Security Forces CDC 5 Lev. Vol. 2

124 Questions

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What standered did the US Supreme establist for assesing the use of force? 
    • A. 

      Objective Reasonableness

    • B. 

      Subjective Reasoning

    • C. 

      Reasonable Certainty

    • D. 

      Objective Certainty

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Officer response, and force application

    • B. 

      Risk perception, officer response

    • C. 

      Force application and level of force

    • D. 

      Risk perception, and level of force

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Compliant

    • B. 

      Resistant (passive)

    • C. 

      Assaultive (bodily Harm)

    • D. 

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)

  • 4. 
    Upon contact with the solicitor,you recieve proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action is this?
    • A. 

      Verbal Controls

    • B. 

      Neuromuscular controls

    • C. 

      Baton as a leverage device

    • D. 

      MWD (off leash)

  • 5. 
    You initiate  a challange on a person inside a restricted ares because he or she is not wearing there restricted area badge. What are the risk perception, subject action, and officer response actions?
    • A. 

      Professional Perception, compliant and cooperative controls

    • B. 

      Tactical perception, resistant (passive) and Zcontact controls

    • C. 

      Threshold perception, resistant (active), and compliance techniques

    • D. 

      Harmful threat perception, assaultive (bodily harm) and defensive tactics

  • 6. 
    Deadly Force would be authorized to keep
    • A. 

      A fleeing theif from escaping

    • B. 

      Someone from breaking in to a house

    • C. 

      Someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm

    • D. 

      A traffic violator from fleeing outside the instilation gate

  • 7. 
    Deadly Force is authorized for protection of military resources 
    • A. 

      Vital to security forces

    • B. 

      Vital to national security

    • C. 

      Important to the installation

    • D. 

      Important to Major Command

  • 8. 
    Which situation would you NOT be authorized to use deadly force? 
    • A. 

      Recovery of Nuclear Wepons

    • B. 

      Keep someone from breaking into a house

    • C. 

      Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    • D. 

      Protect yourself from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Safe, and your finger not in thetrigger guard

    • B. 

      Fire and your finger not in the trigger guard

    • C. 

      Safe and your finger in the trigger guard

    • D. 

      Fire and your finger in the trigger guard

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Initate the verbal challange by loudly commanding HALT

    • B. 

      Bring your weapon to the raised pistol position and command STOP

    • C. 

      Notify SFCC or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post

    • D. 

      Take cover, charge your weapon, bring it to port arms and loudly shout halt

  • 11. 
    When challanging an individuals on foot, place the individuals in the final challange position. instruct them to remove and place there credentials  on the ground, and command them to turn around and walk how many paces from the credentials?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9

  • 12. 
    What is the decesion to handcuff or not handcuff appreheanded indivudials based on? 
    • A. 

      Level of cooperation of suspect

    • B. 

      Certain rules and defined criteria

    • C. 

      Weather the person has a weapon

    • D. 

      Sound professional judgment and facts of a specific incident

  • 13. 
    Handcuffing is 
    • A. 

      Sometimes automatic

    • B. 

      Always automatic

    • C. 

      Slightly automatic

    • D. 

      Never automatic

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Apply the handcuffs very tightly to restrict movement

    • B. 

      Lock both handcuffs after applying them on the suspect

    • C. 

      Loop the cuffs through the front of the belt just below the small of the back

    • D. 

      Loop the cuffs through the suspects belt at a point below the small of his or her back

  • 15. 
    The alert stance places your weak side toward an individual and your weapon/strong side 45 degrees away from the suspect, maintaining a distance of atleast how many feet away? 
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      12

  • 16. 
    When suspects are cooperative, andcuff them 
    • A. 

      On the ground

    • B. 

      In the standing position

    • C. 

      In the kneeling position

    • D. 

      On a wall or vertical position

  • 17. 
    You would use a standing search on a suspect that is 
    • A. 

      Dangerous

    • B. 

      Violent

    • C. 

      Not dangerous or violent

    • D. 

      Of the oppiset sex

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Place your strong hnd on the suspects shoulder, switch hands on the linking chain, have the suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position

    • B. 

      Place your strong hand on the suspects shoulder, have suspect turn head, switch hands on linking chain, then switch your feet position

    • C. 

      Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspects shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch feet position

    • D. 

