Security Forces CDC Volume 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What must be established at each incident site?

    • Cordon and entry control point (ECP)
    • Secondary ECP
    • Cordon and operational rally point
    • Evacuation point
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Security Forces CDC Volume 2,' assesses knowledge on the use of force, rules of engagement, and mental preparedness in security settings. It's designed for professionals in law enforcement and security, focusing on practical, legal, and ethical aspects.

Security Forces CDC Volume 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

    • Protect inherently dangerous property

    • Protect assets vital to national security

    • Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle

    • Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle
    Explanation
    In this situation, you would not be authorized to use deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force is generally only authorized when there is an imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm to oneself or others. While protecting assets vital to national security and protecting others from imminent danger are valid reasons to use deadly force, the act of breaking into a government vehicle does not necessarily pose an immediate threat of death or serious bodily harm.

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  • 3. 

    Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the

    • Back of the neck

    • Wrist of the farthest hand

    • Ring or middle finger

    • Wrist of the nearest hand

    Correct Answer
    A. Ring or middle finger
    Explanation
    In order to gain positive control of a subject prior to applying handcuffs, it is recommended to grasp the ring or middle finger. This allows for better control and restraint of the subject's hand, making it more difficult for them to resist or escape. By firmly holding onto the ring or middle finger, the subject's hand can be effectively immobilized, enabling the safe and secure application of handcuffs.

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  • 4. 

    The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to

    • Educate personnel in those restricted areas

    • Escort personnel into those restricted areas

    • Exclude personnel into those restricted areas

    • Employee personnel for those restricted areas

    Correct Answer
    A. Escort personnel into those restricted areas
    Explanation
    The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identifies that an individual is authorized to escort personnel into those restricted areas.

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  • 5. 

    Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world?

    • Lob Nur Nuclear (LUN) site in China

    • Aldermaston Central Facility (ACF) in the United Kingdom

    • Semipalatinsk Nuclear (SN) site in the Soviet Union /Russia

    • Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA

    Correct Answer
    A. Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA
    Explanation
    The Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC) in the USA is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world. It is located in New Mexico and is responsible for the maintenance and storage of a significant number of nuclear weapons. This facility plays a crucial role in the US nuclear weapons program and is known for its advanced security measures and strict protocols to ensure the safety and security of the stored weapons.

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  • 6. 

    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?

    • Neglect

    • Sexual

    • Mental

    • Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Sexual
    Explanation
    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of sexual child abuse. This type of abuse involves the exploitation of a child for sexual purposes, which can cause severe physical and psychological harm. It is important to recognize and address sexual child abuse to protect the well-being and safety of children.

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  • 7. 

    What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment , deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter or clothing?

    • Neglect

    • Sexual

    • Mental

    • Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Neglect
    Explanation
    Neglect is the correct answer because it refers to the failure of a caregiver to provide for a child's basic needs, such as nourishment, necessities, shelter, and clothing. This type of child abuse involves a lack of attention and care, leading to the child's physical, emotional, and developmental harm. Neglect can have long-lasting effects on a child's well-being and is considered a form of child abuse.

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  • 8. 

    What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?

    • Simple

    • Partial

    • Complete

    • Plainview

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete
    Explanation
    A complete search refers to a thorough and detailed examination of a vehicle, which may involve partially or completely disassembling the vehicle. This type of search is conducted to ensure a comprehensive inspection and to gather detailed evidence or information. It is likely to be more time-consuming and extensive compared to simple or partial searches, as it involves a meticulous examination of all components and areas of the vehicle.

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  • 9. 

    It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible

    • In a military court only

    • In a civilian court only

    • In both a civilian and military court

    • To the defense force commander

    Correct Answer
    A. In both a civilian and military court
    Explanation
    Receiving official certification of qualifications and training standards for speed measuring devices is important because it ensures that the evidence obtained using these devices is admissible in court. This is applicable in both civilian and military courts, indicating that the certification holds value and can be used as evidence in legal proceedings in both contexts.

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  • 10. 

