3P071 - Security Forces Craftsman: Volume 2. Integrated Defense - Edit Code 06
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?
- A.
Security Forces
- B.
Intelligence fusion cell
- C.
Other Air Force members
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations
Correct Answer
A. Security ForcesExplanation
Security Forces provide the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept. The ID concept involves the coordination and integration of various security measures to protect military installations and personnel. Security Forces are responsible for maintaining law and order, protecting assets, and responding to threats on Air Force bases. Their role in implementing and enforcing security protocols makes them essential in establishing the foundation of the ID concept.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except...
- A.
Focused logistics
- B.
Full dimensional protection
- C.
Capabilities for dominating mass
- D.
Concept of the full spectrum dominance
Correct Answer
C. Capabilities for dominating massExplanation
The guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept include focused logistics, full dimensional protection, and the concept of full spectrum dominance. However, the principle of "capabilities for dominating mass" is not a guiding principle of the ID concept.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to
- A.
Deny
- B.
Deter
- C.
Delay
- D.
Defuse
Correct Answer
D. DefuseExplanation
Integrated defense refers to a comprehensive approach that combines various military and non-military strategies to protect a country from potential threats. In this context, "defuse" refers to the act of diffusing or de-escalating a potentially dangerous situation. The other options, such as deny, deter, and delay, are all related to actively countering or preventing threats. Therefore, the capability to defuse is not necessarily a requirement for integrated defense, as it focuses more on proactive measures to neutralize or deter threats rather than resolving them peacefully.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the...
- A.
MAJCOM commander
- B.
Installation commander
- C.
Defense Force Commander
- D.
Integrated Defense Working Group
Correct Answer
C. Defense Force CommanderExplanation
The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly support the Defense Force Commander. This means that the fusion cell provides crucial intelligence information and analysis to the Defense Force Commander, allowing them to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions. The fusion cell's products are likely to include intelligence reports, assessments, and recommendations that are specifically tailored to the needs and requirements of the Defense Force Commander. This makes the fusion cell an essential resource for the Defense Force Commander in fulfilling their role and responsibilities effectively.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as...
- A.
Conventional weapons
- B.
Mission support assets
- C.
Power projection assets
- D.
Non-nuclear weapon systems
Correct Answer
C. Power projection assetsExplanation
Power projection assets refer to military capabilities that enable a country to project force beyond its borders. These assets include aircraft carriers, amphibious assault ships, long-range bombers, and other platforms that can deliver and sustain combat power in distant locations. The loss or disablement of these assets would significantly impact the Air Force's ability to project decisive combat power and wage war effectively. Therefore, power projection assets are identified as the non-nuclear assets whose loss or disablement would harm AF effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(203) What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for"?
- A.
Integrated Defense Plan
- B.
Integrated Defense Concepts
- C.
Integrated Defense Security Systems
- D.
Integrated Defense Risk Management Process
Correct Answer
A. Integrated Defense PlanExplanation
An Integrated Defense Plan is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for." This means that the plan involves coordinating and managing the various defense efforts of different agencies to ensure that all necessary aspects of defense are covered and accounted for. It emphasizes the integration of different defense measures and strategies to create a comprehensive and effective defense plan.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units...
- A.
Only if the installation is a full time reserve or guard installation/unit
- B.
Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources
- C.
Only if the installation has non-Protection Level (PL) resources
- D.
Only during war
Correct Answer
B. Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resourcesExplanation
IDPs are integrated defense plans that are implemented by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units. These plans are executed only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources. This means that the installation is tasked with safeguarding critical assets, infrastructure, or resources that require heightened security measures. Other installations that do not have protection level resources may not be required to develop or implement IDPs. Therefore, the correct answer is "only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources."Rate this question:
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- 8.
(203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?
- A.
Physical barriers
- B.
Night vision device
- C.
Infrared imaging device
- D.
Closed-circuit television
Correct Answer
A. Physical barriersExplanation
Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders because they create obstacles that prevent or slow down unauthorized access to a certain area. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, or other physical structures that are difficult to breach. By delaying intruders, security forces have more time to assess the threat and respond accordingly, allowing for a more accurate classification of the threat and a more effective response.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as...
- A.
A safe area
- B.
A search area
- C.
A denial area
- D.
An exclusion area
Correct Answer
B. A search areaExplanation
A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for the identification of personnel and vehicles. This suggests that within this area, there are measures in place to ensure the safety and security of individuals and vehicles. It implies that there are protocols in place for searching and identifying personnel and vehicles entering or exiting the area, which helps to maintain a certain level of security.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
- A.
