3P071 - Security Forces Craftsman: Volume 2. Integrated Defense - Edit Code 06

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1. (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is...

Explanation

Terrorist groups most commonly use bombing as a tactic because it allows them to cause widespread destruction, fear, and casualties. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic is often chosen because it can be relatively easy to execute and can target crowded public places, causing maximum impact and media attention. Bombings also allow terrorist groups to instill a sense of terror and insecurity within the population, furthering their ideological or political goals.

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About This Quiz
Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge in Security Forces Craftsman training, focusing on integrated defense principles, structures, and operational tactics. It tests understanding of foundational concepts, guiding principles, and strategic asset protection within the Air Force.

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

You may optionally provide this to label your report, leaderboard, or certificate.

2. (203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?

Explanation

Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders because they create obstacles that prevent or slow down unauthorized access to a certain area. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, or other physical structures that are difficult to breach. By delaying intruders, security forces have more time to assess the threat and respond accordingly, allowing for a more accurate classification of the threat and a more effective response.

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3. (224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?

Explanation

The range is a measure of distance, typically referring to the maximum distance a projectile can travel. In this case, the correct answer is meters, as it is a commonly used unit of measurement for distance. Feet, yards, and kilometers are also units of measurement for distance, but meters is the most commonly used unit in scientific and international contexts.

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4. (201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?

Explanation

Security Forces provide the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept. The ID concept involves the coordination and integration of various security measures to protect military installations and personnel. Security Forces are responsible for maintaining law and order, protecting assets, and responding to threats on Air Force bases. Their role in implementing and enforcing security protocols makes them essential in establishing the foundation of the ID concept.

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5. (209) Rules of engagement are the commander's rules for

Explanation

The correct answer is "the use of force". Rules of engagement refer to the guidelines and limitations set by a commander regarding the use of force in military operations. These rules determine when and how force can be employed, ensuring that military actions are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries. By establishing rules of engagement, commanders aim to minimize civilian casualties, protect their own forces, and achieve mission objectives effectively.

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6. (205) "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the...

Explanation

The given statement describes the mission of the Army. It states that the Army's mission is to fight and win the nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders. This aligns with the role and responsibilities of the Army as a branch of the military that primarily operates on land and is responsible for ground warfare.

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7. (219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with...

Explanation

The technique that requires great patience is movement with stealth. Stealth involves moving quietly and carefully, taking precautions to avoid being detected. This requires a high level of patience as it often involves slow and deliberate movements to remain unnoticed. Speed, purpose, and precision may also be important in certain situations, but they do not necessarily require the same level of patience as stealth.

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8. (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Explanation

The term that describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is "intentions". Intentions refer to the purpose or aim behind someone's actions, in this case, the desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. It suggests that there is a deliberate plan or motive behind these attacks.

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9. (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?

Explanation

Decoy means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target. It is used to divert attention or deceive someone by presenting a false or imitation target.

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10. (205) What is the Navy's largest formation?

Explanation

The Navy's largest formation is a fleet. A fleet consists of multiple task forces, squadrons, and other naval units, and is responsible for conducting major operations and deployments. It is a large and powerful force that is capable of carrying out a wide range of missions, including combat operations, humanitarian assistance, and disaster relief.

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11. (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

Explanation

A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as "state-supported." This means that while the group may not be directly organized or directed by a government, it receives assistance, funding, or other forms of support from them. This support can come in various forms, such as financial aid, training, weapons, or safe havens, and it allows the terrorist group to carry out its activities more effectively.

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12. (221) In fire and maneuver operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from...

Explanation

In fire and maneuver operations, the majority of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from the team's own weapons. This means that the team relies on their own firearms, such as rifles and machine guns, to provide covering fire while advancing or maneuvering on the enemy. This allows the team to maintain constant fire and suppress the enemy, providing protection and support for the maneuvering forces. The other options listed, M2s, MK19s, and mortars, may also provide fire support, but the primary source of support in this scenario is the team's own weapons.

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13. (219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs?

Explanation

The high crawl is a method of movement where the body is kept off the ground and rests on the forearms and lower legs. This technique is commonly used in military training or tactical situations where stealth and speed are required. By keeping the body elevated, it reduces the chances of making noise or leaving footprints, making it an effective method for moving through difficult terrain or avoiding detection.

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14. (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?

Explanation

Terrorists are individuals or small groups who engage in acts of violence using a variety of weapons, including small arms, explosives, and incendiary devices. They aim to create fear and panic among the general population and often have political, ideological, or religious motivations behind their actions.

