Security Forces CDC Volume 2

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Security Forces CDC Volume 2 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

    • A.

      Selfishness

    • B.

      Higher awareness

    • C.

      Insecurity and isolation

    • D.

      Tentativeness and hesitation

    Correct Answer
    D. Tentativeness and hesitation
    Explanation
    When personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or have concerns about inflicting injury or death, it is natural for them to feel insecure and isolated. This fear can cause them to be tentative and hesitant in employing force, as they may be unsure of the consequences or the appropriate course of action. This hesitation can stem from a desire to avoid harm to themselves or others, leading to a cautious and uncertain approach.

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  • 2. 

    What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel

    • A.

      Have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the subject.

    • B.

      Have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the subject.

    • C.

      Must only use deadly force when the subject resist apprehension.

    • D.

      Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.

    Correct Answer
    D. Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.
    Explanation
    Law enforcement and security personnel do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject. This means that they are not required to use the least amount of force possible, but rather they must use a level of force that is considered reasonable in the situation. The Supreme Court has held that the force used must be objectively reasonable based on the circumstances, such as the severity of the crime, the threat posed by the individual, and whether the individual is actively resisting arrest.

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  • 3. 

    In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

    • A.

      Protect inherently dangerous property

    • B.

      Protect assets vital to national security

    • C.

      Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle

    • D.

      Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    Correct Answer
    C. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle
    Explanation
    In this situation, you would not be authorized to use deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force is generally only authorized when there is an imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm to oneself or others. While protecting assets vital to national security and protecting others from imminent danger are valid reasons to use deadly force, the act of breaking into a government vehicle does not necessarily pose an immediate threat of death or serious bodily harm.

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  • 4. 

    What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?

    • A.

      Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets

    • B.

      Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

    • C.

      Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

    • D.

      Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets

    Correct Answer
    B. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense
    Explanation
    The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that if US forces are under threat or attack, they are allowed to use their weapons to protect themselves, their nation, or their unit. This allows them to respond to any identified enemy targets that pose a threat without requiring specific authorization before firing.

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  • 5. 

    What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?

    • A.

      See first and act first

    • B.

      First in and fit to fight

    • C.

      Defense of others and operationally fortified

    • D.

      Self-defense and mission accomplishment

    Correct Answer
    D. Self-defense and mission accomplishment
    Explanation
    The two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow military personnel to use force to protect themselves or their unit from imminent threat or harm. Mission accomplishment refers to the rules that outline the actions and tactics necessary to achieve the objectives of the mission. These two categories of ROE ensure that military personnel prioritize their own safety while also working towards the successful completion of their assigned mission.

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  • 6. 

    What should not be confused with rules of engagement(ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?

    • A.

      Law of armed conflict

    • B.

      Rules for use of force

    • C.

      Operational orders

    • D.

      Operations plans

    Correct Answer
    B. Rules for use of force
    Explanation
    During peacetime operations within a US territory, the rules for use of force should not be confused with the rules of engagement (ROE). The rules for use of force outline the guidelines and limitations for the application of force by military personnel, while the ROE specifically pertain to the circumstances and conditions under which force can be used. It is important to differentiate between the two to ensure that military actions are carried out in accordance with legal and ethical standards, and to prevent any confusion or misinterpretation of the rules governing the use of force.

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  • 7. 

    Conscious verbal communication occurs when

    • A.

      Words are chosen carefully during a conversation

    • B.

      Words occur naturally during a conversation

    • C.

      The communicator reads it directly from a form

    • D.

      The communicator is in a hurry

    Correct Answer
    A. Words are chosen carefully during a conversation
    Explanation
    In conscious verbal communication, words are chosen carefully during a conversation. This implies that the communicator is actively thinking about the words they use and selecting them deliberately. This level of consideration suggests that the communicator is mindful of the impact their words may have on the listener and is attempting to convey their message effectively. It also implies that the communicator is taking the time to think about their response and craft it in a thoughtful manner. Overall, conscious verbal communication involves intentional and careful selection of words to facilitate effective communication.

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  • 8. 

    How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?

    • A.

      Command, subject to "HALT" bring your M4 carbine to port arms or your M9 pistol to ready pistol and contact BDOC for further direction to disposition of the individual.

    • B.

      Command subject to slowly place identification on the ground then turn around and walk approximately six paces away from you

    • C.

      Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET" and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD

    • D.

      Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, DROP TO YOUR KNEES, and CROSSS YOUR FEET.

