3P071 CDC Ure Vol. 1

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  • 1/40 Questions

    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

    • The first duty day following completion
    • Within 30 days of completion
    • 72 hours after completion
    • 48 hours after completion
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3P071 Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge essential for Air Force Security Forces, particularly focusing on operational responsibilities and response protocols. It evaluates understanding of roles, duties, and tactical responses crucial for maintaining base security and operational efficiency.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight 

    • Commander

    • Supervisor

    • SNCO

    • Chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief
    Explanation
    The chief is responsible for the direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions. They have the highest level of authority and are in charge of managing and overseeing all aspects of flight operations. The chief is responsible for ensuring that flights are conducted safely, efficiently, and in accordance with regulations and procedures. They make critical decisions regarding flight planning, scheduling, and resource allocation to ensure the successful completion of missions.

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  • 3. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

    • SFS

    • SFM

    • SFO

    • SFT

    Correct Answer
    A. SFM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SFM. SFM stands for Security Forces Manager, who is responsible for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations. This role involves overseeing the personnel within the security forces unit, ensuring that they meet the required standards, and conducting evaluations to assess their performance. The SFM plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness and professionalism of the security forces unit.

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  • 4. 

    The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior

    • Security patrol

    • Security forces members

    • SRT member

    • ART member

    Correct Answer
    A. Security patrol
    Explanation
    The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the security patrol. This implies that the area supervisor is responsible for overseeing and managing the security patrol team. The other options, such as security forces members, SRT member, and ART member, may be part of the security team but do not specifically refer to the role of an area supervisor.

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  • 5. 

    What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • Close boundary sentry

    • External SRT

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is internal SRT. The internal SRT is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and ensuring a timely response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents. They are specifically focused on addressing and resolving security issues within the organization's premises.

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  • 6. 

    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • Close boundary sentry

    • External SRT

    Correct Answer
    A. External SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is External SRT. An External SRT (Security Response Team) operates both inside and outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. They are trained to assess and handle security threats efficiently.

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  • 7. 

    When a two person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single person

    • Fire teams

    • Internal SRT's

    • Security patrols

    • Close boundary sentries

    Correct Answer
    A. Security patrols
    Explanation
    When a two person internal SRT (Special Response Team) working within its assigned restricted area separates, it results in the formation of two single person teams. These single person teams are responsible for conducting security patrols within the restricted area. They ensure that the area is secure and monitor for any potential threats or breaches. Therefore, the correct answer is security patrols.

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  • 8. 

    What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?

    • Assess exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV

    • Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations

    • Control entry into structures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area

    • Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas
  • 9. 

    Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the 

    • MSCFO

    • IVA

    • CCTV

    • CBS

    Correct Answer
    A. CBS
    Explanation
    CBS stands for Closed Circuit Television, which is a system of security cameras that are used to monitor a specific area or boundary. These cameras are connected to a closed circuit, meaning that the video footage is not publicly broadcasted but can only be viewed by authorized personnel. Therefore, CBS is responsible for providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary.

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  • 10. 

    What does SEI stand for?

    • Security entry identifier

    • Security experience identifier

    • Special Delivery identifier

    • Special experience identifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Special experience identifier
    Explanation
    SEI stands for Special Experience Identifier. This term is commonly used in the context of the Software Engineering Institute (SEI), which is a research and development center that focuses on software engineering and cybersecurity. The SEI is known for its expertise in developing and advancing software engineering practices and technologies, making the "Special experience identifier" the most appropriate option among the given choices.

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  • 11. 

    The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify 

    • Existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD

    • Manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs

    • Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs

    • How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs
    Explanation
    The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs. This means that the SEI is given to individuals or units who possess the necessary skills, experience, or capabilities to handle specific situations or tasks that may arise in a contingency or management scenario. It helps to ensure that the right resources are allocated to the right situations, avoiding unnecessary inspections or manpower allocation.

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  • 12. 

    What are the three main branches of most SF units?