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15. (204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are...

Explanation

The correct answer is "existing and reinforcing". This answer suggests that the two types of obstacles commonly encountered are those that already exist and those that are being reinforced. This implies that there are obstacles that are already present and obstacles that are being made stronger or more difficult to overcome.

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16. (222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished?

Explanation

The mission paragraph in an operations order provides a clear and concise statement of the task to be accomplished. It outlines the overall objective or goal that the operation aims to achieve. This paragraph sets the tone and direction for the entire order, ensuring that all personnel involved understand the purpose and focus of the mission. It helps to align everyone's efforts towards a common goal and provides a clear sense of direction for the operation.

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17. (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?

Explanation

The Rules of Engagement are guidelines that dictate the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions comply with international and domestic laws. Policy considerations align military actions with the goals and objectives of the government. Military considerations focus on operational effectiveness and protection of military personnel. However, civilian considerations do not drive the Rules of Engagement as they are primarily focused on protecting military forces and achieving military objectives.

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18. (201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to

Explanation

Integrated defense refers to a comprehensive approach that combines various military and non-military strategies to protect a country from potential threats. In this context, "defuse" refers to the act of diffusing or de-escalating a potentially dangerous situation. The other options, such as deny, deter, and delay, are all related to actively countering or preventing threats. Therefore, the capability to defuse is not necessarily a requirement for integrated defense, as it focuses more on proactive measures to neutralize or deter threats rather than resolving them peacefully.

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19. (220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal?

Explanation

A raid is a type of patrol that involves conducting attacks on a position or installation and then executing a planned withdrawal. This means that the patrol initiates an offensive action, engages the enemy or target, and then retreats or withdraws from the area. The objective of a raid is to surprise and disrupt the enemy, causing damage or capturing objectives, and then quickly disengaging to avoid prolonged engagement or counterattacks.

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20. (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?

Explanation

In order to meet the minimum requirement for after action reports (AARs) to be submitted, at least two AARs must be submitted. This implies that submitting only one AAR would not meet the minimum requirement.

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21. (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target. This suggests that they do conduct rehearsals, but it is specifically done right before they leave for the target location. This allows them to go over the plan one last time and ensure that everyone is clear on their roles and responsibilities before executing the attack.

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22. (216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have

Explanation

Members requesting entry into an exclusion area must have a valid reason to be in the area and be part of an authorized two-person concept team. This means that they should have a legitimate purpose for being in the exclusion area and must be accompanied by another authorized individual. This requirement ensures that there is always someone else present in case of emergencies or accidents, promoting safety and accountability within the exclusion area. Simply having technical knowledge or possessing restricted area badges or entry authority lists is not sufficient; the presence of a valid reason and adherence to the two-person concept team is crucial.

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23. (223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function?

Explanation

Consolidating reports is a task performed in the Analyzing Information function of a Tactical Operations Center (TOC). This function involves gathering and organizing data from various sources to identify patterns, trends, and insights. By consolidating reports, the TOC can synthesize information from different channels and make informed decisions based on the analysis. This helps in understanding the overall situation and formulating appropriate strategies and recommendations.

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24. (217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within what timeframe of the pre-arrival window?

Explanation

The correct answer is 48 hrs. Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within 48 hours of the pre-arrival window. This timeframe allows for adequate preparation and coordination before the actual arrival, ensuring that all necessary procedures and protocols are followed effectively. Conducting the rehearsals within this timeframe also allows for any necessary adjustments or modifications to be made in case of any unforeseen circumstances or changes in the situation.

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25. (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?

Explanation

The use of electronic control devices does not fall under any specific incident classification such as combat arms or training incident, shooting incident, or security incident. Instead, it is categorized as miscellaneous, as it does not fit into any of the predefined classifications.

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26. (217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Courier and SF representative. Both the courier and the Security Forces (SF) representative must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF). This ensures that the individuals responsible for handling and transporting nuclear materials are properly authorized and have the necessary security clearances. The courier is responsible for physically transporting the EALs, while the SF representative verifies the authenticity and accuracy of the lists before granting entry authority.

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27. (206) Generally, specially trained terrorist are of above average intelligence and between the ages of...

Explanation

The correct answer is 23 and 30. Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and fall within the age range of 23 and 30. This age range is often considered prime for individuals to be recruited and radicalized, as they are young enough to be easily influenced and manipulated, yet old enough to possess the necessary physical and mental capabilities required for terrorist activities.

