Security Forces CDC 5 Lev. Vol. 2

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1. Upon contact with the solicitor,you recieve proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action is this?

Explanation

Upon contact with the solicitor, receiving proper identification and asking them to depart the base, the subject action in this scenario is using verbal controls.

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About This Quiz
Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge on 'Objective Reasonableness' and the use of force within the context of Security Forces CDC 5 lev. Vol. 2. It covers essential areas such... see moreas risk perception, subject action, and officer response, focusing on scenarios in military environments. see less

2. Deadly Force is authorized for protection of military resources 

Explanation

Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources that are vital to national security. This means that if there is a threat to military resources that are considered essential for the security of the nation, the use of deadly force is permitted to protect them.

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3. Which situation would you NOT be authorized to use deadly force? 

Explanation

You would NOT be authorized to use deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a house. Deadly force should only be used in situations where there is an imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm to yourself or others. While protecting property is important, it does not justify the use of deadly force.

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4. Punching kicking beating stabbing are examples of 

Explanation

The examples given, such as punching, kicking, beating, and stabbing, all involve physical force and violence towards another person. This aligns with the definition of physical battering, which refers to the use of physical force to cause harm or injury to someone. Therefore, physical battering is the correct answer in this case.

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5. When contacting the violator during a traffic stop, an exigent circumstance would be speeding to  

Explanation

An exigent circumstance refers to a situation where there is an urgent need for immediate action. In this case, getting a pregnant wife to the hospital during a traffic stop can be considered an exigent circumstance because it involves the potential risk to the health and well-being of both the mother and the unborn child. Time is of the essence in such situations, and any delay in reaching the hospital could have serious consequences. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of the pregnant wife, making it a valid reason to contact the violator during a traffic stop.

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6. What standered did the US Supreme establist for assesing the use of force? 

Explanation

The US Supreme Court established the standard of "Objective Reasonableness" for assessing the use of force. This means that the use of force by law enforcement officers should be evaluated based on what a reasonable officer would do in similar circumstances, rather than relying on subjective reasoning or personal beliefs. The standard of Objective Reasonableness helps to ensure that the use of force is justified and in line with constitutional rights.

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7. Deadly Force would be authorized to keep

Explanation

Deadly force would be authorized to prevent someone from killing you or causing you serious bodily harm. This means that if someone poses a threat to your life or physical well-being, you are allowed to use deadly force to protect yourself. This could include situations where someone is actively trying to attack or harm you, and using deadly force is necessary to defend yourself.

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8. When suspects are cooperative, andcuff them 

Explanation

When suspects are cooperative, it is generally considered appropriate to cuff them in the standing position. This allows for better control and visibility of the suspect, while also ensuring their safety and the safety of the officers involved. Cuffing a suspect in the standing position also allows for easier transportation and movement if necessary.

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9. You would use a standing search on a suspect that is 

Explanation

A standing search would be used on a suspect who is not dangerous or violent. This type of search is typically conducted when there is reasonable suspicion that the suspect may possess evidence related to a crime, but there is no immediate risk of harm or violence. It allows law enforcement to thoroughly search the suspect and their surroundings for any potential evidence without the need for physical force or restraints.

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10. OC pepper spray is a pressurized hand held weapon that is considered 

Explanation

OC pepper spray is considered non-lethal because it is designed to temporarily incapacitate an individual without causing any long-term harm or permanent damage. It is a self-defense tool that is widely used by law enforcement agencies and civilians to deter and subdue attackers. Although it can cause intense pain, burning, and temporary blindness, the effects are typically short-lived and do not pose a significant risk to life. Therefore, OC pepper spray is classified as a non-lethal weapon.

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11. If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol, you may? 

Explanation

If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol, it is important to enter the building to prevent injury or damage. This is because the cries for help indicate that someone may be in danger and immediate action is required to ensure their safety. By entering the building, you can assess the situation, provide assistance to those in need, and take necessary steps to prevent further harm or damage. It is crucial to prioritize the well-being of individuals in distress over other considerations such as waiting for the flight chief or witnessing an assault.

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12. You respond to the base housing area to remove several solicitors. You advise them that they cannot solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave an they comply. What subject action in the Use of Force is demonstrated to control the situation? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Compliant." In this scenario, the individuals complied with the officer's request to leave the base housing area. This demonstrates the use of force action of "Compliant" because the situation was resolved without any resistance or physical force being necessary.

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13. What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident? 

Explanation

If someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident, the correct course of action is to not answer the question and refer them to public affairs. This is because public affairs is responsible for handling media inquiries and providing accurate and appropriate information to the media. By referring the media to public affairs, you ensure that the information provided is accurate and consistent with official statements.

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14. One of the primary AF goals when dealing with high risk situations is to  

Explanation

The primary goal of the AF (Air Force) when dealing with high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize the loss of life and property. This means that their focus is on ensuring the safety and security of individuals and their belongings. By taking proactive measures and implementing effective strategies, the AF aims to mitigate any potential harm or damage that may arise from these risky situations. This goal aligns with their responsibility to protect and serve the public, making it a crucial objective in such circumstances.

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15. Non accidential injuries such as burns, spiral fractures of the arms legs or bruises are

Explanation

The correct answer is physical abuse. Non-accidental injuries such as burns, spiral fractures of the arms or legs, or bruises are often indicative of physical abuse. This type of abuse involves the intentional infliction of harm or injury on a person, typically by someone they know and trust. It can cause both physical and emotional trauma, and it is important to recognize the signs and intervene to protect the victim.

