3P071 - Security Forces Craftsman: Volume 2. Integrated Defense - Edit Code 06

100 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?
    • A. 

      Security Forces

    • B. 

      Intelligence fusion cell

    • C. 

      Other Air Force members

    • D. 

      Air Force Office of Special Investigations

  • 2. 
    (201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except...
    • A. 

      Focused logistics

    • B. 

      Full dimensional protection

    • C. 

      Capabilities for dominating mass

    • D. 

      Concept of the full spectrum dominance

  • 3. 
    (201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to
    • A. 

      Deny

    • B. 

      Deter

    • C. 

      Delay

    • D. 

      Defuse

  • 4. 
    (201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the...
    • A. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Defense Force Commander

    • D. 

      Integrated Defense Working Group

  • 5. 
    (202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as...
    • A. 

      Conventional weapons

    • B. 

      Mission support assets

    • C. 

      Power projection assets

    • D. 

      Non-nuclear weapon systems

  • 6. 
    (203) What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for"?
    • A. 

      Integrated Defense Plan

    • B. 

      Integrated Defense Concepts

    • C. 

      Integrated Defense Security Systems

    • D. 

      Integrated Defense Risk Management Process

  • 7. 
    (203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units...
    • A. 

      Only if the installation is a full time reserve or guard installation/unit

    • B. 

      Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources

    • C. 

      Only if the installation has non-Protection Level (PL) resources

    • D. 

      Only during war

  • 8. 
    (203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?
    • A. 

      Physical barriers

    • B. 

      Night vision device

    • C. 

      Infrared imaging device

    • D. 

      Closed-circuit television

  • 9. 
    (204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as...
    • A. 

      A safe area

    • B. 

      A search area

    • C. 

      A denial area

    • D. 

      An exclusion area

  • 10. 
    (204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
    • A. 

      Parking area

    • B. 

      Staging area

    • C. 

      Overwatch

    • D. 

      Search pit

  • 11. 
    (204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and...
    • A. 

      Separating the enemy from vehicle support when they are using mounted operations

    • B. 

      Channeling the enemy into places where they can more easily be engaged

    • C. 

      Protecting defending units

    • D. 

      Isolating objectives

  • 12. 
    (204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are...
    • A. 

      Existing and reinforcing

    • B. 

      Disrupting and turning

    • C. 

      Blocking and turning

    • D. 

      Turning and fixing

  • 13. 
    (205) "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the...
    • A. 

      Army

    • B. 

      Navy

    • C. 

      Air Force

    • D. 

      Marine Corps

  • 14. 
    (205) What is the Navy's largest formation?
    • A. 

      Fleet

    • B. 

      Flotilla

    • C. 

      Task Force

    • D. 

      Strike Group

  • 15. 
    (205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force...
    • A. 

      Squadron

    • B. 

      Group

    • C. 

      Flight

    • D. 

      Wing

  • 16. 
    (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
    • A. 

      Non-state-supported

    • B. 

      State-supported

    • C. 

      State-organized

    • D. 

      State-directed

  • 17. 
    (206) Generally, specially trained terrorist are of above average intelligence and between the ages of...
    • A. 

      16 and 24

    • B. 

      21 and 28

    • C. 

      23 and 30

    • D. 

      25 and 32

  • 18. 
    (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
    • A. 

      Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals

    • B. 

      One week prior to scheduled attack execution

    • C. 

      Just before departing for the target

    • D. 

      Before executing the attack

  • 19. 
    (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is...
    • A. 

      Arson

    • B. 

      Bombing

    • C. 

      Hijacking

    • D. 

      Assassination

  • 20. 
    (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
    • A. 

      Activity

    • B. 

      Intentions

    • C. 

      Operation capability

    • D. 

      Operating environment

  • 21. 
    (207) Which threat level 1 activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
    • A. 

      Agent activity

    • B. 

      Sympathizers

    • C. 

      Terrorists

    • D. 

      Partisans

  • 22. 
    (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?
    • A. 

      Agent activity

    • B. 

      Sympathizers

    • C. 

      Terrorists

    • D. 

      Partisans

  • 23. 
    (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 24. 
    (208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
    • A. 

      Deter

    • B. 

      Detect

    • C. 

      Defuse

    • D. 

      Mitigate

  • 25. 
    (208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is...
    • A. 

