Security Forces Journyman CDC Vol 3

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Likawa8764
L
Likawa8764
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 5 | Total Attempts: 13,948
| Attempts: 4,387 | Questions: 75
Please wait...
Question 1 / 75
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most accurate and effective within a range of 50 meters. Beyond this distance, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol may decrease, making it less reliable for hitting targets. It is important for users of the M9 pistol to be aware of its effective range in order to make accurate shots and ensure the desired impact on the target.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Security Forces Journyman CDC Vol 3 - Quiz

This quiz titled 'Security Forces Journeyman CDC Vol 3' assesses knowledge on range cards, firing data, and weapon handling in security forces. It covers specifics such as the... see morepreparation of range cards for various weapons and understanding tactical elements like the Final Protective Line. see less

2. What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

Explanation

A blank firing adapter (BFA) is a device used to modify a firearm to enable it to fire blanks, which are cartridges without a projectile. This adapter is attached to the muzzle of the firearm and allows the gas pressure generated by the blank cartridge to cycle the firearm's action, simulating the recoil of live ammunition. The purpose of the BFA is to ensure the proper functioning of the firearm when firing blanks, as the absence of a projectile can affect the weapon's cycling mechanism. Therefore, the correct answer is "Blank firing adapter."

Submit
3. The acronym SPORTS stands for

Explanation

The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot." This is because the acronym SPORTS is used in firearms training to remember the steps involved in operating a firearm. "Slap" refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, "pull" refers to pulling the charging handle to load a round into the chamber, "observe" refers to observing the target and surroundings, "release" refers to releasing the safety, "tap" refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and "shoot" refers to pulling the trigger to fire the weapon.

Submit
4. What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a bullet up to a distance of 1,800 meters. This range is quite impressive for a pistol and allows for effective engagement of targets at long distances. It indicates that the M9 pistol is suitable for various combat scenarios and provides the user with a significant advantage in terms of range and accuracy.

Submit
5. Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

Explanation

CLP or LSA are used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This indicates that steel is prone to rusting and needs protection. The use of cleaner, lubricant, and preservative or lubricating oil suggests that these substances create a barrier on the steel surface, preventing moisture from coming into contact with the steel and causing rust.

Submit
6. What does the acronym FPL stand for?

Explanation

The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This is a military term used to describe a line of defense that is established as a last resort to stop enemy forces from advancing. It is typically a predetermined position where troops and weapons are positioned to engage the enemy and prevent them from breaking through. The FPL is a crucial element in defensive strategies and is used to protect key areas or assets.

Submit
7. What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

Explanation

On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets. This information is important for identifying potential targets and planning your firing strategy. By including these features on the sketch, you can better assess the terrain and make informed decisions about where to direct your fire.

Submit
8. Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

Explanation

When the trigger of the M240B machine gun is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, causing the propellant to ignite and propel the bullet out of the barrel. Firing is a crucial step in the cycle of operations as it is the actual discharge of the weapon.

Submit
9. How many range cards are prepared for each position?

Explanation

Each position prepares two range cards.

Submit
10. In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?

Explanation

The correct answer is M240B, MK19, and .50 cal. This is because a range card is a tool used to record and reference the distances at which a weapon is effective. It includes information such as the range, elevation, and windage adjustments for different targets. The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are all fixed weapons that require range cards because they are typically used in situations where accurate and precise targeting is necessary, such as in military operations or long-range shooting.

Submit
11. Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

Explanation

The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

Submit
12. How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

Explanation

The M240B is fed ammunition using a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition carrying device that is worn over the shoulder, and in this case, it holds 100 rounds of ammunition. The split-link belt refers to the type of belt used to feed the ammunition into the weapon. The split-link belt consists of individual links that are separated, allowing the rounds to be easily loaded into the weapon. This combination of a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt is the correct way to feed ammunition into the M240B.

Submit
13. Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior

Explanation

Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with precision and attention to detail, resulting in consistent and predictable performance. The strict tolerances help minimize variations in the bullets' trajectory, ensuring that they hit the intended target with high precision. By focusing on accuracy, sniper ammunition maximizes the chances of hitting the target accurately, making it an essential factor for snipers who rely on precision and long-range shooting.

Submit
14. Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

Explanation

A stoppage refers to any interruption in the cycle of operations. It can occur due to various reasons such as a mechanical issue, a malfunctioning component, or any other factor that hinders the normal functioning of a system or process. This interruption can cause a temporary or permanent halt in the operations, requiring intervention or repair before resuming normal functionality. Therefore, a stoppage is the correct answer as it accurately defines the concept of any interruption in the cycle of operations.