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16. How are vehicals selected when conduction installation entry point checks? 

Explanation

Vehicles are selected randomly during conduction installation entry point checks. This means that there is no specific pattern or criteria for selecting the vehicles to be checked. The selection process is based on chance, ensuring that all vehicles have an equal probability of being chosen for inspection.

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17. At least how many SF members must be present when conducting entry point checks? 

Explanation

When conducting entry point checks, at least two SF (Security Forces) members must be present. This ensures that there is a sufficient number of personnel to effectively carry out the checks and maintain security. Having two members also allows for better communication and coordination during the process.

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18. After you have stopped a vehicle and asked the driver for permission to examine the vehicle and the contents, before starting the base entry point check of a vehicle have the driver

Explanation

Before starting the base entry point check of a vehicle, it is necessary to turn off the vehicle for safety reasons. All other occupants should exit the vehicle to ensure their safety as well. The driver should then open the center console, glove compartment, and any other locked compartments to allow for a thorough examination of the vehicle and its contents. Finally, the driver should exit the vehicle and open the trunk to complete the base entry point check.

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19. The ultimate goal of using Pressure Point Control Tactics with IKKYO grip techniques to make an apprehension is to 

Explanation

The ultimate goal of using Pressure Point Control Tactics with IKKYO grip techniques to make an apprehension is to gain control of the suspect. This means being able to restrain and subdue the suspect effectively, ensuring that they are unable to resist or escape. By gaining control, law enforcement officers can safely and securely apprehend the suspect without causing unnecessary harm or injury.

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20. The three principle target ares when using the baton are arms, 

Explanation

The correct answer is legs, knees. When using a baton, the three principle target areas are the legs and knees. This is because striking these areas can be effective in immobilizing or disabling an attacker, making it easier to gain control of the situation. Targeting the legs and knees can also help to minimize the risk of causing severe injury or harm to the attacker.

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21. Failure to provide a child with the basic needs of life is 

Explanation

Neglect refers to the failure to provide a child with the basic needs of life. This can include neglecting to provide food, shelter, clothing, medical care, and supervision. Neglect can have serious consequences for a child's physical, emotional, and cognitive development. It is considered a form of child abuse, as it can result in significant harm to the child's well-being.

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22. Th principal methon for peacfully resolving a high risk situation is the use of 

Explanation

The principal method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation is the use of trained negotiators. Trained negotiators are skilled in communication and conflict resolution techniques, allowing them to effectively de-escalate tense situations and find peaceful resolutions. They can establish rapport with the individuals involved, listen to their concerns, and work towards a mutually beneficial solution. This approach prioritizes non-violence and aims to prevent harm to all parties involved. SWAT teams, special operations, and nuclear weapons are not suitable methods for peaceful resolution and may escalate the situation or cause unnecessary harm.

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23. The differance between a violent dispute and a verbal dispute is during a  

Explanation

In a verbal dispute, a physical assault has not occurred. This means that the disagreement or argument is limited to verbal exchanges and does not involve any physical violence or assault.

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24. What is the basic rule when photographing crime scenes when audio visual personnel are NOT available 

Explanation

When audio visual personnel are not available, the basic rule when photographing crime scenes is to photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched. This is important because it helps preserve the original state of the evidence and provides a visual record of the crime scene. By capturing photographs before any alterations are made, investigators can ensure that important details are not lost or compromised. This rule helps maintain the integrity of the evidence and allows for a thorough examination and analysis of the crime scene.

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25. When dealing with a violent disturbance SF members must immediatly  

Explanation

When dealing with a violent disturbance, it is important for SF members to separate the disputants. This is because keeping the parties involved in the disturbance apart reduces the risk of further violence or harm. By separating them, SF members can create a safe environment and prevent the situation from escalating. This allows for better control of the situation and ensures the safety of all involved.

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26. What must you do when illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check 

Explanation

When illegal contraband is discovered during an entry point check, it is necessary to stop the check and immediately apprehend/detain the individual. This is important to ensure the safety and security of the installation and to prevent any further potential harm or illegal activities. Continuing the search or impounding the vehicle may be necessary after the individual has been apprehended, but the immediate priority is to stop the check and detain the person responsible for the contraband.

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27. You should respond to an actual incident where yo can reasonably expect to encounteran armed adversary with your M-4  at port arms with the safty seletor on

Explanation

The correct answer is "safe, and your finger not in the trigger guard." This means that in a situation where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary, you should keep your M-4 at port arms with the safety selector on safe and your finger outside of the trigger guard. This ensures that the weapon is not accidentally discharged and reduces the risk of any unintentional harm.

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28. The baton is primarly used as what type of weapon? 

Explanation

The baton is primarily used as an impact weapon. It is designed to deliver powerful strikes and can cause significant injury or pain to the target. Unlike non-physical or psychological weapons, the baton relies on physical force to incapacitate or subdue an opponent. While it can be lethal if used with excessive force or in certain vulnerable areas of the body, its main purpose is to create an impact and disable the target.

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29. Which is an example of PL 1 resource? 

Explanation

The correct answer is C4 systems of active nuclear missions. PL 1 (Priority Level 1) resources are those that are critical to the national security and require the highest level of protection. C4 systems (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) of active nuclear missions fall under this category as they are essential for the functioning and control of nuclear missions. These systems play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of nuclear weapons and their deployment.

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30. What would you do if a violator stops in a area that you do not like, or is not safe? 