      Switch hands on linking chain, have suspect turn head, place strong hand on suspects shoulder, then switch feet position

  • 19. 
    The type of suspect best suited for a prone search is one who 
    • A. 

      Is cooperative

    • B. 

      Is bigger than you

    • C. 

      Doesnt speak english

    • D. 

      Is physically impaired

  • 20. 
    In which part of the body do you begin the prone search? 
    • A. 

      Head area

    • B. 

      Back area

    • C. 

      Upper body

    • D. 

      Lower body

  • 21. 
    If you apprehend someone of the oppiset sex, you can search the  
    • A. 

      The person and the outer garments and hand carried items

    • B. 

      Outer garments and hand carried items

    • C. 

      Clothing after you have them disrobe

    • D. 

      Person

  • 22. 
    Your first task as the transporting officer is to familiarize yourself with  
    • A. 

      A specific security instruction

    • B. 

      Vehicle checklist for saftey and security

    • C. 

      Vehicle by installing your security equipment

    • D. 

      Vehicle, specific security devices, and security

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Name and SSN of suspect

    • B. 

      Time departed and distance traveled

    • C. 

      Time arrived and ending mileage reading

    • D. 

      Your name and your vehicle number

  • 24. 
    In what portion of the Use of Force Model can you expect to use Physical Apprehensionand Restraint Techniques 
    • A. 

      Resistant (passive)

    • B. 

      Resistant (active)

    • C. 

      Assualtive (bodily harm)

    • D. 

      Assualtive (serious bodily harm/death)

  • 25. 
    When using the one hand grab breakaway technique, in STEP 1 youspread the fingers wide apart, and rotate your thumb and hand how many degreesover the suspects hand? 
    • A. 

      45

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      120

    • D. 

      180

  • 26. 
    Upon what is your decesion to appreheand based? 
    • A. 

      Circumstance

    • B. 

      Suspects activity

    • C. 

      Probable Cause

    • D. 

      Reasonable cause

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Suspects position and attitude

    • B. 

      Your position and attitude

    • C. 

      Assisting members overwatch position

    • D. 

      Your position and avaiable cover and concealment

  • 28. 
    The ultimate goal of using Pressure Point Control Tactics with IKKYO grip techniques to make an apprehension is to 
    • A. 

      Disable your suspect

    • B. 

      Immobilize your suspect

    • C. 

      Gain control of your suspect

    • D. 

      Do bodily harm and gain control

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Forward while pushing inward on teh suspects hand

    • B. 

      Rearward while pushing inward on the suspects hand

    • C. 

      Inward while pushing inward on the suspects hand

    • D. 

      Outward while pushing inward on the suspects hand

  • 30. 
    In STEP 2 of the standing arm bar, what do you place in the small on the suspects back as you mave your inside foot to the rear of the suspects feet and step to the right/left 
    • A. 

      Shoulder

    • B. 

      Forearm

    • C. 

      Elbow

    • D. 

      Hand

  • 31. 
    To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspects  
    • A. 

      Elbow extended annd toward the ground

    • B. 

      Arm straight and toward the ground

    • C. 

      Elbow parallel to the ground

    • D. 

      Arm parallel to the ground

  • 32. 
    The three principle target ares when using the baton are arms, 
    • A. 

      Head, knees

    • B. 

      Legs, knees

    • C. 

      Knees, ankles

    • D. 

      Head, legs

  • 33. 
    The baton is primarly used as what type of weapon? 
    • A. 

      Non physical

    • B. 

      Psycological

    • C. 

      Impact

    • D. 

      Lethal

  • 34. 
    For how many minutes can the affectsand symptons of OC pepper spray  last when left untreated?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      90

  • 35. 
    OC pepper spray is a pressurized hand held weapon that is considered 
    • A. 

      Lethal

    • B. 

      Non lethal

    • C. 

      Deadly force

    • D. 

      Maximum use of force

  • 36. 
    What type of spray patteren does the OC pepper spray can emit? 
    • A. 

      Solid stream

    • B. 

      Straight stream

    • C. 

      Cone shaped stream

    • D. 

      Intermittent streams

  • 37. 
     for fifle fighting techniques to be effective they must be applied with
    • A. 

      Suprise and accuracy

    • B. 

      Speed and accuracy

    • C. 

      Speed and suprise

    • D. 

