Security Forces Journyman CDC Vol 3

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  • 1/75 Questions

    What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

    • 50 meters
    • 60 meters
    • 70 meters
    • 80 meters
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled 'Security Forces Journeyman CDC Vol 3' assesses knowledge on range cards, firing data, and weapon handling in security forces. It covers specifics such as the preparation of range cards for various weapons and understanding tactical elements like the Final Protective Line.

Security Forces Journyman CDC Vol 3 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

    • Blank firing adapter

    • Big flash adapter

    • Blank flash adapter

    • Bandoleer flap adapter

    Correct Answer
    A. Blank firing adapter
    Explanation
    A blank firing adapter (BFA) is a device used to modify a firearm to enable it to fire blanks, which are cartridges without a projectile. This adapter is attached to the muzzle of the firearm and allows the gas pressure generated by the blank cartridge to cycle the firearm's action, simulating the recoil of live ammunition. The purpose of the BFA is to ensure the proper functioning of the firearm when firing blanks, as the absence of a projectile can affect the weapon's cycling mechanism. Therefore, the correct answer is "Blank firing adapter."

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  • 3. 

    The acronym SPORTS stands for

    • Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot

    • Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot

    • Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot

    • Slap, push, observe, release, tap, and shoot

    Correct Answer
    A. Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot." This is because the acronym SPORTS is used in firearms training to remember the steps involved in operating a firearm. "Slap" refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, "pull" refers to pulling the charging handle to load a round into the chamber, "observe" refers to observing the target and surroundings, "release" refers to releasing the safety, "tap" refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and "shoot" refers to pulling the trigger to fire the weapon.

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  • 4. 

    What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

    • 600 meters

    • 800 meters

    • 1,100 meters

    • 1,800 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,800 meters
    Explanation
    The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a bullet up to a distance of 1,800 meters. This range is quite impressive for a pistol and allows for effective engagement of targets at long distances. It indicates that the M9 pistol is suitable for various combat scenarios and provides the user with a significant advantage in terms of range and accuracy.

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  • 5. 

    Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

    • Aluminum

    • Rubber

    • Plastic

    • Steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Steel
    Explanation
    CLP or LSA are used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This indicates that steel is prone to rusting and needs protection. The use of cleaner, lubricant, and preservative or lubricating oil suggests that these substances create a barrier on the steel surface, preventing moisture from coming into contact with the steel and causing rust.

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  • 6. 

    What does the acronym FPL stand for?

    • Final protective line

    • Fire patrol liaison

    • First protective line

    • Fire profieciency line

    Correct Answer
    A. Final protective line
    Explanation
    The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This is a military term used to describe a line of defense that is established as a last resort to stop enemy forces from advancing. It is typically a predetermined position where troops and weapons are positioned to engage the enemy and prevent them from breaking through. The FPL is a crucial element in defensive strategies and is used to protect key areas or assets.

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  • 7. 

    What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

    • Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets

    • Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target

    • Prominent man-made featurs that will be a definite target

    • Natural synthetic features only that could be a target

    Correct Answer
    A. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
    Explanation
    On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets. This information is important for identifying potential targets and planning your firing strategy. By including these features on the sketch, you can better assess the terrain and make informed decisions about where to direct your fire.

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  • 8. 

    Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

    • Ejecting

    • Extracting

    • Cocking

    • Firing

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing
    Explanation
    When the trigger of the M240B machine gun is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, causing the propellant to ignite and propel the bullet out of the barrel. Firing is a crucial step in the cycle of operations as it is the actual discharge of the weapon.

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  • 9. 

    How many range cards are prepared for each position?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    Each position prepares two range cards.

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  • 10. 

    In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?

    • M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.

    • M248, .50 cal, and MK 19

    • M9, M203, and MK19

    • MK19, .50 cal, and M17

    Correct Answer
    A. M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is M240B, MK19, and .50 cal. This is because a range card is a tool used to record and reference the distances at which a weapon is effective. It includes information such as the range, elevation, and windage adjustments for different targets. The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are all fixed weapons that require range cards because they are typically used in situations where accurate and precise targeting is necessary, such as in military operations or long-range shooting.

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  • 11. 

    Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

    • M240B

    • M249

    • M780

    • MK19

    Correct Answer
    A. MK19
    Explanation
    The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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  • 12. 

    How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

    • 50 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • 100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt

    • 50 round bandoleer, solid-link belt

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt
    Explanation
    The M240B is fed ammunition using a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition carrying device that is worn over the shoulder, and in this case, it holds 100 rounds of ammunition. The split-link belt refers to the type of belt used to feed the ammunition into the weapon. The split-link belt consists of individual links that are separated, allowing the rounds to be easily loaded into the weapon. This combination of a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt is the correct way to feed ammunition into the M240B.

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  • 13. 

    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior

    • Quality

    • Accuracy

    • Killing ratio

    • Stopping power

    Correct Answer
    A. Accuracy
    Explanation
    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with precision and attention to detail, resulting in consistent and predictable performance. The strict tolerances help minimize variations in the bullets' trajectory, ensuring that they hit the intended target with high precision. By focusing on accuracy, sniper ammunition maximizes the chances of hitting the target accurately, making it an essential factor for snipers who rely on precision and long-range shooting.

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  • 14. 

    Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

    • A stoppage

    • A malfunction

    • A failure to fire

    • An operational failure

    Correct Answer
    A. A stoppage
    Explanation
    A stoppage refers to any interruption in the cycle of operations. It can occur due to various reasons such as a mechanical issue, a malfunctioning component, or any other factor that hinders the normal functioning of a system or process. This interruption can cause a temporary or permanent halt in the operations, requiring intervention or repair before resuming normal functionality. Therefore, a stoppage is the correct answer as it accurately defines the concept of any interruption in the cycle of operations.

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  • 15. 

    Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

    • Under no circumstances

    • When directed

    • Emergancies

    • Last resort

    Correct Answer
    A. Under no circumstances
    Explanation
    MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not for the M203 grenade launcher. The M203 uses different types of ammunition, such as 40mm grenades. Therefore, under no circumstances should MK19 ammunition be used in the M203.

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  • 16. 

    The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

    • The open-quarters battle role

    • The close-quaters battle role

    • High-density, low-visibility role

    • Long-range fighting, heavy-combatant role

    Correct Answer
    A. The close-quaters battle role
    Explanation
    The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in the close-quarters battle role. This is because shotguns have a wide spread of pellets, making them highly effective at close range where accuracy is less critical. In close-quarters combat, such as in urban environments or indoor settings, shotguns can quickly incapacitate targets and provide a significant advantage to the user.

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  • 17. 

    The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

    • Dead zone

    • Dead area

    • Dead space

    • Dead spot

    Correct Answer
    A. Dead space
    Explanation
    Dead space refers to the area that cannot be effectively targeted or engaged with grazing fire. It is a term commonly used in military tactics and refers to areas that are shielded or protected from direct fire by natural or man-made obstacles. These obstacles could include structures, terrain features, or other elements that provide cover or concealment. Dead space poses a challenge for military forces as it limits their ability to engage or suppress enemy forces in certain areas, potentially creating vulnerabilities in their defensive or offensive operations.

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  • 18. 

    On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

    • Loaded chamber indicator

    • Reset the firing pin block

    • Chambering

    • Releasing slide

    Correct Answer
    A. Loaded chamber indicator
    Explanation
    The dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator on the M9 pistol is to indicate whether there is a round in the chamber and to reset the firing pin block. This indicator allows the user to visually confirm if the chamber is loaded or empty, ensuring proper safety protocols. Additionally, it resets the firing pin block mechanism after a round has been chambered, preparing the pistol for the next shot.

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  • 19. 

    When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a

    • One-shot weapon

    • Two-shot weapon

    • Three-shot weapon

    • Four-shot weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. One-shot weapon
    Explanation
    The claymore is considered a one-shot weapon when used in a controlled role. This means that it is designed to be used once and then discarded or reloaded. It is not meant to be fired multiple times in quick succession. This could be due to factors such as the limited ammunition capacity or the need for time-consuming reloading procedures. Therefore, the claymore is most effective when used in a single, well-planned attack.

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  • 20. 