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28. (211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?

Explanation

The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in the Deployment phase. This phase involves the actual movement and placement of personnel, equipment, and supplies to the designated area of operation. It includes activities such as setting up communication systems, establishing base camps, and organizing logistics support. The Reception phase involves the arrival and initial processing of personnel and equipment, while the Staging phase involves preparing and organizing them for onward movement. The Onward-Movement phase involves the actual transportation and movement to the operational area, and the Integration phase involves the integration of personnel and equipment into the existing operational structure.

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29. (223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty?

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller is responsible for knowing the whereabouts of all SF units throughout the tour of duty. This role requires constant monitoring and coordination to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the SF units. The BDOC controller acts as the central point of contact and has access to real-time information and communication channels to track the movements and activities of the SF units. This responsibility is crucial for maintaining situational awareness and making informed decisions in case of emergencies or operational requirements.

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30. (204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as...

Explanation

A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for the identification of personnel and vehicles. This suggests that within this area, there are measures in place to ensure the safety and security of individuals and vehicles. It implies that there are protocols in place for searching and identifying personnel and vehicles entering or exiting the area, which helps to maintain a certain level of security.

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31. (224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?

Explanation

In the direct fire control measure, the leader has direct control over the fire. This means that the leader is actively involved in aiming and firing the weapons at the intended target. This allows for more precise and immediate engagement of the enemy, as the leader can make real-time adjustments to the fire as needed. It is a more aggressive and hands-on approach to controlling the fire, as opposed to indirect fire control measures where the leader relies on other personnel or equipment to deliver the fire.

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32. (204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?

Explanation

The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible. This is because the staging area is where resources and personnel are gathered and prepared before being deployed to the search facility. By keeping the staging area far back, it ensures that there is enough space for equipment, vehicles, and personnel to be organized and ready for deployment without obstructing the search facility or causing congestion. It also allows for a clear and unobstructed path for resources to be transported from the staging area to the search facility when needed.

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33. (207) Which threat level 1 activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Explanation

Sympathizers are individuals who may not directly engage in terrorist activities themselves, but they support and sympathize with the cause. This threat level 1 activity involves random acts against targets of opportunity, which suggests that these sympathizers may carry out sporadic attacks without a specific plan or target in mind. While terrorists and partisans are also involved in threat level 1 activities, the description provided in the question aligns more closely with sympathizers.

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34. (226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?

Explanation

The M4 is not the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman. The M4 is a carbine rifle that is commonly used by infantry soldiers, but it is not specifically designed for designated marksmen. Designated marksmen typically use more specialized rifles such as the M24, M40, or M110, which are specifically designed for long-range precision shooting.

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35. (227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training?

Explanation

Every defender must perform shoot, move, and communicate training between 5 and 7 times. This suggests that the training should occur multiple times throughout the year, but not too frequently. This frequency allows defenders to regularly practice and improve their skills in shooting, moving, and communicating, which are essential for their role. Performing the training too infrequently may result in a lack of proficiency, while doing it too often may be impractical and time-consuming. Therefore, scheduling the training between 5 and 7 times strikes a balance between regular practice and efficiency.

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36. (205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force...

Explanation

A Marine Corps platoon is the smallest unit in the Marine Corps, consisting of around 40 to 60 Marines. Similarly, a flight is the smallest unit in the Air Force, typically consisting of around 20 to 30 personnel. Both the platoon and the flight are responsible for carrying out specific tasks and operations within their respective branches. Therefore, the most equivalent unit to a Marine Corps platoon in the Air Force would be a flight.

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37. (203) What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for"?

Explanation

An Integrated Defense Plan is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for." This means that the plan involves coordinating and managing the various defense efforts of different agencies to ensure that all necessary aspects of defense are covered and accounted for. It emphasizes the integration of different defense measures and strategies to create a comprehensive and effective defense plan.

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38. (214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by...

Explanation

Inspections and visits primarily focus on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) Localized threat capability assessment (TCA), and local threat assessment. This means that during inspections and visits, the security program is evaluated based on its ability to handle potential threats and risks specific to the local area, as assessed by the DIA and local threat assessments. The goal is to ensure that the security program is capable of effectively protecting nuclear weapons against potential threats.

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39. (223) Due to the nature of the responsibilities, a BDOC is considered...

