Security Forces CDC Volume 4 Quiz #2

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

    • A.

      Mass

    • B.

      Offensive

    • C.

      Manuever

    • D.

      Economy of force

    Correct Answer
    B. Offensive
    Explanation
    The principle of war that is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective, seize and hold the initiative, maintain freedom of action, and achieve decisive results is the Offensive. This principle involves taking the initiative and actively engaging the enemy, rather than waiting for the enemy to attack. By being on the offensive, a military force can control the pace and direction of the battle, exploit enemy weaknesses, and maintain the element of surprise. This principle is crucial for achieving victory in warfare.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?

    • A.

      Simplicity

    • B.

      Surprise

    • C.

      Security

    • D.

      Safety

    Correct Answer
    C. Security
    Explanation
    Commanders take measures to protect their forces in order to ensure their security. Security refers to the actions and precautions taken to safeguard personnel, equipment, and information from threats or harm. By implementing security measures, commanders aim to minimize the risks and vulnerabilities faced by their forces, thus ensuring their safety and ability to carry out their missions effectively.

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  • 3. 

    What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?

    • A.

      Key terrain

    • B.

      Defense in depth

    • C.

      All around defense

    • D.

      Aggressive defense

    Correct Answer
    D. Aggressive defense
    Explanation
    The balanced employment of firepower and patrolling achieves aggressive defense. This means that by combining the use of strong firepower with regular patrolling, a defensive strategy is implemented that actively seeks to engage and repel any potential threats. This approach aims to deter and disrupt enemy advances, ensuring the protection of key areas and maintaining a strong defensive posture.

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  • 4. 

    A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?

    • A.

      Key terrain

    • B.

      High grounds

    • C.

      Avenues of approach

    • D.

      Pockets of resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Key terrain
    Explanation
    Key terrain refers to any location or area that holds significant strategic value in a military operation. By capturing and controlling key terrain, a force can establish a dominant position and exert control over the surrounding area. This allows them to place direct or indirect fire on critical resources, such as supply routes or enemy positions, and effectively neutralize any threats. Therefore, key terrain plays a crucial role in enabling a force to dominate an area and exert its influence.

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  • 5. 

    After the threat has been neutralized which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?

    • A.

      Warn

    • B.

      Assess

    • C.

      Recovery

    • D.

      Anticipate

    Correct Answer
    C. Recovery
    Explanation
    After the threat has been neutralized, the integrated defense effect that is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations is called recovery. Recovery involves the process of regrouping and rebuilding after a threat has been eliminated. It includes activities such as assessing the damage, repairing any infrastructure or equipment, and ensuring that the forces are ready to resume operations. This phase is crucial for restoring the effectiveness and readiness of the friendly forces after a threat has been dealt with.

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  • 6. 

    Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?

    • A.

      Special force

    • B.

      Security forces

    • C.

      Joint forces

    • D.

      Air and Space forces

    Correct Answer
    B. Security forces
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Security forces" because they are responsible for ensuring the protection and security of Air Force personnel, equipment, and resources. They play a crucial role in integrated defense operations by conducting law enforcement, force protection, and security operations to safeguard Air Force installations and assets. They work closely with other military forces and agencies to maintain a secure and effective defense posture.

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  • 7. 

    Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel covered wagon reportable incidents through?

    • A.

      Site security control

    • B.

      Security forces

    • C.

      Higher headquarters

    • D.

      Installation command post

    Correct Answer
    C. Higher headquarters
    Explanation
    The base defense operations center will reportable incidents through higher headquarters. Higher headquarters is the level above the base defense operations center and is responsible for overseeing and coordinating operations across multiple bases or installations. They have the authority and resources to handle and address any significant incidents or issues that may occur at the base.

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  • 8. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?

    • A.

      Accident

    • B.

      Incident

    • C.

      Mistake

    • D.

      Mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Accident
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it implies an unintentional release or discharge of the weapon or component. It suggests that it was not planned or intended to happen, but rather occurred due to an unforeseen event or error. This distinguishes it from an incident, which may imply a more deliberate action or a planned event. Similarly, mistake and mishap also imply some level of human error or unintended consequence, but accident is the most appropriate term in this context.

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  • 9. 