    • SFT, SFO, and SFL

    • SFO, SFOA, and SFT

    • SFO, SFT, and SFA

    • SFS, CSF, and SFM

    Correct Answer
    A. SFO, SFT, and SFA
    Explanation
    The three main branches of most SF units are SFO (Special Forces Operations), SFT (Special Forces Training), and SFA (Special Forces Assistance). These branches represent the different aspects of SF units' operations, including conducting missions, training personnel, and providing assistance to other forces.

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  • 13. 

    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?

    • Report of survey office of investigation

    • Air Force office of investigation

    • Security forces training team

    • Security forces investigations

    Correct Answer
    A. Security forces investigations
    Explanation
    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than what is conducted while on flight belongs to the Security forces investigations office under SFO.

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  • 14. 

    Which specialists develop guidance for security systems operation and conduct operator training?

    • Phoenix Ravens

    • Security Systems operators

    • Electronic security systems

    • Anti terrorism/force protection

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic security systems
    Explanation
    Electronic security systems specialists are responsible for developing guidance for security systems operation and conducting operator training. They have expertise in designing, implementing, and maintaining security systems to protect against unauthorized access, theft, and other security threats. These specialists work closely with operators to ensure they are trained on how to effectively operate the security systems and respond to any potential security incidents.

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  • 15. 

    What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?

    • Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained

    • Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill level upgrade training

    • Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements

    • Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training

    Correct Answer
    A. Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained
    Explanation
    The responsibility of coordinating with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained is not a responsibility of the unit training section.

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  • 16. 

    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

    • Investigations

    • Crime prevention

    • Resource protection

    • Reports and Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Reports and Analysis
    Explanation
    The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed falls under the office of Reports and Analysis. This office is responsible for collecting, analyzing, and reporting on criminal incidents, providing valuable insights and information to aid in decision-making and resource allocation.

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  • 17. 

    Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?

    • AFI 36-2225

    • AFI 36-2226

    • AFI 36-2227

    • AFI 36-2525

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 36-2225
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 36-2225. This regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program.

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  • 18. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • Analysis

    • Feedback

    • Evaluation

    • Cross-Feed

    Correct Answer
    A. Feedback
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with information on the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. It allows commanders to understand the impact of their strategies and make necessary adjustments to achieve their objectives. Feedback also helps commanders to identify strengths and weaknesses in their team or organization, enabling them to enhance performance and productivity. By actively seeking and utilizing feedback, commanders can improve their decision-making process and ultimately achieve success in their missions.

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  • 19. 

    How many days does the Security Forces Stan- Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?

    • 120

    • 90

    • 60

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allows for an evaluation to be conducted within 30 days after an individual completes qualification training.

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  • 20. 

    After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?

    • 30

    • 21

    • 15

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, the section has to conduct a reevaluation within 15 days after the individual completes review training. This suggests that there is a specific timeframe within which the section must reassess the individual's performance after they have received additional training.

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  • 21. 

    The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability 

    • To enforce military laws and regulations

    • Detect classified information

    • Suppress illegal drug use

    • Detect explosives

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect classified information
    Explanation
    The MWD program refers to the Military Working Dog program, which is responsible for training and utilizing dogs in various military operations. While MWDs are highly skilled in tasks such as detecting explosives and suppressing illegal drug use, they do not possess the capability to detect classified information. This is a task that is typically handled by intelligence agencies and specialized personnel trained in counterintelligence.

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  • 22. 

    Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

    • OUT and IN

    • SIT and STAY

    • OUT and HEEL

    • STAY and HEEL

    Correct Answer
    A. OUT and HEEL
    Explanation
    A MWD, which stands for Military Working Dog, must obey the commands "OUT" and "HEEL" before being assigned operational duties. The command "OUT" is used to indicate that the dog should release or let go of something, while "HEEL" is a command to walk closely and calmly beside the handler's side. These commands are essential for the dog's training and readiness for operational tasks.

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  • 23. 