Explanation

A BDOC (Battlefield Distribution Operations Center) is responsible for coordinating and controlling the distribution of supplies and resources on the battlefield. This requires strict oversight and management to ensure that resources are allocated efficiently and effectively. Therefore, a BDOC is considered a controlled area where access is restricted and closely monitored to maintain operational security and prevent unauthorized individuals from interfering with the distribution process.

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40. (211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?

Explanation

The Installation Deployment Readiness Cell is the focal point for all base deployments in the deployment process. This cell is responsible for ensuring that all necessary preparations and requirements are met before a deployment takes place. They coordinate with various personnel and units to ensure that all necessary resources, training, and documentation are in place. The Installation Deployment Readiness Cell plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and efficient execution of deployments at the base.

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41. (217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC) is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons. This facility is specifically designed for the storage and maintenance of nuclear weapons. It is located underground, providing enhanced security and protection for the weapons. The KUMMSC is a critical component of the United States' nuclear weapons infrastructure, ensuring the safe and secure storage of these weapons.

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42. (203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units...

Explanation

IDPs are integrated defense plans that are implemented by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units. These plans are executed only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources. This means that the installation is tasked with safeguarding critical assets, infrastructure, or resources that require heightened security measures. Other installations that do not have protection level resources may not be required to develop or implement IDPs. Therefore, the correct answer is "only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources."

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43. (208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?

Explanation

Camouflage, concealment, and deception are defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy. This involves using various techniques to conceal oneself or military assets, such as using natural or artificial materials to blend into the environment, creating decoys to divert attention, and employing tactics to deceive the enemy. By utilizing these principles, forces can make it more difficult for the enemy to detect and target them, increasing their chances of survival and success in combat.

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44. (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?

Explanation

Security Forces (SF) must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force. Identifying deficiencies is crucial as it allows for prompt action to address and rectify any weaknesses or shortcomings in security measures. By identifying deficiencies, SF can take appropriate steps to enhance security, prevent potential breaches, and ensure the safety and protection of personnel, facilities, and assets. This proactive approach helps to mitigate risks and maintain a robust security posture throughout the Air Force.

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45. (210) When the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at

Explanation

The correct answer is "any level". This means that the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC can be initiated at any level within the organization. This allows for flexibility and decentralization in the decision-making process, as individuals or units at various levels can identify the need for a change and take appropriate action. It also ensures that the organization can adapt and respond to evolving requirements in a timely manner, without being restricted to a specific level of authority.

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46. (210) What unit type code, when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 - 180) deployed Security Forces unit?

Explanation

The QFEBA unit type code provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS.

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47. (216) If an emergency arises that requires and evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of...

Explanation

If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of a stay behind threat. This means that someone may have chosen to remain behind instead of evacuating, which could pose a risk to their safety and hinder the overall evacuation process. It is important to ensure that all personnel are safely evacuated to minimize any potential threats or dangers during an emergency situation.

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48. (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?

Explanation

Hostile intent is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces, including the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces. This means that it refers to the intention or plan to carry out a hostile act against the U.S. or its forces, which may include actions that hinder or obstruct their mission or duties. It is important to identify and assess hostile intent in order to effectively respond and defend against potential threats.

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49. (211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?

Explanation

The correct answer is four. This suggests that there are four phases in the deployment process. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a detailed explanation of what these phases entail.

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50. (221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique?

Explanation

Dead reckoning is a technique used in navigation to estimate one's current position based on a previously known position, using known or estimated speeds, elapsed time, and course. It involves continuously updating the position based on the direction and distance traveled. In the context of moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is a navigation technique that helps individuals maintain their intended course and reach their destination by relying on their own calculations rather than external aids such as landmarks or visual cues.

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51. (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?

Explanation

Threat level doctrine III stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers. This means that in this particular threat level, it is recommended to use battalion-size units and helicopters to penetrate enemy territory up to a distance of 50 kilometers. This approach allows for swift and efficient deployment of troops to a significant depth, enhancing the chances of success in the mission.

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52. (223) Who does the BDOC controller filter information up to?

Explanation

The BDOC controller filters information up to the flight sergeant.

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53. (224) Which firing element has an engagement priority of groups of five or more in the secondary sector?

Explanation

Machine gun gunners have an engagement priority of groups of five or more in the secondary sector. This means that when encountering a group of five or more enemy targets in the secondary sector, machine gun gunners are expected to prioritize engaging them over other targets. This is because machine guns are highly effective in suppressing and neutralizing large groups of enemies, making them a valuable asset in combat situations where there are multiple targets clustered together.