Explanation

Using a public address system to instruct the violator where to go is the most effective and safe option in this situation. It allows the driver to communicate with the violator from a distance, reducing the risk of confrontation or conflict. Additionally, using a public address system ensures that the message is clear and audible, making it more likely that the violator will comply with the instructions and move to a safer area.

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31. The chain of custody on the AF form 52, evidence  tag, is initiated by the

Explanation

The chain of custody on the AF form 52, evidence tag, is initiated by the person who initially received, obtained, or seized the property. This person is responsible for documenting the initial possession of the evidence and starting the chain of custody process. They are typically the first person to come into contact with the property and play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and credibility of the evidence throughout the investigation or legal proceedings.

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32. If you apprehend someone of the oppiset sex, you can search the  

Explanation

When apprehending someone of the opposite sex, it is permissible to search their outer garments and hand-carried items. This means that you can search any items they are carrying in their hands, as well as any clothing or accessories they are wearing on the outside of their body. The search does not extend to searching their person or requiring them to undress completely.

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33. As a SF member, you testify under oath, "I swa the car driven by SMSgt Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road." this is an example of 

Explanation

The given statement is an example of testimonial evidence because it is a statement made by a witness under oath. Testimonial evidence relies on the credibility and reliability of the person providing the testimony. In this case, the SF member is testifying about what they personally witnessed, making it a direct account of the events. This type of evidence is commonly used in legal proceedings to support or refute claims.

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34. Secure PL1 resources by 

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that in order to secure PL1 resources, it is important to have dedicated response elements both inside and outside the restricted area. This means that there should be designated personnel or teams responsible for responding to any security threats or breaches, both within the restricted area and in the surrounding areas. This ensures a comprehensive and coordinated approach to security, with the ability to quickly and effectively respond to any incidents that may occur.

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35. What community policy philosphy helps improve the over all quality of life in a neighborhood? 

Explanation

Developing community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. This approach promotes collaboration and engagement between the police and the community, allowing for a more tailored and effective response to community needs and concerns. It fosters trust, cooperation, and a sense of ownership among community members, leading to a safer and more harmonious neighborhood environment.

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36. Why should the Chief, SF, (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equiptment used by your civilian counterpart? 

Explanation

The Chief, SF, (CSF) should consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by their civilian counterpart because it ensures that their qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders. By using the same equipment, the Chief can demonstrate that they are following the same standards and protocols as the civilian authorities, which enhances the credibility and validity of their qualifications in legal proceedings. This also promotes cooperation and coordination between military and civil law enforcement agencies.

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37. DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket , is issued to someone who 

Explanation

DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who has committed a moving or nonmoving traffic offense. This means that the form can be issued for a variety of traffic violations, whether they involve a moving vehicle or not. The form serves as a record of the offense and may be used for administrative purposes such as imposing fines or taking further disciplinary action.

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38. In what portion of the Use of Force Model can you expect to use Physical Apprehensionand Restraint Techniques 

Explanation

In the portion of the Use of Force Model where you can expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques, it would be when dealing with individuals who are actively resisting. This means that they are physically resisting or attempting to evade arrest or control. This portion of the model is applicable when the level of resistance is higher than passive resistance but does not involve bodily harm or the threat of serious bodily harm or death.

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39. What type of spray patteren does the OC pepper spray can emit? 

Explanation

OC pepper spray can emit a cone-shaped stream. This type of spray pattern allows for a wider coverage area, making it more effective in dispersing the pepper spray and affecting multiple targets at once. The cone shape also helps to prevent the spray from being easily blown away by wind, ensuring that it reaches the intended targets.

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40. What major accident phase is a complex and time consuming operation? 

Explanation

Recovery is the correct answer because it refers to the phase after a major accident, where efforts are focused on restoring normal operations and recovering from the incident. This phase can be complex and time-consuming as it involves assessing damages, repairing systems, and implementing measures to prevent future accidents.

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41. What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your finger prints are transfered to it? 

Explanation

If you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it, the correct course of action is to record it in your notes and report it. This is important because any contamination or tampering with evidence should be documented and reported to maintain the integrity of the investigation. By recording it in your notes and reporting it, you ensure that proper procedures are followed and any potential impact on the investigation can be assessed and addressed.

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42. The success of any community policing program depends 

Explanation

The success of any community policing program depends on the extent to which the program meets the community's needs. This means that the effectiveness of the program is determined by how well it addresses and fulfills the specific requirements and expectations of the community it serves. If the program is able to meet these needs, it is more likely to be successful in building trust, improving safety, and fostering positive relationships between law enforcement and the community.

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43. Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood and alcohol content?  

Explanation

A breathalyzer is a breath instrument that uses chemicals to test blood and alcohol content. It is commonly used by law enforcement officers to determine if a person is driving under the influence of alcohol. By analyzing the breath sample, the breathalyzer can provide an estimate of the person's blood alcohol concentration (BAC). This information is crucial in enforcing drunk driving laws and ensuring public safety on the roads.

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44. How can you prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs? 

Explanation

Looping the handcuffs through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of their back can prevent them from stepping through the handcuffs. This method adds an additional restraint by connecting the handcuffs to the belt, making it more difficult for the suspect to free themselves from the restraints.

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45. When responding to a call, keep in mind that every situation is different, so the best approach is for you to be 

Explanation

In emergency situations, it is important to remain calm and positive. This helps to create a sense of reassurance and stability for the person in need, as well as for any other individuals involved. Being calm allows for clear thinking and decision-making, while a positive attitude helps to maintain a supportive and empathetic approach. This approach is more likely to lead to a successful resolution of the situation and a positive outcome for everyone involved.