Submit
15. Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

Explanation

MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not for the M203 grenade launcher. The M203 uses different types of ammunition, such as 40mm grenades. Therefore, under no circumstances should MK19 ammunition be used in the M203.

Submit
16. The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

Explanation

The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in the close-quarters battle role. This is because shotguns have a wide spread of pellets, making them highly effective at close range where accuracy is less critical. In close-quarters combat, such as in urban environments or indoor settings, shotguns can quickly incapacitate targets and provide a significant advantage to the user.

Submit
17. The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

Explanation

Dead space refers to the area that cannot be effectively targeted or engaged with grazing fire. It is a term commonly used in military tactics and refers to areas that are shielded or protected from direct fire by natural or man-made obstacles. These obstacles could include structures, terrain features, or other elements that provide cover or concealment. Dead space poses a challenge for military forces as it limits their ability to engage or suppress enemy forces in certain areas, potentially creating vulnerabilities in their defensive or offensive operations.

Submit
18. On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

Explanation

The dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator on the M9 pistol is to indicate whether there is a round in the chamber and to reset the firing pin block. This indicator allows the user to visually confirm if the chamber is loaded or empty, ensuring proper safety protocols. Additionally, it resets the firing pin block mechanism after a round has been chambered, preparing the pistol for the next shot.

Submit
19. When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a

Explanation

The claymore is considered a one-shot weapon when used in a controlled role. This means that it is designed to be used once and then discarded or reloaded. It is not meant to be fired multiple times in quick succession. This could be due to factors such as the limited ammunition capacity or the need for time-consuming reloading procedures. Therefore, the claymore is most effective when used in a single, well-planned attack.

Submit
20. Range cards are a record of

Explanation

Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide detailed information about the firing exercises conducted at a range, including the type of ammunition used, the distance to the target, the angle of elevation, and any adjustments made during the firing process. Range cards are essential for maintaining accurate records of firing activities, analyzing performance, and making improvements in training and marksmanship. They serve as a valuable reference for future exercises and help in evaluating the effectiveness of different firing techniques and strategies.

Submit
21. The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

Explanation

Preventive maintenance is performed to ensure that weapons are in optimal condition and ready for use. This includes keeping them clean to remove any dirt, debris, or residue that could affect their performance. Additionally, proper lubrication is essential to ensure smooth operation and reduce friction between moving parts, preventing wear and tear. Therefore, the correct answer is "clean and properly lubricated" as it encompasses both aspects of preventive maintenance.

Submit
22. Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

Explanation

Sharpshooters will be well trained in the tactical use of terrain because it plays a crucial role in their ability to effectively engage targets. Terrain provides natural cover and concealment, allowing sharpshooters to position themselves in advantageous locations and remain hidden from the enemy. They must understand how to utilize different types of terrain, such as hills, valleys, forests, and urban environments, to their advantage in order to maximize their accuracy and effectiveness. By being well trained in the tactical use of terrain, sharpshooters can adapt to various situations and enhance their overall combat effectiveness.

Submit
23. Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

Explanation

The correct answer is "instructive" because when faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, applying immediate actions should be instructive. This means that the actions taken should be educational or informative, providing guidance on how to address the issue effectively. It implies that individuals should have knowledge or training on the appropriate steps to take in order to remedy the malfunction or stoppage.

Submit
24. How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 because the question asks for the number of types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol. Therefore, there are four different types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol.

Submit
25. What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?

Explanation

During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for training purposes and does not contain any explosive or live components. It allows individuals to practice weapon handling and familiarize themselves with the M249 without the risk of firing live rounds. The M199 Dummy ammunition is inert and safe to use in these training scenarios.

Submit
26. Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?

Explanation

Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting the target in densely vegetated areas or confined spaces. The spread of the pellets provides a wider coverage area, making it easier to hit targets that may be hidden or moving within the vegetation or rooms. This round is designed for close-range engagements and provides a higher probability of hitting the target in these specific scenarios.

Submit
27. Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

Explanation

The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. It is the main body of the weapon that houses the firing mechanism, barrel, and other essential parts. Without the receiver assembly, the M249 would not be able to function properly. It provides stability and structure to the firearm, allowing all other assemblies to be securely attached and aligned.

Submit
28. A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

Explanation

The black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates that it is a High explosive (HE) antiarmor round. This band serves as a visual indicator to easily identify the type of launcher and the ammunition it contains. The black and yellow color combination is specifically used for the HE antiarmor round, distinguishing it from other types of ammunition that may be used with the launcher.

Submit
29. Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

Explanation

The ogive is the correct answer because it refers to the curved nose cone of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker rounds. The color of the smoke produced is indicated by the ogive, which is the part of the round that is responsible for shaping the trajectory and aerodynamics.