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54. (225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?

Explanation

The term "direction of attack" suggests that the question is referring to possible routes or paths that an attacker might take. A ridge, draw, and spur are all geographical features that could potentially be used as routes for an attack. However, a cliff is a steep, vertical drop, which would not be a probable direction of attack as it would be difficult or impossible to traverse.

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55. (216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exclusion area?

Explanation

The sole vouching authority is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exclusion area. This means that this person has the sole responsibility and authority to verify and approve the entry of individuals into the area. They are the final decision-maker and must ensure that there is a valid reason for someone to enter the exclusion area, ensuring safety and security measures are followed.

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56. (214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft?

Explanation

Couriers ensure that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft. They are responsible for transporting sensitive and classified materials, documents, or equipment, and ensuring their security and integrity. As part of their duties, couriers ensure that the two-person concept is followed, which requires that no individual is left alone with nuclear logistic aircraft or in areas where sensitive materials are stored. They also help in delineating and enforcing no-lone zones to prevent unauthorized access and ensure the safety and security of the installation.

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57. (221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed?

Explanation

Traveling is the movement technique used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed. This technique involves moving in a tactical formation, with soldiers maintaining a constant pace and interval between each other. It allows for quick movement while still maintaining some level of security. Bounding over-watch and traveling over-watch are techniques used when contact with the enemy is likely, while squad file is a formation used for moving through restrictive terrain.

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58. (215) "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue" is the definition of...

Explanation

The definition given in the question describes a person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue. This aligns with the concept of protestors, as they often express their beliefs and advocate for change through demonstrations, rallies, and other forms of public action. Criminals and terrorists, on the other hand, typically engage in illegal activities with harmful intentions, while insider threats refer to individuals within an organization who pose a risk to its security.

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59. (208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is...

Explanation

The key to force protection countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This is because sensitive information can be used by adversaries to exploit vulnerabilities and launch attacks. By safeguarding sensitive information, such as operational plans, troop movements, and intelligence, the military can prevent potential threats and ensure the safety and security of its personnel and assets.

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60. (225) The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within...

Explanation

The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within 800 meters. This means that the machine guns are effective in engaging targets within a distance of 800 meters. They are designed to provide suppressive fire and support the maneuver element by keeping the enemy pinned down and unable to advance. Beyond this range, the machine guns may not be as accurate or effective in engaging targets.

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61. (214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with

Explanation

The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with combatant commanders. This means that the roadmap is designed to coordinate and prioritize the nuclear mission in line with the strategic objectives and priorities set by the combatant commanders. The combatant commanders have a deep understanding of the operational requirements and the specific challenges in their respective areas of responsibility. By aligning the roadmap with their guidance and direction, it ensures that the nuclear mission is effectively integrated into broader military operations and supports the overall strategic goals of the combatant commanders.

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62. (215) The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing and interpreting of available information concerning foreign countries or areas is...

Explanation

The correct answer is "intelligence." Intelligence refers to the product that is obtained by collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing, and interpreting available information about foreign countries or areas. This includes information about their vulnerabilities, likely adversary tactics, motivation, objectives, and plausible scenarios. Counterintelligence, on the other hand, focuses on identifying and neutralizing foreign intelligence threats.

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63. (218) The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be...

Explanation

An alert aircraft requires a certain amount of space around it to ensure safety. The answer "no closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet" provides a range that allows for a minimum distance of 10 feet to prevent any immediate danger to the aircraft, while also allowing for a maximum distance of 60 feet to ensure that the aircraft remains within a reasonable proximity for monitoring and communication purposes. This range strikes a balance between maintaining safety and operational efficiency.

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64. (216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form

Explanation

The correct answer is 116 because AF Form 116 is specifically designed for documenting security deviations. This form is used to record any instances where there is a deviation from established security procedures or protocols. By documenting these deviations on AF Form 116, it allows for proper tracking and analysis of security incidents, ensuring that necessary corrective actions can be taken to prevent future deviations and maintain a secure environment.

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65. (216) One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area?

Explanation

One escort official can escort up to 6 people into an exclusion area. This means that the escort official is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of these individuals while they are in the exclusion area. It is important for the escort official to closely monitor and supervise the group to prevent any unauthorized access or potential risks. By limiting the number of people to 6, the escort official can effectively manage and control the situation within the exclusion area.

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66. (217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?