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46. When you arrive at the Security Forces Control Center, after transporting someone of the oppiste gender, what information must you provide to the controller? 

Explanation

When you arrive at the Security Forces Control Center after transporting someone of the opposite gender, you must provide the controller with the time you arrived and the ending mileage reading of your vehicle. This information helps to keep a record of your arrival and the distance traveled during the transportation. It also ensures accountability and transparency in the transportation process. Providing your name and vehicle number may also be necessary for identification purposes, but the specific information required in this scenario is the time arrived and ending mileage reading.

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47. What search method is often used in outdoor areas? 

Explanation

Strip and Grid is often used as a search method in outdoor areas. This method involves dividing the area into strips or grids and systematically searching each strip or grid, ensuring that no area is left unsearched. It is commonly used in search and rescue operations, as well as in archaeological surveys and crime scene investigations. This method allows for a thorough and organized search of large outdoor areas, making it an effective approach in locating objects or individuals.

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48. What is the function of the augmentationforce if a nuclear weapon has been taken? 

Explanation

The function of the augmentation force is to assist in recapture and recovery operations. This means that their role is to help in retrieving the nuclear weapon that has been taken and to recover it safely. They would work alongside other forces to strategize and execute a plan to recapture the weapon and ensure its safe return.

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49. What is a seizure? 

Explanation

A seizure refers to the action of authorities taking an item for evidence at courts martial. This typically occurs when law enforcement or military personnel confiscate an object that is believed to be related to a crime or an offense. The purpose of the seizure is to preserve and present the item as evidence during legal proceedings.

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50. How many copies of DD form 2708, Reciept for Inmate or Detained Person, should you prepare? 

Explanation

You should prepare two copies of DD form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person. This is important to ensure that both the detainee and the detaining authority have a copy of the receipt for documentation purposes.

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51. The alert stance places your weak side toward an individual and your weapon/strong side 45 degrees away from the suspect, maintaining a distance of atleast how many feet away? 

Explanation

The alert stance is a defensive position that places your weak side towards an individual and your weapon/strong side 45 degrees away from the suspect. This position allows you to maintain a safe distance of at least 6 feet away from the suspect. By positioning yourself in this way, you are able to protect your weak side while still having your weapon ready and accessible if needed.

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52. What is a physical injury or emotional disturbance inflicted by means other than an accident called? 

Explanation

Abuse refers to a physical injury or emotional disturbance that is intentionally caused by someone, rather than being the result of an accident. It involves the mistreatment or harm inflicted on a person, often through actions such as physical violence, emotional manipulation, or sexual assault. This can occur in various contexts, including relationships, families, institutions, or even within communities.

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53. Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes? 

Explanation

OSI, or the Office of Special Investigations, is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes.

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54. You initiate  a challange on a person inside a restricted ares because he or she is not wearing there restricted area badge. What are the risk perception, subject action, and officer response actions?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the risk perception in this situation is professional perception, meaning that the officer perceives the situation as a potential risk due to the person not wearing their restricted area badge. The subject's action is compliant and cooperative, indicating that they are willing to follow the officer's instructions. The officer's response actions are also compliant and cooperative controls, meaning that they will handle the situation in a professional and non-confrontational manner.

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55. Your first task as the transporting officer is to familiarize yourself with  

Explanation

The correct answer is "vehicle, specific security devices, and security." As the transporting officer, it is important to familiarize yourself with the vehicle you will be using, as well as the specific security devices and protocols in place to ensure the safety and security of the transportation process. This includes installing any necessary security equipment in the vehicle.

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56. Who is responsible for insuring the flight is aware of the categories of suspicious terrorist activities? 

Explanation

The Flight Chief is responsible for insuring the flight is aware of the categories of suspicious terrorist activities.

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57. Handcuffing is 

Explanation

Handcuffing is the act of restraining someone's hands using handcuffs. The correct answer is "never automatic" because handcuffing requires a person to physically apply the restraints onto another person's wrists. It cannot happen automatically without human intervention.

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58. Once the inner perimeter at a high risk scene is established by SF personnel, who is allowed inside? 

Explanation

After the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene is established by SF personnel, negotiation teams are allowed inside. This is because negotiation teams are trained to handle and resolve high-risk situations, such as hostage situations or barricaded suspects. They are equipped with the skills and strategies necessary to communicate and negotiate with individuals involved in these scenarios, with the goal of achieving a peaceful resolution. Therefore, they are granted access to the inner perimeter to carry out their specialized duties.

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59. Which sentence is an example of an active voice? 

Explanation

The sentence "Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones" is an example of an active voice because the subject (Sgt Smith) is performing the action (struck) on the object (Amn Jones). In active voice, the subject of the sentence is the doer of the action.

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60. When challanging an individuals on foot, place the individuals in the final challange position. instruct them to remove and place there credentials  on the ground, and command them to turn around and walk how many paces from the credentials?

Explanation

The correct answer is 5. When challenging individuals on foot, they should be placed in the final challenge position. They should then be instructed to remove and place their credentials on the ground. After that, they should be commanded to turn around and walk 5 paces away from the credentials.

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61. What is the decesion to handcuff or not handcuff appreheanded indivudials based on? 

Explanation

The decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals is based on sound professional judgment and the facts of a specific incident. This means that law enforcement officers will assess the situation and use their expertise to determine whether handcuffing is necessary for the safety of themselves, the suspect, and others involved. They will consider factors such as the behavior and cooperation of the suspect, the presence of a weapon, and any other relevant information before making a decision.