      Speed and quickness

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      Your hand on the rifle hand guard, and right hand on the top of the rifle stock as clost to the charging handle as possible

    • B. 

      Left hand on the rifle hand guard and right haand on top of the rifle stock as close to the rifle charging handle as possible

    • C. 

      The either hand below the hand guard and the right hand on the rifle stock as close to the charging handle as possible

    • D. 

      The left hand on the rifle hand guard and the right hand under the rifle stock by the charging handle if possible

  • 39. 
    Which rifle fighting technique is used to dis arm an opponent? 
    • A. 

      Slash

    • B. 

      Smash

    • C. 

      Thrust

    • D. 

      Butt stroke

  • 40. 
    What is an example of a rough grid coordinate? 
    • A. 

      3/B

    • B. 

      B/3

    • C. 

      E3/4.2

    • D. 

      4.2/E3

  • 41. 
    What is an incident involving nuclear weapons? 
    • A. 

      Broken arrow

    • B. 

      Bent spear

    • C. 

      Dull sword

    • D. 

      Nucflash

  • 42. 
    What is the accidential or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that create risk of war are called 
    • A. 

      Broken arrow

    • B. 

      Bent spear

    • C. 

      Dull sword

    • D. 

      Nucflash

  • 43. 
    The International Diaster Control Group and higher HQ is notifed of a grace situation by the  
    • A. 

      Security reporting and alerting system

    • B. 

      Intra base disaster notification system

    • C. 

      Bases established notification system

    • D. 

      Accident response force telephone system

  • 44. 
    How are withdrawl actions accomplished at the scene of a major disaster?
    • A. 

      Downwind or crosswind direction

    • B. 

      Downwind or crosswind direction

    • C. 

      Upwind or crosswind direction

    • D. 

      As fast as possible

  • 45. 
    What major accident phase is a complex and time consuming operation? 
    • A. 

      Notification

    • B. 

      Withdrawl

    • C. 

      Response

    • D. 

      Recovery

  • 46. 
    What is the cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons? 
    • A. 

      1500 ft

    • B. 

      2000 ft

    • C. 

      1500 ft upwind and crosswind and 1 mile downwind

    • D. 

      2000 ft upwind and crosswind and 1 mile downwind

  • 47. 
    What is the size of an accident involving biological agents? 
    • A. 

      1500 ft upwind and crosswind

    • B. 

      2000 ft upwind and crosswind

    • C. 

      1500 ft upwind and crosswind and 1.5 miles downwind

    • D. 

      2000 ft upwind and crosswind and 1.5 miles downwind

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      SF personnel

    • B. 

      Fire chief

    • C. 

      On scene commander

    • D. 

      Installation Commander

  • 49. 
    What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident? 
    • A. 

      Do not answer the question and detain them

    • B. 

      Do not answer the question and refer them to public affairs

    • C. 

      Make a breif comment and refer them to public affairs

    • D. 

      Make a breif comment and refer them to the Installation commander

  • 50. 
    One of the primary AF goals when dealing with high risk situations is to  
    • A. 

      Let the FBI or CIA take charge and the situation

    • B. 

      Prevent or minamize loss of life and property

    • C. 

      Nutralize the perpatraitors using deadly force

    • D. 

      Not yeild to civilian authorties

  • 51. 
    Who is the lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occuring on or off the installation?  
    • A. 

      FBI

    • B. 

      OSI

    • C. 

      CIA

    • D. 

      Department of Justice

  • 52. 
    Th principal methon for peacfully resolving a high risk situation is the use of 
    • A. 

      Trained negotiators

    • B. 

      Swat teams

    • C. 

      Special operations

    • D. 

      Nuclear weapons

  • 53. 
    Once the inner perimeter at a high risk scene is established by SF personnel, who is allowed inside? 
    • A. 

      Medical emergency services

    • B. 

      Base fire department

    • C. 

      Negotation teams

    • D. 

      Base chaplin

  • 54. 
    What is a physical injury or emotional disturbance inflicted by means other than an accident called? 
    • A. 

      Abuse

    • B. 

      Negelect

    • C. 

      Abandonment

    • D. 

      Domestic Violence

  • 55. 
    Failure to provide a child with the basic needs of life is 
    • A. 

      Abuse

    • B. 

      Negelect

    • C. 

      Abandoment

    • D. 