Parking area
- B.
Staging area
- C.
Overwatch
- D.
Search pit
Correct Answer
B. Staging areaExplanation
The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible. This is because the staging area is where resources and personnel are gathered and prepared before being deployed to the search facility. By keeping the staging area far back, it ensures that there is enough space for equipment, vehicles, and personnel to be organized and ready for deployment without obstructing the search facility or causing congestion. It also allows for a clear and unobstructed path for resources to be transported from the staging area to the search facility when needed.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and...
- A.
Separating the enemy from vehicle support when they are using mounted operations
- B.
Channeling the enemy into places where they can more easily be engaged
- C.
Protecting defending units
- D.
Isolating objectives
Correct Answer
D. Isolating objectivesExplanation
Obstacles in offense serve the purpose of isolating objectives. By creating barriers or obstructions, the enemy's movement and communication can be disrupted, making it difficult for them to reach or support their objectives. This isolation allows the attacking forces to focus their efforts on specific targets, increasing their chances of success. Additionally, isolating objectives prevents the enemy from receiving reinforcements or withdrawing easily, further weakening their position and enhancing the attacker's advantage.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are...
- A.
Existing and reinforcing
- B.
Disrupting and turning
- C.
Blocking and turning
- D.
Turning and fixing
Correct Answer
A. Existing and reinforcingExplanation
The correct answer is "existing and reinforcing". This answer suggests that the two types of obstacles commonly encountered are those that already exist and those that are being reinforced. This implies that there are obstacles that are already present and obstacles that are being made stronger or more difficult to overcome.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(205) "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the...
- A.
Army
- B.
Navy
- C.
Air Force
- D.
Marine Corps
Correct Answer
A. ArmyExplanation
The given statement describes the mission of the Army. It states that the Army's mission is to fight and win the nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders. This aligns with the role and responsibilities of the Army as a branch of the military that primarily operates on land and is responsible for ground warfare.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(205) What is the Navy's largest formation?
- A.
Fleet
- B.
Flotilla
- C.
Task Force
- D.
Strike Group
Correct Answer
A. FleetExplanation
The Navy's largest formation is a fleet. A fleet consists of multiple task forces, squadrons, and other naval units, and is responsible for conducting major operations and deployments. It is a large and powerful force that is capable of carrying out a wide range of missions, including combat operations, humanitarian assistance, and disaster relief.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force...
- A.
Squadron
- B.
Group
- C.
Flight
- D.
Wing
Correct Answer
C. FlightExplanation
A Marine Corps platoon is the smallest unit in the Marine Corps, consisting of around 40 to 60 Marines. Similarly, a flight is the smallest unit in the Air Force, typically consisting of around 20 to 30 personnel. Both the platoon and the flight are responsible for carrying out specific tasks and operations within their respective branches. Therefore, the most equivalent unit to a Marine Corps platoon in the Air Force would be a flight.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
Non-state-supported
- B.
State-supported
- C.
State-organized
- D.
State-directed
Correct Answer
B. State-supportedExplanation
A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as "state-supported." This means that while the group may not be directly organized or directed by a government, it receives assistance, funding, or other forms of support from them. This support can come in various forms, such as financial aid, training, weapons, or safe havens, and it allows the terrorist group to carry out its activities more effectively.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(206) Generally, specially trained terrorist are of above average intelligence and between the ages of...
- A.
16 and 24
- B.
21 and 28
- C.
23 and 30
- D.
25 and 32
Correct Answer
C. 23 and 30Explanation
The correct answer is 23 and 30. Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and fall within the age range of 23 and 30. This age range is often considered prime for individuals to be recruited and radicalized, as they are young enough to be easily influenced and manipulated, yet old enough to possess the necessary physical and mental capabilities required for terrorist activities.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A.
Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals
- B.
One week prior to scheduled attack execution
- C.
Just before departing for the target
- D.
Before executing the attack
Correct Answer
C. Just before departing for the targetExplanation
Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target. This suggests that they do conduct rehearsals, but it is specifically done right before they leave for the target location. This allows them to go over the plan one last time and ensure that everyone is clear on their roles and responsibilities before executing the attack.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
Activity
- B.
Intentions
- C.
Operation capability
- D.
Operating environment
Correct Answer
B. IntentionsExplanation
The term that describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is "intentions". Intentions refer to the purpose or aim behind someone's actions, in this case, the desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. It suggests that there is a deliberate plan or motive behind these attacks.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(207) Which threat level 1 activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
Agent activity
- B.
