(206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is...
(203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate...
(224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?
(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID)...
(209) Rules of engagement are the commander's rules for
(205) "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing...
(219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with...
(206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist...
(208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature...
(205) What is the Navy's largest formation?
(206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates...
(221) In fire and maneuver operations, most of the maneuvering forces...
(219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground...
(207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small...
(204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are...
(222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise...
(209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
(201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to
(220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or...
(213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be...
(206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final...
(216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must...
(223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical...
(217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be...
(213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after...
(217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs)...
(206) Generally, specially trained terrorist are of above average...
(211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and...
(223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units...
(204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of...
(224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?
(204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as...
(207) Which threat level 1 activity is identified by random acts...
(226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
(227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate...
(205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force...
(203) What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts...
(214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security...
(223) Due to the nature of the responsibilities, a BDOC is...
(211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for...
(217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
(203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve...
(208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of...
(213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately...
(210) When the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an...
(210) What unit type code, when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS,...
(216) If an emergency arises that requires and evacuation and all...
(209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against...
(211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?
(221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning...
(207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size...
(223) Who does the BDOC controller filter information up to?
(224) Which firing element has an engagement priority of groups of...
(225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
(216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to...
(214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept...
(221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is...
(215) "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view,...
(208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is...
(225) The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element...
(214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
(215) The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating,...
(218) The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be...
(216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form
(216) One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion...
(217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
(212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
(218) (DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on...
(222) Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the...
(208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
(217) Which of these is not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?
(213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many...
(204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy...
(201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary...
(214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the...
(221) What type of danger area would be passed on the downwind side?
(202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or...
(212) A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has...
(217) Where would you find a weapon security vault?
(220) How many categories of patrols are there?
(212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many...
(222) What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph...
(224) By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security...
(227) When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the...
(218) How many types of nuclear movements are there on an...
(214) What is essential to our security?
(220) Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
(201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated...
(227) Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight...
(217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary...
(214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear...
(215) The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA)...
(226) Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post...
(210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many...
(217) What is a type II security forces composition?
(215) How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in...
(216) The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the
(214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which...
(218) Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to...
(226) Which close precision engagement (cpe) task provides the...