Security Forces Journeyman CDC Vol 1

100 Questions

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Security Forces Journeyman CDC Vol 1

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    As a result of the reorganization of the War Department in 1943, which office was established?
    • A. 

      Military Aviation Companies

    • B. 

      Air Provost Marshal

    • C. 

      Military Police Guard Companies

    • D. 

      Air Police Companies

  • 2. 
    After the Air Police school transferred to Parks AFB, California, it was redesignated as which defense school?
    • A. 

      Army Air Force

    • B. 

      Procost Marshal

    • C. 

      Air Police

    • D. 

      Air Base

  • 3. 
    On 1 September 1950, which organization was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?
    • A. 

      Air Police School

    • B. 

      Air Leaders School

    • C. 

      Corp training office

    • D. 

      Base Defense academy

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Commanders relocated them to provide logistics support the naval forces

    • B. 

      They were suddenly overrun by the enemy

    • C. 

      Air base personnel merged with and assisted troops on the front lines

    • D. 

      Nothing, because they were too far from the front lines to do so

  • 5. 
    When was the ban lifted on women entering the security field?
    • A. 

      Jan 1985

    • B. 

      Jan 1986

    • C. 

      Feb 1987

    • D. 

      Dec 1989

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Was renamed Security Police units

    • B. 

      Was reorganized under services support

    • C. 

      Received increased funding for deployments

    • D. 

      Was redesignated as Security Forces

  • 7. 
    Which operation was launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001?
    • A. 

      Enduring Freedom

    • B. 

      Ensuring Freedom

    • C. 

      Noble Eagle

    • D. 

      Iraqi Freedom

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      You are wearing your mess dress only

    • B. 

      Authorized by the wing commander

    • C. 

      Directed by the Chief, Security Forces

    • D. 

      Doing so enhances the career field image

  • 9. 
    Which statement describes our Security Forces symbol?
    • A. 

      Eagle over crossed runways

    • B. 

      Falcon over crossed swords

    • C. 

      Falcon over crossed runways

    • D. 

      Eagle over crossed M-16A2s

  • 10. 
    In what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved?
    • A. 

      1943

    • B. 

      1945

    • C. 

      1950

    • D. 

      1957

  • 11. 
    Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniforms items because
    • A. 

      Other personnel need to readily identify SF members during crisis situations

    • B. 

      Without these items, they could be misunderstood for the enemy personnel during time of war

    • C. 

      They work in adverse weather conditions and these uniform items keep them warm and dry

    • D. 

      They work with weapons

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Identifies us to foreign forces as Security personnel

    • B. 

      Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression

    • C. 

      Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide

    • D. 

      Is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam war

  • 13. 
    The beret is properly worn when the headband is straight across the forehead and
    • A. 

      Tilted slightly to the rear

    • B. 

      1 in above the eyebrows

    • C. 

      1 in above the tip of the nose

    • D. 

      1 – ½ in above the eyebrows

  • 14. 
    What Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members upon completion of the military working dog (MWD) handler apprentice course?
    • A. 

      7C031M

    • B. 

      3P031B

    • C. 

      3P031A

    • D. 

      3MWDX1

  • 15. 
    What course is mandatory for award of the Air Force specialty code 3P051?
    • A. 

      Security Forces (SF) leaders’ course

    • B. 

      SF Journeyman career development course

    • C. 

      SF apprentice course

    • D. 

      Law Enforcement 101 through Community College of the Air Force

  • 16. 
    You must complete Airman Leadership School prior to
    • A. 

      Testing for your career development courses

    • B. 

      Assuming the rank of staff sergeant

    • C. 

      Receiving the award of 5 – skill level

    • D. 

      Becoming eligible for Weighted Airman Promotion System testing

  • 17. 
    The Code of Conduct is a guide for actions during
    • A. 

      Contingency operations

    • B. 

      Peacekeeping operations

    • C. 

      War and as a prisoner of war

    • D. 

      Military operations other than war

  • 18. 
    Which Article of the Code of Conduct states, “I will never surrender of my own free will.”
    • A. 

      Article II

    • B. 

      Article IV

    • C. 

      Article VI

    • D. 

      Articles of War

  • 19. 
    Which Code of Conduct Article are you following if you continuously attempt to escape?
    • A. 

      Article I

    • B. 

