case, the correct answer is "Witness, victim, complainant, and suspect." These classifications represent the different perspectives and involvement of individuals in a given situation. A witness is someone who has observed an event or incident, a victim is someone who has been harmed or affected by the event, a complainant is someone who has filed a complaint or reported the incident, and a suspect is someone who is believed to be involved in the incident.

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37. What is a posse comitatis?

Explanation

A posse comitatis is a summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals. This means that when the sheriff requires additional assistance in maintaining order or capturing criminals, he can call upon the able-bodied men in the area to join him. This practice was common in early law enforcement and allowed for the mobilization of a temporary group of individuals to support the sheriff's duties.

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38. In Oct 1977, the security specialists, law enforcement specialists, and combat arms training and maintenance career fields merged into one career field that

Explanation

The correct answer is "Was redesignated as Security Forces". This means that in Oct 1977, the career field that included security specialists, law enforcement specialists, and combat arms training and maintenance was given a new name and became known as Security Forces.

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39. What Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members upon completion of the military working dog (MWD) handler apprentice course?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3P031A. This Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members upon completion of the military working dog (MWD) handler apprentice course. This code indicates that the individual is trained and qualified as a MWD handler within the Security Forces career field.

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40. Which Section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply, hazardous materials, General Services Administration, and Defense Reutilization Marketing Office?

Explanation

The S4S Supply section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply, hazardous materials, General Services Administration, and Defense Reutilization Marketing Office. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and transactions between these different entities, ensuring that supplies, hazardous materials, and vehicles are properly managed and distributed.

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41. The automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant, and threatening situations is known as

Explanation

Stress is the correct answer because it refers to the automatic physical reaction that occurs when individuals encounter new, unpleasant, and threatening situations. This reaction can manifest in various ways, such as increased heart rate, sweating, and heightened alertness. Stress is a natural response that prepares the body to deal with potential threats or challenges.

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42. Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time of interview" because investigative notes should include important details such as the case number, date, person interviewed, and the location of the incident. Including the time of the interview is crucial as it provides a reference point for when the interview took place, allowing investigators to accurately document the sequence of events and maintain a chronological record of their investigation.

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43. Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must

Explanation

Military working dogs should be kept on a leash except when they need to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building. This is because in these situations, the dogs need to have the freedom to move quickly and effectively without being restricted by a leash. By allowing them to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building without a leash, the dogs can perform their duties more efficiently and effectively. However, in other situations, such as searching occupied buildings or dispersing crowds, it is important to keep the dogs on a leash to maintain control and ensure the safety of everyone involved.

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44. You may display the Security Forces emblem and shield together when

Explanation

Displaying the Security Forces emblem and shield together enhances the career field image. This suggests that wearing both symbols simultaneously portrays a sense of professionalism and pride in the Security Forces career field. It is likely that this display is encouraged or recommended by higher-ranking officials, such as the wing commander or the Chief of Security Forces, to promote a positive image of the career field. Wearing the mess dress, which is a formal military uniform, may be the appropriate occasion to showcase these symbols and represent the Security Forces profession.

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45. Military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every aspect of a unit's

Explanation

Military working dog teams are highly versatile and can be utilized in a variety of roles within a unit. They are trained to assist in law enforcement operations, providing support in tasks such as patrols, searches, and apprehensions. Additionally, they play a crucial role in maintaining security by detecting and deterring threats, both on the base and in VIP settings. Furthermore, these teams are also valuable assets in contingency operations, where their specialized skills can be utilized in a range of situations. Therefore, the correct answer is "Law enforcement, security, and contingency operations."

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46. The authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own is known as

Explanation

Military jurisdiction refers to the authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own. It allows the military to enforce discipline and maintain order within their ranks. This includes the ability to investigate and prosecute military personnel for violations of military law. Military jurisdiction is essential for maintaining the effectiveness and integrity of the armed forces, as it ensures that military personnel are held accountable for their actions and that military discipline is upheld.

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47. What commands must the military working dog obey prior to being assigned to operational duties?

Explanation

Before being assigned to operational duties, the military working dog must obey the commands "OUT" and "HEEL". The command "OUT" is used to make the dog release or let go of something, while the command "HEEL" is used to make the dog walk or run closely next to the handler's side. These commands are crucial for the dog's obedience and control during military operations.