    When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

    • Deterrence

    • Detention

    • Decoying

    • Detection

    Correct Answer
    A. Detection
    Explanation
    The primary mission of the MWD (Military Working Dog) in security operations is detection. These highly trained dogs are used to detect explosives, drugs, and other prohibited substances. They have a keen sense of smell and are able to locate hidden items that may pose a threat. By detecting these threats, the MWDs play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of the area they are deployed in.

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  • 24. 

    When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?

    • In low contact areas, so they dont give away your position to the enemy by barking

    • Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability

    • At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons

    • Downwin of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy

    Correct Answer
    A. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons
    Explanation
    In order to maximize the usage of dogs on detection screen posts, positioning them at key vantage points and avenues of approach helps to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This means that the dogs are strategically placed in areas where they can effectively detect and deter any unauthorized individuals from gaining access. By positioning them in these key locations, the dogs can provide an additional layer of security and help prevent any potential breaches or intrusions.

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  • 25. 

    What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

    • Location and size of area

    • Time and terrain features

    • Wind speed and direction

    • Experience of canine and handler

    Correct Answer
    A. Wind speed and direction
    Explanation
    Leaders must consider wind speed and direction before placing MWD (Military Working Dog) teams in an area. This is because a dog's sense of smell is highly sensitive and can be affected by wind conditions. Wind speed and direction can impact the dog's ability to detect and track scents, as well as the handler's ability to control and direct the dog effectively. Therefore, understanding the wind conditions in a specific area is crucial for the success of MWD operations.

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  • 26. 

    What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

    • Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern

    • Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift

    • Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks

    • Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern
    Explanation
    The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable pattern, the MWD teams can keep potential threats guessing and reduce the risk of being targeted. This helps to enhance the overall safety and security of the area being patrolled.

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  • 27. 

    From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

    • Upwind

    • Crosswind

    • Downwind

    • Wind direction doesn't matter

    Correct Answer
    A. Downwind
    Explanation
    A dog team should approach a building they are about to check from downwind. This is because approaching from downwind allows the dogs to pick up any scents or smells that may be coming from inside the building. By approaching from downwind, the dogs will be able to detect any potential threats or individuals inside the building more effectively. Approaching from upwind or crosswind may cause the scent to be carried away from the dogs, making it harder for them to detect any potential dangers. Wind direction is important in this scenario as it can greatly affect the dogs' ability to pick up scents.

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  • 28. 

    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a seach?

    • Danger to the canine

    • Time left in patrol shift

    • Type and size of building

    • Weather conditions just prior to the search

    Correct Answer
    A. Type and size of building
    Explanation
    Before releasing the MWD to conduct a search during a building search, the handler must consider the type and size of the building. This is important because different types of buildings may have different layouts, obstacles, or hiding places that can impact the effectiveness of the search. The size of the building also plays a role in determining the amount of time and resources needed for the search. Therefore, understanding the type and size of the building is crucial in planning and executing an efficient and successful search operation.

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  • 29. 

    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

    • Physical deterrent

    • Physicians deterrent

    • Psychoological deterrent

    • Psychological deterrent

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a trained dog can create a sense of fear and intimidation among potential criminals, making them think twice before engaging in illegal activities. The perception of a dog's ability to detect and apprehend suspects can discourage individuals from committing crimes, thus acting as a psychological deterrent.

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  • 30. 

    Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?

    • They should be tolerant of people

    • They should not be used often in daylight hours

    • The presence of a large number of people should not significantly reduce the dog's usefulness

    • Patrol dogs should be able to walk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression

    Correct Answer
    A. They should not be used often in daylight hours
    Explanation
    The statement "they should not be used often in daylight hours" is not true. Military working dogs are trained to work in various environments and conditions, including daylight hours. They are trained to perform their duties regardless of the time of day or night.

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  • 31. 

    When is the military working dog's detection ability more effective?

    • During daylight hours-they can use sight and sound

    • During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions

    • High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions

    • During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

    Correct Answer
    A. During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions
    Explanation
    During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions, the military working dog's detection ability is more effective. This is because in such conditions, their heightened sense of smell and hearing can be utilized to a greater extent without being overwhelmed by visual stimuli. Additionally, the lack of distractions allows them to focus solely on detecting and identifying potential threats or targets.