    What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

    • T-position

    • Shrimping

    • Comb blocks

    • Standup base

    Correct Answer
    A. Comb blocks
    Explanation
    Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the forearms and hands to cover and shield the head, creating a protective barrier against incoming strikes. By positioning the arms in a comb-like formation, the fighter can effectively block and deflect punches or strikes aimed at the head, minimizing the risk of injury. This technique is commonly used in various martial arts and self-defense systems to ensure the safety of the practitioner during combat situations.

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  • 11. 

    To ensure the safety of the patrol office and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting?

    • Advise the suspect of rights

    • Handcuff the suspects hands in the front

    • Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband

    • Have a second sf member ride in the back with the suspect

    Correct Answer
    A. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband
    Explanation
    Before placing a suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and others involved. By conducting a thorough search or frisk, any potential weapons or illegal items can be identified and removed, reducing the risk of harm or escape during transportation. This step is crucial for legal precautions as well, as it helps to prevent the suspect from carrying any prohibited items that could be used to harm themselves or others.

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  • 12. 

    A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime

    • A government vehicle is involved

    • More than two vehicles are involved

    • An accident involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander

    • A security forces member who has completed the traffic management and collision investigation course conducts a minor traffic investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. An accident involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander
    Explanation
    A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident when it involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander. This means that if any of these conditions are met, the accident is considered major regardless of the involvement of a government vehicle, the number of vehicles involved, or the person conducting the investigation.

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  • 13. 

    What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search?

    • Continue the search since the suspect has already agreed to it

    • Keep searching because the 5th amendment does not allow suspect to withdraw consent

    • Get authorization from the flight chief to continue

    • Terminate the search immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminate the search immediately
    Explanation
    If during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search, the correct action to take is to terminate the search immediately. This is because once consent is withdrawn, the search is no longer authorized and continuing the search would be a violation of the individual's rights.

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  • 14. 

    What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?

    • Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger

    • Have a family member or friend ride in the from seat

    • Notify base defense operations center (BDOC) of ending mileage

    • Have a second patrol officer follow you to Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger
    Explanation
    When transporting a member of the opposite sex, it is necessary to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This requirement ensures the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misconduct or false accusations. It also provides a witness in case any issues arise during the transportation.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?

    • To secure an unlocked door

    • To prevent injury to persons

    • To render aid to someone in danger

    • To prevent serious damage to property

    Correct Answer
    A. To secure an unlocked door
    Explanation
    Making an entry without search authority is not a reason to secure an unlocked door. This is because securing an unlocked door does not necessarily require making an entry without search authority. It can be done by simply locking the door or notifying the appropriate authorities to address the issue.

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  • 16. 

    What type of force is required at all installation supporting protection level (PL) 1,2, or 3 resources?

    • Security patrols

    • Fire teams (FT)

    • Alarm fire team (AFT)

    • Security response team (SRT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Security response team (SRT)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Security response team (SRT). At all installation supporting protection level 1, 2, or 3 resources, a security response team is required. This team is responsible for responding to security incidents and ensuring the safety and protection of the resources. They are trained to handle emergency situations, conduct investigations, and provide immediate response to any security threats. Their presence and quick response are crucial in maintaining the security and integrity of the installation and its resources.

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  • 17. 

    In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

    • Selfishness

    • Higher awareness

    • Insecurity and isolation

    • Tentativeness and hesitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Tentativeness and hesitation
    Explanation
    When personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or have concerns about inflicting injury or death, it is natural for them to feel insecure and isolated. This fear can cause them to be tentative and hesitant in employing force, as they may be unsure of the consequences or the appropriate course of action. This hesitation can stem from a desire to avoid harm to themselves or others, leading to a cautious and uncertain approach.

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  • 18. 

    When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?

    • Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    • Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    • Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    • Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    Correct Answer
    A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force
    Explanation
    Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that when determining whether the use of non-lethal force was justified, the same factors and considerations are taken into account as when evaluating the use of deadly force. The decision to use non-lethal force must be based on an assessment of the situation and whether it is reasonable and necessary in the given circumstances. This ensures that the use of force, whether lethal or non-lethal, is held to the same standard of reasonableness and proportionality.