Explanation

A launch facility (LF) is surrounded by two lines of sensors.

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67. (212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?

Explanation

The Designed operational capability (DOC) statement is not a readiness reporting tool. Readiness reporting tools are used to assess and report the readiness of military units and their capabilities. The Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS), Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART), and Mission-essential task list (METL) are all examples of readiness reporting tools that are commonly used in the military. However, the DOC statement is a document that outlines the specific operational capabilities and requirements of a military unit, rather than a tool used for reporting readiness.

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68. (218) (DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the generation area becomes...

Explanation

When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert, the generation area becomes an alert aircraft parking area. This means that the area is designated specifically for parking the aircraft that are on alert, ready to be deployed or used in case of an emergency. It is a designated area where the aircraft can be easily accessed and prepared for immediate action if needed.

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69. (222) Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations order?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Situation". In an operations order, the "Situation" paragraph provides information about the current conditions and factors that may affect the mission. This includes weather and light data, which are crucial for planning and executing operations effectively. The "Situation" paragraph helps the team understand the environmental context in which they will be operating, allowing them to make informed decisions and adapt their strategies accordingly.

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70. (208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?

Explanation

Defuse is not a force protection effect because it refers to the act of reducing the intensity or danger of a potentially explosive situation, rather than preventing or protecting against it. Deterrence aims to discourage potential threats, detection involves identifying and recognizing threats, and mitigation focuses on minimizing the impact of threats. However, defusing refers to the specific action of reducing tension or hostility in a situation, which is not directly related to force protection.

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71. (217) Which of these is not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?

Explanation

The B-1 is not considered a nuclear capable aircraft. The B-2, B-52, and F-16 are all capable of carrying and delivering nuclear weapons.

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72. (213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?

Explanation

The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted 15 days prior to the end of a deployment. This allows enough time for the report to be reviewed and any necessary actions to be taken before the deployment concludes. A 15-day deadline ensures that the AAR is completed in a timely manner and allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made based on the findings of the report.

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73. (204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and...

Explanation

Obstacles in offense serve the purpose of isolating objectives. By creating barriers or obstructions, the enemy's movement and communication can be disrupted, making it difficult for them to reach or support their objectives. This isolation allows the attacking forces to focus their efforts on specific targets, increasing their chances of success. Additionally, isolating objectives prevents the enemy from receiving reinforcements or withdrawing easily, further weakening their position and enhancing the attacker's advantage.

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74. (201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the...

Explanation

The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly support the Defense Force Commander. This means that the fusion cell provides crucial intelligence information and analysis to the Defense Force Commander, allowing them to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions. The fusion cell's products are likely to include intelligence reports, assessments, and recommendations that are specifically tailored to the needs and requirements of the Defense Force Commander. This makes the fusion cell an essential resource for the Defense Force Commander in fulfilling their role and responsibilities effectively.

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75. (214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the...

Explanation

The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the operational level. This level of planning and decision-making involves the day-to-day activities and processes necessary to achieve the strategic goals set by higher-level authorities. It includes tasks such as resource allocation, coordination of activities, and implementation of specific actions. The operational level is crucial for the successful execution of the strategic plans and ensures that the necessary steps are taken to achieve the desired outcomes.

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76. (221) What type of danger area would be passed on the downwind side?

Explanation

Passing on the downwind side of enemy positions would be considered a type of danger area because it exposes the individual or group to potential harm or attack from the enemy. This is because the wind direction could carry any sounds or scents towards the enemy, making it easier for them to detect and potentially engage with the passing individuals or group.

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77. (202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as...

Explanation

Power projection assets refer to military capabilities that enable a country to project force beyond its borders. These assets include aircraft carriers, amphibious assault ships, long-range bombers, and other platforms that can deliver and sustain combat power in distant locations. The loss or disablement of these assets would significantly impact the Air Force's ability to project decisive combat power and wage war effectively. Therefore, power projection assets are identified as the non-nuclear assets whose loss or disablement would harm AF effectiveness.

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78. (212) A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as

Explanation

A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement is a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, and equipped with. It outlines the unit's capabilities and objectives, providing a clear understanding of what the unit is capable of achieving. This statement helps to ensure that the unit is properly prepared and equipped to fulfill its mission effectively and efficiently. It serves as a guide for the unit's operations and helps to align its resources and training systems accordingly.

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79. (217) Where would you find a weapon security vault?

