3P071 CDC Ure Vol. 1
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- 1.When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
- A.
The first duty day following completion
- B.
Within 30 days of completion
- C.
72 hours after completion
- D.
48 hours after completion
- 2.The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight
- A.
Commander
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
SNCO
- D.
Chief
- 3.Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?
- A.
SFS
- B.
SFM
- C.
SFO
- D.
SFT
- 4.The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
- A.
Security patrol
- B.
Security forces members
- C.
SRT member
- D.
ART member
- 5.What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
- A.
Internal SRT
- B.
Immediate visual assessment sentries
- C.
Close boundary sentry
- D.
External SRT
- 6.What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
- A.
Internal SRT
- B.
Immediate visual assessment sentries
- C.
Close boundary sentry
- D.
External SRT
- 7.When a two person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single person
- A.
Fire teams
- B.
Internal SRT's
- C.
Security patrols
- D.
Close boundary sentries
- 8.What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
- A.
Assess exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV
- B.
Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations
- C.
Control entry into structures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area
- D.
Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas
- 9.Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the
- A.
MSCFO
- B.
IVA
- C.
CCTV
- D.
CBS
- 10.What does SEI stand for?
- A.
Security entry identifier
- B.
Security experience identifier
- C.
Special Delivery identifier
- D.
Special experience identifier
- 11.
- A.
Existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD
- B.
Manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs
- C.
Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs
- D.
How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron
- 12.What are the three main branches of most SF units?
- A.
SFT, SFO, and SFL
- B.
SFO, SFOA, and SFT
- C.
SFO, SFT, and SFA
- D.
SFS, CSF, and SFM
- 13.The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?
- A.
Report of survey office of investigation
- B.
Air Force office of investigation
- C.
Security forces training team
- D.
Security forces investigations
- 14.Which specialists develop guidance for security systems operation and conduct operator training?
- A.
Phoenix Ravens
- B.
Security Systems operators
- C.
Electronic security systems
- D.
Anti terrorism/force protection
- 15.
- A.
Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained
- B.
Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill level upgrade training
- C.
Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements
- D.
Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training
- 16.Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
- A.
Investigations
- B.
Crime prevention
- C.
Resource protection
- D.
Reports and Analysis
- 17.Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?
- A.
AFI 36-2225
- B.
AFI 36-2226
- C.
AFI 36-2227
- D.
AFI 36-2525
- 18.What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
- A.
Analysis
- B.
Feedback
- C.
Evaluation
- D.
Cross-Feed
- 19.How many days does the Security Forces Stan- Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?
- A.
120
- B.
90
- C.
60
- D.
30
- 20.After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?
- A.
30
- B.
21
- C.
15
- D.
3
- 21.The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability
- A.
To enforce military laws and regulations
- B.
Detect classified information
- C.
Suppress illegal drug use
- D.
Detect explosives
- 22.Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
- A.
OUT and IN
- B.
SIT and STAY
- C.
OUT and HEEL
- D.
STAY and HEEL
- 23.When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?
- A.
Deterrence
- B.
Detention
- C.
Decoying
- D.
Detection
- 24.When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?
- A.
In low contact areas, so they dont give away your position to the enemy by barking
- B.
Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability
- C.
At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons
- D.
Downwin of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy
- 25.What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?
- A.
Location and size of area
- B.
Time and terrain features
- C.
Wind speed and direction
- D.
Experience of canine and handler
- 26.What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?
- A.
Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern
- B.
Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift
- C.
Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks
- D.
Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team
- 27.From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?
- A.
Upwind
- B.
Crosswind
- C.
Downwind
- D.
Wind direction doesn't matter
- 28.When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a seach?
- A.
Danger to the canine
- B.
Time left in patrol shift
- C.
Type and size of building
- D.
Weather conditions just prior to the search
- 29.When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous
- A.
Physical deterrent
- B.
Physicians deterrent
- C.
Psychoological deterrent
- D.
Psychological deterrent
- 30.Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
- A.
They should be tolerant of people
- B.
They should not be used often in daylight hours
- C.
The presence of a large number of people should not significantly reduce the dog's usefulness
- D.
Patrol dogs should be able to walk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression
- 31.When is the military working dog's detection ability more effective?
- A.
During daylight hours-they can use sight and sound
- B.
During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions
- C.
High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions
- D.
During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.
- 32.While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?
- A.
On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving
- B.
In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck
- C.
Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle
- D.
On leash, laying down on the back seat
- 33.If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?
- A.
Sit/Stay
- B.
Guard
- C.
Heel
- D.
Out
- 34.Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
- A.
AF Forms 629 and 1297
- B.
AF Forms 629 and 1473
- C.
AF Forms 1297 and 1473
- D.
AF Forms 1437 and 1279
- 35.When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
- A.
Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs
- B.
After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed
- C.
Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory
- D.
Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel
- 36.What installations are required to has an ISP?
- A.
Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP
- B.
The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not
- C.
All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan
- D.
Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures
- 37.Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?
- A.
Wing plans and programs section
- B.
Installation security police chief
- C.
Installation commander
- D.
MAJCOM commander
- 38.
- A.
Threat estimate, a terrain and weather analysis of the installation and its surroundings
- B.
Assessment of the installation's vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage
- C.
A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment
- D.
An estimate of support from friendly forces
- 39.The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to
- A.
Personnel who can demonstrate a need to know
- B.
Personnel who have requested a Freedom of Information Act request
- C.
Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties
- D.
An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question
- 40.What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?
- A.
Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved options
- B.
Class A vault or vault type room as prescribed by Air Force guidance
- C.
Two person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door
- D.
GSA approved security container
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