Security Forces Journyman CDC Vol 3
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Range cards are a record of
- A.
Range data
- B.
Firing data
- C.
Call signs
- D.
Training
Correct Answer
B. Firing dataExplanation
Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide detailed information about the firing exercises conducted at a range, including the type of ammunition used, the distance to the target, the angle of elevation, and any adjustments made during the firing process. Range cards are essential for maintaining accurate records of firing activities, analyzing performance, and making improvements in training and marksmanship. They serve as a valuable reference for future exercises and help in evaluating the effectiveness of different firing techniques and strategies.Rate this question:
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- 2.
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
Each position prepares two range cards.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
- A.
M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.
- B.
M248, .50 cal, and MK 19
- C.
M9, M203, and MK19
- D.
MK19, .50 cal, and M17
Correct Answer
A. M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.Explanation
The correct answer is M240B, MK19, and .50 cal. This is because a range card is a tool used to record and reference the distances at which a weapon is effective. It includes information such as the range, elevation, and windage adjustments for different targets. The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are all fixed weapons that require range cards because they are typically used in situations where accurate and precise targeting is necessary, such as in military operations or long-range shooting.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What does the acronym FPL stand for?
- A.
Final protective line
- B.
Fire patrol liaison
- C.
First protective line
- D.
Fire profieciency line
Correct Answer
A. Final protective lineExplanation
The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This is a military term used to describe a line of defense that is established as a last resort to stop enemy forces from advancing. It is typically a predetermined position where troops and weapons are positioned to engage the enemy and prevent them from breaking through. The FPL is a crucial element in defensive strategies and is used to protect key areas or assets.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fir weapons?
- A.
Pirnciple determination of fire (PDF)
- B.
Principle direction of enemy (PDE)
- C.
Target reference point (TRP)
- D.
Final protective line (FPL)
Correct Answer
D. Final protective line (FPL)Explanation
The Final Protective Line (FPL) is primarily used to control direct-fire weapons, such as rifles and machine guns, by providing a designated line of fire to engage enemy targets. It serves as a defensive measure to prevent enemy forces from advancing further. However, the FPL can also be used for indirect-fire weapons, such as mortars and artillery, by providing a reference point for targeting enemy positions. This allows for coordinated and effective fire support in both direct and indirect engagements.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
- A.
Where you can locate it quickly
- B.
Marginal data area
- C.
Upper right corner
- D.
Part one
Correct Answer
B. Marginal data areaExplanation
The marginal data area is typically used to record additional information that may be useful for navigation or situational awareness. This can include magnetic north data, which is important for orienting a compass or map correctly. Placing the magnetic north data in the marginal data area allows it to be easily accessible and visible without cluttering the main portion of the range card.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
- A.
Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
- B.
Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target
- C.
Prominent man-made featurs that will be a definite target
- D.
Natural synthetic features only that could be a target
Correct Answer
A. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targetsExplanation
On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets. This information is important for identifying potential targets and planning your firing strategy. By including these features on the sketch, you can better assess the terrain and make informed decisions about where to direct your fire.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
- A.
Dead zone
- B.
Dead area
- C.
Dead space
- D.
Dead spot
Correct Answer
C. Dead spaceExplanation
Dead space refers to the area that cannot be effectively targeted or engaged with grazing fire. It is a term commonly used in military tactics and refers to areas that are shielded or protected from direct fire by natural or man-made obstacles. These obstacles could include structures, terrain features, or other elements that provide cover or concealment. Dead space poses a challenge for military forces as it limits their ability to engage or suppress enemy forces in certain areas, potentially creating vulnerabilities in their defensive or offensive operations.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
75
- D.
100
Correct Answer
D. 100Explanation
When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at a safe distance from your position and work forward to ensure maximum coverage and minimize the risk of being exposed to enemy fire. Starting at a distance of 100 meters allows for a wider area to be cleared and provides a greater buffer zone for safety. This ensures that any potential threats within the field of fire are effectively neutralized before they can pose a danger to your position.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
- A.
Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
- B.
Engage only those persons determined to be hostile
- C.
Engage predetermined targets in the ara
- D.
Detect the enemy and notify the chief, Security Forces
Correct Answer
A. Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weaponExplanation
Clearing fields of fire is the process of removing any obstacles or obstructions that may hinder the observation and engagement of potential threats within a specific area. This ensures that there are no visual or physical barriers that could impede the effective use of weapons to engage anyone within the field. By doing so, individuals can maintain a clear line of sight and have the ability to respond promptly and accurately to any hostile persons or situations that may arise.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is the function of the forward assist?
- A.
Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures
- B.
Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure
- C.
Unlock the bolt and secure the charing handle
- D.
Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures
Correct Answer
B. Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedureExplanation
The forward assist on a firearm is used to manually push the bolt forward and ensure that it is fully engaged. This is particularly useful during immediate action procedures, where the bolt may not have fully closed due to a malfunction or other issue. By locking the bolt forward, the forward assist helps to ensure that the firearm is ready to fire and that the bolt is securely in place.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
- A.
A stoppage
- B.
A malfunction
- C.
A failure to fire
- D.
An operational failure
Correct Answer
A. A stoppageExplanation
A stoppage refers to any interruption in the cycle of operations. It can occur due to various reasons such as a mechanical issue, a malfunctioning component, or any other factor that hinders the normal functioning of a system or process. This interruption can cause a temporary or permanent halt in the operations, requiring intervention or repair before resuming normal functionality. Therefore, a stoppage is the correct answer as it accurately defines the concept of any interruption in the cycle of operations.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The acronym SPORTS stands for
- A.
Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot
- B.
Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot
- C.
Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
- D.
Slap, push, observe, release, tap, and shoot
Correct Answer
C. Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shootExplanation
The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot." This is because the acronym SPORTS is used in firearms training to remember the steps involved in operating a firearm. "Slap" refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, "pull" refers to pulling the charging handle to load a round into the chamber, "observe" refers to observing the target and surroundings, "release" refers to releasing the safety, "tap" refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and "shoot" refers to pulling the trigger to fire the weapon.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
- A.
In brand new condition
- B.
Clean, dry and lubricated
- C.
Fully oiled and lubricated
- D.
Clean and properly lubricated
Correct Answer
D. Clean and properly lubricatedExplanation
Preventive maintenance is performed to ensure that weapons are in optimal condition and ready for use. This includes keeping them clean to remove any dirt, debris, or residue that could affect their performance. Additionally, proper lubrication is essential to ensure smooth operation and reduce friction between moving parts, preventing wear and tear. Therefore, the correct answer is "clean and properly lubricated" as it encompasses both aspects of preventive maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 15.
How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
- A.
6
- B.
8
- C.
10
- D.
12
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
There are 10 different types of ammunition for the M4 carbine.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
- A.
M249
- B.
M199
- C.
M855
- D.
M856
Correct Answer
D. M856Explanation
The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. This means that the M856 cartridge will continue to emit a visible tracer round for a longer period of time compared to the M196. The M856 cartridge is used in the M4 carbine, providing increased visibility of the trajectory of the round during firing.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
- A.
50 meters
- B.
60 meters
- C.
70 meters
- D.
80 meters
Correct Answer
A. 50 metersExplanation
The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most accurate and effective within a range of 50 meters. Beyond this distance, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol may decrease, making it less reliable for hitting targets. It is important for users of the M9 pistol to be aware of its effective range in order to make accurate shots and ensure the desired impact on the target.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
- A.
600 meters
- B.
800 meters
- C.
1,100 meters
- D.
1,800 meters
Correct Answer
D. 1,800 metersExplanation
The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a bullet up to a distance of 1,800 meters. This range is quite impressive for a pistol and allows for effective engagement of targets at long distances. It indicates that the M9 pistol is suitable for various combat scenarios and provides the user with a significant advantage in terms of range and accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 19.