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62. Where would the 2 person concept apply with respect to SF performing entry control duties? 

Explanation

The 2 person concept would apply in the "No lone zone" with respect to SF performing entry control duties. This means that two individuals must be present at all times in this zone to ensure safety and security. It is a measure taken to prevent any unauthorized access or potential threats.

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63. What is placed in the badge number block in the AF form 1109 when no badge is used in an area? 

Explanation

When no badge is used in an area, the badge number block in the AF form 1109 is left empty or marked as N/A (Not Applicable). This indicates that there is no specific badge associated with that particular area.

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64. For how many minutes can the affectsand symptons of OC pepper spray  last when left untreated?

Explanation

The effects and symptoms of OC pepper spray can last for up to 45 minutes when left untreated.

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65. What is the goal of imploying blast and fragment mitigation? 

Explanation

The goal of employing blast and fragment mitigation is to reduce the number of casualties associated with terrorist bombings. By implementing measures to mitigate the effects of blasts and fragments, such as using blast-resistant materials or installing protective barriers, the impact and harm caused by terrorist bombings can be minimized. This helps to save lives and prevent injuries in the event of an attack.

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66. Where do you position your position your vehicle in relation to the violators during the traffic stop 

Explanation

When conducting a traffic stop, it is important to position your vehicle in a way that ensures safety and allows for effective communication with the violators. Placing your vehicle 2 vehicle lengths behind the violators helps to maintain a safe distance and reduces the risk of collision. Positioning your vehicle 3 ft to the left allows for better visibility and provides space for you to exit your vehicle if necessary. This positioning strategy allows for a clear line of sight and minimizes potential hazards during the traffic stop.

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67. Which report is an official/permant record of events? 

Explanation

The AF form 3545 incident report is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to document and record incidents. This form is used to provide a comprehensive and official account of events, ensuring that all necessary information is recorded accurately and permanently. It serves as an official record that can be referenced in the future for investigations, legal purposes, or other official matters.

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68. The three essential areas that support "Objective Reasonableness"  are, subject action,  

Explanation

The correct answer is risk perception, officer response. "Objective Reasonableness" refers to the standard used to evaluate the actions of law enforcement officers in situations where use of force may be necessary. Risk perception refers to the officer's assessment of the threat or danger present in a situation, while officer response refers to the actions taken by the officer in response to that perceived risk. These two factors are essential in determining whether the officer's use of force was reasonable or justified.

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69. Upon what is your decesion to appreheand based? 

Explanation

Probable cause is the legal standard that justifies a law enforcement officer's decision to apprehend someone. It refers to the reasonable belief that a crime has been committed or is about to be committed, based on the available facts and circumstances. This standard requires more than just a suspicion or hunch, but less than absolute certainty. It is based on the totality of the circumstances and the officer's training and experience. Therefore, probable cause is the most appropriate basis for making an apprehension.

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70. What is the accidential or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that create risk of war are called 

Explanation

Accidental or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that creates a risk of war is called a "nucflash." This term refers to a situation where a nuclear weapon is mistakenly or unintentionally launched, potentially leading to a dangerous escalation of conflict. It highlights the grave consequences and potential for catastrophic outcomes associated with such incidents.

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71. What form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension? 

Explanation

The correct answer is AF form 3545 incident report. This form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension. It is used to document the details of the incident, including the date, time, location, and description of the apprehension. It also allows for the collection of witness statements and any evidence related to the apprehension. This form is important for maintaining a record of the incident and ensuring that proper procedures were followed.

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72. At what intervals are restricted area signs displayed along the restricted area boundary? 

Explanation

Restricted area signs are displayed along the restricted area boundary at intervals of 100ft. This means that for every 100ft of the boundary, there will be a restricted area sign to indicate the presence of the restricted area. These signs serve as a warning to individuals that they are entering a restricted area and should proceed with caution or seek permission before entering.

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73. What are two types of vehicle searches? 

Explanation

Complete and Simple are two types of vehicle searches. A complete search involves thoroughly inspecting every part of the vehicle, including the interior, exterior, and any compartments. This type of search aims to uncover any hidden or concealed items. On the other hand, a simple search is a less thorough inspection that focuses on visible areas and does not involve dismantling or extensively searching the vehicle. It is typically conducted when there is no suspicion of hidden items.

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74. What is used on AF form 3545 incident report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexually or racially motivated? 

Explanation

The correct answer is bias motivation codes. Bias motivation codes are used on AF form 3545 incident report to indicate if an offense was religious, sexually, or racially motivated. These codes help in categorizing and tracking incidents that are motivated by bias or prejudice.

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75. What type of child abuse or negelect are you dealing with if you discover parents blatently rejecting their child? 

Explanation

If parents are blatantly rejecting their child, it indicates emotional maltreatment. Emotional maltreatment refers to any behavior that harms a child's emotional well-being, including rejection, humiliation, and constant criticism. Blatant rejection by parents can have severe and long-lasting effects on a child's self-esteem, mental health, and overall development.

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76. What is used to document consent to search if an AF form 1364 is not available?

Explanation

When an AF form 1364 is not available, a plain piece of paper can be used to document consent to search. This suggests that there is no specific form required for documenting consent in this situation. The plain piece of paper serves as an alternative method for recording the individual's consent to search.

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77. Once you detect an unidentified indivudial inside the restricted area, your first action is to 

Explanation

The correct answer is to notify SFCC or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post. This is the appropriate action to take when detecting an unidentified individual inside a restricted area. It allows for immediate communication with the appropriate authorities who can then assess the situation and take further action if necessary.