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  • 19. 

    In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and

    • Vandals

    • Terrorists

    • Psychotics

    • Trespassers

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrorists
    Explanation
    In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and terrorists. While criminals may aim to steal or smuggle nuclear materials for financial gain, protestors may seek to raise awareness about the dangers of nuclear power. However, terrorists pose the highest threat as they may intend to use nuclear materials as weapons or target nuclear facilities to cause widespread destruction and loss of life. Their motives can vary, ranging from political, ideological, or religious reasons. Therefore, terrorists are considered a significant concern in nuclear security.

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  • 20. 

    When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be

    • Complete and simple

    • Systematic and simple

    • Complete and thorough

    • Systematic and thorough

    Correct Answer
    A. Systematic and thorough
    Explanation
    When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic ensures that the search is organized and follows a logical process, which helps in covering all relevant areas and gathering all necessary information. Being thorough means not leaving any stone unturned and conducting a comprehensive search, considering all possible sources and avenues for information. This approach ensures that no crucial details or evidence are missed and increases the chances of obtaining accurate and reliable results.

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  • 21. 

    What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?

    • Wall

    • Prone

    • Kneeling

    • Standing

    Correct Answer
    A. Standing
    Explanation
    Standing is the correct answer because it is the type of search primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or too intoxicated to stand on their own. When a suspect is cooperative and does not pose an immediate threat, a standing search is conducted to ensure their safety and the safety of the officers involved. This type of search allows for a less invasive approach while still maintaining control over the situation.

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  • 22. 

    How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?

    • By grabbing your weapon with your weapon side (WS) hand

    • By grabbing your weapon with your support side (SS) hand

    • By rolling onto support side (SS) , keeping holstered weapon away from suspect

    • By rolling onto your weapons side (WS) , keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.

    Correct Answer
    A. By rolling onto your weapons side (WS) , keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.
    Explanation
    When attaining weapons retention during a rear mount, the correct technique is to roll onto your weapons side (WS) while keeping the holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed or taken by the suspect. Rolling onto the WS allows for better control and protection of the weapon, ensuring its retention during the encounter.

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  • 23. 

    How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?

    • As close as you can get to the accident scene

    • So it controls the traffic flow around the accident

    • Away from the scene to prevent damage by debris

    • To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard

    Correct Answer
    A. To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard
    Explanation
    When positioning your vehicle at the scene of an accident, it is important to prioritize the safety of the scene and injured persons while also avoiding the creation of a traffic hazard. By positioning your vehicle in a way that protects the accident scene and injured individuals, you can help prevent further harm or damage. This may involve parking at a safe distance from the scene to prevent damage from debris or controlling the traffic flow around the accident to ensure the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 24. 

    What shape is the radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR concentrated into?

    • Cone

    • Circle

    • Rectangle

    • Straight line

    Correct Answer
    A. Cone
    Explanation
    The radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR is concentrated into a cone shape. This is because RADAR systems emit radio waves in a specific direction, and as the waves travel away from the source, they spread out in a cone-like pattern. This allows the RADAR to cover a wider area and detect objects within that cone-shaped region.

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  • 25. 

    Conscious verbal communication occurs when

    • Words are chosen carefully during a conversation

    • Words occur naturally during a conversation

    • The communicator reads it directly from a form

    • The communicator is in a hurry

    Correct Answer
    A. Words are chosen carefully during a conversation
    Explanation
    In conscious verbal communication, words are chosen carefully during a conversation. This implies that the communicator is actively thinking about the words they use and selecting them deliberately. This level of consideration suggests that the communicator is mindful of the impact their words may have on the listener and is attempting to convey their message effectively. It also implies that the communicator is taking the time to think about their response and craft it in a thoughtful manner. Overall, conscious verbal communication involves intentional and careful selection of words to facilitate effective communication.

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  • 26. 