    Range cards are a record of

    • Range data

    • Firing data

    • Call signs

    • Training

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing data
    Explanation
    Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide detailed information about the firing exercises conducted at a range, including the type of ammunition used, the distance to the target, the angle of elevation, and any adjustments made during the firing process. Range cards are essential for maintaining accurate records of firing activities, analyzing performance, and making improvements in training and marksmanship. They serve as a valuable reference for future exercises and help in evaluating the effectiveness of different firing techniques and strategies.

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  • 21. 

    The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

    • In brand new condition

    • Clean, dry and lubricated

    • Fully oiled and lubricated

    • Clean and properly lubricated

    Correct Answer
    A. Clean and properly lubricated
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance is performed to ensure that weapons are in optimal condition and ready for use. This includes keeping them clean to remove any dirt, debris, or residue that could affect their performance. Additionally, proper lubrication is essential to ensure smooth operation and reduce friction between moving parts, preventing wear and tear. Therefore, the correct answer is "clean and properly lubricated" as it encompasses both aspects of preventive maintenance.

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  • 22. 

    Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

    • Ammunition

    • Vehicles

    • Terrain

    • Time

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrain
    Explanation
    Sharpshooters will be well trained in the tactical use of terrain because it plays a crucial role in their ability to effectively engage targets. Terrain provides natural cover and concealment, allowing sharpshooters to position themselves in advantageous locations and remain hidden from the enemy. They must understand how to utilize different types of terrain, such as hills, valleys, forests, and urban environments, to their advantage in order to maximize their accuracy and effectiveness. By being well trained in the tactical use of terrain, sharpshooters can adapt to various situations and enhance their overall combat effectiveness.

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  • 23. 

    Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

    • Impossible

    • Incredible

    • Ineffective

    • Instructive

    Correct Answer
    A. Instructive
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "instructive" because when faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, applying immediate actions should be instructive. This means that the actions taken should be educational or informative, providing guidance on how to address the issue effectively. It implies that individuals should have knowledge or training on the appropriate steps to take in order to remedy the malfunction or stoppage.

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  • 24. 

    How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 because the question asks for the number of types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol. Therefore, there are four different types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol.

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  • 25. 

    What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?

    • M199 Dummy

    • M200 Blank

    • M856 Tracer

    • M866 Ball

    Correct Answer
    A. M199 Dummy
    Explanation
    During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for training purposes and does not contain any explosive or live components. It allows individuals to practice weapon handling and familiarize themselves with the M249 without the risk of firing live rounds. The M199 Dummy ammunition is inert and safe to use in these training scenarios.

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  • 26. 

    Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?

    • White star cluster

    • Ground marker

    • Star parachute

    • Buckshot

    Correct Answer
    A. Buckshot
    Explanation
    Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting the target in densely vegetated areas or confined spaces. The spread of the pellets provides a wider coverage area, making it easier to hit targets that may be hidden or moving within the vegetation or rooms. This round is designed for close-range engagements and provides a higher probability of hitting the target in these specific scenarios.

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  • 27. 

    Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

    • Slide assembly

    • Receiver assembly

    • Triger mechanism assembly

    • Return rod and transfer assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver assembly
    Explanation
    The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. It is the main body of the weapon that houses the firing mechanism, barrel, and other essential parts. Without the receiver assembly, the M249 would not be able to function properly. It provides stability and structure to the firearm, allowing all other assemblies to be securely attached and aligned.

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  • 28. 

    A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

    • Field handling trainer

    • Tracer bullet trainer

    • HD antiarmor round

    • High explosive (HE) antiarmor round

    Correct Answer
    A. High explosive (HE) antiarmor round
    Explanation
    The black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates that it is a High explosive (HE) antiarmor round. This band serves as a visual indicator to easily identify the type of launcher and the ammunition it contains. The black and yellow color combination is specifically used for the HE antiarmor round, distinguishing it from other types of ammunition that may be used with the launcher.

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  • 29. 

    Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

    • Canopy

    • Flangee

    • Ogive

    • Fin

    Correct Answer
    A. Ogive
    Explanation
    The ogive is the correct answer because it refers to the curved nose cone of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker rounds. The color of the smoke produced is indicated by the ogive, which is the part of the round that is responsible for shaping the trajectory and aerodynamics.