If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
- A.
Approximate aiming point method
- B.
Adjusted aiming point method
- C.
Advanced aiming point method
- D.
Altitude aiming point method
Correct Answer
B. Adjusted aiming point methodExplanation
The correct answer is the "Adjusted aiming point method". When firing the M9, shooters are required to use this method in order to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the aiming point based on factors such as distance, wind, and target size. By adjusting the aiming point, shooters can increase their accuracy and effectively engage targets.Rate this question:
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- 20.
On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
- A.
Loaded chamber indicator
- B.
Reset the firing pin block
- C.
Chambering
- D.
Releasing slide
Correct Answer
A. Loaded chamber indicatorExplanation
The dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator on the M9 pistol is to indicate whether there is a round in the chamber and to reset the firing pin block. This indicator allows the user to visually confirm if the chamber is loaded or empty, ensuring proper safety protocols. Additionally, it resets the firing pin block mechanism after a round has been chambered, preparing the pistol for the next shot.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
- A.
Impossible
- B.
Incredible
- C.
Ineffective
- D.
Instructive
Correct Answer
D. InstructiveExplanation
The correct answer is "instructive" because when faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, applying immediate actions should be instructive. This means that the actions taken should be educational or informative, providing guidance on how to address the issue effectively. It implies that individuals should have knowledge or training on the appropriate steps to take in order to remedy the malfunction or stoppage.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
- A.
Aluminum
- B.
Rubber
- C.
Plastic
- D.
Steel
Correct Answer
D. SteelExplanation
CLP or LSA are used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This indicates that steel is prone to rusting and needs protection. The use of cleaner, lubricant, and preservative or lubricating oil suggests that these substances create a barrier on the steel surface, preventing moisture from coming into contact with the steel and causing rust.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
- A.
4
- B.
3
- C.
2
- D.
1
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
The correct answer is 4 because the question asks for the number of types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol. Therefore, there are four different types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
- A.
M855
- B.
M856
- C.
M882
- D.
M917
Correct Answer
C. M882Explanation
The standard cartridge used with the M9 is the M882.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?
- A.
MK243 MOD 0
- B.
M917 dummy round
- C.
M882 ball, with cannelure
- D.
M882 ball, without cannelure
Correct Answer
A. MK243 MOD 0Explanation
The correct answer is MK243 MOD 0. This ammunition round is exclusively issued to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties.Rate this question:
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- 26.
In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
- A.
400
- B.
350
- C.
250
- D.
150
Correct Answer
D. 150Explanation
The correct answer is 150. The M203 is a grenade launcher attachment for rifles that is typically used to engage fire-team-sized area targets. The maximum range of the M203 when engaging these targets is 150 meters. This means that the launcher can effectively hit and engage targets within a 150-meter radius, making it an effective weapon for close-range combat situations.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
- A.
150
- B.
250
- C.
350
- D.
400
Correct Answer
C. 350Explanation
The correct answer is 350 meters. The M203 is a grenade launcher attachment for rifles that is commonly used by fire teams. It is designed to engage area targets, meaning it can effectively cover a wide area with its projectiles. The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 350 meters. This means that it can accurately hit and engage targets within this distance, making it a valuable weapon for fire teams in combat situations.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
30
Correct Answer
D. 30Explanation
The waiting period before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203 is 30 seconds. This is likely because opening the barrel assembly immediately after a failure can be dangerous and potentially cause further damage or injury. Waiting for 30 seconds allows for any potential hazards to subside and ensures a safer unloading process.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
- A.
Canopy
- B.
Flangee
- C.
Ogive
- D.
Fin
Correct Answer
C. OgiveExplanation
The ogive is the correct answer because it refers to the curved nose cone of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker rounds. The color of the smoke produced is indicated by the ogive, which is the part of the round that is responsible for shaping the trajectory and aerodynamics.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
- A.