      Article III

    • C. 

      General order 10

    • D. 

      Principles of Conduct

  • 20. 
    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with
    • A. 

      AFI 31 – 205, The Air Force Corrections Program

    • B. 

      AFI 31 – 206, Security Forces Investigation Program

    • C. 

      AFI 31 – 117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

    • D. 

      AFI 31 – 301, Air Base Defense

  • 21. 
    Which Section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply, hazardous materials, General Services Administration, and Defense Reutilization Marketing Office?
    • A. 

      Chief, Security Forces

    • B. 

      S1 Admin

    • C. 

      S4S Supply

    • D. 

      S4V Vehicles

  • 22. 
    When providing missile field security, how often do you test alarm systems to ensure operational capabilities of the security system?
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Bi-monthly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      As necessary

  • 23. 
    When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as
    • A. 

      An exclusion area

    • B. 

      A launch facility flight

    • C. 

      A limited area

    • D. 

      A missile alert facility

  • 24. 
    The authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own is known as
    • A. 

      Military presence

    • B. 

      Military jurisdiction

    • C. 

      Legal precedence

    • D. 

      Military law

  • 25. 
    Federal statutes are laws passed by congress, and these laws are contained in the
    • A. 

      Bilateral and multilateral agreements

    • B. 

      Statutes of Forces Agreements

    • C. 

      US Constitution

    • D. 

      US Code

  • 26. 
    Through discussions, which international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva Convention?
    • A. 

      Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)

    • B. 

      Manual for Courts-Martial Title 10 statutes

    • C. 

      Statutes of Forces Agreements

    • D. 

      Rules of war

  • 27. 
    Military jurisdiction stems from
    • A. 

      International laws

    • B. 

      Legal sources

    • C. 

      Senate proclamation

    • D. 

      Manual for courts-martial

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      77

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 29. 
    Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that the UCMJ
    • A. 

      Applies everywhere

    • B. 

      Does no apply on ships

    • C. 

      Is the sole legal military authority

    • D. 

      Applies to civilians who commit crimes on base

  • 30. 
    If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that person
    • A. 

      Must be tried overseas

    • B. 

      Is not subject to the UCMJ

    • C. 

      Can be tried in the US and vice versa

    • D. 

      May choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority

  • 31. 
    The punitive articles of the UCMJ are
    • A. 

      1 through 5

    • B. 

      2 and 5

    • C. 

      6 through 76

    • D. 

      77 through 134

  • 32. 
    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
    • A. 

      Concurrent, current proprietary

    • B. 

      Partial, exclusive, bilateral, concurrent

    • C. 

      Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary

    • D. 

      Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and multilateral

  • 33. 
    The federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on installations
    • A. 

      When the government has exclusive jurisdiction

    • B. 

      When partial jurisdiction exists

    • C. 

      Under proprietary jurisdiction

    • D. 

      Located in overseas area

  • 34. 
    Under concurrent jurisdiction,
    • A. 

      State laws are not enforced

    • B. 

      The state has property rights only

    • C. 

      The federal government has no authority

    • D. 

      Both the state and federal government have authority

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Proprietary government

    • B. 

      Military government

    • C. 

      Nationalist regime

    • D. 

      Military state

  • 36. 
    Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?
    • A. 

      US Navy

    • B. 

      US Air Force

    • C. 

      US Army

    • D. 

      Coast Guard

  • 37. 
    During qualified martial law, security forces members have the authority to
    • A. 

      Enforce civilian laws

    • B. 

      Apprehend civilians

    • C. 

      Detain civilians; not apprehend

    • D. 

      Apply military law to civilians

  • 38. 
    Which article of the UCMJ gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      92

    • D. 

      77 - 134

  • 39. 
    In order to preserve law and order, Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes Security Forces to
    • A. 

      Act in an official law enforcement capacity off-base

    • B. 

      Apprehend civilians for on-base offenses

    • C. 

      Release military offenders to supervisors

    • D. 

      Detain civilians for on-base offenses

  • 40. 
    Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in your presence, commits a crime amounting to breach of the peace?
    • A. 

      Right to bear arms

    • B. 

      Title 10, US Code

    • C. 

      Self-defense right

    • D. 

      Citizens right of arrest

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      A division of the sheriff’s office where the personnel enforced local town laws

    • B. 