Sympathizers
- C.
Terrorists
- D.
Partisans
Correct Answer
B. SympathizersExplanation
Sympathizers are individuals who may not directly engage in terrorist activities themselves, but they support and sympathize with the cause. This threat level 1 activity involves random acts against targets of opportunity, which suggests that these sympathizers may carry out sporadic attacks without a specific plan or target in mind. While terrorists and partisans are also involved in threat level 1 activities, the description provided in the question aligns more closely with sympathizers.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?
- A.
Agent activity
- B.
Sympathizers
- C.
Terrorists
- D.
Partisans
Correct Answer
C. TerroristsExplanation
Terrorists are individuals or small groups who engage in acts of violence using a variety of weapons, including small arms, explosives, and incendiary devices. They aim to create fear and panic among the general population and often have political, ideological, or religious motivations behind their actions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
C. IIIExplanation
Threat level doctrine III stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers. This means that in this particular threat level, it is recommended to use battalion-size units and helicopters to penetrate enemy territory up to a distance of 50 kilometers. This approach allows for swift and efficient deployment of troops to a significant depth, enhancing the chances of success in the mission.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
- A.
Deter
- B.
Detect
- C.
Defuse
- D.
Mitigate
Correct Answer
C. DefuseExplanation
Defuse is not a force protection effect because it refers to the act of reducing the intensity or danger of a potentially explosive situation, rather than preventing or protecting against it. Deterrence aims to discourage potential threats, detection involves identifying and recognizing threats, and mitigation focuses on minimizing the impact of threats. However, defusing refers to the specific action of reducing tension or hostility in a situation, which is not directly related to force protection.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is...
- A.
A classified protection plan
- B.
An offensive force protection plan
- C.
A defensive force protection plan
- D.
Protecting sensitive information
Correct Answer
D. Protecting sensitive informationExplanation
The key to force protection countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This is because sensitive information can be used by adversaries to exploit vulnerabilities and launch attacks. By safeguarding sensitive information, such as operational plans, troop movements, and intelligence, the military can prevent potential threats and ensure the safety and security of its personnel and assets.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?
- A.
Cover, Camouflage, and deception
- B.
Concealing camouflage deceitfully
- C.
Deceptive camouflage concealment
- D.
Camouflage, concealment, deception
Correct Answer
D. Camouflage, concealment, deceptionExplanation
Camouflage, concealment, and deception are defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy. This involves using various techniques to conceal oneself or military assets, such as using natural or artificial materials to blend into the environment, creating decoys to divert attention, and employing tactics to deceive the enemy. By utilizing these principles, forces can make it more difficult for the enemy to detect and target them, increasing their chances of survival and success in combat.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is...
- A.
Arson
- B.
Bombing
- C.
Hijacking
- D.
Assassination
Correct Answer
B. BombingExplanation
Terrorist groups most commonly use bombing as a tactic because it allows them to cause widespread destruction, fear, and casualties. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic is often chosen because it can be relatively easy to execute and can target crowded public places, causing maximum impact and media attention. Bombings also allow terrorist groups to instill a sense of terror and insecurity within the population, furthering their ideological or political goals.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?
- A.
Disguise
- B.
Decoy
- C.
Blend
- D.
Hide
Correct Answer
B. DecoyExplanation
Decoy means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target. It is used to divert attention or deceive someone by presenting a false or imitation target.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(209) Rules of engagement are the commander's rules for
- A.
Mission requirements
- B.
National policy goals
- C.
The use of force
- D.
The rule of law
Correct Answer
C. The use of forceExplanation
The correct answer is "the use of force". Rules of engagement refer to the guidelines and limitations set by a commander regarding the use of force in military operations. These rules determine when and how force can be employed, ensuring that military actions are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries. By establishing rules of engagement, commanders aim to minimize civilian casualties, protect their own forces, and achieve mission objectives effectively.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
- A.
Legal
- B.
Policy
- C.
Military
- D.
Civilian
Correct Answer
D. CivilianExplanation
The Rules of Engagement are guidelines that dictate the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions comply with international and domestic laws. Policy considerations align military actions with the goals and objectives of the government. Military considerations focus on operational effectiveness and protection of military personnel. However, civilian considerations do not drive the Rules of Engagement as they are primarily focused on protecting military forces and achieving military objectives.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?
- A.
Hostile act
- B.
Hostile Force
- C.
Hostile intent
- D.