    Correct Answer
    C. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET" and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is commanding the suspect to raise their hands above their head, spread their fingers, spread their feet, and point their toes outward. This position is commonly known as the "final challenge position" and is used to ensure the suspect is in a vulnerable and controlled position, making it easier for the authorities to approach and detain them safely.

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  • 9. 

    Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the

    • A.

      Back of the neck

    • B.

      Wrist of the farthest hand

    • C.

      Ring or middle finger

    • D.

      Wrist of the nearest hand

    Correct Answer
    C. Ring or middle finger
    Explanation
    In order to gain positive control of a subject prior to applying handcuffs, it is recommended to grasp the ring or middle finger. This allows for better control and restraint of the subject's hand, making it more difficult for them to resist or escape. By firmly holding onto the ring or middle finger, the subject's hand can be effectively immobilized, enabling the safe and secure application of handcuffs.

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  • 10. 

    When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be

    • A.

      Complete and simple

    • B.

      Systematic and simple

    • C.

      Complete and thorough

    • D.

      Systematic and thorough

    Correct Answer
    D. Systematic and thorough
    Explanation
    When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic ensures that the search is organized and follows a logical process, which helps in covering all relevant areas and gathering all necessary information. Being thorough means not leaving any stone unturned and conducting a comprehensive search, considering all possible sources and avenues for information. This approach ensures that no crucial details or evidence are missed and increases the chances of obtaining accurate and reliable results.

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  • 11. 

    What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?

    • A.

      Wall

    • B.

      Prone

    • C.

      Kneeling

    • D.

      Standing

    Correct Answer
    D. Standing
    Explanation
    Standing is the correct answer because it is the type of search primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or too intoxicated to stand on their own. When a suspect is cooperative and does not pose an immediate threat, a standing search is conducted to ensure their safety and the safety of the officers involved. This type of search allows for a less invasive approach while still maintaining control over the situation.

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  • 12. 

    When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?

    • A.

      Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    • B.

      Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    • C.

      Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    • D.

      Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    Correct Answer
    A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force
    Explanation
    Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that when determining whether the use of non-lethal force was justified, the same factors and considerations are taken into account as when evaluating the use of deadly force. The decision to use non-lethal force must be based on an assessment of the situation and whether it is reasonable and necessary in the given circumstances. This ensures that the use of force, whether lethal or non-lethal, is held to the same standard of reasonableness and proportionality.

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  • 13. 

    What is the level of force necessary to compel a subjects compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death

    • A.

      Minimum use of force

    • B.

      Maximum use of force

    • C.

      Transitional use of force

    • D.

      Intermediate use of force

    Correct Answer
    D. Intermediate use of force
    Explanation
    The level of force necessary to compel a subject's compliance without causing death is known as the intermediate use of force. This level of force is neither the minimum nor the maximum, but falls in between. It suggests that a certain amount of force is required to ensure compliance, but it should be used with caution to avoid causing severe harm or death.

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  • 14. 

    What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

    • A.

      T-position

    • B.

      Shrimping

    • C.

      Comb blocks

    • D.

      Standup base

    Correct Answer
    C. Comb blocks
    Explanation
    Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the forearms and hands to cover and shield the head, creating a protective barrier against incoming strikes. By positioning the arms in a comb-like formation, the fighter can effectively block and deflect punches or strikes aimed at the head, minimizing the risk of injury. This technique is commonly used in various martial arts and self-defense systems to ensure the safety of the practitioner during combat situations.

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  • 15. 

    How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?

    • A.

      By grabbing your weapon with your weapon side (WS) hand

    • B.

      By grabbing your weapon with your support side (SS) hand

    • C.

      By rolling onto support side (SS) , keeping holstered weapon away from suspect

    • D.

      By rolling onto your weapons side (WS) , keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.

    Correct Answer
    D. By rolling onto your weapons side (WS) , keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.
    Explanation
    When attaining weapons retention during a rear mount, the correct technique is to roll onto your weapons side (WS) while keeping the holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed or taken by the suspect. Rolling onto the WS allows for better control and protection of the weapon, ensuring its retention during the encounter.

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  • 16. 

    To ensure the safety of the patrol office and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting?

    • A.

      Advise the suspect of rights

    • B.

      Handcuff the suspects hands in the front

    • C.

      Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband

    • D.