      A summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals

    • C. 

      An additional duty for Army troops

    • D. 

      A band of US Marshals who gathered together to find criminals

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Keen sight and ability to track individuals

    • B. 

      Presence deters airborne insertion of enemy troops

    • C. 

      Ability to deter aggressive acts against entry controllers

    • D. 

      Superior ability to detect individual, particularly during periods of reduced visibility

  • 43. 
    Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must
    • A. 

      Search occupied buildings only

    • B. 

      Bite and hold multiple suspects only

    • C. 

      Search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds

    • D. 

      Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building

  • 44. 
    Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the dog handler must
    • A. 

      Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog

    • B. 

      Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite

    • C. 

      Place the military working dog on a leash

    • D. 

      Have the dog bark three times

  • 45. 
    What commands must the military working dog obey prior to being assigned to operational duties?
    • A. 

      SIT and STAY

    • B. 

      OUT and SIT

    • C. 

      OUT and HEEL

    • D. 

      BITE and OFF

  • 46. 
    Military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every aspect of a unit’s
    • A. 

      Security and air base defense

    • B. 

      Air base defense VIP security

    • C. 

      Law enforcement and air base defense

    • D. 

      Law enforcement, security, and contingency operations

  • 47. 
    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective
    • A. 

      Psychological deterrent

    • B. 

      Mobile flightline force multiplier

    • C. 

      Base defense detection capability

    • D. 

      Replacement for base sensor systems

  • 48. 
    The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is
    • A. 

      Its ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions

    • B. 

      Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility

    • C. 

      The team’s ability to work alone

    • D. 

      Its quick response capability

  • 49. 
    Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog detect intruders?
    • A. 

      50 yards

    • B. 

      75 yards

    • C. 

      100 yards

    • D. 

      250 yards

  • 50. 
    What is the military working dog team’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
    • A. 

      Protect member of the apprehension team

    • B. 

      Disperse the remaining crowd off-leash

    • C. 

      Bite and hold demonstrators

    • D. 

      Apprehend rioters

  • 51. 
    During peacetime operations within the US territory, do not confuse Rules of Engagement with
    • A. 

      Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)

    • B. 

      Rules for Use of Force

    • C. 

      Operational Orders

    • D. 

      Operations Plans

  • 52. 
    Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be
    • A. 

      Of reasonable intensity, duration, and magnitude

    • B. 

      Of the maximum durations under rules of war

    • C. 

      Of the appropriate nonlethal means

    • D. 

      Used only in defense of foreign nationals

  • 53. 
    A written order issued by a competent military command authority to an authorized person to conduct a search is called a
    • A. 

      Consent search

    • B. 

      Search warrant

    • C. 

      Command authorization

    • D. 

      Search authorization

  • 54. 
    Search authorizations are based upon
    • A. 

      Free search rules

    • B. 

      Probable cause

    • C. 

      Evidentiary value

    • D. 

      Trial admissibility

  • 55. 
    Who cannot be given power to authorize search and seizure?
    • A. 

      Group commander

    • B. 

      Wing commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Chief, Security Forces (CSF), and Staff Judge Advocate

  • 56. 
    Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?
    • A. 

      Air Force installation commanders

    • B. 

      Joint rear area commanders

    • C. 

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • D. 

      US magistrate

  • 57. 
    What form is used to document a search authorization?
    • A. 

      AF Form 52

    • B. 

      AF Form 1364

    • C. 

      AF Form 1176

    • D. 

      Search Affidavit

  • 58. 
    The taking of items by authorities for evidence at courts-martial is called
    • A. 

      Seizure

    • B. 

      Searching

    • C. 

      Search affidavit

    • D. 

      Obtaining evidence

  • 59. 
    A search affidavit of “probable cause” supports your request for
    • A. 

      Authorization to search and seize

    • B. 

      Consent to search

    • C. 

      Plain view seizure

    • D. 

      Authority to courts-martial

  • 60. 
    Government property requires search authorization when the
    • A. 

      Property was seized illegally

    • B. 

      Property was originally seized as abandoned

    • C. 

      Person to whom the property was issued gives right to consent

    • D. 

      Person issued the property has the reasonable expectation of privacy

  • 61. 
    If you ask a person to grant consent for a search and they state, “Okay if I have to,” what are your actions?
    • A. 