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48. Which AF Form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

Explanation

The AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis. This form is used to document the temporary issue of equipment, including firearms, to individuals for a specific period of time. It serves as a record of accountability and ensures that the individual is responsible for returning the equipment once their temporary use is completed.

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49. The use of pro-words in radio communication help

Explanation

The use of pro-words in radio communication helps to shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception. Pro-words are standardized words or phrases that have specific meanings in radio communication. By using pro-words, radio operators can convey information quickly and efficiently, reducing the time needed for transmissions. This is especially important in situations where clear and concise communication is crucial, such as in emergency or military operations. Additionally, pro-words help to ensure that messages are accurately understood by both the sender and receiver, minimizing the risk of miscommunication.

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50. The four-step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and

Explanation

The correct answer is conducting. In the four-step interview process, conducting refers to the actual execution of the interview. This step involves asking questions, actively listening to the responses, and gathering information from the interviewee. It is the main phase where the interviewer interacts with the interviewee and gathers the necessary data or insights. Preparing, planning, and closing are important steps as well, but conducting is the step where the interview takes place.

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51. The budget program operates on fiscal year basis beginning the first day of

Explanation

The correct answer is October and ending on 30 September. This is because the budget program operates on a fiscal year basis, which typically starts on October 1st and ends on September 30th. This fiscal year cycle is commonly used by governments and organizations to plan and manage their finances.

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52. When providing missile field security, how often do you test alarm systems to ensure operational capabilities of the security system?

Explanation

The frequency of testing alarm systems for missile field security is determined by the necessity of the situation. This means that the testing is conducted whenever there is a need to ensure the operational capabilities of the security system. The testing may not follow a fixed schedule but rather be done on an as-needed basis, depending on factors such as potential threats, system maintenance, or any other circumstances that may require testing.

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53. A search affidavit of "probable cause" supports your request for

Explanation

The correct answer is "Authorization to search and seize." In legal terms, a search affidavit of "probable cause" is a document that provides justification for law enforcement to search and seize evidence. This affidavit is presented to a judge or magistrate in order to obtain a search warrant, which grants the authority to search a specific location and seize any relevant evidence. Thus, the answer "Authorization to search and seize" aligns with the explanation provided.

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54. Which article of the UCMJ gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties?

Explanation

Article 92 of the UCMJ gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article states that any person subject to the UCMJ who violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation shall be punished as a court-martial may direct. Therefore, Security Forces members can issue lawful orders to ensure the proper execution of their duties and maintain discipline within the military.

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55. What two Air Force documents help you manage manpower resources?

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) are the two Air Force documents that help manage manpower resources. The UMD provides information on the authorized manpower positions within a unit, including the positions' skill requirements and grade levels. The UPMR, on the other hand, provides a detailed listing of the personnel assigned to each position within the unit, including their names, ranks, and job titles. These documents are essential for effectively managing and allocating manpower resources within the Air Force.

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56. The Code of Conduct is a guide for actions during

Explanation

The Code of Conduct serves as a guide for actions during war and as a prisoner of war. It outlines the ethical standards and principles that military personnel must adhere to in these situations. It provides guidelines on how to conduct oneself, treat others, and uphold the values of the military even in the most challenging circumstances. The Code of Conduct ensures that military personnel maintain their integrity, protect human rights, and uphold the laws of war, even when faced with adversity.

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57. Which Article of the Code of Conduct states, "I will never surrender of my own free will."

Explanation

The correct answer is Article II. This article of the Code of Conduct states that individuals should never surrender of their own free will.

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58. Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with

Explanation

The staff judge advocate is involved in pretrial preparation because they provide legal advice and guidance to the investigators. They ensure that the investigation is conducted in accordance with legal requirements and procedures. They review the evidence and provide legal analysis to determine if there is enough evidence to proceed with a trial. They also assist in preparing legal documents and may be involved in negotiating plea agreements. Their involvement is crucial in ensuring a fair and legally sound pretrial process.

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59. Who enters information about lost or stolen firearms into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) personnel. AFOSI personnel are responsible for entering information about lost or stolen firearms into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC). This is part of their role in investigating and preventing crimes within the Air Force. The FBI may also be involved in certain cases, but specifically for firearms within the Air Force, it is the AFOSI personnel who handle the task. The Security Forces Manager (SFM) and Chief of Security Forces (CSF) may have oversight or managerial roles, but they are not directly responsible for entering this information into the NCIC.