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  • 30. 

    When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considereda

    • A precision engagement weapon

    • Active force multiplier

    • Lethal force weapon

    • Mine or boobly trap

    Correct Answer
    A. Mine or boobly trap
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "mine or booby trap." This is because a claymore, when used in an uncontrolled role, can be set up as a hidden explosive device that is triggered by the proximity of an unsuspecting target. It is designed to cause harm or kill the target, making it a lethal force weapon or a type of mine or booby trap. It is not considered a precision engagement weapon or an active force multiplier, as it does not require precise targeting or enhance the effectiveness of a military force.

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  • 31. 

    The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is

    • Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

    • Engage only those persons determined to be hostile

    • Engage predetermined targets in the ara

    • Detect the enemy and notify the chief, Security Forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
    Explanation
    Clearing fields of fire is the process of removing any obstacles or obstructions that may hinder the observation and engagement of potential threats within a specific area. This ensures that there are no visual or physical barriers that could impede the effective use of weapons to engage anyone within the field. By doing so, individuals can maintain a clear line of sight and have the ability to respond promptly and accurately to any hostile persons or situations that may arise.

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  • 32. 

    What is the function of the forward assist?

    • Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures

    • Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure

    • Unlock the bolt and secure the charing handle

    • Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure
    Explanation
    The forward assist on a firearm is used to manually push the bolt forward and ensure that it is fully engaged. This is particularly useful during immediate action procedures, where the bolt may not have fully closed due to a malfunction or other issue. By locking the bolt forward, the forward assist helps to ensure that the firearm is ready to fire and that the bolt is securely in place.

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  • 33. 

    Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?

    • Wind

    • Temperature

    • Weapon trajectory

    • Backblast area

    Correct Answer
    A. Backblast area
    Explanation
    Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), it is important to check the backblast area. The backblast area refers to the space behind the weapon where the high-pressure gases and debris are expelled when the weapon is fired. By checking the backblast area, one ensures that there are no obstructions or personnel present that could be harmed by the blast. This precaution is crucial for the safety of both the operator and those in the surrounding area.

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  • 34. 

    Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

    • Where you can locate it quickly

    • Marginal data area

    • Upper right corner

    • Part one

    Correct Answer
    A. Marginal data area
    Explanation
    The marginal data area is typically used to record additional information that may be useful for navigation or situational awareness. This can include magnetic north data, which is important for orienting a compass or map correctly. Placing the magnetic north data in the marginal data area allows it to be easily accessible and visible without cluttering the main portion of the range card.

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  • 35. 

    Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?

    • MK243 MOD 0

    • M917 dummy round

    • M882 ball, with cannelure

    • M882 ball, without cannelure

    Correct Answer
    A. MK243 MOD 0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MK243 MOD 0. This ammunition round is exclusively issued to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avanue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

    • Dead space protective line

    • Final protective line

    • Primary sector of fire

    • Secondary sector of fire

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary sector of fire
    Explanation
    The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team focuses their fire in a specific direction that is most likely to be used by the enemy to approach their position. By concentrating their fire in this primary sector, the gun team can effectively defend against any potential threats and prevent the enemy from advancing.

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  • 37. 

    Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include

    • Squad leader

    • Support element sniper

    • Reconnaissance and close precision support

    • A response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaisance

    Correct Answer
    A. A response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaisance
    Explanation
    The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include a response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. This means that these teams should be able to effectively respond to threats, provide overwatch to protect friendly forces, conduct screening operations to gather information and protect the main force, and perform reconnaissance missions to gather intelligence on enemy positions and movements. These capabilities are essential for the success of CPE marksmen and sharpshooter teams in their role on the battlefield.

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  • 38. 

    The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precisse rifle fire from

    • Aircraft

    • Anywhere

    • Rooftop positions

    • Concealed positions

    Correct Answer
    A. Concealed positions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "concealed positions" because snipers are trained to remain hidden and undetected while engaging targets. By operating from concealed positions, they can maintain a tactical advantage and effectively engage enemy forces without being easily seen or targeted themselves. This allows them to provide support to combat operations while minimizing the risk to themselves and their team.

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  • 39. 