Elements of self-defense
Correct Answer
C. Hostile intentExplanation
Hostile intent is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces, including the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces. This means that it refers to the intention or plan to carry out a hostile act against the U.S. or its forces, which may include actions that hinder or obstruct their mission or duties. It is important to identify and assess hostile intent in order to effectively respond and defend against potential threats.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has 6 posturing codes.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(210) When the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at
- A.
Any level
- B.
Unit level
- C.
MAJCOM level
- D.
Air Staff level only
Correct Answer
A. Any levelExplanation
The correct answer is "any level". This means that the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC can be initiated at any level within the organization. This allows for flexibility and decentralization in the decision-making process, as individuals or units at various levels can identify the need for a change and take appropriate action. It also ensures that the organization can adapt and respond to evolving requirements in a timely manner, without being restricted to a specific level of authority.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(210) What unit type code, when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 - 180) deployed Security Forces unit?
- A.
QFEBU
- B.
QFEPR
- C.
QFEBF
- D.
QFEBA
Correct Answer
D. QFEBAExplanation
The QFEBA unit type code provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?
- A.
Five
- B.
Four
- C.
Three
- D.
Two
Correct Answer
B. FourExplanation
The correct answer is four. This suggests that there are four phases in the deployment process. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a detailed explanation of what these phases entail.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?
- A.
Deployment
- B.
Employment
- C.
Re-deployment
- D.
Pre-deployment
Correct Answer
A. DeploymentExplanation
The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in the Deployment phase. This phase involves the actual movement and placement of personnel, equipment, and supplies to the designated area of operation. It includes activities such as setting up communication systems, establishing base camps, and organizing logistics support. The Reception phase involves the arrival and initial processing of personnel and equipment, while the Staging phase involves preparing and organizing them for onward movement. The Onward-Movement phase involves the actual transportation and movement to the operational area, and the Integration phase involves the integration of personnel and equipment into the existing operational structure.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?
- A.
Installation deployment readiness cell
- B.
Installation personnel readiness team
- C.
Installation deployment officer
- D.
Unit deployment manager
Correct Answer
A. Installation deployment readiness cellExplanation
The Installation Deployment Readiness Cell is the focal point for all base deployments in the deployment process. This cell is responsible for ensuring that all necessary preparations and requirements are met before a deployment takes place. They coordinate with various personnel and units to ensure that all necessary resources, training, and documentation are in place. The Installation Deployment Readiness Cell plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and efficient execution of deployments at the base.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
- A.
Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS)
- B.
Designed operational capability (DOC) statement
- C.
Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)
- D.
Mission-essential task list (METL
Correct Answer
B. Designed operational capability (DOC) statementExplanation
The Designed operational capability (DOC) statement is not a readiness reporting tool. Readiness reporting tools are used to assess and report the readiness of military units and their capabilities. The Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS), Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART), and Mission-essential task list (METL) are all examples of readiness reporting tools that are commonly used in the military. However, the DOC statement is a document that outlines the specific operational capabilities and requirements of a military unit, rather than a tool used for reporting readiness.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?
- A.
4
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
15
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
SORTS has four areas of reporting.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(212) A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as
- A.
A Status of Resources and Training Systems
- B.
A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement
- C.
An Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)
- D.
A Mission Essential Task List (METL
Correct Answer
B. A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) StatementExplanation
A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement is a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, and equipped with. It outlines the unit's capabilities and objectives, providing a clear understanding of what the unit is capable of achieving. This statement helps to ensure that the unit is properly prepared and equipped to fulfill its mission effectively and efficiently. It serves as a guide for the unit's operations and helps to align its resources and training systems accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?
- A.
Any deficiencies
- B.
Any hazards
- C.
Any threats
- D.
Any risks
Correct Answer
A. Any deficienciesExplanation
Security Forces (SF) must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force. Identifying deficiencies is crucial as it allows for prompt action to address and rectify any weaknesses or shortcomings in security measures. By identifying deficiencies, SF can take appropriate steps to enhance security, prevent potential breaches, and ensure the safety and protection of personnel, facilities, and assets. This proactive approach helps to mitigate risks and maintain a robust security posture throughout the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
In order to meet the minimum requirement for after action reports (AARs) to be submitted, at least two AARs must be submitted. This implies that submitting only one AAR would not meet the minimum requirement.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?
- A.
45 days
- B.
30 days
- C.
15 days
- D.