      Domestic violence

  • 56. 
    Punching kicking beating stabbing are examples of 
    • A. 

      Sexual battering

    • B. 

      Physical battering

    • C. 

      Psycological battering

    • D. 

      Emotional maltreatment

  • 57. 
    Non accidential injuries such as burns, spiral fractures of the arms legs or bruises are
    • A. 

      Sexual abuse

    • B. 

      Physical abuse

    • C. 

      Sexual battering

    • D. 

      Psycological battering

  • 58. 
    What type of child abuse or negelect are you dealing with if you discover parents blatently rejecting their child? 
    • A. 

      Sexual

    • B. 

      Negelect

    • C. 

      Physical

    • D. 

      Emotional maltreatment

  • 59. 
    When responding to a call, keep in mind that every situation is different, so the best approach is for you to be 
    • A. 

      Passive and subservient

    • B. 

      Forceful and dominate

    • C. 

      Calm and positive

    • D. 

      Laid back

  • 60. 
    What form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension? 
    • A. 

      AF form 3545 incident report

    • B. 

      AF form 1364 consent to search and seize

    • C. 

      AF form 1168 statment

    • D. 

      AF form 1176 authority to search and seize

  • 61. 
    When dealing with a violent disturbance SF members must immediatly  
    • A. 

      Search for weapons

    • B. 

      Seperate disputants

    • C. 

      Seek medical attention

    • D. 

      Put disputants in a room

  • 62. 
    The differance between a violent dispute and a verbal dispute is during a  
    • A. 

      Verbal dispute a physical assault has not occured

    • B. 

      Violent dispute a verbal assault has not occured

    • C. 

      Verbal dispute disputants are not easy to control

    • D. 

      Violent dispute disputants are easy to control

  • 63. 
    How are vehicals selected when conduction installation entry point checks? 
    • A. 

      Randomly

    • B. 

      Every hour

    • C. 

      Every half hour

    • D. 

      Personal formula

  • 64. 
    At least how many SF members must be present when conducting entry point checks? 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 65. 
    After you have stopped a vehicle and asked the driver for permission to examine the vehicle and the contents, before starting the base entry point check of a vehicle have the driver
    • A. 

      Leave enging running, have occupants stay in the vehicle have driver secure center console glove compartment, exit vehicle

    • B. 

      Turn off the engine, have front seat occupants exit vehicle only,have driver open glove compartment and exit vehicle

    • C. 

      Leave engine on, have rear seat occupants exit the vehicle, have driver open center console, glove compartment, exi vehicle and open trunk

    • D. 

      Turn off the vehicle, have all other occupants exit the vehicle, have the driver open the center console, glove compartment, exit vehicle and open trunk and any other locked compartment

  • 66. 
    What must you do when illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check 
    • A. 

      Stop the check and immediatly appreheand/ detain indivudial

    • B. 

      Seize the contraband, and refuse entry to the installation

    • C. 

      Continue searching the vehicle for more contraband

    • D. 

      Impound the vehicle immediatly

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      Suspect, search authority, and owners consent

    • B. 

      Suspect, and consent of person controlling the vehicle

    • C. 

      Proper search authority, and written consent of the person driving the vehicle

    • D. 

      Proper search authority, and consent of person controlling the vehicle

  • 68. 
    What are two types of vehicle searches? 
    • A. 

      Complete and Simple

    • B. 

      Systematic and Simple

    • C. 

      Complete and Thorough

    • D. 

      Systematic and Thorough

  • 69. 
    Which search meathod is often conducted to search a room, building, or small outdoor area search? 
    • A. 

      Item to item

    • B. 

      Concentric circle

    • C. 

      Zone or sector

    • D. 

      Strip and grid

  • 70. 
    What search method is often used in outdoor areas? 
    • A. 

      Concentric circle

    • B. 

      Item to item

    • C. 

      Zone or sector

    • D. 

      Strip and Grid

  • 71. 
    If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol, you may? 
    • A. 

      Enter the building to prevent injury or damage

    • B. 

      Enter the building only to identify suspects

    • C. 

      Not enter untill flight chief arrives

    • D. 

      Not enter untill you witness an assault

  • 72. 
    Why is it important to keep suspects and witness's seperated? 
    • A. 

      So you can interrogate them alone to get the truth

    • B. 