    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      24

    Correct Answer
    D. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that individuals in this category require medical care and transportation, but their condition is not immediately life-threatening. Therefore, they should be evacuated within a reasonable timeframe of 24 hours to ensure their safety and receive the necessary medical attention.

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  • 10. 

    What may be the most dangerous type of improved explosive devise?

    • A.

      Static

    • B.

      Roadside

    • C.

      Vehicle-borne

    • D.

      Romote detonated

    Correct Answer
    C. Vehicle-borne
    Explanation
    A vehicle-borne explosive device refers to a bomb that is concealed or transported within a vehicle, such as a car or truck. This type of explosive device is considered highly dangerous because it can cause significant damage and casualties due to the large amount of explosives that can be carried in a vehicle. Additionally, the mobility of a vehicle allows the attacker to target specific locations or move the bomb to evade detection. Therefore, a vehicle-borne explosive device is considered the most dangerous type of improved explosive device.

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  • 11. 

    Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterlly or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?

    • A.

      President only

    • B.

      Secretary of defense only

    • C.

      President or secretary of defense

    • D.

      President or defense force commander

    Correct Answer
    C. President or secretary of defense
    Explanation
    The President or Secretary of Defense directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort. As the highest-ranking officials in the US government, they have the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding military actions and deployments. This ensures that there is a clear chain of command and accountability in times of crisis, allowing for swift and coordinated responses to protect national security interests.

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  • 12. 

    Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens

    • A.

      Recovery

    • B.

      Peace

    • C.

      Peace enforcement

    • D.

      Noncompatant evacuation

    Correct Answer
    D. Noncompatant evacuation
    Explanation
    Noncombatant evacuation is the operation principally conducted to evacuate US citizens. This operation focuses on the safe evacuation of civilians, including US citizens, from a foreign country during a crisis or conflict. It is aimed at ensuring their safety and bringing them back to their home country. The other options, such as recovery, peace, and peace enforcement, do not specifically address the evacuation of US citizens.

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  • 13. 

    Which operation may be clandestine, covery, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?

    • A.

      Foreign humanitarian assistance

    • B.

      Consequence management

    • C.

      Homeland defense

    • D.

      Recovery

    Correct Answer
    D. Recovery
    Explanation
    The operation of recovery may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on the operational environment being hostile, uncertain, or permissive. In a hostile environment, recovery operations may need to be conducted secretly and discreetly to avoid detection by hostile forces. In an uncertain environment, recovery operations may be conducted covertly, with limited visibility and information sharing. In a permissive environment, recovery operations can be conducted openly and overtly, without the need for secrecy or concealment.

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  • 14. 

    Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information

    • A.

      OSINT

    • B.

      COMINT

    • C.

      HUMINT

    • D.

      INFOMINT

    Correct Answer
    C. HUMINT
    Explanation
    HUMINT, which stands for Human Intelligence, often provides the most useful source of information in intelligence collection. This is because HUMINT involves gathering information through direct contact and interaction with human sources. It allows for the collection of valuable insights, perspectives, and firsthand knowledge that may not be accessible through other means such as technology or surveillance. HUMINT can provide deeper understanding, context, and accuracy to intelligence analysis, making it a crucial source of information for decision-making and strategic planning.

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  • 15. 

    Force protection measures will be planned according with

    • A.

      Determination of the force

    • B.

      The risk to the force

    • C.

      Location of the force

    • D.

      Size of the force

    Correct Answer
    B. The risk to the force
    Explanation
    Force protection measures are planned based on the risk to the force. This means that the level of threat or danger posed to the force is taken into consideration when determining the appropriate measures to protect them. Factors such as the nature of the mission, the environment in which the force operates, and the potential threats they may face are all considered in order to assess the risk level. By understanding the risk to the force, effective force protection measures can be implemented to mitigate potential dangers and ensure the safety of the personnel.

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  • 16. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • A.

      Standoff attack

    • B.

      Penetration attack

    • C.

      Information operation

    • D.

      Chemical, biological attack

    Correct Answer
    B. Penetration attack
    Explanation
    A penetration attack is a type of attack that involves an insider threat. This means that the attack is carried out by someone who has authorized access to the system or network, such as an employee or a contractor. The insider may use their knowledge and privileges to gain unauthorized access, steal sensitive information, or disrupt the system. This type of attack can be particularly dangerous as insiders often have a deep understanding of the system's vulnerabilities and can exploit them effectively.