    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance?

    • Article 92

    • Article 108

    • Article 112a

    • Article 123a

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 112a
    Explanation
    Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the illegal possession, use, distribution, or introduction of a controlled substance into the body. It establishes the rules and regulations regarding the punishment for such offenses within the military justice system.

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  • 27. 

    Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?

    • Line

    • Wedge

    • Circular

    • Diamond

    Correct Answer
    A. Wedge
    Explanation
    A wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation involves a group of riot control personnel forming a triangle shape, with the tip of the triangle leading the way. The narrow end of the wedge is used to push through the crowd, creating a gap and forcing the crowd to split into smaller groups. This formation allows for better control and dispersal of the crowd, making it an effective strategy in riot control situations.

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  • 28. 

    What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?

    • See first and act first

    • First in and fit to fight

    • Defense of others and operationally fortified

    • Self-defense and mission accomplishment

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-defense and mission accomplishment
    Explanation
    The two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow military personnel to use force to protect themselves or their unit from imminent threat or harm. Mission accomplishment refers to the rules that outline the actions and tactics necessary to achieve the objectives of the mission. These two categories of ROE ensure that military personnel prioritize their own safety while also working towards the successful completion of their assigned mission.

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  • 29. 

    How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    The electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired.

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  • 30. 

    When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?

    • Before it has been fully processed for evidence

    • After it has been fully processed for evidence

    • After the coroner pronounces them dead

    • After the body has bee photographed

    Correct Answer
    A. After it has been fully processed for evidence
    Explanation
    In order to ensure the preservation and integrity of potential evidence, it is necessary to cover the body of a deceased person after it has been fully processed. This prevents any contamination or tampering with the evidence that may occur during the processing of the crime scene. Covering the body after it has been fully processed allows investigators to thoroughly collect all necessary evidence before taking steps to protect and preserve the body.

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  • 31. 

    Only personnel certified through what program or the host-nation equivalent at a weapons storage and security systems (WS3) installations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or can perform escort duties within exclusion areas?

    • Nuclear weapons personnel escort program (PEP)

    • Nuclear weapons personnel protection program (PPP)

    • Nuclear weapons personnel reliability program (PRP)

    • Nuclear weapons personnel certification program (PCP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear weapons personnel reliability program (PRP)
    Explanation
    The Nuclear weapons personnel reliability program (PRP) is the correct answer because it is a program that certifies personnel to have the necessary reliability and trustworthiness to handle and be in close proximity to nuclear weapons. This program ensures that only individuals who meet strict criteria and have undergone thorough background checks and evaluations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or perform escort duties within these areas. The PRP is specifically designed to maintain the security and integrity of nuclear weapons installations.

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  • 32. 

    When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand

    • Next to your vehicle

    • In the center of the road

    • Off to the side of the road

    • In the center of the intersection

    Correct Answer
    A. Off to the side of the road
    Explanation
    When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand off to the side of the road. This position allows you to have a clear view of the traffic and be visible to drivers approaching from both directions. Standing next to your vehicle or in the center of the road may obstruct the view for drivers and increase the risk of accidents. Standing in the center of the intersection is also not recommended as it can confuse drivers and disrupt the flow of traffic.

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  • 33. 

    DD Form 1408 , Armed Forces traffic Ticket is issued to someone who

    • Causes and accident on-base and is a non-military member

    • Has been involved and is at fault in a vehicle accident

    • Causes an accident on-base and is a military member

    • Commits a moving or non-moving traffic offense

    Correct Answer
    A. Commits a moving or non-moving traffic offense
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "commits a moving or non-moving traffic offense." The DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who has committed a traffic offense, whether it is a moving violation (such as speeding or running a red light) or a non-moving violation (such as parking in a restricted area). This form is used to document the offense and initiate any necessary legal proceedings or administrative actions. It is not specific to accidents or the military status of the individual involved.

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  • 34. 

    What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?

    • Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets

    • Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

    • Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

    • Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets

    Correct Answer
    A. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense
    Explanation
    The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that if US forces are under threat or attack, they are allowed to use their weapons to protect themselves, their nation, or their unit. This allows them to respond to any identified enemy targets that pose a threat without requiring specific authorization before firing.

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  • 35. 

    What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?

    • Annual refresher

    • Quarterly refresher

    • Initial and annual refresher

    • Initial and semiannual refresher

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial and annual refresher
    Explanation
    If you are armed with an expandable baton, you would require initial training to learn how to properly use the weapon. This initial training would cover the basic techniques and safety measures associated with using an expandable baton. Additionally, since it is a weapon, it is important to have annual refresher training to ensure that you are up to date with any changes in techniques or regulations, as well as to maintain proficiency in using the baton safely and effectively.

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  • 36. 

    What must a sf on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

    • How to employ different types of searching techniques

    • Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area

    • Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searches available

    • Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs

    Correct Answer
    A. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searches available
    Explanation
    Before making a decision on how to search an area, a SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searches available. These factors are crucial in determining the most effective and efficient way to conduct the search. The situation will provide information about the urgency and potential risks involved, while the terrain will affect the mobility and visibility of the search team. Weather and light conditions will impact visibility and safety, and the number of available searches will determine the resources and manpower that can be allocated to the search operation.

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  • 37. 

    When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done

    • To show inability to take full responsibility for actions

    • Without legal justification or authorization

    • With full medical justification and authorization

    • With legal authorization and personal justification

    Correct Answer
    A. Without legal justification or authorization
    Explanation
    Wrongfulness in the context of dealing with controlled substances is defined as an action done without legal justification or authorization. This means that engaging in any activity involving controlled substances, such as possessing, distributing, or using them, without the proper legal permission or authorization is considered wrongful. It implies that the person involved is acting in violation of the law and without the necessary legal backing for their actions.

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  • 38. 

    What is conducted during a domestic dispute / violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?

    • Rights Advisement

    • Complete Search

    • Interrogation

    • Interview

    Correct Answer
    A. Interview
    Explanation
    During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves speaking with the involved parties to gather information about the situation, understand the level of threat, and evaluate the potential risk to individuals involved. The interview helps law enforcement officers gather evidence, assess the severity of the situation, and make informed decisions regarding the safety and well-being of the family members involved.

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  • 39. 

    What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together? 

    • Casual

    • Sighting

    • Agitated

    • Mob-like

    Correct Answer
    A. Casual
    Explanation
    Casual crowd refers to a group of individuals or small groups who do not share any common interests or connections. They come together by chance or coincidence and do not have a specific purpose or goal. This type of crowd is characterized by its lack of organization and unity, as the individuals or small groups within it have no binding factors.

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  • 40. 

    What does "code three" indicate when security forces personnel are making an emergency response?

    • No emergency lights

    • Use of emergency lights only

    • Use of emergency lights and siren

    • Use of emergency lights, siren, and public address system

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of emergency lights and siren
    Explanation
    "Code three" indicates the use of emergency lights and siren when security forces personnel are making an emergency response. This means that they will activate both the emergency lights and the siren to alert other drivers and pedestrians and to clear the way for their emergency vehicle. The use of the siren helps to quickly and effectively communicate the urgency of the situation, while the emergency lights provide visual warning to others on the road. The combination of both the lights and siren ensures that the emergency vehicle can navigate through traffic safely and efficiently.

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  • 41. 

    How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?

    • Command, subject to "HALT" bring your M4 carbine to port arms or your M9 pistol to ready pistol and contact BDOC for further direction to disposition of the individual.

    • Command subject to slowly place identification on the ground then turn around and walk approximately six paces away from you

    • Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET" and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD

    • Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, DROP TO YOUR KNEES, and CROSSS YOUR FEET.

    Correct Answer
    A. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET" and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is commanding the suspect to raise their hands above their head, spread their fingers, spread their feet, and point their toes outward. This position is commonly known as the "final challenge position" and is used to ensure the suspect is in a vulnerable and controlled position, making it easier for the authorities to approach and detain them safely.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?