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60. A written order issued by a competent military command authority to an authorized person to conduct a search is called a

Explanation

A search authorization is a written order issued by a competent military command authority to an authorized person to conduct a search. This implies that the person conducting the search has been given explicit permission and authority to do so by a higher-ranking military official. This ensures that the search is conducted legally and within the boundaries of military regulations and protocols.

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61. Who cannot be given power to authorize search and seizure?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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62. What approach is primarily used to interrogate?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Direct." The question is asking about the primary approach used for interrogation. "Direct" approach refers to a straightforward and confrontational style of questioning, where the interrogator directly asks the suspect for information without any manipulation or deception. This approach aims to elicit truthful and immediate responses from the suspect.

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63. What are the elements of self-defense according to the Rules of Engagement (ROE) with

Explanation

The elements of self-defense according to the Rules of Engagement (ROE) are proportionality and necessity. Proportionality means that the force used in self-defense should be reasonable and not excessive in relation to the threat faced. Necessity means that the use of force is justified only when there is a clear and immediate danger that cannot be avoided by other means. These two elements ensure that self-defense is conducted in a measured and appropriate manner, balancing the need for protection with the need to avoid unnecessary harm.

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64. In what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved?

Explanation

The first trial issue of the shield was approved in 1957.

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65. Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of

Explanation

Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of lawful apprehensions. When law enforcement officers have a lawful basis to apprehend an individual, such as when they have a warrant for their arrest or when they witness a crime being committed, they are allowed to conduct a search without needing probable cause. This is because the lawful apprehension itself provides the legal justification for the search.

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66. Which is not the purpose of an interview?

Explanation

The purpose of an interview is to gain information, establish the facts of a crime, and develop background information. However, interrogating a witness to gain information is not typically considered a purpose of an interview. Interrogation implies a more aggressive and confrontational approach, which is not typically used in interviews.

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67. Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in your presence, commits a crime amounting to breach of the peace?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Citizens right of arrest. This right allows individuals to apprehend someone who is committing a crime in their presence, specifically a crime that amounts to a breach of the peace. This right empowers citizens to take action in order to prevent the escalation of a potentially dangerous situation and maintain public order. It is important to note that the exercise of this right should be done responsibly and within the boundaries of the law.

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68. The two types of searches used in confinement facilities are

Explanation

The correct answer is "Simple and complete." In confinement facilities, two types of searches are conducted: simple and complete. A simple search refers to a basic inspection of an individual's belongings or person, while a complete search involves a more thorough examination, including body cavity searches if necessary. These searches are important for maintaining security and ensuring the safety of both inmates and staff within the facility.

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69. During qualified martial law, security forces members have the authority to

Explanation

During qualified martial law, security forces are granted the authority to detain civilians, but not apprehend them. This means that they have the power to temporarily hold individuals in custody without formally arresting them. Detaining civilians allows security forces to maintain control and ensure public safety during times of emergency or unrest. However, it is important to note that this authority does not extend to apprehending individuals, which involves the formal arrest and legal processing of suspects.

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70. Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog detect intruders?

Explanation

Under ideal conditions, military working dogs can detect intruders at a distance of 250 yards. This suggests that these highly trained dogs have exceptional sensory capabilities and are able to detect and identify potential threats from a significant distance away. This long detection range allows the military working dogs to provide an early warning system and enhance security measures in military operations.

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71. Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they have an unfavorable information file. This implies that individuals with a negative record or history are not suitable for the role of supervising inmates. It is important to ensure that those responsible for overseeing prisoners have a clean and favorable background to maintain safety and security within the correctional facility.

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72. What form is used to document a search authorization?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 1176 because it is the form used to document a search authorization. This form is used by the Air Force to obtain written permission to conduct a search of a person, property, or area. It includes details such as the purpose of the search, the items or areas to be searched, and the authorization from a commanding officer or a judge.

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73. Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2707, Confinement Order. This form is used to order inmates into confinement. It is a document that authorizes the placement of an inmate in a confined setting, such as a prison cell or detention facility. The form ensures that the inmate is officially and legally ordered into confinement, outlining the specific details and duration of the confinement period.