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78. The type of suspect best suited for a prone search is one who 

Explanation

A suspect who is physically impaired would be best suited for a prone search because they may have difficulty standing or moving quickly. This would make it easier for law enforcement to control and search the suspect while minimizing the risk of escape or resistance.

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79. What are the two most important factors to keep in mind when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension? 

Explanation

When approaching a suspect to make an apprehension, it is crucial to consider your position and attitude. Your position refers to your physical location in relation to the suspect, ensuring that you are in a tactically advantageous position that allows for control and safety. Your attitude refers to your demeanor and behavior, maintaining a professional and authoritative approach that commands respect and compliance. These factors help to establish control over the situation and minimize potential risks or resistance from the suspect.

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80. To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspects  

Explanation

To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, it is important to keep the suspect's arm parallel to the ground. This position helps to control the suspect's movement and balance, making it easier to execute the takedown without causing harm. Keeping the arm parallel to the ground also minimizes the risk of hyperextension or other injuries to the suspect's arm.

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81. Which barrier is used against fragment/ mitigation? 

Explanation

Sandbags are commonly used as a barrier against fragmentation or to mitigate the impact of fragments. When filled with sand, they provide a sturdy and flexible structure that can absorb and disperse the energy from explosions or projectiles, preventing fragments from penetrating through. Sandbags are often used in military operations, construction sites, and flood control to create protective barriers and fortifications. They are preferred due to their affordability, availability, and ease of use.

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82. What type of padlock must be used to secure a gate for a restricted area? 

Explanation

A Type III padlock must be used to secure a gate for a restricted area. This type of padlock is specifically designed for high-security applications and provides maximum protection against unauthorized access. It is made with durable materials and features advanced locking mechanisms that are difficult to pick or tamper with. Using a Type III padlock ensures that the gate is securely locked and only authorized individuals can gain access to the restricted area.

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83. What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exibit on the walk and turn sobriety test to implicate at least  0.10 BAC? 

Explanation

To implicate at least 0.10 BAC, the suspect must exhibit a minimum of 2 clues on the walk and turn sobriety test. This implies that the suspect showed enough signs of impairment during the test to suggest a high level of alcohol in their system.

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84. Before a vehicle search you must have, probable cause, 

Explanation

Before conducting a vehicle search, it is necessary to have proper search authority, meaning that the person conducting the search must have the legal right or permission to do so. Additionally, the consent of the person controlling the vehicle is required, meaning that the person who has the authority to make decisions about the vehicle must give their permission for the search to take place.

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85. Security fences serve as a 

Explanation

Security fences serve as a legal and physical demarcation of an area boundary. This means that they not only define the legal limits of a particular area but also physically separate it from the surrounding space. The presence of a security fence acts as a clear indication that entering the enclosed area without permission is prohibited and may have legal consequences. Additionally, the physical barrier provided by the fence serves as a deterrent, making it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to access the protected area.

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86. Who is the lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occuring on or off the installation?  

Explanation

The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) is the lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occurring on or off the installation. The FBI has jurisdiction over domestic terrorism and has specialized units and resources dedicated to investigating and responding to terrorist threats and incidents. They work closely with other law enforcement agencies and intelligence organizations to gather information, conduct investigations, and apprehend individuals involved in terrorist activities. Their primary focus is to protect the United States from terrorist attacks and maintain national security.

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87. Why is it important to keep suspects and witness's seperated? 

Explanation

It is important to keep suspects and witnesses separated so that they cannot distort each other's impression. When suspects and witnesses are kept separate, they are unable to discuss the details of the case with each other, which prevents them from colluding or aligning their stories. This helps to ensure that each person's statement is based on their own recollection and perspective, increasing the likelihood of obtaining accurate and unbiased information during the investigation or trial.

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88. What must you do if you use the question and answer technique on the AF form 1168 Statement ?

Explanation

In the given question, the correct answer is "have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer." This means that when using the question and answer technique on the AF form 1168 Statement, the person giving the statement should initial after each question and answer. This helps to ensure that the person acknowledges and confirms the accuracy of the questions and answers provided in the statement.

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89. In which part of the body do you begin the prone search? 

Explanation

The prone search is a method used in search and rescue operations to locate missing persons. When beginning the prone search, it is most effective to start from the lower body and work your way up. This allows for a systematic and thorough search, ensuring that no areas are missed. Starting from the lower body also makes it easier to maintain balance and stability while searching.

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90. How are withdrawl actions accomplished at the scene of a major disaster?

Explanation

Withdrawal actions at the scene of a major disaster are accomplished by moving in the upwind or crosswind direction. This is done to ensure the safety of responders and victims by avoiding exposure to hazardous substances, such as toxic gases or chemicals, that may be present in the air. Moving in these directions helps to minimize the risk of inhaling or being affected by these substances, allowing individuals to safely evacuate or provide assistance in the aftermath of the disaster.

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91. When using the one hand grab breakaway technique, in STEP 1 youspread the fingers wide apart, and rotate your thumb and hand how many degreesover the suspects hand? 

Explanation

In the one hand grab breakaway technique, in STEP 1, you spread the fingers wide apart and rotate your thumb and hand 180 degrees over the suspect's hand.

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92. In STEP 2 of the standing arm bar, what do you place in the small on the suspects back as you mave your inside foot to the rear of the suspects feet and step to the right/left 

Explanation

In STEP 2 of the standing arm bar, you place your elbow in the small of the suspect's back as you move your inside foot to the rear of the suspect's feet and step to the right/left.