      Restate the request and ask for a yes or no answer

    • B. 

      Accept the answer and begin searching

    • C. 

      Have the person sign the AF Form 1176

    • D. 

      Search only for property on the person

  • 62. 
    Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of
    • A. 

      Speeding violations

    • B. 

      Lawful apprehensions

    • C. 

      Dress and appearance violations

    • D. 

      The execution of a search authorization

  • 63. 
    Which is not the purpose of an interview?
    • A. 

      Gain information

    • B. 

      Establish the facts of a crime

    • C. 

      Develop background information

    • D. 

      Interrogate witness to gain information

  • 64. 
    What are the common reasons for an interviewee’s reluctance to talk?
    • A. 

      Bias toward police, resentment, and fear of involvement

    • B. 

      Inconvenience, resentment, and fear of involvement

    • C. 

      Fear of involvement and bias toward police

    • D. 

      Resentment and inconvenience

  • 65. 
    If a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an interview,
    • A. 

      Have a second investigator present

    • B. 

      Reschedule when a same-sex SF member is available

    • C. 

      The investigator should continue the interview alone

    • D. 

      Stop the interview and release the witness as unreliable

  • 66. 
    What are the interviewee classifications?
    • A. 

      Victim, witness and caller

    • B. 

      Suspect, victim, witness, and caller

    • C. 

      Complainant, victim, suspect, and caller

    • D. 

      Witness, victim, complainant, and suspect

  • 67. 
    Which interviewee is interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?
    • A. 

      Suspects

    • B. 

      Victim

    • C. 

      Witnesses

    • D. 

      Prosecutors

  • 68. 
    The four-step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and
    • A. 

      Conducting

    • B. 

      Witnessing

    • C. 

      Investigating

    • D. 

      Interrogating

  • 69. 
    Determining a time and place to interview it the first step in
    • A. 

      Closing

    • B. 

      Planning

    • C. 

      Preparation

    • D. 

      Conducting

  • 70. 
    What approach is primarily used to interrogate?
    • A. 

      Bad cop, good cop

    • B. 

      Indirect

    • C. 

      Alternating

    • D. 

      Direct

  • 71. 
    Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and
    • A. 

      Location of incident

    • B. 

      Other investigators

    • C. 

      Time of interview

    • D. 

      Room number

  • 72. 
    Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with
    • A. 

      The Chief, Security Forces

    • B. 

      The staff judge advocate

    • C. 

      Witnesses to the case

    • D. 

      The victim and suspect

  • 73. 
    Which of the following is a simple courtroom rule Security Forces members follow?
    • A. 

      Do not talk to court members

    • B. 

      Chew gum to calm yourself

    • C. 

      Smoke when you feel the need

    • D. 

      Discuss the case with witnesses during breaks

  • 74. 
    When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?
    • A. 

      During pretrial preparation

    • B. 

      When answering prosecution questions

    • C. 

      Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense

    • D. 

      Always resent your professional opinion as fact

  • 75. 
    The budget program operates on fiscal year basis beginning the first day of
    • A. 

      July and ending on 30 June

    • B. 

      August and ending 30 July

    • C. 

      September and ending on 30 August

    • D. 

      October and ending on 30 September

  • 76. 
    What two Air Force documents help you manage manpower resources?
    • A. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • B. 

      Specialty Training Standard (STS) and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    • C. 

      Unit Manpower Document (UMD) and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    • D. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS)

  • 77. 
    The UMD is the primary document that reflects the
    • A. 

      Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC)

    • B. 

      Member’s personnel readiness program (PRP) status

    • C. 

      Individual position number

    • D. 

      Positions authorized to accomplish the mission

  • 78. 
    Supply discipline is mandatory in order to
    • A. 

      Store, maintain, operate, and dispense materials on an as-needed basis

    • B. 

      Operate, dispense, and protect government bench stock items for future resale

    • C. 

      Maintain adequate stock levels, deplete old supplies, and free up necessary storage areas

    • D. 

      Conserve, protect and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property

  • 79. 
    Which of the following is not a general classification of supply items?
    • A. 

      Equipment authorized inventory data (EAID)

    • B. 

      Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL)

    • C. 

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    • D. 

      Non-EAID

  • 80. 
    Collective actions executed quickly without applying a deliberate decision-making process describes
    • A. 