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74. When was the ban lifted on women entering the security field?

Explanation

In January 1985, the ban on women entering the security field was lifted.

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75. Under the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (NLETS) program, where is the communications terminal located?

Explanation

The communications terminal under the NLETS program is located at authorized SF control centers. This means that the terminal is not on a stand-alone computer, the SF law enforcement desk, or on all SF members' individual desks. Instead, it is specifically located at the authorized SF control centers for efficient and centralized communication purposes.

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76. Federal statutes are laws passed by congress, and these laws are contained in the

Explanation

The US Code is the correct answer because it is a compilation of all federal statutes that have been enacted by Congress. It is organized by subject matter and provides a comprehensive collection of all the laws passed by Congress. The US Code is regularly updated to incorporate new laws and amendments, making it the authoritative source for federal statutes in the United States.

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77. Determining a time and place to interview it the first step in

Explanation

The correct answer is "Planning". Determining a time and place to interview is an essential part of the planning process. Before conducting an interview, it is important to plan and organize the logistics, including scheduling the interview at a suitable time and choosing a suitable location. This step allows the interviewer to ensure that both parties are available and prepared for the interview, making the process more efficient and effective.

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78. All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either

Explanation

In this question, the correct answer is "Pretrial detainee, post-trial detainee, or casual." The explanation for this answer is that all inmates are assigned a custody status, and they can be classified as either a pretrial detainee, a post-trial detainee, or a casual inmate. This means that inmates can fall into one of these three categories based on their legal status and the stage of their case.

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79. In order to preserve law and order, Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes Security Forces to

Explanation

Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code grants Security Forces the authority to detain civilians for on-base offenses. This means that if a civilian commits an offense on a military base, the Security Forces have the power to detain them until the situation is resolved or they can be handed over to the appropriate authorities. This provision helps to maintain law and order on military bases and ensures that offenders are held accountable for their actions.

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80. After the Air Police school transferred to Parks AFB, California, it was redesignated as which defense school?

Explanation

After the Air Police school transferred to Parks AFB, California, it was redesignated as Air Base.

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81. Under the Stan/Eval program. Unit functional areas are inspected once

Explanation

Unit functional areas are inspected once every 12 months under the Stan/Eval program. This means that a comprehensive evaluation of the unit's functional areas is conducted once a year. This allows for a thorough assessment of the unit's performance and compliance with regulations and standards. Inspections on an annual basis provide sufficient time for corrective actions to be implemented and progress to be monitored. Regular evaluations help ensure the unit's readiness and effectiveness in carrying out its mission.

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82. Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as

Explanation

Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as "Critical" because they are of utmost importance and require special attention and expertise. These positions involve handling and managing nuclear resources, which are highly sensitive and potentially dangerous. Therefore, they must be designated as critical to ensure that only qualified and trained personnel are assigned to these positions to maintain the safety and security of nuclear resources.

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83. When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as

Explanation

When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as a limited area. This means that access to the LF is restricted and only authorized personnel are allowed entry. The designation of a limited area ensures the security and safety of the LF and its operations.

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84. Which interviewee is interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?

Explanation

The victim is interviewed to develop facts in an investigation. As the individual who has experienced the crime or incident firsthand, their account and testimony are crucial in understanding the sequence of events, identifying potential suspects, and gathering evidence. By interviewing the victim, investigators can gather information about the circumstances surrounding the incident, any perpetrators involved, and any other relevant details that can aid in the investigation and the pursuit of justice.

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85. A conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death is the definition of a/an

Explanation

The correct answer is "Attempted suicide" because it refers to a conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death. This term specifically indicates that the individual has made an effort or taken action towards ending their own life, but may not have been successful in causing their own death.

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86. What are the common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk?

Explanation

The common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk include inconvenience, resentment, and fear of involvement. Inconvenience refers to the interviewee feeling that participating in the interview is burdensome or inconvenient for them. Resentment could stem from a negative perception of the interviewer or the interview process itself. Fear of involvement suggests that the interviewee may be afraid of the potential consequences or implications of speaking up. These reasons can contribute to an interviewee's reluctance to fully engage and share information during an interview.

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87. Supply discipline is mandatory in order to

Explanation

Supply discipline is necessary to ensure that government supplies, equipment, and real property are conserved, protected, and maintained. This involves managing stock levels, depleting old supplies, and freeing up storage areas as needed. By practicing supply discipline, the government can effectively utilize its resources and prevent wastage or loss of valuable assets.