      Have a second sf member ride in the back with the suspect

    Correct Answer
    C. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband
    Explanation
    Before placing a suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and others involved. By conducting a thorough search or frisk, any potential weapons or illegal items can be identified and removed, reducing the risk of harm or escape during transportation. This step is crucial for legal precautions as well, as it helps to prevent the suspect from carrying any prohibited items that could be used to harm themselves or others.

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  • 17. 

    What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?

    • A.

      Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger

    • B.

      Have a family member or friend ride in the from seat

    • C.

      Notify base defense operations center (BDOC) of ending mileage

    • D.

      Have a second patrol officer follow you to Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger
    Explanation
    When transporting a member of the opposite sex, it is necessary to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This requirement ensures the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misconduct or false accusations. It also provides a witness in case any issues arise during the transportation.

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  • 18. 

    To whom do you release civilians who commit a minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?

    • A.

      US marshal

    • B.

      Military sponsor

    • C.

      Local law enforcement

    • D.

      Air force office of special investigations (AFOSI)

    Correct Answer
    B. Military sponsor
    Explanation
    In areas with concurrent jurisdiction, military sponsors are responsible for releasing civilians who commit minor offenses. Military sponsors play a crucial role in ensuring that these individuals are properly handled and released according to military regulations and procedures. They act as a liaison between the military and local law enforcement, ensuring that the civilians are treated fairly and in accordance with the law. This arrangement helps maintain order and accountability in areas where multiple jurisdictions overlap.

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  • 19. 

    What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?

    • A.

      Annual refresher

    • B.

      Quarterly refresher

    • C.

      Initial and annual refresher

    • D.

      Initial and semiannual refresher

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial and annual refresher
    Explanation
    If you are armed with an expandable baton, you would require initial training to learn how to properly use the weapon. This initial training would cover the basic techniques and safety measures associated with using an expandable baton. Additionally, since it is a weapon, it is important to have annual refresher training to ensure that you are up to date with any changes in techniques or regulations, as well as to maintain proficiency in using the baton safely and effectively.

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  • 20. 

    How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area last?

    • A.

      1 second

    • B.

      3 seconds

    • C.

      5 seconds

    • D.

      7 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 second
    Explanation
    A direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area should last for 1 second. This duration is considered sufficient to incapacitate the subject temporarily and allow the user to escape or seek help if necessary. A longer duration may cause excessive discomfort and potential harm to the subject, while a shorter duration may not be effective enough to subdue them. Therefore, 1 second is the recommended duration for a direct pepper spray burst.

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  • 21. 

    How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    The electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired.

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  • 22. 

    How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?

    • A.

      From top to bottom, left to right

    • B.

      From right to left, top to bottom

    • C.

      From left to right , bottom to top

    • D.

      From bottom to top, left to right

    Correct Answer
    C. From left to right , bottom to top
    Explanation
    To read a grid map and find a grid coordinate, you should start from the left side and move towards the right side. Then, you should move from the bottom towards the top. By following this pattern, you can accurately locate the grid coordinate on the map.

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  • 23. 

    Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?

    • A.

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations ( AFOSI)

    • B.

      Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)

    • C.

      Department of Justice (DOJ)

    • D.

      Department of State (DOS)

    Correct Answer
    C. Department of Justice (DOJ)
    Explanation
    The Department of Justice (DOJ) assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories. As the principal law enforcement agency, the DOJ is responsible for investigating and prosecuting federal crimes, including terrorism-related offenses. It works closely with other federal agencies, such as the FBI, to gather intelligence, prevent terrorist activities, and respond to high-risk incidents. The DOJ also plays a crucial role in coordinating efforts with state and local law enforcement agencies to ensure effective response and collaboration in addressing these threats.

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  • 24. 

    What must be established at each incident site?

    • A.

      Cordon and entry control point (ECP)

    • B.

      Secondary ECP

    • C.

      Cordon and operational rally point

    • D.

      Evacuation point

    Correct Answer
    A. Cordon and entry control point (ECP)
    Explanation
    At each incident site, it is important to establish a cordon and entry control point (ECP). This is necessary to secure the area and control access, ensuring that only authorized personnel can enter. The cordon and ECP help maintain safety and prevent unauthorized individuals from interfering with the incident response or potentially causing harm.

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  • 25. 

    How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

    • A.

      Flat markers

    • B.

      Lights and cones

    • C.

      Elevated markers

    • D.