      Individual skills training

    • B. 

      Collective skills training

    • C. 

      Augmentation drills

    • D. 

      Battle drills

  • 81. 
    Under the Stan/Eval program. Unit functional areas are inspected once
    • A. 

      A month

    • B. 

      Every 12 months

    • C. 

      Every 6 months

    • D. 

      A quarter

  • 82. 
    Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as
    • A. 

      Congressionally mandated

    • B. 

      Contingency

    • C. 

      Controlled

    • D. 

      Critical

  • 83. 
    Within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training with the Stan/Evals be conducted?
    • A. 

      120

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      30

  • 84. 
    Under the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (NLETS) program, where is the communications terminal located?
    • A. 

      On a stand-alone computer

    • B. 

      At authorized SF control centers

    • C. 

      At the SF law enforcement desk

    • D. 

      On all SF members’ individual desks

  • 85. 
    Who enters information about lost or stolen firearms into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC)?
    • A. 

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) personnel

    • B. 

      Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) personnel

    • C. 

      Security Forces Manager (SFM)

    • D. 

      Chief of Security Forces (CSF)

  • 86. 
    Within how many months after qualification training must Security Forces and battlefield Airmen complete unit live-fire sustainment training on their primary weapon?
    • A. 

      One to three

    • B. 

      Two to four

    • C. 

      Three to six

    • D. 

      Five to seven

  • 87. 
    Which AF Form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
    • A. 

      522 Ground Weapon Training Data

    • B. 

      629, Small Arms Hand Receipt

    • C. 

      1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

    • D. 

      797, Job Qualification Standard

  • 88. 
    The use of pro-words in radio communication help
    • A. 

      Aid in transmitting and reception

    • B. 

      Clarify understanding of the message being sent

    • C. 

      Distract and confuse unauthorized listeners

    • D. 

      Shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception

  • 89. 
    Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they
    • A. 

      Are of the same sex as inmate

    • B. 

      Are of the opposite sex of the inmate

    • C. 

      Have an unfavorable information file

    • D. 

      Are personally involved with the inmate

  • 90. 
    A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence up to how many years?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      15

  • 91. 
    Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form?
    • A. 

      2707, Confinement Order

    • B. 

      2708, Inmate fitness Certification

    • C. 

      2711, Initial Custody Classification

    • D. 

      2703, Inmate Classification Document

  • 92. 
    All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either
    • A. 

      Pretrial detainee, post-trial detainee, or casual

    • B. 

      Pretrial detainee or post-trial detainee

    • C. 

      Post-trial inmate or trial inmate

    • D. 

      Pretrial casual or casual

  • 93. 
    The two types of searches used in confinement facilities are
    • A. 

      Complete and frisk

    • B. 

      Simple and complete

    • C. 

      Initial and simple searches

    • D. 

      Compete and simple frisks

  • 94. 
    The automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant, and threatening situations is known as
    • A. 

      Stress

    • B. 

      Flinch reflex

    • C. 

      Defensive personality

    • D. 

      Unconditional reaction

  • 95. 
    The main source of stress can be found in your
    • A. 

      Personal life and job

    • B. 

      Personal life and nightclubs

    • C. 

      Job and recreational activities

    • D. 

      Job and off-duty employment

  • 96. 
    What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
    • A. 

      Finding the right stress medication

    • B. 

      Recognizing stressors

    • C. 

      Running daily

    • D. 

      Relaxing

  • 97. 
    A conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death is the definition of a/an
    • A. 

      Suicidal gesture

    • B. 

      Suicidal threat

    • C. 

      Completed suicide

    • D. 

      Attempted suicide

  • 98. 
    Microorganisms that are present in blood and cause disease are called
    • A. 

      “A” cells

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Cancer causing cells

    • D. 

      Bloodborne pathogens

  • 99. 
    How far from bunkers, fighting positions, or contamination control areas should collection points be located?
    • A. 

      20 feet and downwind

    • B. 

      10 feet and downwind

    • C. 

      20 feet and upwind

    • D. 

      10 feet and upwind

  • 100. 
    What are the elements of self-defense according to the Rules of Engagement (ROE) with
    • A. 

      Necessity and authority

    • B. 

      Immediacy and controlled

    • C. 

      Proportionality and necessity

    • D. 

      Proportionality and immediacy