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88. Government property requires search authorization when the

Explanation

When a person is issued government property, they have a reasonable expectation of privacy. This means that they have the right to expect that their personal belongings and activities will not be searched or monitored without their consent or a valid search authorization. This is because the person issued the property has a legitimate interest in keeping their personal information and belongings private, just like any other individual. Therefore, search authorization is required to ensure that the person's privacy rights are protected.

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89. As a form of administration, where can an occupying power exercises all executive, legislative, and judicial authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a

Explanation

A military government refers to a form of administration in which an occupying power exercises all executive, legislative, and judicial authority over an occupied territory. In this type of government, the military assumes control and makes decisions on behalf of the occupied territory, including enacting laws, enforcing them, and adjudicating disputes. This type of government is typically established during times of conflict or occupation, with the aim of maintaining control and order in the occupied territory.

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90. A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence up to how many years?

Explanation

A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence up to 5 years. This means that the facility is equipped to handle inmates who have been sentenced to a maximum of 5 years of confinement. In contrast, level I facilities typically house inmates who have been sentenced to shorter terms, while level III and IV facilities house inmates who have been sentenced to longer terms or who require higher levels of security.

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91. Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?

Explanation

Air Force installation commanders have the authority to issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries. As the commanders of Air Force installations, they are responsible for the overall operations and security of their bases. This includes conducting searches and investigations off-base when necessary. They have the jurisdiction and power to authorize and coordinate search procedures in foreign countries to ensure the safety and security of their personnel and assets. Joint rear area commanders, Staff Judge Advocate, and US magistrates may have their own roles and authorities, but they do not have the specific authority to issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries.

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92. Collective actions executed quickly without applying a deliberate decision-making process describes

Explanation

Battle drills are collective actions that are executed quickly without applying a deliberate decision-making process. They are pre-planned, rehearsed actions that are designed to respond to specific situations on the battlefield. Battle drills are typically used in combat scenarios where quick and decisive action is required to achieve a specific objective. They rely on the individual skills and training of the soldiers involved, as well as their ability to work together as a team to accomplish the mission.

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93. During peacetime operations within the US territory, do not confuse Rules of Engagement with

Explanation

During peacetime operations within the US territory, it is important not to confuse Rules of Engagement with Rules for Use of Force. Rules of Engagement refer to the specific guidelines and limitations that govern the use of force by military personnel in a particular situation, while Rules for Use of Force are broader principles and regulations that outline the circumstances under which force can be used by law enforcement agencies. Therefore, understanding the distinction between these two concepts is crucial in maintaining the appropriate level of force and ensuring compliance with the law during peacetime operations.

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94. Within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training with the Stan/Evals be conducted?

Explanation

After completing qualification training, evaluations with the Stan/Evals must be conducted within 30 duty days.

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95. The UMD is the primary document that reflects the

Explanation

The UMD (Unit Manning Document) is a document that lists the positions that are authorized to accomplish the mission. It includes information such as the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) of the members, their personnel readiness program (PRP) status, and individual position numbers. This document serves as a primary reference for determining the authorized positions within a unit and ensuring that the necessary personnel are available to carry out the mission effectively.

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96. Within how many months after qualification training must Security Forces and battlefield Airmen complete unit live-fire sustainment training on their primary weapon?

Explanation

Security Forces and battlefield Airmen must complete unit live-fire sustainment training on their primary weapon within five to seven months after qualification training. This training ensures that they maintain proficiency and readiness in using their primary weapon in combat situations.

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97. Which of the following is not a general classification of supply items?

Explanation

The Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) is not a general classification of supply items. The other options - Equipment authorized inventory data (EAID), Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL), and Non-EAID - all refer to different categories or types of supply items. The UPMR, on the other hand, is a list or roster that contains information about unit personnel, such as their names, ranks, positions, and contact details. It is used for personnel management purposes rather than supply management.

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98. Military jurisdiction stems from

Explanation

Military jurisdiction stems from international laws because military forces operate within the framework of international laws, including treaties, conventions, and customary international law. These laws provide the legal basis for the establishment and exercise of military jurisdiction over military personnel and activities. International laws ensure that military forces adhere to certain standards and principles, such as the protection of human rights and the laws of armed conflict. They also govern the jurisdiction of military courts and the application of military law in relation to offenses committed by military personnel.