      Posted SF personnel

    Correct Answer
    C. Elevated markers
    Explanation
    Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are easily visible and can be seen from a distance, ensuring that drivers can clearly identify the boundaries and avoid entering these areas. Flat markers may not be as visible, lights and cones may not be as durable or effective in all weather conditions, and relying solely on posted SF personnel may not be practical or feasible in all situations. Therefore, elevated markers are the most suitable option for clearly marking the boundaries of these areas.

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  • 26. 

    What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?

    • A.

      Simple

    • B.

      Partial

    • C.

      Complete

    • D.

      Plainview

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple
    Explanation
    A simple search involves searching all areas of a vehicle without the need to disassemble any part of it. This means that the search is conducted by visually inspecting the vehicle and looking for any evidence or items of interest without physically taking it apart. This type of search is often the first step in an investigation or inspection process, allowing investigators to quickly assess the situation and determine if further actions or disassembly is necessary.

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  • 27. 

    What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?

    • A.

      Simple

    • B.

      Partial

    • C.

      Complete

    • D.

      Plainview

    Correct Answer
    C. Complete
    Explanation
    A complete search refers to a thorough and detailed examination of a vehicle, which may involve partially or completely disassembling the vehicle. This type of search is conducted to ensure a comprehensive inspection and to gather detailed evidence or information. It is likely to be more time-consuming and extensive compared to simple or partial searches, as it involves a meticulous examination of all components and areas of the vehicle.

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  • 28. 

    What must a sf on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

    • A.

      How to employ different types of searching techniques

    • B.

      Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area

    • C.

      Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searches available

    • D.

      Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs

    Correct Answer
    C. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searches available
    Explanation
    Before making a decision on how to search an area, a SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searches available. These factors are crucial in determining the most effective and efficient way to conduct the search. The situation will provide information about the urgency and potential risks involved, while the terrain will affect the mobility and visibility of the search team. Weather and light conditions will impact visibility and safety, and the number of available searches will determine the resources and manpower that can be allocated to the search operation.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?

    • A.

      To secure an unlocked door

    • B.

      To prevent injury to persons

    • C.

      To render aid to someone in danger

    • D.

      To prevent serious damage to property

    Correct Answer
    A. To secure an unlocked door
    Explanation
    Making an entry without search authority is not a reason to secure an unlocked door. This is because securing an unlocked door does not necessarily require making an entry without search authority. It can be done by simply locking the door or notifying the appropriate authorities to address the issue.

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  • 30. 

    When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?

    • A.

      Before it has been fully processed for evidence

    • B.

      After it has been fully processed for evidence

    • C.

      After the coroner pronounces them dead

    • D.

      After the body has bee photographed

    Correct Answer
    B. After it has been fully processed for evidence
    Explanation
    In order to ensure the preservation and integrity of potential evidence, it is necessary to cover the body of a deceased person after it has been fully processed. This prevents any contamination or tampering with the evidence that may occur during the processing of the crime scene. Covering the body after it has been fully processed allows investigators to thoroughly collect all necessary evidence before taking steps to protect and preserve the body.

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  • 31. 

    What are the two types o sketches normally made of the crime scene?

    • A.

      Rough and refine

    • B.

      Partial and refined

    • C.

      Rough and finished

    • D.

      Partial and complete

    Correct Answer
    C. Rough and finished
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "rough and finished." In crime scene investigations, rough sketches are typically drawn initially to quickly capture the layout and key elements of the scene. These sketches are often hand-drawn and may not be to scale. They provide a general overview of the crime scene. Later on, a more detailed and accurate finished sketch is created, incorporating precise measurements and scale. This finished sketch is often computer-generated and includes specific details such as distances, objects, and evidence locations.

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  • 32. 

    What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military?

    • A.

      Federal Rules of Evidence

    • B.

      Manual for Courts Martial

    • C.

      Federal Statutes of Evidence

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    B. Manual for Courts Martial
    Explanation
    The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. It is a comprehensive document that provides guidance on the admissibility and presentation of evidence in military courts. The Manual ensures that the military justice system operates fairly and consistently by outlining the procedures and standards for handling evidence during legal proceedings. It is a vital resource for military lawyers, judges, and personnel involved in the administration of military justice.

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  • 33. 

    From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?

    • A.

      Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

    • B.

      Defense Force Commander

    • C.

      Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)

    • D.

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)
    Explanation
    Before disposing of crime scene evidence, approval must be obtained from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the military personnel, including the proper handling and disposal of evidence in accordance with the law. They ensure that the disposal process is conducted in a legally sound manner, protecting the integrity of the evidence and ensuring due process.