40
- B.
30
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
C. 20Explanation
The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters. This means that within a 20-meter radius of the round's impact, there is a potential danger to personnel or objects. It is important to maintain a safe distance from the impact area to avoid any harm or damage.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
- A.
Under no circumstances
- B.
When directed
- C.
Emergancies
- D.
Last resort
Correct Answer
A. Under no circumstancesExplanation
MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not for the M203 grenade launcher. The M203 uses different types of ammunition, such as 40mm grenades. Therefore, under no circumstances should MK19 ammunition be used in the M203.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?
- A.
White star cluster
- B.
Ground marker
- C.
Star parachute
- D.
Buckshot
Correct Answer
D. BuckshotExplanation
Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting the target in densely vegetated areas or confined spaces. The spread of the pellets provides a wider coverage area, making it easier to hit targets that may be hidden or moving within the vegetation or rooms. This round is designed for close-range engagements and provides a higher probability of hitting the target in these specific scenarios.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
- A.
800
- B.
600
- C.
400
- D.
200
Correct Answer
B. 600Explanation
The M249 has a maximum effective range of 600 meters for a point target when using a bipod. This means that the weapon is most accurate and effective when engaging individual targets at distances up to 600 meters while utilizing the bipod for stability. Beyond this range, the weapon may still be able to engage targets, but its accuracy and effectiveness may decrease.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
- A.
Slide assembly
- B.
Receiver assembly
- C.
Triger mechanism assembly
- D.
Return rod and transfer assembly
Correct Answer
B. Receiver assemblyExplanation
The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. It is the main body of the weapon that houses the firing mechanism, barrel, and other essential parts. Without the receiver assembly, the M249 would not be able to function properly. It provides stability and structure to the firearm, allowing all other assemblies to be securely attached and aligned.Rate this question:
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- 35.
An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of te weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
- A.
A stoppage
- B.
A malfunction
- C.
A remedial action
- D.
An operator error
Correct Answer
A. A stoppageExplanation
A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations, typically caused by a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. It occurs when the firearm fails to complete its intended cycle, such as failing to extract or eject a spent casing or failing to feed a new round into the chamber. This interruption can be resolved by identifying and addressing the specific issue causing the stoppage.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
150
- D.
200
Correct Answer
D. 200Explanation
An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
- A.
M199 Dummy
- B.
M200 Blank
- C.
M856 Tracer
- D.
M866 Ball
Correct Answer
A. M199 DummyExplanation
During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for training purposes and does not contain any explosive or live components. It allows individuals to practice weapon handling and familiarize themselves with the M249 without the risk of firing live rounds. The M199 Dummy ammunition is inert and safe to use in these training scenarios.Rate this question:
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- 38.
How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
- A.
50 round bandoleer, split-link belt
- B.
100 round bandoleer, split-link belt
- C.
100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt
- D.
50 round bandoleer, solid-link belt
Correct Answer
B. 100 round bandoleer, split-link beltExplanation
The M240B is fed ammunition using a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition carrying device that is worn over the shoulder, and in this case, it holds 100 rounds of ammunition. The split-link belt refers to the type of belt used to feed the ammunition into the weapon. The split-link belt consists of individual links that are separated, allowing the rounds to be easily loaded into the weapon. This combination of a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt is the correct way to feed ammunition into the M240B.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
- A.
200
- B.
400
- C.
600
- D.
800
Correct Answer
D. 800Explanation
The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with tripod. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a single target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod. The tripod provides stability and helps in maintaining accuracy over longer distances.Rate this question:
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- 40.
From what position is the M240B loaded?
- A.
Bolt Open
- B.
Bolt CLOSED
- C.
Bolt OENED or CLOSED
- D.
Blide OPENED or CLOSED
Correct Answer
C. Bolt OENED or CLOSEDExplanation
The correct answer is "Bolt OENED or CLOSED." This means that the M240B can be loaded from either position of the bolt, whether it is open or closed.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
- A.