      So you cannot distort each others impression

    • C. 

      So you can plea bargin with them

    • D. 

      Standing orders

  • 73. 
    What does full body coverage include when you are in a contaminated area? 
    • A. 

      Gloves, surgical mask, and booties

    • B. 

      Gloves, outer garments, and eye protection

    • C. 

      Booties, outer garments, and eye protection

    • D. 

      Hood, surgical mask, and eye protection

  • 74. 
    What is the basic rule when photographing crime scenes when audio visual personnel are NOT available 
    • A. 

      Time is not an important element to consider when dealing with fragil evidence

    • B. 

      Do not try to keep extranous articles out of photographs

    • C. 

      Photograph all evedince before anything is moved or touched

    • D. 

      Take at least two photographs of each item of evidence

  • 75. 
    As a SF member, you testify under oath, "I swa the car driven by SMSgt Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road." this is an example of 
    • A. 

      Real evidence

    • B. 

      Direct evidence

    • C. 

      Testimonial evidence

    • D. 

      Documentry evidence

  • 76. 
    What must evidence be, to be admissable in court 
    • A. 

      Real and relevant

    • B. 

      Relevant and direct

    • C. 

      Direct and competent

    • D. 

      Competent and relevant

  • 77. 
    What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your finger prints are transfered to it? 
    • A. 

      Just wipe your prints off

    • B. 

      Disregard it completely

    • C. 

      Inform your supervisor or leader

    • D. 

      Record it in your notes and report

  • 78. 
    What is the goal of imploying blast and fragment mitigation? 
    • A. 

      Negate potential terrorist threats

    • B. 

      Cover vunrabilities in the perimeter

    • C. 

      Intercept the threat and act first against terrorist

    • D. 

      Reduce the number of casualties associated with terrorist bombings

  • 79. 
    What type of barrier is typically imployed  for counter mobility or blast/fragmention, around entry control points and approach avenues?
    • A. 

      Sandbags

    • B. 

      Earth filled barriers

    • C. 

      Jersey and Bitburg barriers

    • D. 

      Water or sand filled barriers

  • 80. 
    Which barrier is used against fragment/ mitigation? 
    • A. 

      Bitberg

    • B. 

      Sandbag

    • C. 

      Container style

    • D. 

      Water or sand filled plastic

  • 81. 
    Which is an example of PL 1 resource? 
    • A. 

      Nonnuclear alert forces

    • B. 

      C4 systems of active nuclear missions

    • C. 

      Selected C3 facilities, systems , and equiptment

    • D. 

      Fuels and Liquid Oxygen storage areas

  • 82. 
    What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesnt fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or a military department? 
    • A. 

      Controlled

    • B. 

      Restricted

    • C. 

      Disaster Response

    • D. 

      National Defense

  • 83. 
    Secure PL1 resources by 
    • A. 

      Providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area

    • B. 

      Post sentries when IDS is not installed or operational

    • C. 

      Ensuring proper training of assigned personnel

    • D. 

      Posting external response forces

  • 84. 
    What is the function of the augmentationforce if a nuclear weapon has been taken? 
    • A. 

      To protect the remaining nuclear weapons that have not been taken

    • B. 

      Let the response force and the backup force handle the situation

    • C. 

      To set up base defense positions around the perimeter

    • D. 

      To assist in recapture and recovery operations

  • 85. 
    Who is responsible for providing on site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time? 
    • A. 

      2 person SRT (DOD UCNI)

    • B. 

      3 person SRT (DOD UCNI)

    • C. 

      Mobile fire team (MFT) (DOD UCNI)

    • D. 

      Camper alert team (CAT) (DOD UCNI)

  • 86. 
    Where would the 2 person concept apply with respect to SF performing entry control duties? 
    • A. 

      No lone zone

    • B. 

      Restricted zone

    • C. 

      Controlled area

    • D. 

      2 Person zone

  • 87. 
    Security fences serve as a 
    • A. 

      Legal and physical demarcation of an area boundry

    • B. 

      Legal and warning demarcation of an area boundry

    • C. 

      Warning and deterrent demarcation of an area boundry

    • D. 

      Phisical and deterrent demarcation of an area boundry

  • 88. 
    The  security fence height must be how many feet above the ground surface?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      15

  • 89. 
    The fence for a restricted area must how close to firm ground? 
    • A. 