      A classified protection plan

    • B. 

      An offensive force protection plan

    • C. 

      A defensive force protection plan

    • D. 

      Protecting sensitive information

  • 26. 
    (208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?
    • A. 

      Cover, Camouflage, and deception

    • B. 

      Concealing camouflage deceitfully

    • C. 

      Deceptive camouflage concealment

    • D. 

      Camouflage, concealment, deception

  • 27. 
    (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?
    • A. 

      Disguise

    • B. 

      Decoy

    • C. 

      Blend

    • D. 

      Hide

  • 28. 
    (209) Rules of engagement are the commander's rules for
    • A. 

      Mission requirements

    • B. 

      National policy goals

    • C. 

      The use of force

    • D. 

      The rule of law

  • 29. 
    (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
    • A. 

      Legal

    • B. 

      Policy

    • C. 

      Military

    • D. 

      Civilian

  • 30. 
    (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?
    • A. 

      Hostile act

    • B. 

      Hostile Force

    • C. 

      Hostile intent

    • D. 

      Elements of self-defense

  • 31. 
    (210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 32. 
    (210) When the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at
    • A. 

      Any level

    • B. 

      Unit level

    • C. 

      MAJCOM level

    • D. 

      Air Staff level only

  • 33. 
    (210) What unit type code, when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 - 180) deployed Security Forces unit?
    • A. 

      QFEBU

    • B. 

      QFEPR

    • C. 

      QFEBF

    • D. 

      QFEBA

  • 34. 
    (211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?
    • A. 

      Five

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Two

  • 35. 
    (211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?
    • A. 

      Deployment

    • B. 

      Employment

    • C. 

      Re-deployment

    • D. 

      Pre-deployment

  • 36. 
    (211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?
    • A. 

      Installation deployment readiness cell

    • B. 

      Installation personnel readiness team

    • C. 

      Installation deployment officer

    • D. 

      Unit deployment manager

  • 37. 
    (212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
    • A. 

      Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS)

    • B. 

      Designed operational capability (DOC) statement

    • C. 

      Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)

    • D. 

      Mission-essential task list (METL

  • 38. 
    (212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      15

  • 39. 
    (212) A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as
    • A. 

      A Status of Resources and Training Systems

    • B. 

      A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement

    • C. 

      An Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)

    • D. 

      A Mission Essential Task List (METL

  • 40. 
    (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Any deficiencies

    • B. 

      Any hazards

    • C. 

      Any threats

    • D. 

      Any risks

  • 41. 
    (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 42. 
    (213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?
    • A. 

      45 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      15 days

    • D. 

      5 days

  • 43. 
    (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?
    • A. 

      Combat arms or training incident

    • B. 

      Shooting incident

    • C. 

      Security incident

    • D. 

      Miscellaneous

  • 44. 
    (214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the...
    • A. 

      Tactical level

    • B. 

      Strategic level

    • C. 

      Operational level

    • D. 

      Administrative level

  • 45. 
    (214) What is essential to our security?
    • A. 

      Nuclear operations

    • B. 

      Nuclear deterrence

    • C. 

      Nuclear restraint

    • D. 

      Nuclear surety

  • 46. 
    (214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
    • A. 

      Installation commanders

    • B. 

      Combatant commanders

    • C. 

      Secretary of Defense

    • D. 

      The President

  • 47. 
    (214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons
    • A. 

      Nuclear Weapon Security Standard

    • B. 

      Nuclear Weapon Security Principle

    • C. 

      Nuclear Weapon Security Program

    • D. 

      Two-Person Concept

  • 48. 
    (214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by...
    • A. 

      Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) Localized threat capability assessment (TCA), and local threat assessment

    • B. 

      Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC)

    • C. 

      Major Command Inspector General (MAJCOM IG)

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Inspector General (DOD IG)

  • 49. 
    (214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle
    • A. 

      Deter

    • B. 

      Delay

    • C. 

      Denial

    • D. 

      Detect

  • 50. 
    (214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft?
    • A. 

      Entry control personnel

    • B. 

      Nonqualified personnel

    • C. 

      Non-US personnel

    • D. 

      Couriers

  • 51. 
    (215) The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the cornerstone of threat...
    • A. 

      Risks

    • B. 

      Tactics

    • C. 

