Security Forces Journyman CDC Vol 3
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- 1.Range cards are a record of
- A.
Range data
- B.
Firing data
- C.
Call signs
- D.
Training
- 2.How many range cards are prepared for each position?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
- 3.In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
- A.
M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.
- B.
M248, .50 cal, and MK 19
- C.
M9, M203, and MK19
- D.
MK19, .50 cal, and M17
- 4.What does the acronym FPL stand for?
- A.
Final protective line
- B.
Fire patrol liaison
- C.
First protective line
- D.
Fire profieciency line
- 5.
- A.
Pirnciple determination of fire (PDF)
- B.
Principle direction of enemy (PDE)
- C.
Target reference point (TRP)
- D.
Final protective line (FPL)
- 6.Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
- A.
Where you can locate it quickly
- B.
Marginal data area
- C.
Upper right corner
- D.
Part one
- 7.What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
- A.
Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
- B.
Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target
- C.
Prominent man-made featurs that will be a definite target
- D.
Natural synthetic features only that could be a target
- 8.The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
- A.
Dead zone
- B.
Dead area
- C.
Dead space
- D.
Dead spot
- 9.
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
75
- D.
100
- 10.The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
- A.
Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
- B.
Engage only those persons determined to be hostile
- C.
Engage predetermined targets in the ara
- D.
Detect the enemy and notify the chief, Security Forces
- 11.What is the function of the forward assist?
- A.
Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures
- B.
Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure
- C.
Unlock the bolt and secure the charing handle
- D.
Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures
- 12.Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
- A.
A stoppage
- B.
A malfunction
- C.
A failure to fire
- D.
An operational failure
- 13.The acronym SPORTS stands for
- A.
Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot
- B.
Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot
- C.
Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
- D.
Slap, push, observe, release, tap, and shoot
- 14.The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
- A.
In brand new condition
- B.
Clean, dry and lubricated
- C.
Fully oiled and lubricated
- D.
Clean and properly lubricated
- 15.How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
- A.
6
- B.
8
- C.
10
- D.
12
- 16.What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
- A.
M249
- B.
M199
- C.
M855
- D.
M856
- 17.What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
- A.
50 meters
- B.
60 meters
- C.
70 meters
- D.
80 meters
- 18.What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
- A.
600 meters
- B.
800 meters
- C.
1,100 meters
- D.
1,800 meters
- 19.If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
- A.
Approximate aiming point method
- B.
Adjusted aiming point method
- C.
Advanced aiming point method
- D.
Altitude aiming point method
- 20.On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
- A.
Loaded chamber indicator
- B.
Reset the firing pin block
- C.
Chambering
- D.
Releasing slide
- 21.Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
- A.
Impossible
- B.
Incredible
- C.
Ineffective
- D.
Instructive
- 22.Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
- A.
Aluminum
- B.
Rubber
- C.
Plastic
- D.
Steel
- 23.How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
- A.
4
- B.
3
- C.
2
- D.
1
- 24.What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
- A.
M855
- B.
M856
- C.
M882
- D.
M917
- 25.Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?
- A.
MK243 MOD 0
- B.
M917 dummy round
- C.
M882 ball, with cannelure
- D.
M882 ball, without cannelure
- 26.In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
- A.
400
- B.
350
- C.
250
- D.
150
- 27.In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
- A.
150
- B.
250
- C.
350
- D.
400
- 28.What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
30
- 29.
- A.
Canopy
- B.
Flangee
- C.
Ogive
- D.
Fin
- 30.What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
- A.
40
- B.
30
- C.
20
- D.
10
- 31.Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
- A.
Under no circumstances
- B.
When directed
- C.
Emergancies
- D.
Last resort
- 32.Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?
- A.
White star cluster
- B.
Ground marker
- C.
Star parachute
- D.
Buckshot
- 33.What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
- A.
800
- B.
600
- C.
400
- D.
200
- 34.Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
- A.
Slide assembly
- B.
Receiver assembly
- C.
Triger mechanism assembly
- D.
Return rod and transfer assembly
- 35.An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of te weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
- A.
A stoppage
- B.
A malfunction
- C.
A remedial action
- D.
An operator error
- 36.How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
150
- D.
200
- 37.What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
- A.
M199 Dummy
- B.
M200 Blank
- C.
M856 Tracer
- D.
M866 Ball
- 38.How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
- A.
50 round bandoleer, split-link belt
- B.
100 round bandoleer, split-link belt
- C.
100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt
- D.
50 round bandoleer, solid-link belt
- 39.In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
- A.
200
- B.
400
- C.
600
- D.
800
- 40.From what position is the M240B loaded?
- A.
Bolt Open
- B.
Bolt CLOSED
- C.
Bolt OENED or CLOSED
- D.
