3P071 CDC Ure Vol. 1

40 Questions

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3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
    • A. 

      The first duty day following completion

    • B. 

      Within 30 days of completion

    • C. 

      72 hours after completion

    • D. 

      48 hours after completion

  • 2. 
    The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight 
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      SNCO

    • D. 

      Chief

  • 3. 
    Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?
    • A. 

      SFS

    • B. 

      SFM

    • C. 

      SFO

    • D. 

      SFT

  • 4. 
    The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
    • A. 

      Security patrol

    • B. 

      Security forces members

    • C. 

      SRT member

    • D. 

      ART member

  • 5. 
    What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
    • A. 

      Internal SRT

    • B. 

      Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • C. 

      Close boundary sentry

    • D. 

      External SRT

  • 6. 
    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
    • A. 

      Internal SRT

    • B. 

      Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • C. 

      Close boundary sentry

    • D. 

      External SRT

  • 7. 
    When a two person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single person
    • A. 

      Fire teams

    • B. 

      Internal SRT's

    • C. 

      Security patrols

    • D. 

      Close boundary sentries

  • 8. 
    What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
    • A. 

      Assess exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV

    • B. 

      Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations

    • C. 

      Control entry into structures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area

    • D. 

      Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas

  • 9. 
    Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the 
    • A. 

      MSCFO

    • B. 

      IVA

    • C. 

      CCTV

    • D. 

      CBS

  • 10. 
    What does SEI stand for?
    • A. 

      Security entry identifier

    • B. 

      Security experience identifier

    • C. 

      Special Delivery identifier

    • D. 

      Special experience identifier

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD

    • B. 

      Manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs

    • C. 

      Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs

    • D. 

      How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron

  • 12. 
    What are the three main branches of most SF units?
    • A. 

      SFT, SFO, and SFL

    • B. 

      SFO, SFOA, and SFT

    • C. 

      SFO, SFT, and SFA

    • D. 

      SFS, CSF, and SFM

  • 13. 
    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?
    • A. 

      Report of survey office of investigation

    • B. 

      Air Force office of investigation

    • C. 

      Security forces training team

    • D. 

      Security forces investigations

  • 14. 
    Which specialists develop guidance for security systems operation and conduct operator training?
    • A. 

      Phoenix Ravens

    • B. 

      Security Systems operators

    • C. 

      Electronic security systems

    • D. 

      Anti terrorism/force protection

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained

    • B. 

      Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill level upgrade training

    • C. 

      Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements

    • D. 

      Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training

  • 16. 
    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
    • A. 

      Investigations

    • B. 

      Crime prevention

    • C. 

      Resource protection

    • D. 

      Reports and Analysis

  • 17. 
    Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2225

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2226

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2227

    • D. 

      AFI 36-2525

  • 18. 
    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
    • A. 

      Analysis

    • B. 

      Feedback

    • C. 

      Evaluation

    • D. 

      Cross-Feed

  • 19. 
    How many days does the Security Forces Stan- Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?
    • A. 

      120

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      30

  • 20. 
    After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      21

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      3

  • 21. 
    The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability 
    • A. 

      To enforce military laws and regulations

    • B. 

      Detect classified information

    • C. 

      Suppress illegal drug use

    • D. 

      Detect explosives

  • 22. 
    Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
    • A. 

      OUT and IN

    • B. 

      SIT and STAY

    • C. 

      OUT and HEEL

    • D. 

      STAY and HEEL

  • 23. 
    When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?
    • A. 

      Deterrence

    • B. 

      Detention

    • C. 

      Decoying

    • D. 

      Detection

  • 24. 
    When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?
    • A. 

      In low contact areas, so they dont give away your position to the enemy by barking

    • B. 

      Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability

    • C. 

      At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons

    • D. 

      Downwin of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy

  • 25. 
    What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?
    • A. 

      Location and size of area

    • B. 

      Time and terrain features

    • C. 

      Wind speed and direction

    • D. 

      Experience of canine and handler

  • 26. 
    What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?
    • A. 

      Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern

    • B. 

      Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift

    • C. 

      Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks

    • D. 

      Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team

  • 27. 
    From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?
    • A. 

      Upwind

    • B. 

      Crosswind

    • C. 

      Downwind

    • D. 

      Wind direction doesn't matter

  • 28. 
    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a seach?
    • A. 

      Danger to the canine

    • B. 

      Time left in patrol shift

    • C. 

      Type and size of building

    • D. 

      Weather conditions just prior to the search

  • 29. 
    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous
    • A. 

      Physical deterrent

    • B. 

      Physicians deterrent

    • C. 

      Psychoological deterrent

    • D. 

      Psychological deterrent

  • 30. 
    Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
    • A. 

      They should be tolerant of people

    • B. 

      They should not be used often in daylight hours

    • C. 

      The presence of a large number of people should not significantly reduce the dog's usefulness

    • D. 

      Patrol dogs should be able to walk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression

  • 31. 
    When is the military working dog's detection ability more effective?
    • A. 

      During daylight hours-they can use sight and sound

    • B. 

      During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions

    • C. 

      High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions

    • D. 

      During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

  • 32. 
    While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?
    • A. 

      On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving

    • B. 

      In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck

    • C. 

      Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle

    • D. 

      On leash, laying down on the back seat

  • 33. 
    If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?
    • A. 

      Sit/Stay

    • B. 

      Guard

    • C. 

      Heel

    • D. 

      Out

  • 34. 
    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
    • A. 

      AF Forms 629 and 1297

    • B. 

      AF Forms 629 and 1473

    • C. 

      AF Forms 1297 and 1473

    • D. 

      AF Forms 1437 and 1279

  • 35. 
    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
    • A. 

      Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs

    • B. 

      After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed

    • C. 

      Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory

    • D. 

      Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel

  • 36. 
    What installations are required to has an ISP?
    • A. 

      Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP

    • B. 

      The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not

    • C. 

      All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan

    • D. 

      Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures

  • 37. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?
    • A. 

      Wing plans and programs section

    • B. 

      Installation security police chief

    • C. 

      Installation commander

    • D. 

      MAJCOM commander

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      Threat estimate, a terrain and weather analysis of the installation and its surroundings

    • B. 

      Assessment of the installation's vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage

    • C. 

      A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment

    • D. 

      An estimate of support from friendly forces

  • 39. 
    The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to
    • A. 

      Personnel who can demonstrate a need to know

    • B. 

      Personnel who have requested a Freedom of Information Act request

    • C. 

      Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties

    • D. 

      An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question

  • 40. 
    What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?
    • A. 

      Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved options

    • B. 

      Class A vault or vault type room as prescribed by Air Force guidance

    • C. 

      Two person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door

    • D. 

      GSA approved security container