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  • 17. 

    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

    • A.

      Department of state

    • B.

      Department of justice

    • C.

      Department of defense

    • D.

      Federal bureau of investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of state
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US. This is because the Department of State is responsible for the foreign policy of the United States, including diplomatic relations with other countries. In the context of terrorism, the Department of State coordinates with foreign governments, provides assistance and support to US citizens abroad, and works to prevent and respond to terrorist incidents occurring outside the US. The other options listed, such as the Department of Justice, Department of Defense, and Federal Bureau of Investigation, have different roles and responsibilities within the US and primarily focus on domestic security and law enforcement.

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  • 18. 

    The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?

    • A.

      Arson

    • B.

      Bombing

    • C.

      Highjacking

    • D.

      Kidnapping and hostage taking

    Correct Answer
    B. Bombing
    Explanation
    Terrorist groups most commonly use bombing as their tactic. Bombing allows them to cause mass destruction, instill fear, and attract media attention. It is a highly effective method for achieving their objectives, as it can target crowded areas, infrastructure, or specific individuals. Bombings have been used by various terrorist organizations worldwide, including attacks on public transportation, government buildings, and iconic landmarks. The devastation caused by bombings often leads to significant casualties and widespread panic, making it a preferred choice for terrorist groups seeking to make a strong impact and gain attention for their cause.

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  • 19. 

    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?

    • A.

      5-10

    • B.

      10-15

    • C.

      25-30

    • D.

      35-40

    Correct Answer
    C. 25-30
    Explanation
    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as 25-30. This means that a cell can consist of anywhere between two to 25-30 individuals. The size of the cell may vary depending on the specific group and their operational needs. Having smaller cells allows for greater secrecy and security, making it harder for authorities to detect and dismantle the group. On the other hand, larger cells may be able to carry out more complex and coordinated attacks.

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  • 20. 

    Which individual/groups promote their cause by and means and are ideologically inspired?

    • A.

      Crimanals or professionals

    • B.

      Emotionally disturbed

    • C.

      Passive soldiers

    • D.

      Crusaders

    Correct Answer
    D. Crusaders
    Explanation
    Crusaders promote their cause by any means necessary and are ideologically inspired. They are individuals or groups who passionately advocate for a specific cause or belief system, often with a strong sense of righteousness and a willingness to take extreme actions. They are driven by their ideological convictions and are actively engaged in promoting their cause, often through activism, advocacy, or even violence.

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  • 21. 

    What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

    • A.

      Moderate

    • B.

      Significant

    • C.

      High

    • D.

      Low

    Correct Answer
    B. Significant
    Explanation
    The threat level assessment of "significant" indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and prefer to carry out large casualty-producing attacks. This means that these terrorists pose a substantial threat to the United States, as they are actively planning and executing attacks that have the potential to cause significant harm and loss of life.

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  • 22. 

    The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?

    • A.

      Violence to achieve political goals

    • B.

      Violence to achieve religious goals

    • C.

      Non-violence to achieve political goals

    • D.

      Use violence to achieve ideological goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Violence to achieve political goals
    Explanation
    Insurgency is characterized by the deliberate use of violence to achieve political goals. This sets it apart from other types of movements, such as religious or ideological movements, which may have different objectives or employ non-violent means to achieve their goals. Insurgency typically involves armed rebellion or resistance against a government or authority, with the aim of overthrowing or changing the existing political system. The use of violence is a defining feature of insurgency, as it is seen as a necessary tool to challenge and undermine the established political order.

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  • 23. 

    COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?

    • A.

      Fairness, firmness and fight

    • B.

      Logic, lotalty, and leadership

    • C.

      Patience, persistence, and presence

    • D.

      Cooperation, cohesiveness, and confidence

    Correct Answer
    C. Patience, persistence, and presence
    Explanation
    COIN operations refer to Counterinsurgency operations, which require leaders to exhibit patience, persistence, and presence. Patience is necessary as these operations often involve a long-term commitment and progress may be slow. Persistence is crucial to continue the efforts despite challenges and setbacks. Presence refers to the physical and psychological presence of leaders on the ground, engaging with the local population and building relationships. These qualities are important in gaining the trust and support of the local community, understanding their needs, and effectively countering insurgent activities.