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  • 34. 

    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance?

    • A.

      Article 92

    • B.

      Article 108

    • C.

      Article 112a

    • D.

      Article 123a

    Correct Answer
    C. Article 112a
    Explanation
    Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the illegal possession, use, distribution, or introduction of a controlled substance into the body. It establishes the rules and regulations regarding the punishment for such offenses within the military justice system.

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  • 35. 

    When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done

    • A.

      To show inability to take full responsibility for actions

    • B.

      Without legal justification or authorization

    • C.

      With full medical justification and authorization

    • D.

      With legal authorization and personal justification

    Correct Answer
    B. Without legal justification or authorization
    Explanation
    Wrongfulness in the context of dealing with controlled substances is defined as an action done without legal justification or authorization. This means that engaging in any activity involving controlled substances, such as possessing, distributing, or using them, without the proper legal permission or authorization is considered wrongful. It implies that the person involved is acting in violation of the law and without the necessary legal backing for their actions.

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  • 36. 

    What agency has a primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?

    • A.

      Family Advocacy Office (FAO)

    • B.

      Federal Bureau Of Investigations (FBI)

    • C.

      Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

    • D.

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm. AFOSI is responsible for conducting criminal investigations and providing counterintelligence services for the United States Air Force. In cases of child abuse or neglect that result in serious bodily harm, AFOSI would take the lead in investigating and prosecuting the offenders.

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  • 37. 

    What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?

    • A.

      AF Form 1109

    • B.

      AF Form 1297

    • C.

      AF Form 1920

    • D.

      AF Form 3545

    Correct Answer
    D. AF Form 3545
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form is used to document all instances where an apprehension is made. It is a standardized form within the Air Force that ensures consistent and accurate recording of apprehensions. By completing this form, all relevant information regarding the apprehension can be documented and properly processed.

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  • 38. 

    What is conducted during a domestic dispute / violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?

    • A.

      Rights Advisement

    • B.

      Complete Search

    • C.

      Interrogation

    • D.

      Interview

    Correct Answer
    D. Interview
    Explanation
    During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves speaking with the involved parties to gather information about the situation, understand the level of threat, and evaluate the potential risk to individuals involved. The interview helps law enforcement officers gather evidence, assess the severity of the situation, and make informed decisions regarding the safety and well-being of the family members involved.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?

    • A.

      Neglect

    • B.

      Sexual abuse

    • C.

      Mental abuse

    • D.

      Physical abuse

    Correct Answer
    C. Mental abuse
    Explanation
    Mental abuse refers to emotional or psychological harm inflicted on a child, which can include constant criticism, humiliation, or rejection. Neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse are the other three types of child abuse. Neglect refers to the failure to provide a child's basic needs, such as food, shelter, or medical care. Sexual abuse involves any sexual activity imposed on a child, while physical abuse refers to the intentional use of physical force that causes harm to a child.

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  • 40. 

    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?

    • A.

      Neglect

    • B.

      Sexual

    • C.

      Mental

    • D.

      Physical

    Correct Answer
    B. Sexual
    Explanation
    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of sexual child abuse. This type of abuse involves the exploitation of a child for sexual purposes, which can cause severe physical and psychological harm. It is important to recognize and address sexual child abuse to protect the well-being and safety of children.

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  • 41. 

    What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment , deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter or clothing?

    • A.

      Neglect

    • B.

      Sexual

    • C.

      Mental

    • D.

      Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Neglect
    Explanation
    Neglect is the correct answer because it refers to the failure of a caregiver to provide for a child's basic needs, such as nourishment, necessities, shelter, and clothing. This type of child abuse involves a lack of attention and care, leading to the child's physical, emotional, and developmental harm. Neglect can have long-lasting effects on a child's well-being and is considered a form of child abuse.

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  • 42. 

    What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a  sexual assault / rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?

    • A.

      Your tact and poise

    • B.

      Your ability to cope

    • C.

      Your physical appearance

    • D.

      Your tone of voice and manners

    Correct Answer
    A. Your tact and poise
    Explanation
    Your tact and poise can make a difference in the emotional state of a sexual assault/rape victim because it reflects your sensitivity and professionalism in handling such a sensitive situation. By being tactful, you can show empathy and understanding towards the victim, making them feel more comfortable and supported. Your poise, which includes remaining calm and composed, can help create a safe and secure environment for the victim, allowing them to open up and trust you. Overall, your tact and poise can greatly impact the victim's emotional well-being during their initial contact.