5 days
Correct Answer
C. 15 daysExplanation
The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted 15 days prior to the end of a deployment. This allows enough time for the report to be reviewed and any necessary actions to be taken before the deployment concludes. A 15-day deadline ensures that the AAR is completed in a timely manner and allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made based on the findings of the report.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?
- A.
Combat arms or training incident
- B.
Shooting incident
- C.
Security incident
- D.
Miscellaneous
Correct Answer
D. MiscellaneousExplanation
The use of electronic control devices does not fall under any specific incident classification such as combat arms or training incident, shooting incident, or security incident. Instead, it is categorized as miscellaneous, as it does not fit into any of the predefined classifications.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the...
- A.
Tactical level
- B.
Strategic level
- C.
Operational level
- D.
Administrative level
Correct Answer
C. Operational levelExplanation
The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the operational level. This level of planning and decision-making involves the day-to-day activities and processes necessary to achieve the strategic goals set by higher-level authorities. It includes tasks such as resource allocation, coordination of activities, and implementation of specific actions. The operational level is crucial for the successful execution of the strategic plans and ensures that the necessary steps are taken to achieve the desired outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(214) What is essential to our security?
- A.
Nuclear operations
- B.
Nuclear deterrence
- C.
Nuclear restraint
- D.
Nuclear surety
Correct Answer
B. Nuclear deterrenceExplanation
Nuclear deterrence is essential to our security because it is a strategy that aims to prevent an adversary from attacking by maintaining a credible threat of nuclear retaliation. It serves as a deterrent by convincing potential aggressors that the consequences of their actions would be too severe to justify an attack. By having a strong nuclear deterrence capability, it helps to discourage aggression and maintain peace and stability.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
- A.
Installation commanders
- B.
Combatant commanders
- C.
Secretary of Defense
- D.
The President
Correct Answer
B. Combatant commandersExplanation
The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with combatant commanders. This means that the roadmap is designed to coordinate and prioritize the nuclear mission in line with the strategic objectives and priorities set by the combatant commanders. The combatant commanders have a deep understanding of the operational requirements and the specific challenges in their respective areas of responsibility. By aligning the roadmap with their guidance and direction, it ensures that the nuclear mission is effectively integrated into broader military operations and supports the overall strategic goals of the combatant commanders.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons
- A.
Nuclear Weapon Security Standard
- B.
Nuclear Weapon Security Principle
- C.
Nuclear Weapon Security Program
- D.
Two-Person Concept
Correct Answer
A. Nuclear Weapon Security StandardExplanation
The correct answer is "Nuclear Weapon Security Standard." This term refers to the established criteria or set of rules and regulations that ensure the prevention of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons. It outlines the specific measures and protocols that need to be followed in order to maintain the security and safety of these weapons.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by...
- A.
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) Localized threat capability assessment (TCA), and local threat assessment
- B.
Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC)
- C.
Major Command Inspector General (MAJCOM IG)
- D.
Department of Defense Inspector General (DOD IG)
Correct Answer
A. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) Localized threat capability assessment (TCA), and local threat assessmentExplanation
Inspections and visits primarily focus on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) Localized threat capability assessment (TCA), and local threat assessment. This means that during inspections and visits, the security program is evaluated based on its ability to handle potential threats and risks specific to the local area, as assessed by the DIA and local threat assessments. The goal is to ensure that the security program is capable of effectively protecting nuclear weapons against potential threats.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle
- A.
Deter
- B.
Delay
- C.
Denial
- D.
Detect
Correct Answer
B. DelayExplanation
Active and passive security measures are used to achieve the principle of delay. Delaying tactics are implemented to slow down or impede potential threats or attacks. Active security measures involve proactive actions such as installing alarms, surveillance systems, or security personnel to actively deter and delay potential threats. Passive security measures, on the other hand, involve physical barriers or obstacles that passively delay intruders or attackers, such as fences, locks, or access control systems. By implementing both active and passive security measures, organizations can effectively delay potential threats, giving them more time to detect and respond to any security breaches.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft?
- A.
Entry control personnel
- B.
Nonqualified personnel
- C.
Non-US personnel
- D.
Couriers
Correct Answer
D. CouriersExplanation
Couriers ensure that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft. They are responsible for transporting sensitive and classified materials, documents, or equipment, and ensuring their security and integrity. As part of their duties, couriers ensure that the two-person concept is followed, which requires that no individual is left alone with nuclear logistic aircraft or in areas where sensitive materials are stored. They also help in delineating and enforcing no-lone zones to prevent unauthorized access and ensure the safety and security of the installation.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 31, 2016Quiz Created by
Riley1jace
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