      Ground level

    • B. 

      1 inch

    • C. 

      2 inches

    • D. 

      3 inches

  • 90. 
    What is the minimun number of feet from the base perimeter fro locating a restricted area fence containing PL 1 resources? 
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      225

    • C. 

      250

    • D. 

      275

  • 91. 
    What type of padlock must be used to secure a gate for a restricted area? 
    • A. 

      Type I

    • B. 

      Type III

    • C. 

      Type VI

    • D. 

      Type VII

  • 92. 
    Which type of lighting is used to support restricted areas, other than nuclear areas, during contingency operations?  
    • A. 

      Area lighting

    • B. 

      Boundary lighting

    • C. 

      Special Purpous Lighting

    • D. 

      Very near infrared

  • 93. 
    At what intervals are restricted area signs displayed along the restricted area boundary? 
    • A. 

      25ft

    • B. 

      50ft

    • C. 

      75ft

    • D. 

      100ft

  • 94. 
    • A. 

      1 line at structure or exposed areas

    • B. 

      2 lines at restricted area boundary only

    • C. 

      1 line at restricted area boundary and 1 line at the structure

    • D. 

      2 lines at the restricted area boundary and 2 lines at the structure

  • 95. 
    • A. 

      A zero tolerance policy to handling crime

    • B. 

      The police getting involved in youth programs

    • C. 

      The police handling random calls to solve community problems

    • D. 

      Develope community relationships that allow toe community a greater voice in setting police priorities

  • 96. 
    The success of any community policing program depends 
    • A. 

      On whether or not the chief of SF is involved

    • B. 

      On the extent to which the program meets the community's needs

    • C. 

      Whether or not all the needs of the community were identified on a survey

    • D. 

      To which degree SF personnel handle their own problems

  • 97. 
    Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes? 
    • A. 

      SF Investigations

    • B. 

      OSI

    • C. 

      Installation Security Council

    • D. 

      Resource Protection Committee

  • 98. 
    Who is responsible for insuring the flight is aware of the categories of suspicious terrorist activities? 
    • A. 

      Flight Chief

    • B. 

      Area Leader

    • C. 

      Area Supervisor

    • D. 

      Flight Commander

  • 99. 
    Which crime pervention program encourages permantly mark their high pilferage property with an Identifcation number?
    • A. 

      Citizen awareness

    • B. 

      Crime hazard reminder

    • C. 

      Operation identification

    • D. 

      Crime hazard identification

  • 100. 
    SF members should be discreet when using the siren because it 
    • A. 

      Slows your pursuit down

    • B. 

      Warns offenders you are coming

    • C. 

      Gains the attention of the violator

    • D. 

      Frequently complicates traffic problems

  • 101. 
    What would you do if a violator stops in a area that you do not like, or is not safe? 
    • A. 

      Move your vehicle infront of the violators and tell same to follow you

    • B. 

      Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go

    • C. 

      Signal the violator with your emergency lights and siren to move

    • D. 

      Signal the driver using your hand and arm signals to follow you

  • 102. 
    Where do you position your position your vehicle in relation to the violators during the traffic stop 
    • A. 

      2 vehicle lengths behind and 3 ft to the left

    • B. 

      2 vehicle lengths behind and 2 ft to the left

    • C. 

      3 vehicle lengths behind and 3 ft to the left

    • D. 

      3 vehicle lengths behind and 2 ft to the left

  • 103. 
    When contacting the violator during a traffic stop, an exigent circumstance would be speeding to  
    • A. 

      Get your mother to work

    • B. 

      Get your daughter to school

    • C. 

      Get your pregnat wife to the hospital

    • D. 

      See if your new car would actually do 100 MPH

  • 104. 
    In the double abreast position, the primary and backup patrol vehicles are positioned double abreast how many feet to the rear of the suspects vehicle? 
    • A. 

      10 to 20

    • B. 

      20 to 30

    • C. 

      30 to 40

    • D. 

      40 to 50

  • 105. 
    Within how many hours must you report an accident to which SF did not respond to? 
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      72

  • 106. 
    Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic because 
    • A. 

      Motorist will start shouting back

    • B. 

      Hand and arm signals are sufficient

    • C. 

      Sometimes they are difficult to hear

    • D. 