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99. How far from bunkers, fighting positions, or contamination control areas should collection points be located?

Explanation

Collection points should be located 10 feet and downwind from bunkers, fighting positions, or contamination control areas. This positioning ensures that any potential hazards or contaminants are carried away from the collection point, reducing the risk of exposure to personnel gathering at the collection point. Being downwind also helps to prevent the spread of contaminants towards the collection point, further enhancing the safety of those present.

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100. Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

Explanation

Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article establishes that members of the armed forces, including both active duty and reserve components, are subject to military law. It also includes individuals who have been discharged but are still subject to military law for offenses committed while they were in the service. Additionally, civilians accompanying the military forces in certain circumstances can also be subject to military jurisdiction. Therefore, Article 5 serves as the basis for determining the scope of military jurisdiction and the individuals who fall under it.

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Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the dog...
Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniforms items because
Search authorizations are based upon
The main source of stress can be found in your
What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
If you ask a person to grant consent for a search and they state,...
If a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an...
You must complete Airman Leadership School prior to
Microorganisms that are present in blood and cause disease are called
As a result of the reorganization of the War Department in 1943, which...
The military working dog's greatest advantage during security...
Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with
Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be
The punitive articles of the UCMJ are
Under concurrent jurisdiction,
Through discussions, which international law was reached at The Hague...
If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that...
The beret is properly worn when the headband is straight across the...
The taking of items by authorities for evidence at courts-martial is...
Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that...
When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?
On 1 September 1950, which organization was established at Tyndall...
What happened to the air bases located in the forward areas during the...
As part of a more distinctive uniform, Security Forces personnel wear...
Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide...
The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of...
Which of the following is a simple courtroom rule Security Forces...
The military working dog's greatest advantage to Security Forces is...
Which operation was launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001?
Which statement describes our Security Forces symbol?
What course is mandatory for award of the Air Force specialty code...
The federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on...
Which Code of Conduct Article are you following if you continuously...
What is the military working dog team's role when the riot control...
What are the interviewee classifications?
What is a posse comitatis?
In Oct 1977, the security specialists, law enforcement specialists,...
What Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members...
Which Section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply,...
The automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant, and threatening...
Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person...
Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must
You may display the Security Forces emblem and shield together when
Military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every...
The authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police...
What commands must the military working dog obey prior to being...
Which AF Form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary...
The use of pro-words in radio communication help
The four-step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing,...
The budget program operates on fiscal year basis beginning the first...
When providing missile field security, how often do you test alarm...
A search affidavit of "probable cause" supports your request for
Which article of the UCMJ gives Security Forces members the authority...
What two Air Force documents help you manage manpower resources?
The Code of Conduct is a guide for actions during
Which Article of the Code of Conduct states, "I will never surrender...
Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with
Who enters information about lost or stolen firearms into the National...
A written order issued by a competent military command authority to an...
Who cannot be given power to authorize search and seizure?
What approach is primarily used to interrogate?
What are the elements of self-defense according to the Rules of...
In what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved?
Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of
Which is not the purpose of an interview?
Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in your...
The two types of searches used in confinement facilities are
During qualified martial law, security forces members have the...
Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog...
Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they
What form is used to document a search authorization?
Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form?
When was the ban lifted on women entering the security field?
Under the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (NLETS)...
Federal statutes are laws passed by congress, and these laws are...
Determining a time and place to interview it the first step in
All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either
In order to preserve law and order, Title 18, Section 1382 of the US...
After the Air Police school transferred to Parks AFB, California, it...
Under the Stan/Eval program. Unit functional areas are inspected once
Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated...
When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay...
Which interviewee is interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?
A conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death is the...
What are the common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk?
Supply discipline is mandatory in order to
Government property requires search authorization when the
As a form of administration, where can an occupying power exercises...
A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence...
Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?
Collective actions executed quickly without applying a deliberate...
During peacetime operations within the US territory, do not confuse...
Within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification...
The UMD is the primary document that reflects the
Within how many months after qualification training must Security...
Which of the following is not a general classification of supply...
Military jurisdiction stems from
How far from bunkers, fighting positions, or contamination control...
Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the...
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