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93. Which rifle fighting technique is used to dis arm an opponent? 

Explanation

The rifle fighting technique used to disarm an opponent is the butt stroke. This involves striking the opponent with the butt of the rifle, which can be a powerful and effective way to incapacitate them and force them to release their weapon. The force of the blow can cause pain, disorientation, and potentially knock the opponent unconscious, making it easier to disarm them and gain control of the situation.

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94. What is an example of a rough grid coordinate? 

Explanation

An example of a rough grid coordinate is 3/B.

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95. Reguardless of size who establishes and controls on base cordons? 

Explanation

SF personnel, or Security Forces personnel, are responsible for establishing and controlling on-base cordons regardless of size. This means that regardless of the size of the base or the situation, it is the SF personnel who are in charge of setting up and managing cordons. They are trained in security and have the authority to control access and movement within the base.

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96. What type of barrier is typically imployed  for counter mobility or blast/fragmention, around entry control points and approach avenues?

Explanation

Jersey and Bitburg barriers are typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation purposes around entry control points and approach avenues. These barriers are designed to provide protection by absorbing and dispersing the impact of explosions or fragments. They are made of reinforced concrete and have interlocking shapes that provide stability and strength. These barriers are commonly used in military and security applications to enhance perimeter security and control access points.

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97. The fence for a restricted area must how close to firm ground? 

Explanation

The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground? The correct answer is 2 inches. This means that the bottom of the fence should be no more than 2 inches above the ground level. This ensures that there is minimal space for anything or anyone to pass through underneath the fence, maintaining the security and restriction of the area.

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98. What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesnt fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or a military department? 

Explanation

The area that contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn't fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or a military department is referred to as "National Defense." This term encompasses resources and facilities that are used for national defense purposes but are not directly controlled by the military. It includes areas such as defense research facilities, defense contractors' facilities, and other government-owned assets that are essential for national defense but are not under the direct control of the Department of Defense or any specific military department.

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99. What is the cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons? 

Explanation

The cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons is 2000 ft. This means that an area with a radius of 2000 ft around the accident site needs to be cordoned off for safety reasons. This distance is necessary to protect people from potential radiation exposure and other hazards associated with nuclear weapons accidents.

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100. Who is responsible for providing on site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time? 

Explanation

The Camper Alert Team (CAT) is responsible for providing on-site security when alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time. This team ensures that the site remains secure and alerts the necessary authorities in case of any security breaches or emergencies. The CAT is specifically trained to handle such situations and is equipped to maintain the safety and security of the area.

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101. What is the minimun number of feet from the base perimeter fro locating a restricted area fence containing PL 1 resources? 

Explanation

The minimum number of feet from the base perimeter for locating a restricted area fence containing PL 1 resources is 250. This means that the fence should be placed at least 250 feet away from the base perimeter to ensure the security and protection of the PL 1 resources within the restricted area.

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102. What is the size of an accident involving biological agents? 

Explanation

An accident involving biological agents requires a larger safety distance compared to other types of accidents due to the potential spread of harmful agents through the air. The correct answer of 2000 ft upwind and crosswind suggests that the safety zone should extend 2000 feet in both the upwind and crosswind directions. This distance is necessary to minimize the risk of exposure to the biological agents. The additional requirement of 1.5 miles downwind indicates that the safety zone should also extend 1.5 miles in the downwind direction to account for the potential dispersion of the agents over a larger area.

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103. The proper way to preforme rifle fighting techniques attack position is to place  

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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104. What is an incident involving nuclear weapons? 

Explanation

A bent spear is an incident involving nuclear weapons where there is a mishandling or a mistake in the storage, transportation, or handling of a nuclear weapon. It refers to a situation where there is a deviation from standard procedures or protocols, but there is no risk of accidental detonation. This can include incidents such as the accidental dropping of a nuclear weapon or the improper loading or unloading of a weapon from an aircraft or a missile. The term "bent spear" is used to categorize and report such incidents within the military.

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105. Who has the authority to void a DD form 1408 armed forces traffic ticket ?

Explanation

The issuing SF member or Chief, Security Forces has the authority to void a DD form 1408 armed forces traffic ticket.

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106. What is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side in a standing search 

Explanation

The correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side in a standing search is to switch hands on the linking chain, place your strong hand on the suspect's shoulder, have the suspect turn their head, and then switch your feet position. This sequence ensures that you maintain control of the suspect while positioning yourself in a more advantageous stance.

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107. The  security fence height must be how many feet above the ground surface?

Explanation

The correct answer is 7. This means that the security fence must be 7 feet above the ground surface.

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108. How many lines of detection must SF establish for a PL 1 resource? 

Explanation

SF must establish 1 line of detection at the restricted area boundary and 1 line of detection at the structure for a PL 1 resource.

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109. Which search meathod is often conducted to search a room, building, or small outdoor area search? 

Explanation

Concentric circle search method is often conducted to search a room, building, or small outdoor area. In this method, the search area is divided into concentric circles, starting from the center and expanding outwards. Searchers systematically cover each circle, moving in a spiral pattern until the entire area is searched. This method ensures thorough coverage and reduces the chances of missing any areas.

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110.  for fifle fighting techniques to be effective they must be applied with

Explanation

Effective file fighting techniques require both speed and surprise. Speed is necessary to quickly react and respond to the situation, allowing the fighter to execute their techniques swiftly and efficiently. Surprise is essential to catch the opponent off guard, preventing them from effectively countering or defending against the attacks. By combining speed and surprise, the fighter can gain an advantage over their opponent and increase the effectiveness of their techniques.