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  • 24. 

    To avoid detection by the government how wil insurgents operate?

    • A.

      Underground

    • B.

      In disguise

    • C.

      In small bands

    • D.

      During the hours of darkness

    Correct Answer
    C. In small bands
    Explanation
    Insurgents may choose to operate in small bands to avoid detection by the government. By operating in small groups, they can minimize the chances of being noticed and increase their mobility. This strategy allows them to carry out their activities covertly and makes it harder for the government to track their movements. Additionally, working in small bands enables them to maintain a low profile and reduces the risk of infiltration or betrayal.

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  • 25. 

    Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

    • A.

      Multinational corporation

    • B.

      Governmental organization

    • C.

      Host nation security council

    • D.

      Intergovernmental organization

    Correct Answer
    D. Intergovernmental organization
    Explanation
    An intergovernmental organization is a type of agency that is created through a formal agreement between two or more governments. These organizations are established to facilitate cooperation and coordination between member states on various issues such as economic, social, political, or environmental matters. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, World Health Organization, and European Union. These organizations play a crucial role in promoting international cooperation and addressing global challenges through diplomatic means.

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  • 26. 

    Which agency is the most notable integovernmental organization?

    • A.

      The united nations

    • B.

      The world hunger league

    • C.

      United nations children fund

    • D.

      The american federation of labor and congress of industrial organizations

    Correct Answer
    A. The united nations
    Explanation
    The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization because it is a global institution that promotes international cooperation and addresses various global issues such as peacekeeping, human rights, and sustainable development. It is composed of 193 member states and serves as a platform for countries to come together and work towards common goals and solutions. The United Nations has a significant impact on global affairs and plays a crucial role in maintaining peace and stability worldwide.

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  • 27. 

    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings and seaports af debarkation are all examples of key

    • A.

      Terrain issues

    • B.

      Logistical issues

    • C.

      Sovereignty issues

    • D.

      Transportation issues

    Correct Answer
    C. Sovereignty issues
    Explanation
    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of locations where a country exercises control and authority over its own territory. These areas are crucial for a country to assert its sovereignty and maintain control over its borders and transportation routes. Therefore, the correct answer is sovereignty issues.

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  • 28. 

    Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operations?

    • A.

      Bare base

    • B.

      Limited base

    • C.

      Main operating base

    • D.

      Forward operating base

    Correct Answer
    B. Limited base
    Explanation
    A limited base is a base that is minimally staffed but has the capability to expand into a full-scale air base operations if needed. This means that it can accommodate more personnel and equipment as required, allowing for increased operational capacity. The other options do not necessarily imply the ability to expand in the same way. Therefore, a limited base is the most suitable choice for a base that is austere in its current state but has the potential for expansion.

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  • 29. 

    What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?

    • A.

      Time

    • B.

      Money

    • C.

      Manning

    • D.

      Flexibility

    Correct Answer
    D. Flexibility
    Explanation
    Peacetime or contingency operations require flexibility when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC. This is because the dynamics of such operations can change rapidly, requiring the ability to adapt and respond accordingly. Flexibility allows for adjustments to be made in terms of deployment, mission objectives, and resource allocation, ensuring that the security forces can effectively address emerging challenges and fulfill their responsibilities.

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  • 30. 

    During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?

    • A.

      Control the traffic flow plan

    • B.

      Ensure all equipment is functioning properly

    • C.

      Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly

    • D.

      Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan

    Correct Answer
    D. Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan
    Explanation
    The DFC (Defense Force Commander) uses staff control tools during base defense operations to disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan. This involves communicating and distributing orders to the relevant personnel and ensuring that the plan is implemented effectively. Staff control tools help the DFC coordinate and manage the various aspects of base defense operations, ensuring that everyone is aware of their responsibilities and tasks.

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  • 31. 

    An effective tool to control integrated defense operation is?

    • A.

      Charts and forms

    • B.

      Base sectorization

    • C.

      Staff control tools

    • D.

      Military symbology

    Correct Answer
    B. Base sectorization
    Explanation
    Base sectorization is an effective tool to control integrated defense operations. It involves dividing a military base or sector into smaller sections, each with specific responsibilities and tasks. This allows for better coordination, communication, and control of operations within the base. By assigning specific sectors to different units or teams, it ensures that all areas are adequately covered and that each unit knows their role and responsibilities. This helps in optimizing resources, improving situational awareness, and enhancing overall operational effectiveness.