Submit
30. When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considereda

Explanation

The correct answer is "mine or booby trap." This is because a claymore, when used in an uncontrolled role, can be set up as a hidden explosive device that is triggered by the proximity of an unsuspecting target. It is designed to cause harm or kill the target, making it a lethal force weapon or a type of mine or booby trap. It is not considered a precision engagement weapon or an active force multiplier, as it does not require precise targeting or enhance the effectiveness of a military force.

Submit
31. The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is

Explanation

Clearing fields of fire is the process of removing any obstacles or obstructions that may hinder the observation and engagement of potential threats within a specific area. This ensures that there are no visual or physical barriers that could impede the effective use of weapons to engage anyone within the field. By doing so, individuals can maintain a clear line of sight and have the ability to respond promptly and accurately to any hostile persons or situations that may arise.

Submit
32. What is the function of the forward assist?

Explanation

The forward assist on a firearm is used to manually push the bolt forward and ensure that it is fully engaged. This is particularly useful during immediate action procedures, where the bolt may not have fully closed due to a malfunction or other issue. By locking the bolt forward, the forward assist helps to ensure that the firearm is ready to fire and that the bolt is securely in place.

Submit
33. Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?

Explanation

Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), it is important to check the backblast area. The backblast area refers to the space behind the weapon where the high-pressure gases and debris are expelled when the weapon is fired. By checking the backblast area, one ensures that there are no obstructions or personnel present that could be harmed by the blast. This precaution is crucial for the safety of both the operator and those in the surrounding area.

Submit
34. Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

Explanation

The marginal data area is typically used to record additional information that may be useful for navigation or situational awareness. This can include magnetic north data, which is important for orienting a compass or map correctly. Placing the magnetic north data in the marginal data area allows it to be easily accessible and visible without cluttering the main portion of the range card.

Submit
35. Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?

Explanation

The correct answer is MK243 MOD 0. This ammunition round is exclusively issued to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties.

Submit
36. Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avanue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

Explanation

The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team focuses their fire in a specific direction that is most likely to be used by the enemy to approach their position. By concentrating their fire in this primary sector, the gun team can effectively defend against any potential threats and prevent the enemy from advancing.

Submit
37. Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include

Explanation

The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include a response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. This means that these teams should be able to effectively respond to threats, provide overwatch to protect friendly forces, conduct screening operations to gather information and protect the main force, and perform reconnaissance missions to gather intelligence on enemy positions and movements. These capabilities are essential for the success of CPE marksmen and sharpshooter teams in their role on the battlefield.

Submit
38. The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precisse rifle fire from

Explanation

The correct answer is "concealed positions" because snipers are trained to remain hidden and undetected while engaging targets. By operating from concealed positions, they can maintain a tactical advantage and effectively engage enemy forces without being easily seen or targeted themselves. This allows them to provide support to combat operations while minimizing the risk to themselves and their team.

Submit
39. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

Explanation

The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed by the blast or shrapnel. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarters combat, and the 5-meter kill radius ensures that they can neutralize threats within a relatively small area.

Submit
40. What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

Explanation

The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. This means that the M856 cartridge will continue to emit a visible tracer round for a longer period of time compared to the M196. The M856 cartridge is used in the M4 carbine, providing increased visibility of the trajectory of the round during firing.

Submit
41. If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is the "Adjusted aiming point method". When firing the M9, shooters are required to use this method in order to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the aiming point based on factors such as distance, wind, and target size. By adjusting the aiming point, shooters can increase their accuracy and effectively engage targets.

Submit
42. From what position is the M240B loaded?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Bolt OENED or CLOSED." This means that the M240B can be loaded from either position of the bolt, whether it is open or closed.

Submit
43. How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training enviroment?

Explanation

Live fragmentation grenades must be thrown overhand in the training environment to ensure that they are thrown with enough force and accuracy. Throwing overhand allows for a more controlled and powerful throw, increasing the distance the grenade can travel and reducing the risk of it falling short or not reaching its intended target. This throwing technique also minimizes the chances of the grenade hitting obstacles or individuals in close proximity, making it a safer option in a training setting.

Submit
44. How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

Explanation

An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds.

Submit
45. When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

Explanation

When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at a safe distance from your position and work forward to ensure maximum coverage and minimize the risk of being exposed to enemy fire. Starting at a distance of 100 meters allows for a wider area to be cleared and provides a greater buffer zone for safety. This ensures that any potential threats within the field of fire are effectively neutralized before they can pose a danger to your position.