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  • 43. 

    What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another , whether successful or not provided the target is aware of the danger?

    • A.

      Aggressive assault

    • B.

      Simple assault

    • C.

      Assault

    • D.

      Battery

    Correct Answer
    C. Assault
    Explanation
    Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger. It includes the intention to cause physical harm or instill fear in the victim. This term encompasses both physical and verbal threats or actions that can be perceived as harmful or dangerous by the target. Aggressive assault and simple assault are not specific legal terms and do not capture the full definition of assault. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harmful touching of another person, which is a separate offense from assault.

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  • 44. 

    What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?

    • A.

      Aggrevated assault

    • B.

      Simple assault

    • C.

      Assault

    • D.

      Battery

    Correct Answer
    A. Aggrevated assault
    Explanation
    Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states. It is committed when a defendant intends to do more than just frighten the victim, typically involving the use of a weapon or causing serious bodily harm. Unlike simple assault, which is generally considered a misdemeanor, aggravated assault involves more severe actions and carries harsher penalties. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harmful touching that occurs as a result of an assault.

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  • 45. 

    What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program?

    • A.

      Notification, response, confinement, and release

    • B.

      Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement

    • C.

      Report, investigation, administrative action, confinement

    • D.

      Initial contact, administrative , prosecution, and confinement

    Correct Answer
    B. Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement." In the judicial process, the first phase is the response, where law enforcement or other authorities respond to the incident. The second phase is the investigation, where evidence is gathered and analyzed. The third phase is prosecution, where the case is presented in court. And the fourth phase is confinement, where the convicted offender serves their punishment. In the victim/witness assistance program, it is important to brief all victims and witnesses on these four phases to ensure their understanding and cooperation throughout the process.

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  • 46. 

    What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together? 

    • A.

      Casual

    • B.

      Sighting

    • C.

      Agitated

    • D.

      Mob-like

    Correct Answer
    A. Casual
    Explanation
    Casual crowd refers to a group of individuals or small groups who do not share any common interests or connections. They come together by chance or coincidence and do not have a specific purpose or goal. This type of crowd is characterized by its lack of organization and unity, as the individuals or small groups within it have no binding factors.

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  • 47. 

    The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?

    • A.

      Fire Chief

    • B.

      Flight Chief

    • C.

      Commander

    • D.

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

    Correct Answer
    C. Commander
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Commander. The use of the riot baton is based on the Commander's appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option. The Commander is responsible for making decisions regarding the use of force and determining the appropriate level of force required in a given situation. The Fire Chief, Flight Chief, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the ultimate authority lies with the Commander in determining the use of the riot baton.

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  • 48. 

    Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?

    • A.

      Line

    • B.

      Wedge

    • C.

      Circular

    • D.

      Diamond

    Correct Answer
    B. Wedge
    Explanation
    A wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation involves a group of riot control personnel forming a triangle shape, with the tip of the triangle leading the way. The narrow end of the wedge is used to push through the crowd, creating a gap and forcing the crowd to split into smaller groups. This formation allows for better control and dispersal of the crowd, making it an effective strategy in riot control situations.

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  • 49. 

    Which force protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations?

    • A.

      Deter

    • B.

      Detect

    • C.

      Negate

    • D.

      Preempt

    Correct Answer
    C. Negate
    Explanation
    Negate is the correct answer because it means to nullify or neutralize a threat or hazard, making it incapable of interfering with AF (Air Force) operations. This could involve implementing countermeasures, defensive strategies, or other actions to eliminate or minimize the impact of potential threats or hazards.

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  • 50. 

    Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders?

    • A.

      Military Control (MILCON)

    • B.

      Tactical Control (TACON)

    • C.

      Operational Control (OPCON)

    • D.

      Administrative Control (ADCON)

    Correct Answer
    C. Operational Control (OPCON)
    Explanation
    Operational Control (OPCON) is the correct answer because it refers to the control authority exercised through subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders. OPCON allows commanders to direct and control the tactical employment of assigned or attached forces, and it includes the authority to organize, plan, and execute operations. This level of control ensures that commanders have the necessary authority and flexibility to effectively carry out their missions while still operating within the overall strategic guidance provided by higher authorities.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 06, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Cypressp
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