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  • 32. 

    What should a flight sector sketch show?

    • A.

      Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them

    • B.

      Flight and squadron identifications

    • C.

      Squad leader positions

    • D.

      True south

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight and squadron identifications
    Explanation
    A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identifications. This is important for communication and coordination among different flights and squadrons during a flight operation. It helps in identifying and tracking the positions of different units involved in the operation, ensuring effective command and control.

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  • 33. 

    In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?

    • A.

      1955

    • B.

      1956

    • C.

      1957

    • D.

      1958

    Correct Answer
    B. 1956
    Explanation
    The Geneva Conventions became effective in 1956. These international treaties were established to protect the rights of individuals during armed conflicts. They established rules for the humane treatment of prisoners of war, the protection of civilians, and the medical treatment of the wounded and sick. The conventions have been ratified by most countries around the world and are considered a cornerstone of international humanitarian law.

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  • 34. 

    Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?

    • A.

      Keeping the prisoners silent is important

    • B.

      To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters

    • C.

      The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive

    • D.

      CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear

    Correct Answer
    C. The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive
    Explanation
    Speed is essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners because the intelligence they provide is time-sensitive. This means that the information they possess can quickly become outdated or lose its value if not acted upon promptly. Therefore, processing them quickly allows for the timely gathering and analysis of intelligence, which can be crucial for making informed decisions and taking appropriate actions in a timely manner.

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  • 35. 

    The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is?

    • A.

      20 meters

    • B.

      30 meters

    • C.

      40 meters

    • D.

      50 meters

    Correct Answer
    D. 50 meters
    Explanation
    The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is 50 meters. This distance is necessary to prevent any potential interference between the transmitter and the refueling equipment, which could pose a safety risk. By maintaining a distance of 50 meters, the risk of any sparks or ignition sources coming into contact with flammable fuels is minimized, ensuring the safety of both the refueling process and the surrounding environment.

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  • 36. 

    To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system(ESS)?

    • A.

      Remove the negative lead first

    • B.

      Remove the positive lead first

    • C.

      It doesn't matter which lead you remove first

    • D.

      Secure the positive lead first and then the negative

    Correct Answer
    B. Remove the positive lead first
    Explanation
    When disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system (ESS), it is recommended to remove the positive lead first. This is because the positive lead is typically connected to the fuse box and other sensitive electrical components. By removing the positive lead first, you reduce the risk of accidentally causing a short circuit or electrical shock. Additionally, removing the positive lead first breaks the electrical connection, making it safer to then remove the negative lead.

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  • 37. 

    Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?

    • A.

      Power

    • B.

      Annunciation

    • C.

      Communications

    • D.

      Response frequenct

    Correct Answer
    C. Communications
    Explanation
    The function that provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators is communications. This function enables the exchange of information and signals between the sensors and annunciators, allowing for the effective monitoring and communication of data within the system.

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  • 38. 

    What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand held display monitor?

    • A.

      MILES

    • B.

      TMS

    • C.

      ESS

    • D.

      BISS

    Correct Answer
    B. TMS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TMS. TMS stands for Training Management System, which is a security system that includes a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a handheld display monitor. This system is commonly used in military training exercises to track and monitor the movements and actions of soldiers in the field. The sensors detect simulated gunfire and other activities, which are then transmitted to the repeaters and displayed on the handheld monitor for real-time situational awareness.

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  • 39. 

    A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately?

    • A.

      90Sec

    • B.

      60 Sec

    • C.

      45 Sec

    • D.

      30 Sec

    Correct Answer
    D. 30 Sec
    Explanation
    The self-preservation method of search is a scanning method that aims to minimize the time spent searching for potential threats while maximizing the safety of the searcher. This method involves quickly scanning the environment for any signs of danger and making rapid decisions to avoid or mitigate potential risks. The fact that the self-preservation method of search lasts approximately 30 seconds suggests that it is a fast and efficient scanning technique that allows individuals to quickly assess their surroundings and take appropriate action to ensure their safety.

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  • 40. 

    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?

    • A.

      Spacing

    • B.

      Aining point

    • C.

      Reference point

    • D.