Submit
46. At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of

Explanation

The correct answer is 900 to 1,200 rounds. This is the minimum number of rounds after which you should clean the M240B. Cleaning the weapon is necessary to ensure its proper functioning and to prevent any malfunctions or jams that may occur due to the buildup of dirt, debris, or fouling caused by firing the rounds. Regular cleaning helps maintain the weapon's accuracy, reliability, and longevity.

Submit
47. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

Explanation

The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with tripod. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a single target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod. The tripod provides stability and helps in maintaining accuracy over longer distances.

Submit
48. What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?

Explanation

Hand grenades typically have a short employment range, meaning they can only be thrown a relatively short distance. They also have a small casualty radius, which means the area affected by the explosion is limited. Additionally, hand grenades often have a delay element that allows the person throwing it to have enough time to move to a safe distance before it detonates, ensuring safe throwing.

Submit
49. The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an

Explanation

The claymore mine is designed to be used as a defensive weapon. It is a directional anti-personnel mine that is set up to face the enemy and detonate when triggered. Its purpose is to protect a specific area or position by inflicting casualties on approaching enemy forces. The claymore mine is not meant to be used for offensive purposes, as it is primarily used to defend and secure a location rather than actively engaging and attacking enemy targets.

Submit
50. How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine? 

Explanation

There are 10 different types of ammunition for the M4 carbine.

Submit
51. The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for

Explanation

The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for single or dual priming. This means that the claymore can be set up to be detonated by either one or two detonators. The option of using two detonators provides redundancy and ensures that the claymore will still function even if one of the detonators fails.

Submit
52. Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?

Explanation

The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19.

Submit
53. Searching fire is the most often used on

Explanation

The correct answer is "level or evenly sloping ground." This means that searching for fire can be done on ground that is either completely level or has a slight slope. This is because searching for fire requires a stable and safe ground surface to walk on, and level or evenly sloping ground provides the best conditions for this. Ground that is too steep or hilly can be dangerous and make it difficult to search effectively. Therefore, level or evenly sloping ground is the most suitable for searching fire.

Submit
54. Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?

Explanation

A final protective line (FPL) is fixed in direction and elevation. This means that once it is established, it remains in the same position and does not move or change its angle of elevation. The purpose of an FPL is to provide a predetermined line of fire to stop or repel enemy forces. It is carefully planned and positioned to effectively cover a specific area and prevent the enemy from advancing beyond that line. The fixed direction and elevation ensure that the FPL remains consistent and reliable in its defensive capabilities.

Submit
55. What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?

Explanation

The standard cartridge used with the M9 is the M882.

Submit
56. What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?

Explanation

The waiting period before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203 is 30 seconds. This is likely because opening the barrel assembly immediately after a failure can be dangerous and potentially cause further damage or injury. Waiting for 30 seconds allows for any potential hazards to subside and ensures a safer unloading process.

Submit
57. What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?

Explanation

The M249 has a maximum effective range of 600 meters for a point target when using a bipod. This means that the weapon is most accurate and effective when engaging individual targets at distances up to 600 meters while utilizing the bipod for stability. Beyond this range, the weapon may still be able to engage targets, but its accuracy and effectiveness may decrease.

Submit
58. What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?

Explanation

Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B. Sluggish operations refer to the weapon's failure to cycle properly, resulting in slow or delayed firing. Uncontrolled fire refers to the weapon firing uncontrollably, either due to a malfunction or the shooter's inability to control the rate of fire. These malfunctions can significantly impact the weapon's effectiveness and pose a safety risk to the shooter and those around them.

Submit
59. In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is 350 meters. The M203 is a grenade launcher attachment for rifles that is commonly used by fire teams. It is designed to engage area targets, meaning it can effectively cover a wide area with its projectiles. The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 350 meters. This means that it can accurately hit and engage targets within this distance, making it a valuable weapon for fire teams in combat situations.

Submit
60. Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target

Explanation

Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data allow the gunner to quickly and accurately aim or adjust fire on the target. This means that the gunner can take action rapidly and with precision, ensuring that the shots are on target and effective. By using abbreviations and pre-recorded data, the gunner can save time and make adjustments swiftly, while still maintaining accuracy in their aim.

Submit
61. The M107 sniper rifel operates by means of

Explanation

The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of the short recoil principle. This means that when the rifle is fired, the force of the recoil pushes the barrel and bolt assembly backwards. As the barrel and bolt assembly move backwards, they unlock from each other, allowing the spent casing to be ejected and a new round to be chambered. Once the recoil force is absorbed, the barrel and bolt assembly return to their original position, ready for the next shot. This operating principle ensures the rifle's accuracy and reliability.