Ejecting
- B.
Extracting
- C.
Cocking
- D.
Firing
Correct Answer
D. FiringExplanation
When the trigger of the M240B machine gun is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, causing the propellant to ignite and propel the bullet out of the barrel. Firing is a crucial step in the cycle of operations as it is the actual discharge of the weapon.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?
- A.
Bad ammunnition and incorrect loading
- B.
Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire
- C.
Sluggish operations and bad ammunition
- D.
Shooter error and uncontrolled fire
Correct Answer
B. Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fireExplanation
Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B. Sluggish operations refer to the weapon's failure to cycle properly, resulting in slow or delayed firing. Uncontrolled fire refers to the weapon firing uncontrollably, either due to a malfunction or the shooter's inability to control the rate of fire. These malfunctions can significantly impact the weapon's effectiveness and pose a safety risk to the shooter and those around them.Rate this question:
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- 43.
At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
- A.
900 to 1,200 rounds
- B.
1,200 to 1,500 rounds
- C.
1,500 to 2,000 rounds
- D.
2,000 to 2,500 rounds
Correct Answer
A. 900 to 1,200 roundsExplanation
The correct answer is 900 to 1,200 rounds. This is the minimum number of rounds after which you should clean the M240B. Cleaning the weapon is necessary to ensure its proper functioning and to prevent any malfunctions or jams that may occur due to the buildup of dirt, debris, or fouling caused by firing the rounds. Regular cleaning helps maintain the weapon's accuracy, reliability, and longevity.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
- A.
M808
- B.
M63
- C.
M62
- D.
M61
Correct Answer
D. M61Explanation
The M61 ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets. This type of ammunition is specifically designed to penetrate and inflict damage on lightly-armored vehicles or targets. It is commonly used in military operations where there is a need to neutralize or disable lightly-armored vehicles, such as trucks or armored personnel carriers. The M61 ammunition is known for its effectiveness and is widely used by military forces around the world.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
- A.
Blank firing adapter
- B.
Big flash adapter
- C.
Blank flash adapter
- D.
Bandoleer flap adapter
Correct Answer
A. Blank firing adapterExplanation
A blank firing adapter (BFA) is a device used to modify a firearm to enable it to fire blanks, which are cartridges without a projectile. This adapter is attached to the muzzle of the firearm and allows the gas pressure generated by the blank cartridge to cycle the firearm's action, simulating the recoil of live ammunition. The purpose of the BFA is to ensure the proper functioning of the firearm when firing blanks, as the absence of a projectile can affect the weapon's cycling mechanism. Therefore, the correct answer is "Blank firing adapter."Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
- A.
M240B
- B.
M249
- C.
M780
- D.
MK19
Correct Answer
D. MK19Explanation
The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
- A.
M1
- B.
M2
- C.
M3
- D.
M4
Correct Answer
C. M3Explanation
The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is the standard round for the MK19?
- A.
M383
- B.
M430
- C.
M918
- D.
M922
Correct Answer
B. M430Explanation
The standard round for the MK19 is the M430.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Searching fire is the most often used on
- A.
Level ground only
- B.
Even ground only
- C.
Sloped or hilly ground
- D.
Level or evenly sloping ground
Correct Answer
D. Level or evenly sloping groundExplanation
The correct answer is "level or evenly sloping ground." This means that searching for fire can be done on ground that is either completely level or has a slight slope. This is because searching for fire requires a stable and safe ground surface to walk on, and level or evenly sloping ground provides the best conditions for this. Ground that is too steep or hilly can be dangerous and make it difficult to search effectively. Therefore, level or evenly sloping ground is the most suitable for searching fire.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
- A.
2,000 yards
- B.
2,200 yards
- C.
2,500 yards
- D.
2,750 yards
Correct Answer
A. 2,000 yardsExplanation
The maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 2,000 yards.Rate this question:
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