Blide OPENED or CLOSED
- 41.Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
- A.
Ejecting
- B.
Extracting
- C.
Cocking
- D.
Firing
- 42.What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?
- A.
Bad ammunnition and incorrect loading
- B.
Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire
- C.
Sluggish operations and bad ammunition
- D.
Shooter error and uncontrolled fire
- 43.At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
- A.
900 to 1,200 rounds
- B.
1,200 to 1,500 rounds
- C.
1,500 to 2,000 rounds
- D.
2,000 to 2,500 rounds
- 44.What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
- A.
M808
- B.
M63
- C.
M62
- D.
M61
- 45.
- A.
Blank firing adapter
- B.
Big flash adapter
- C.
Blank flash adapter
- D.
Bandoleer flap adapter
- 46.Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
- A.
M240B
- B.
M249
- C.
M780
- D.
MK19
- 47.Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
- A.
M1
- B.
M2
- C.
M3
- D.
M4
- 48.What is the standard round for the MK19?
- A.
M383
- B.
M430
- C.
M918
- D.
M922
- 49.Searching fire is the most often used on
- A.
Level ground only
- B.
Even ground only
- C.
Sloped or hilly ground
- D.
Level or evenly sloping ground
- 50.What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
- A.
2,000 yards
- B.
2,200 yards
- C.
2,500 yards
- D.
2,750 yards
- 51.The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
- A.
800
- B.
700
- C.
600
- D.
500
- 52.When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
- A.
Direct
- B.
Grazing
- C.
Predetermined
- D.
Distributed and effective
- 53.Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
- A.
Rapidly and effectively
- B.
Quickly and accurately
- C.
Accurately and timely
- D.
Swiftly and deadly
- 54.Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.
- A.
Sector of fire
- B.
Final protective line
- C.
Principle of direct fire
- D.
Final protective fire
- 55.Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
- A.
A final protective line (FPL)
- B.
A principal of direct fire (PDF)
- C.
A final protective fire (FPF)
- D.
A directed prolonged fire (DPF)
- 56.Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avanue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
- A.
Dead space protective line
- B.
Final protective line
- C.
Primary sector of fire
- D.
Secondary sector of fire
- 57.Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and
- A.
Control and enemy
- B.
Hold the enemy position
- C.
Overwhelm the enemy
- D.
Overpower the enemy
- 58.
- A.
250
- B.
345
- C.
557
- D.
640
- 59.The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
- A.
The open-quarters battle role
- B.
The close-quaters battle role
- C.
High-density, low-visibility role
- D.
Long-range fighting, heavy-combatant role
- 60.Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?
- A.
Ammunition
- B.
Vehicles
- C.
Terrain
- D.
Time
- 61.Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include
- A.
Squad leader
- B.
Support element sniper
- C.
Reconnaissance and close precision support
- D.
A response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaisance
- 62.Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
- A.
Quality
- B.
Accuracy
- C.
Killing ratio
- D.
Stopping power
- 63.The M107 sniper rifel operates by means of
- A.
Short recoil principle
- B.
Bolt action
- C.
Belt fed
- D.
Gas
- 64.The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precisse rifle fire from
- A.
Aircraft
- B.
Anywhere
- C.
Rooftop positions
- D.
Concealed positions
- 65.What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
- A.
Mid-range employment, easy to cary, and delay element for throwing
- B.
Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing
- C.
Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing
- D.
Medium employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing
- 66.How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
- A.
5
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
15
- 67.How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training enviroment?
- A.
Underhand
- B.
Overhand
- C.
Overhead
- D.
Sidearm
- 68.The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
- A.
Offensive weapon
- B.
Defensive weapon
- C.
Passive defense weapon
- D.
Active defense weapon
- 69.When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considereda
- A.
A precision engagement weapon
- B.
Active force multiplier
- C.
Lethal force weapon
- D.
Mine or boobly trap
- 70.In what year was the M18A, a claymore mine standardized?
- A.
1955
- B.
1960
- C.
1965
- D.
1970
- 71.When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
- A.
One-shot weapon
- B.
Two-shot weapon
- C.
Three-shot weapon
- D.
Four-shot weapon
- 72.The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
- A.
Single or multiple priming
- B.
Multiple or dual priming
- C.
Single or dual priming
- D.
Single, dual, and multiple primimg
- 73.Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
- A.
Wind
- B.
Temperature
- C.
Weapon trajectory
- D.
Backblast area
- 74.A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
- A.
Field handling trainer
- B.
Tracer bullet trainer
- C.
HD antiarmor round
- D.
High explosive (HE) antiarmor round
- 75.The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal
- A.
After-armor effects
- B.
Pre-armor effects
- C.
Kill radius
- D.
Aim
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