Submit
62. An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of te weapon or faulty ammunition is called?

Explanation

A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations, typically caused by a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. It occurs when the firearm fails to complete its intended cycle, such as failing to extract or eject a spent casing or failing to feed a new round into the chamber. This interruption can be resolved by identifying and addressing the specific issue causing the stoppage.

Submit
63. Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and

Explanation

In the offense, the primary objective is to advance and occupy the enemy position. Holding the enemy position is crucial because it allows the offensive force to establish control over the area and prevent the enemy from regaining control. By holding the enemy position, the offensive force can also secure their own position and consolidate their gains. This objective may involve using machine guns to suppress enemy fire and provide cover for the advancing troops.

Submit
64. When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?

Explanation

Predetermined fire organizes the battlefield for gunners when selecting crew-served weapons positions. This means that the firing positions are preplanned and predetermined based on the terrain, enemy positions, and overall tactical objectives. By using predetermined fire, gunners can effectively cover specific areas and engage targets with a coordinated and organized approach, maximizing their firepower and minimizing the risk of friendly fire or ineffective engagement. This type of fire allows for better control and coordination among gunners, ensuring a more efficient and effective use of crew-served weapons on the battlefield.

Submit
65. The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal

Explanation

The M136 AT4's warhead is known for its excellent penetration ability, meaning it can effectively penetrate armored targets. Additionally, it has lethal after-armor effects, which refers to the damage and destruction caused to the target after the armor has been penetrated. This suggests that even if the target has armor protection, the M136 AT4 is still capable of inflicting significant damage and neutralizing the threat.

Submit
66. What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 2,000 yards.

Submit
67. In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?

Explanation

The maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round is 640 meters.

Submit
68. What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?

Explanation

The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters. This means that within a 20-meter radius of the round's impact, there is a potential danger to personnel or objects. It is important to maintain a safe distance from the impact area to avoid any harm or damage.

Submit
69. What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?

Explanation

The M61 ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets. This type of ammunition is specifically designed to penetrate and inflict damage on lightly-armored vehicles or targets. It is commonly used in military operations where there is a need to neutralize or disable lightly-armored vehicles, such as trucks or armored personnel carriers. The M61 ammunition is known for its effectiveness and is widely used by military forces around the world.

Submit
70. What is the standard round for the MK19?

Explanation

The standard round for the MK19 is the M430.

Submit
71. In what year was the M18A, a claymore mine standardized?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1960. This means that in the year 1960, the M18A claymore mine was standardized.

Submit
72. Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fir weapons?

Explanation

The Final Protective Line (FPL) is primarily used to control direct-fire weapons, such as rifles and machine guns, by providing a designated line of fire to engage enemy targets. It serves as a defensive measure to prevent enemy forces from advancing further. However, the FPL can also be used for indirect-fire weapons, such as mortars and artillery, by providing a reference point for targeting enemy positions. This allows for coordinated and effective fire support in both direct and indirect engagements.

Submit
73. The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?

Explanation

The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to 700 meters. This means that the fire can spread up to a distance of 700 meters from its source. It indicates the range or radius within which the fire can cause damage or spread to nearby areas.

Submit
74. In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is 150. The M203 is a grenade launcher attachment for rifles that is typically used to engage fire-team-sized area targets. The maximum range of the M203 when engaging these targets is 150 meters. This means that the launcher can effectively hit and engage targets within a 150-meter radius, making it an effective weapon for close-range combat situations.

Submit
75. Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.

Explanation

Final protective fire is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas. It is a predetermined plan that involves the rapid and concentrated delivery of firepower to repel enemy attacks or breaches in the defensive lines. This tactic is used to provide immediate and effective response to enemy movements and to prevent them from advancing further into the defensive position.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 11, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 11, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 08, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Likawa8764
Cancel
  • All
    All (75)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
The acronym SPORTS stands for
What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid,...
What does the acronym FPL stand for?
What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain...
Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by...
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed...
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after...
How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure...
Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber...
When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
Range cards are a record of
The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the...
Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage...
How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training,...
Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for...
Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type...
Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds...
When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is...
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
What is the function of the forward assist?
Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of...
Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most...
Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE)...
The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by...
How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except...
If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the...
From what position is the M240B loaded?
How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training...
How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you...
At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a...
What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4...
The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for...
Searching fire is the most often used on
Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure...
What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point...
What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?
In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when...
Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the...
The M107 sniper rifel operates by means of
An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of...
Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the...
When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire...
The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and...
What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine...
In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using...
What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781...
What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
What is the standard round for the MK19?
In what year was the M18A, a claymore mine standardized?
Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire...
The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging...
Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged...
Alert!

Advertisement