    • Neglect

    • Sexual abuse

    • Mental abuse

    • Physical abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Mental abuse
    Explanation
    Mental abuse refers to emotional or psychological harm inflicted on a child, which can include constant criticism, humiliation, or rejection. Neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse are the other three types of child abuse. Neglect refers to the failure to provide a child's basic needs, such as food, shelter, or medical care. Sexual abuse involves any sexual activity imposed on a child, while physical abuse refers to the intentional use of physical force that causes harm to a child.

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  • 43. 

    What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?

    • Aggrevated assault

    • Simple assault

    • Assault

    • Battery

    Correct Answer
    A. Aggrevated assault
    Explanation
    Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states. It is committed when a defendant intends to do more than just frighten the victim, typically involving the use of a weapon or causing serious bodily harm. Unlike simple assault, which is generally considered a misdemeanor, aggravated assault involves more severe actions and carries harsher penalties. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harmful touching that occurs as a result of an assault.

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  • 44. 

    What copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic ticket , is given to the violator or affixed to the violators vehicle if the vehicle is unattended?

    • Red

    • Pink

    • White

    • Yellow

    Correct Answer
    A. Pink
    Explanation
    The copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic ticket, that is given to the violator or affixed to the violator's vehicle if the vehicle is unattended is pink.

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  • 45. 

    How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

    • Flat markers

    • Lights and cones

    • Elevated markers

    • Posted SF personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevated markers
    Explanation
    Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are easily visible and can be seen from a distance, ensuring that drivers can clearly identify the boundaries and avoid entering these areas. Flat markers may not be as visible, lights and cones may not be as durable or effective in all weather conditions, and relying solely on posted SF personnel may not be practical or feasible in all situations. Therefore, elevated markers are the most suitable option for clearly marking the boundaries of these areas.

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  • 46. 

    Vegetation in clear zones will not exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities?

    • 24 inches

    • 16 inches

    • 8 inches

    • 4 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 inches
    Explanation
    Vegetation in clear zones inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities is limited to a maximum height of 8 inches. This restriction is likely in place to ensure that the vegetation does not obstruct visibility or interfere with the security and safety of the facility. By keeping the vegetation at a low height, it becomes easier to monitor the area and detect any potential threats or unauthorized access. Additionally, maintaining shorter vegetation helps to prevent the accumulation of debris and reduces the risk of fire hazards.

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  • 47. 

    What type of nuclear inspection assesses a unit's ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment in compliance with applicable directives?

    • No-/minimal-notice inspections

    • Nuclear surety inspection (NSI)

    • Initial nuclear surety inspection (INSI)

    • Nuclear weapons technical inspections (NWTI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear surety inspection (NSI)
    Explanation
    A nuclear surety inspection (NSI) is a type of nuclear inspection that assesses a unit's ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons. It also evaluates if the unit operates in a safe and secure environment and complies with applicable directives. This inspection ensures that the unit follows all necessary protocols and procedures to maintain the safety and security of nuclear weapons.

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  • 48. 

    Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, you must advise the suspects 

    • Of the implied consent policy

    • Of their right to speak to a lawyer

    • That drivers cannot refuse a breath test

    • That their test results cannot be used against them

    Correct Answer
    A. Of the implied consent policy
    Explanation
    Before using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, it is necessary to inform the suspects about the implied consent policy. This policy implies that by operating a vehicle, individuals are deemed to have given their consent to submit to a breath test or other chemical tests to determine their level of intoxication. Therefore, advising the suspects of the implied consent policy is crucial as it ensures they are aware of their legal obligation to comply with the test.

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  • 49. 

    What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it,

    • It is dispose of the form because it is not required to be maintained

    • It is maintained at he entry control point

    • It is filed at pass registration

    • It is given to the individual

    Correct Answer
    A. It is given to the individual
    Explanation
    Once the AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, is completed, it is given to the individual. This suggests that the individual is responsible for keeping the original copy of the form.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 06, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Cypressp
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