    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed by the blast or shrapnel. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarters combat, and the 5-meter kill radius ensures that they can neutralize threats within a relatively small area.

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  • 40. 

    What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

    • M249

    • M199

    • M855

    • M856

    Correct Answer
    A. M856
    Explanation
    The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. This means that the M856 cartridge will continue to emit a visible tracer round for a longer period of time compared to the M196. The M856 cartridge is used in the M4 carbine, providing increased visibility of the trajectory of the round during firing.

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  • 41. 

    If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

    • Approximate aiming point method

    • Adjusted aiming point method

    • Advanced aiming point method

    • Altitude aiming point method

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjusted aiming point method
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the "Adjusted aiming point method". When firing the M9, shooters are required to use this method in order to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the aiming point based on factors such as distance, wind, and target size. By adjusting the aiming point, shooters can increase their accuracy and effectively engage targets.

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  • 42. 

    From what position is the M240B loaded?

    • Bolt Open

    • Bolt CLOSED

    • Bolt OENED or CLOSED

    • Blide OPENED or CLOSED

    Correct Answer
    A. Bolt OENED or CLOSED
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Bolt OENED or CLOSED." This means that the M240B can be loaded from either position of the bolt, whether it is open or closed.

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  • 43. 

    How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training enviroment?

    • Underhand

    • Overhand

    • Overhead

    • Sidearm

    Correct Answer
    A. Overhand
    Explanation
    Live fragmentation grenades must be thrown overhand in the training environment to ensure that they are thrown with enough force and accuracy. Throwing overhand allows for a more controlled and powerful throw, increasing the distance the grenade can travel and reducing the risk of it falling short or not reaching its intended target. This throwing technique also minimizes the chances of the grenade hitting obstacles or individuals in close proximity, making it a safer option in a training setting.

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  • 44. 

    How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

    • 50

    • 100

    • 150

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 200
    Explanation
    An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds.

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  • 45. 

    When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 100
    Explanation
    When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at a safe distance from your position and work forward to ensure maximum coverage and minimize the risk of being exposed to enemy fire. Starting at a distance of 100 meters allows for a wider area to be cleared and provides a greater buffer zone for safety. This ensures that any potential threats within the field of fire are effectively neutralized before they can pose a danger to your position.

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  • 46. 

    At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of

    • 900 to 1,200 rounds

    • 1,200 to 1,500 rounds

    • 1,500 to 2,000 rounds

    • 2,000 to 2,500 rounds

    Correct Answer
    A. 900 to 1,200 rounds
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 900 to 1,200 rounds. This is the minimum number of rounds after which you should clean the M240B. Cleaning the weapon is necessary to ensure its proper functioning and to prevent any malfunctions or jams that may occur due to the buildup of dirt, debris, or fouling caused by firing the rounds. Regular cleaning helps maintain the weapon's accuracy, reliability, and longevity.

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  • 47. 

    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

    • 200

    • 400

    • 600

    • 800

    Correct Answer
    A. 800
    Explanation
    The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with tripod. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a single target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod. The tripod provides stability and helps in maintaining accuracy over longer distances.

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  • 48. 

    What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?

    • Mid-range employment, easy to cary, and delay element for throwing

    • Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing

    • Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing

    • Medium employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing

    Correct Answer
    A. Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing
    Explanation
    Hand grenades typically have a short employment range, meaning they can only be thrown a relatively short distance. They also have a small casualty radius, which means the area affected by the explosion is limited. Additionally, hand grenades often have a delay element that allows the person throwing it to have enough time to move to a safe distance before it detonates, ensuring safe throwing.

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  • 49. 

    The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an

    • Offensive weapon

    • Defensive weapon

    • Passive defense weapon

    • Active defense weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. Defensive weapon
    Explanation
    The claymore mine is designed to be used as a defensive weapon. It is a directional anti-personnel mine that is set up to face the enemy and detonate when triggered. Its purpose is to protect a specific area or position by inflicting casualties on approaching enemy forces. The claymore mine is not meant to be used for offensive purposes, as it is primarily used to defend and secure a location rather than actively engaging and attacking enemy targets.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 11, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jun 11, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 08, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Likawa8764
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