Explanation

A weapon security vault can be found in the Weapons Storage and Security System (WS3). WS3 is a facility specifically designed for the storage and security of weapons. It is a highly secure location where weapons are stored to prevent unauthorized access and ensure their safety. The other options mentioned, such as missile fields, weapon storage areas (WSAs), and the Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC), may also be related to weapon storage, but the WS3 is specifically mentioned as the correct answer.

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80. (220) How many categories of patrols are there?

Explanation

There are only two categories of patrols.

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81. (212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?

Explanation

SORTS has four areas of reporting.

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82. (222) What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of the operations order?

Explanation

In the service and support paragraph of the operations order, the focus would be on discussing various aspects related to service and support, such as casualty collection points, cache and resupply points, and materials and supply items. However, any type of support fire would not be discussed in this paragraph.

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83. (224) By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security detachments effectively achieves all of the following except...

Explanation

Machine guns with security detachments are highly effective in delaying enemy advances, launching attacks, and defending positions. However, they are not specifically designed to defeat the enemy entirely. While they can cause significant damage and casualties, their primary purpose is to suppress enemy forces and provide cover fire rather than completely eliminating the enemy. Therefore, the correct answer is "defeat".

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84. (227) When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat what tactical movement is being performed?

Explanation

When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat, they are performing the tactical movement known as "contact rear." This means that the shooter is repositioning themselves to face and engage with a threat that is located behind them. This movement is important for maintaining situational awareness and effectively responding to threats from different directions.

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85. (218) How many types of nuclear movements are there on an installation?

Explanation

There are two types of nuclear movements on an installation.

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86. (214) What is essential to our security?

Explanation

Nuclear deterrence is essential to our security because it is a strategy that aims to prevent an adversary from attacking by maintaining a credible threat of nuclear retaliation. It serves as a deterrent by convincing potential aggressors that the consequences of their actions would be too severe to justify an attack. By having a strong nuclear deterrence capability, it helps to discourage aggression and maintain peace and stability.

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87. (220) Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?

Explanation

Defense Force Commanders (DFC) use area reconnaissance patrols to gather information. This is because area reconnaissance patrols are conducted to collect information about the terrain, enemy activities, and other relevant factors in a specific area. As the commanders responsible for strategic planning and decision-making, DFCs need accurate and up-to-date information to effectively plan and execute military operations. By deploying area reconnaissance patrols, DFCs can gather valuable intelligence that helps them assess the situation, identify potential threats, and make informed decisions to achieve their objectives.

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88. (201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except...

Explanation

The guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept include focused logistics, full dimensional protection, and the concept of full spectrum dominance. However, the principle of "capabilities for dominating mass" is not a guiding principle of the ID concept.

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89. (227) Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel?

Explanation

The weapon carry technique used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel is the "Depressed ready" technique. In this technique, the weapon is held close to the body with the muzzle pointed downward at a slight angle. This helps to maintain control of the weapon while minimizing the risk of accidentally pointing it at others. It allows for quick and precise movements in confined spaces while ensuring the safety of nearby personnel.

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90. (217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons?

Explanation

Type I aircraft security is the highest level of security provided to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons. This level of security ensures the highest level of protection and safeguards for the nuclear weapons during transportation. It includes strict access controls, armed escorts, advanced surveillance systems, and comprehensive security protocols to prevent unauthorized access and potential threats.

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91. (214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons

Explanation

The correct answer is "Nuclear Weapon Security Standard." This term refers to the established criteria or set of rules and regulations that ensure the prevention of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons. It outlines the specific measures and protocols that need to be followed in order to maintain the security and safety of these weapons.

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92. (215) The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the cornerstone of threat...

Explanation

The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) is a crucial tool for planning strategies to address nuclear security threats. It helps in identifying the capabilities of potential threats and assessing the risks associated with them. By understanding the capabilities of these threats, effective plans can be formulated to mitigate the risks and enhance nuclear security. Therefore, planning is the most appropriate term to describe the role of NSTCA in addressing nuclear security threats.

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93. (226) Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes which task of Close Precision Engagement (CPE)?

Explanation

Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post is a task of screening in Close Precision Engagement (CPE). Screening involves the use of listening and observation posts to gather information and intelligence about enemy activities. These posts can be operated openly or covertly to monitor and report on enemy movements, communications, and other relevant information. By operating as a listening/observation post, the screening task helps in providing early warning and situational awareness to the friendly forces, enabling them to effectively plan and execute their operations.

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94. (210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?

Explanation

The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has 6 posturing codes.