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111. Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic because 

Explanation

Shouting orders tend to antagonize motorists. This is because shouting can come across as aggressive and disrespectful, which may lead to a negative reaction from the motorists. Using verbal commands may escalate the situation and create a hostile environment, making it harder to effectively direct traffic. Therefore, it is more efficient and safer to use hand and arm signals, as they are universally understood and less likely to provoke a negative response.

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112. Who can authorize a search? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Commander having control over an area or person or property to be searched." This answer is correct because the commander who has control over the area, person, or property to be searched is the one with the authority to authorize the search. The other options, such as the Chief SF or the Staff Judge Advocate, may have certain roles or responsibilities in the search process, but they do not have the ultimate authority to authorize the search.

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113. Thw IKKYO grip is applied with two directions of pressure, In STEP 3 you apply downward pressureto the elbow with your weak handwhile rotating the elbow joint 

Explanation

In STEP 3 of the IKKYO grip, the correct application involves applying rearward pressure on the suspect's hand while pushing inward. This means that you are pulling the suspect's hand towards you while also applying pressure towards the center of their hand. This combination of rearward and inward pressure helps to control and immobilize the suspect effectively.

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114. If your report is non opinionated, fair, impartial you are fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report? 

Explanation

If your report is non opinionated, fair, and impartial, it means that you are presenting the information without any personal biases or subjective views. This aligns with the characteristic of being objective, which means that the report is based on facts and evidence rather than personal opinions or emotions.

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115. Within how many hours must you report an accident to which SF did not respond to? 

Explanation

You must report an accident to which SF did not respond to within 72 hours. This means that if the accident occurred and SF did not respond or was not involved, you have up to 72 hours to report it. Reporting the accident within this timeframe is important for documentation and insurance purposes.

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116. After you write a report the next step would be to? 

Explanation

After writing a report, the next step would be to evaluate it. This involves carefully reviewing the report to assess its content, structure, and overall effectiveness. By evaluating the report, one can identify any errors or areas that need improvement before finalizing it. This step ensures that the report meets the desired objectives and is of high quality. Organizing the facts and proofreading the report are important steps in the report writing process, but they typically occur before the evaluation stage. Putting the report together refers to the process of compiling all the necessary information and presenting it in a coherent manner, which is usually done before the evaluation step as well.

Submit
117. Which crime pervention program encourages permantly mark their high pilferage property with an Identifcation number?

Explanation

Operation identification is a crime prevention program that encourages individuals to permanently mark their high pilferage property with an identification number. This helps in deterring theft and makes it easier to track and recover stolen items. By marking their property, individuals make it less attractive for thieves to steal and easier for law enforcement to identify and return stolen items to their rightful owners.

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118. The International Diaster Control Group and higher HQ is notifed of a grace situation by the  

Explanation

The correct answer is bases established notification system. This system is responsible for notifying the International Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters about a grace situation. It is likely that this system is specifically designed and implemented within the established bases to ensure prompt and efficient communication in case of a disaster or emergency.

Submit
119. SF members should be discreet when using the siren because it 

Explanation

Using a siren frequently complicates traffic problems because it can startle and confuse other drivers on the road, causing them to panic or make sudden movements that could lead to accidents. It may also create congestion as drivers may not know how to respond or may not be able to move out of the way quickly enough. Therefore, it is important for SF members to be discreet when using the siren to minimize these potential traffic complications.

Submit
120. What does full body coverage include when you are in a contaminated area? 

Explanation

Full body coverage in a contaminated area includes a hood to cover the head, a surgical mask to cover the mouth and nose, and eye protection to shield the eyes from any potential hazards. This combination of protective gear ensures that the entire body, including the head and face, is adequately protected from contamination.

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121. What must evidence be, to be admissable in court 

Explanation

Evidence must be competent and relevant to be admissible in court. Competent evidence means that it is legally acceptable and meets the requirements set by the law, such as being obtained legally and not being hearsay. Relevant evidence means that it has a tendency to prove or disprove a fact that is in dispute in the case. Therefore, for evidence to be admissible, it must both be legally acceptable and have a direct connection to the issues being decided in the case.

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122. Which type of lighting is used to support restricted areas, other than nuclear areas, during contingency operations?  

Explanation

Special Purpose Lighting is used to support restricted areas, other than nuclear areas, during contingency operations. This type of lighting is designed specifically for certain purposes or situations, such as emergency or security lighting. It is likely to have features that make it suitable for use in restricted areas, such as being durable, weatherproof, or able to operate in harsh conditions.

Submit
123. In the double abreast position, the primary and backup patrol vehicles are positioned double abreast how many feet to the rear of the suspects vehicle? 

Explanation

In the double abreast position, the primary and backup patrol vehicles are positioned double abreast approximately 30 to 40 feet to the rear of the suspect's vehicle.

Submit
124. In what section of DD form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, would you annotate the results of the blood alcohol content of the suspect? 

Explanation

In Section III, Interview of the DD form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, you would annotate the results of the blood alcohol content of the suspect. This section is typically used to document the interview conducted with the suspect regarding the incident, including any statements made by the suspect and relevant information obtained during the interview. Annotating the blood alcohol content in this section helps to provide a comprehensive record of the incident and the suspect's involvement.

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What are the two most important factors to keep in mind when...
To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the...
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What type of padlock must be used to secure a gate for a...
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Before a vehicle search you must have, probable cause, 
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The fence for a restricted area must how close to firm ground? 
What kind of area contains federal government resources located off...
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