      Planning

    • D. 

      Capabilities

  • 52. 
    (215) How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear security?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      3

  • 53. 
    (215) "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue" is the definition of...
    • A. 

      Criminals

    • B. 

      Terrorists

    • C. 

      Protestors

    • D. 

      Insider threats

  • 54. 
    (215) The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing and interpreting of available information concerning foreign countries or areas is...
    • A. 

      Vulnerability assessments and likely adversary tactics

    • B. 

      Motivation, objectives, and plausible scenarios

    • C. 

      Counterintelligence

    • D. 

      Intelligence

  • 55. 
    (216) The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the
    • A. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Defense Force Commander

    • D. 

      Numbered Air Force commander

  • 56. 
    (216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form
    • A. 

      116

    • B. 

      321

    • C. 

      590

    • D. 

      2583

  • 57. 
    (216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exclusion area?
    • A. 

      Area supervisor

    • B. 

      Entry controller

    • C. 

      Sole vouching authority

    • D. 

      Two-person concept team

  • 58. 
    (216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have
    • A. 

      Technical knowledge of the task being performed

    • B. 

      A valid reason to be in the exclusion area and be members of an authorized two-person concept team

    • C. 

      A valid restricted area badge

    • D. 

      A valid entry authority list

  • 59. 
    (216) One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      Unlimited

  • 60. 
    (216) If an emergency arises that requires and evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of...
    • A. 

      A stay behind threat

    • B. 

      A two-person concept violation

    • C. 

      An error on the EAL

    • D. 

      An incorrect count by the Sole Vouching Authority (SVA)

  • 61. 
    (217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 62. 
    (217) Where would you find a weapon security vault?
    • A. 

      Missile field

    • B. 

      Weapon storage areas (WSAs)

    • C. 

      Weapons storage and security system (WS3)

    • D. 

      Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC)

  • 63. 
    (217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      Missile field

    • B. 

      Weapons storage area (WSA)

    • C. 

      Weapons storage and security system (WS3)

    • D. 

      Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC)

  • 64. 
    (217) Which of these is not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-52

    • D. 

      F-16

  • 65. 
    (217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within what timeframe of the pre-arrival window?
    • A. 

      48 hrs

    • B. 

      36 hrs

    • C. 

      24 hrs

    • D. 

      12 hrs

  • 66. 
    (217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      Type IV

    • B. 

      Type III

    • C. 

      Type II

    • D. 

      Type I

  • 67. 
    (217) What is a type II security forces composition?
    • A. 

      Response force

    • B. 

      Area supervisor

    • C. 

      Security response team

    • D. 

      Close-in Sentry (CIS) and Close Boundary Sentry (CBS)

  • 68. 
    (217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)?
    • A. 

      Courier only

    • B. 

      Entry controller

    • C. 

      SF representative only

    • D. 

      Courier and SF representative

  • 69. 
    (218) Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems are designated as...
    • A. 

      A limited area

    • B. 

      A restricted area

    • C. 

      An exclusion area

    • D. 

      A two-person concept area

  • 70. 
    (218) The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be...
    • A. 

      No closer than 10 feet and no further than 40 feet

    • B. 

      No closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet

    • C. 

      No closer than 20 feet and no further than 40 feet

    • D. 

      No closer than 20 feet and no further than 60 feet

  • 71. 
    (218) (DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the generation area becomes...
    • A. 

      A ready alert parking area

    • B. 

      A ready alert maneuver area

    • C. 

      An alert aircraft parking area

    • D. 

      An alert aircraft maneuver area

  • 72. 
    (218) How many types of nuclear movements are there on an installation?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      2

  • 73. 
    (219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs?
    • A. 

      Rush

    • B. 

      Low crawl

    • C. 

      High crawl

    • D. 

      Spider crawl

  • 74. 
    (219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with...
    • A. 

      Speed

    • B. 

      Stealth

    • C. 

      Purpose

    • D. 

      Precision

  • 75. 
    (220) How many categories of patrols are there?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      14

  • 76. 
    (220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal?
    • A. 

      Raid

    • B. 

      Ambush

    • C. 

      Area reconnaissance

    • D. 

      Zone reconnaissance

  • 77. 
    (220) Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
    • A. 

      S2

    • B. 

      Patrol leader

    • C. 