      Range determination

    Correct Answer
    B. Aining point
    Explanation
    The most effective means of delivering accurate fire is using an aiming point. By focusing on a specific point, such as a target or an object, the shooter can align their sights and adjust their aim accordingly. This allows for better precision and increases the chances of hitting the intended target.

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  • 41. 

    What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination?

    • A.

      Observer proficiency requires constant practice

    • B.

      SF member must pace the range to see if his estimation is correct

    • C.

      Underestimating sloping ground gives the illusion of a greater distance

    • D.

      Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observor

    Correct Answer
    D. Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observor
    Explanation
    The greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination is that accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer. This means that the observer's ability to accurately estimate the range is dependent on how much of the surrounding terrain they can see. If there are obstacles or limited visibility, it becomes more challenging to accurately determine the range using this method.

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  • 42. 

    How does the observore use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?

    • A.

      Look 5 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • B.

      Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • C.

      Look 15 degrees above, below rather then directily at it

    • D.

      Look 20 degrees to either side rather then directily at it

    Correct Answer
    B. Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it
    Explanation
    When the observer uses off-center vision during limited visibility, they should look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object instead of directly at it. This allows the observer to utilize their peripheral vision, which is more sensitive to detecting objects in low light or obscured conditions. By looking slightly off-center, the observer can increase their chances of noticing the object and gathering more information about its presence or characteristics.

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  • 43. 

    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    D. 2
  • 44. 

    When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?

    • A.

      2 to 4 inches

    • B.

      4 to 6 inches

    • C.

      6 to 8 inches

    • D.

      8 to 10 inches

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 to 8 inches
    Explanation
    The TMS magnetic sensor needs to be buried 6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach. This depth ensures that the sensor is properly positioned to detect magnetic fields and accurately measure traffic flow. Burying it too shallow may result in inaccurate readings, while burying it too deep may reduce its sensitivity. Therefore, burying the sensor at a depth of 6 to 8 inches provides the optimal balance for accurate and reliable data collection.

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  • 45. 

    The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are?

    • A.

      Ab enutter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • B.

      A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • C.

      A transformer head, infrared sensor head and transmitter

    • D.

      An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    Correct Answer
    A. Ab enutter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
  • 46. 

    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?

    • A.

      In snowy conditions

    • B.

      Dense fog

    • C.

      Rainy weather

    • D.

      Bright sunlight

    Correct Answer
    B. Dense fog
    Explanation
    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in dense fog. This is because dense fog can scatter and absorb the infrared radiation emitted by objects, making it difficult for the sensors to accurately detect and differentiate between objects. The fog particles can also cause false readings or reduce the sensitivity of the sensors, leading to decreased detection capability in such weather conditions.

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  • 47. 

    What is the WSTI used for?

    • A.

      Alarm annunciation and visual inspection

    • B.

      Sensor identification and recognition

    • C.

      To assess the alarms of a sensor activation

    • D.

      Boundary protection

    Correct Answer
    C. To assess the alarms of a sensor activation
    Explanation
    The WSTI (Wireless Sensor Test Instrument) is used to assess the alarms of a sensor activation. This means that it is used to evaluate and analyze the alarms that are triggered when a sensor detects a certain condition or event. The WSTI helps in determining the accuracy and effectiveness of the sensor's alarm system, ensuring that it is functioning properly and providing reliable notifications.

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  • 48. 

    How many people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    Three people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod. This suggests that the tripod is large or heavy, requiring multiple individuals to assemble it properly. Having three people ensures that the setup process can be done efficiently and safely, with each person responsible for specific tasks or components of the tripod.

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  • 49. 

    From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?

    • A.

      DCU

    • B.

      DCS

    • C.

      JCU

    • D.

      BDOC

    Correct Answer
    C. JCU
    Explanation
    The operational command and controls are performed from the JCU.

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  • 50. 

    The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to?

    • A.

      Provide full color imagery and video

    • B.

      Provide communication and data to the base defense operation center

    • C.

      Allow you to view the enemy from long distances

    • D.

      Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system

    Correct Answer
    D. Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system. This means that the LRTI-CCTV is used to monitor and evaluate the alarms that are being signaled by the TASS system. It is not primarily used to provide full color imagery and video, provide communication and data to the base defense operation center, or allow you to view the enemy from long distances.

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