      Shouting orders tend to antagonize motorists

  • 107. 
    What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exibit on the walk and turn sobriety test to implicate at least  0.10 BAC? 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 108. 
    Why should the Chief, SF, (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equiptment used by your civilian counterpart? 
    • A. 

      So military personnel are certified by the state

    • B. 

      To ensure that you understand how the local and state lawenforcement police operate

    • C. 

      To boost morale and get rid of outdated and antiquated hand held speed measuring devices

    • D. 

      So your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to proscute offenders

  • 109. 
    Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood and alcohol content?  
    • A. 

      Intoxilyzer

    • B. 

      Alco-sensor

    • C. 

      Breathalyzer

    • D. 

      Breathometer

  • 110. 
    After you write a report the next step would be to? 
    • A. 

      Organize the facts

    • B. 

      Evaluate the report

    • C. 

      Proofread the report

    • D. 

      Put the report together

  • 111. 
    Which report is an official/permant record of events? 
    • A. 

      AF form 3545 incident report

    • B. 

      AF form 1315 vehicle accident report

    • C. 

      DD form 1920 alcohol incident report

    • D. 

      AF from 1168 statement

  • 112. 
    If your report is non opinionated, fair, impartial you are fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report? 
    • A. 

      Concise

    • B. 

      Accurate

    • C. 

      Objective

    • D. 

      Complete

  • 113. 
    Which sentence is an example of an active voice? 
    • A. 

      Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones.

    • B. 

      The report was written by Amn Smith.

    • C. 

      Amn Jones was apprehended by Sgt Smith.

    • D. 

      The suspects were surroundedby SF personnel.

  • 114. 
    What is used on AF form 3545 incident report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexually or racially motivated? 
    • A. 

      Offense codes

    • B. 

      Involvement codes

    • C. 

      Bias motovation codes

    • D. 

      Offense statutory basis

  • 115. 
    What must you do if you use the question and answer technique on the AF form 1168 Statement ?
    • A. 

      Have a witness to the statement initial all questions and answers

    • B. 

      Have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer

    • C. 

      You cant do it. this technique is never authorized for SF on a statement

    • D. 

      Have the person giving the statement sign a written agreement to using this technique

  • 116. 
    The chain of custody on the AF form 52, evidence  tag, is initiated by the
    • A. 

      Property custodian

    • B. 

      Chief investigator

    • C. 

      First person who noticed the property

    • D. 

      Person who initially recieved, obtained, or seized the property

  • 117. 
    What is placed in the badge number block in the AF form 1109 when no badge is used in an area? 
    • A. 

      N/A

    • B. 

      Authorized

    • C. 

      Badge not used

    • D. 

      Authorized without badge

  • 118. 
    DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket , is issued to someone who 
    • A. 

      Committed a moving violation

    • B. 

      Committed a non moving traffic violation

    • C. 

      Has been involved in a vehicle accident

    • D. 

      Committed a moving or nonmoving traffic offense

  • 119. 
    Who has the authority to void a DD form 1408 armed forces traffic ticket ?
    • A. 

      Chief, Security Forces

    • B. 

      Issuing SF Member

    • C. 

      First Sergeant or Ops Superintendent

    • D. 

      Issuing SF member or Chief, Security Forces

  • 120. 
    What is a seizure? 
    • A. 

      Taking control of personal effects

    • B. 

      Personally holding contraband evidence

    • C. 

      The taking of evidence by SF members for your personal use

    • D. 

      The taking of an item by authorities for evidence at courts martial

  • 121. 
    Who can authorize a search? 
    • A. 

      Commander having control over an areaor person or property to be searched

    • B. 

      Chief SF, having control over an area or person to be searched

    • C. 

      Installation Chief SF,and Staff Judge Advocate

    • D. 

      Installation Commander or Staff Judge Advocate

  • 122. 
    What is used to document consent to search if an AF form 1364 is not available?
    • A. 

      Nothing

    • B. 

      AF form 52

    • C. 

      AF form 1176

    • D. 

      Plain piece of paper

  • 123. 
    • A. 

      Section I, Observations

    • B. 

      Section II, Performance Tests

    • C. 

      Section III, Interview

    • D. 

      Section IV, Chemical Test Data

  • 124. 
    How many copies of DD form 2708, Reciept for Inmate or Detained Person, should you prepare? 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4