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95. (217) What is a type II security forces composition?

Explanation

A type II security forces composition refers to a security response team. This team is responsible for responding to security incidents and emergencies. They are trained to handle various situations and ensure the safety and security of the area they are assigned to. They may be deployed to provide support and assistance to other security forces or agencies as needed.

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96. (215) How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear security?

Explanation

There are three potential adversary groups of primary concern in nuclear security. These groups pose a significant threat to nuclear facilities and materials. By identifying and understanding these groups, security measures can be implemented to mitigate the risks they pose.

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97. (216) The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the

Explanation

The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the MAJCOM commander. This means that the commander of the Major Command (MAJCOM) has the authority to accept or reject any security deviations that may arise. This individual is responsible for overseeing the security measures and protocols within their command and has the final say in determining whether a deviation from these standards is acceptable or not. The MAJCOM commander is in a position of authority and has the knowledge and expertise to make informed decisions regarding security deviations.

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98. (214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle

Explanation

Active and passive security measures are used to achieve the principle of delay. Delaying tactics are implemented to slow down or impede potential threats or attacks. Active security measures involve proactive actions such as installing alarms, surveillance systems, or security personnel to actively deter and delay potential threats. Passive security measures, on the other hand, involve physical barriers or obstacles that passively delay intruders or attackers, such as fences, locks, or access control systems. By implementing both active and passive security measures, organizations can effectively delay potential threats, giving them more time to detect and respond to any security breaches.

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99. (218) Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems are designated as...

Explanation

The correct answer is "a limited area." In order to ensure the security and safety of nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems, specific areas are designated as limited areas. These areas have restricted access and are closely monitored to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering and potentially compromising the weapons. The designation of limited areas helps maintain a high level of control and protection over these sensitive weapons and their delivery systems.

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100. (226) Which close precision engagement (cpe) task provides the capability to standoff from target, assess the situation, and pass timely information?

Explanation

The correct answer is "response." In a close precision engagement (cpe) task, the response involves standing off from the target, assessing the situation, and passing timely information. This allows for a more strategic and informed approach to dealing with the target, ensuring a successful engagement. Screening, counter-sniper, and reconnaissance tasks may have different objectives and may not necessarily involve standoff, assessment, and timely information sharing.

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(206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is...
(203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate...
(224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?
(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID)...
(209) Rules of engagement are the commander's rules for
(205) "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing...
(219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with...
(206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist...
(208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature...
(205) What is the Navy's largest formation?
(206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates...
(221) In fire and maneuver operations, most of the maneuvering forces...
(219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground...
(207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small...
(204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are...
(222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise...
(209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
(201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to
(220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or...
(213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be...
(206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final...
(216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must...
(223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical...
(217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be...
(213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after...
(217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs)...
(206) Generally, specially trained terrorist are of above average...
(211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and...
(223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units...
(204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of...
(224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?
(204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as...
(207) Which threat level 1 activity is identified by random acts...
(226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
(227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate...
(205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force...
(203) What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts...
(214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security...
(223) Due to the nature of the responsibilities, a BDOC is...
(211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for...
(217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
(203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve...
(208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of...
(213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately...
(210) When the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an...
(210) What unit type code, when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS,...
(216) If an emergency arises that requires and evacuation and all...
(209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against...
(211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?
(221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning...
(207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size...
(223) Who does the BDOC controller filter information up to?
(224) Which firing element has an engagement priority of groups of...
(225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
(216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to...
(214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept...
(221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is...
(215) "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view,...
(208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is...
(225) The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element...
(214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
(215) The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating,...
(218) The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be...
(216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form
(216) One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion...
(217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
(212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
(218) (DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on...
(222) Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the...
(208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
(217) Which of these is not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?
(213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many...
(204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy...
(201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary...
(214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the...
(221) What type of danger area would be passed on the downwind side?
(202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or...
(212) A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has...
(217) Where would you find a weapon security vault?
(220) How many categories of patrols are there?
(212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many...
(222) What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph...
(224) By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security...
(227) When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the...
(218) How many types of nuclear movements are there on an...
(214) What is essential to our security?
(220) Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
(201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated...
(227) Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight...
(217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary...
(214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear...
(215) The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA)...
(226) Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post...
(210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many...
(217) What is a type II security forces composition?
(215) How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in...
(216) The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the
(214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which...
(218) Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to...
(226) Which close precision engagement (cpe) task provides the...
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