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  • 32. 

    While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?

    • On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving

    • In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck

    • Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle

    • On leash, laying down on the back seat

    Correct Answer
    A. Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle. This is the safest position for the MWD (Military Working Dog) to be in during a mobile patrol. Being off leash allows the MWD to move freely and respond quickly if needed. Placing the MWD on the front or rear seat ensures that it is secure and comfortable while still being easily accessible for the handler. This position also allows the handler to maintain control and monitor the MWD's behavior during the patrol.

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  • 33. 

    If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?

    • Sit/Stay

    • Guard

    • Heel

    • Out

    Correct Answer
    A. Guard
    Explanation
    When an apprehension is made, the handler will place the dog in the "Guard" position. This position is specifically trained for situations where the dog needs to protect and defend its handler. The dog will be positioned in a way that allows it to closely monitor and intimidate any potential threats, while also being ready to take action if necessary. This position is crucial for maintaining control and ensuring the safety of both the handler and the dog in potentially dangerous situations.

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  • 34. 

    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

    • AF Forms 629 and 1297

    • AF Forms 629 and 1473

    • AF Forms 1297 and 1473

    • AF Forms 1437 and 1279

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Forms 629 and 1297
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Forms 629 and 1297. These two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons.

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  • 35. 

    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

    • Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs

    • After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed

    • Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory

    • Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed
    Explanation
    Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are in proper working condition and ready for use. Cleaning the weapons after firing helps remove any residue or debris that may affect their performance. Cleaning during inclement weather prevents rust or other damage caused by moisture. Regular cleaning as needed ensures that the weapons are well-maintained and reliable.

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  • 36. 

    What installations are required to has an ISP?

    • Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP

    • The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not

    • All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan

    • Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that all installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish an ISP. This means that any installation that has important resources that need to be protected must have an ISP in place. This ensures that there is a plan in case of any security threats or emergencies. It is not dependent on whether the installation has a flying mission or is located overseas, but rather on the presence of protection level resources.

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  • 37. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?

    • Wing plans and programs section

    • Installation security police chief

    • Installation commander

    • MAJCOM commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the ISI (Installation Security Instruction) is issued, approved, and implemented. As the highest-ranking official at the installation, the commander has overall authority and accountability for the security and operations of the installation. It is their duty to ensure that all necessary security measures, including the ISI, are in place and followed to maintain the safety and security of the installation and its personnel.

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  • 38. 

    What is not included in the ISP?

    • Threat estimate, a terrain and weather analysis of the installation and its surroundings

    • Assessment of the installation's vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage

    • A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment

    • An estimate of support from friendly forces

    Correct Answer
    A. An estimate of support from friendly forces
    Explanation
    The ISP (Installation Security Plan) includes various components such as threat estimate, terrain and weather analysis, vulnerability assessment, and cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment. However, an estimate of support from friendly forces is not included in the ISP. This means that the plan does not consider or calculate the level of assistance or backup that may be provided by friendly forces in case of a security threat or terrorist act.

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  • 39. 

    The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to

    • Personnel who can demonstrate a need to know

    • Personnel who have requested a Freedom of Information Act request

    • Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties

    • An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question

    Correct Answer
    A. An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "an individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question." This means that only those individuals who have been granted the necessary security clearance are allowed to access and view classified information. This ensures that sensitive information is only disclosed to those who have a legitimate and authorized reason to know it, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized disclosure or misuse of the information.

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  • 40. 

    What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?

    • Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved options

    • Class A vault or vault type room as prescribed by Air Force guidance

    • Two person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door

    • GSA approved security container

    Correct Answer
    A. Two person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door
    Explanation
    The two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door, is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information. The other options mentioned, such as alarmed areas with equal or better protection, a Class A vault or vault type room as prescribed by Air Force guidance, and GSA approved security container, are all necessary storage procedures for Top Secret information. The two-person concept may be used as an additional security measure, but it is not a mandatory requirement.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 07, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Jaquino06

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