      Squad leader

    • D. 

      Defense Force Commanders (DFC)

  • 78. 
    (221) In fire and maneuver operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from...
    • A. 

      M2s

    • B. 

      MK19s

    • C. 

      Mortars

    • D. 

      Team's own weapons

  • 79. 
    (221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed?
    • A. 

      Bounding over-watch

    • B. 

      Traveling over-watch

    • C. 

      Squad file

    • D. 

      Traveling

  • 80. 
    (221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique?
    • A. 

      Navigation

    • B. 

      Stalking

    • C. 

      Security

    • D. 

      Control

  • 81. 
    (221) What type of danger area would be passed on the downwind side?
    • A. 

      Streams

    • B. 

      Villages

    • C. 

      Open areas

    • D. 

      Enemy positions

  • 82. 
    (222) Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations order?
    • A. 

      Mission

    • B. 

      Situation

    • C. 

      Execution

    • D. 

      Service and support

  • 83. 
    (222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished?
    • A. 

      Mission

    • B. 

      Situation

    • C. 

      Execution

    • D. 

      Service and support

  • 84. 
    (222) What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of the operations order?
    • A. 

      Any type of support fire

    • B. 

      Casualty collection points

    • C. 

      Cache and resupply points

    • D. 

      Materials and supply items

  • 85. 
    (223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty?
    • A. 

      Flight sergeant

    • B. 

      Area supervisor

    • C. 

      Flight commander

    • D. 

      Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller

  • 86. 
    (223) Due to the nature of the responsibilities, a BDOC is considered...
    • A. 

      Limited area

    • B. 

      Restricted area

    • C. 

      Controlled area

    • D. 

      Exclusion area

  • 87. 
    (223) Who does the BDOC controller filter information up to?
    • A. 

      Flight sergeant

    • B. 

      Area supervisor

    • C. 

      Flight commander

    • D. 

      Operations superintendent

  • 88. 
    (223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function?
    • A. 

      Analyzing information

    • B. 

      Receiving information

    • C. 

      Distributing information

    • D. 

      Submitting recommendations

  • 89. 
    (224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?
    • A. 

      Secondary

    • B. 

      Standoff

    • C. 

      Indirect

    • D. 

      Direct

  • 90. 
    (224) Which firing element has an engagement priority of groups of five or more in the secondary sector?
    • A. 

      Machine gun gunners

    • B. 

      M203 grenadiers

    • C. 

      Automatic riflemen

    • D. 

      Riflemen

  • 91. 
    (224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?
    • A. 

      Feet

    • B. 

      Yards

    • C. 

      Meters

    • D. 

      Kilometers

  • 92. 
    (225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
    • A. 

      Ridge

    • B. 

      Draw

    • C. 

      Spur

    • D. 

      Cliff

  • 93. 
    (225) The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within...
    • A. 

      300 meters

    • B. 

      600 meters

    • C. 

      800 meters

    • D. 

      1800 meters

  • 94. 
    (224) By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security detachments effectively achieves all of the following except...
    • A. 

      Delay

    • B. 

      Attack

    • C. 

      Defeat

    • D. 

      Defend

  • 95. 
    (226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
    • A. 

      M4

    • B. 

      M24

    • C. 

      M40

    • D. 

      M110

  • 96. 
    (226) Which close precision engagement (cpe) task provides the capability to standoff from target, assess the situation, and pass timely information?
    • A. 

      Response

    • B. 

      Screening

    • C. 

      Counter-sniper

    • D. 

      Reconnaissance

  • 97. 
    (226) Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes which task of Close Precision Engagement (CPE)?
    • A. 

      Response

    • B. 

      Screening

    • C. 

      Counter-sniper

    • D. 

      Reconnaissance

  • 98. 
    (227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training?
    • A. 

      Every 4 months

    • B. 

      Between 5 and 7

    • C. 

      Between 8 and 10

    • D. 

      Annually with qualification

  • 99. 
    (227) Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel?
    • A. 

      Low port

    • B. 

      High port

    • C. 

      Low ready

    • D. 

      Depressed ready

  • 100. 
    (227) When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat what tactical movement is being performed?
    • A. 

      Contact left

    • B. 

      Contact rear

    • C. 

      Contact right

    • D. 

      Lateral movement slide step left/right