Security Forces Craftsman Vol. 1
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- 1.What is the most rigorous stage of development?
- A.
SrA
- B.
MSgt
- C.
Ssgt and Tsgt
- D.
Amn and A1C
- 2.Which of these is not a Senior Airman Duty?
- A.
Patrol leader
- B.
Squad leader
- C.
BDOC
- D.
ISRT/ESRT
- 3.Which Ssgt or Tsgt dust is available in certain locations?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Flight Sergeant
- C.
Response force leader
- D.
NCOIC/ Assistant NCOIC
- 4.What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?
- A.
MSgt
- B.
CMSGT
- C.
SMSGT
- D.
SSGT AND TSGT
- 5.What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?
- A.
Tactical control
- B.
Strategic control
- C.
Operational control
- D.
Administrative Control
- 6.Which commander exercises operational control?
- A.
Squadron commander
- B.
Installation commander
- C.
Joint Force Commander
- D.
Major command Commander
- 7.Supervisors must ensure their troops
- A.
Have food and water
- B.
Possess required qualifications and certifications
- C.
Are supplied with weapons and required equipment
- D.
Are issued special security instructions and study material
- 8.Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?
- A.
Wing commander
- B.
Squadron commander
- C.
Security forces manager
- D.
Unit deployment manager
- 9.Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
- A.
Duty roster
- B.
Post priority listing
- C.
Unit manning document
- D.
Unit personnel manning roster
- 10.All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties except the
- A.
Major command Commander
- B.
MAJCOM vice commander
- C.
Installation Commander
- D.
Combatant Commander
- 11.Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Commander
- C.
Servicing armory
- D.
Security forces manager
- 12.How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 13.What drives a post priority chart?
- A.
Vulnerability assessment
- B.
Inspector General assessment
- C.
Force protection Conditions
- D.
Integrated defense risk management assessment
- 14.Post priority charts are used to
- A.
Allocate vehicles
- B.
Allocate manpower
- C.
Determine post rotations
- D.
Determine weapon configurations
- 15.Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?
- A.
Group commander
- B.
Security forces manager
- C.
Defense Forces commandrr
- D.
Each individual flight chief
- 16.The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited security forces in
- A.
Higher force protection conditions
- B.
Peacetime and wartime
- C.
Peacetime
- D.
Wartime
- 17.When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain
- A.
Proficiency
- B.
Discipline
- C.
Fairness
- D.
Control
- 18.What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?
- A.
Post rotations
- B.
Specialized courses
- C.
Recognition program
- D.
Providing time off
- 19.As a supervisor what must you instill in your subordinates?
- A.
Standards
- B.
Discipline
- C.
Work ethic
- D.
Mentorship
- 20.What should you do if your subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?
- A.
Issue paperwork
- B.
Verbally counsel the subordinate
- C.
Investigate to determine the cause
- D.
Assign the subordinate a new supervisor
- 21.The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is
- A.
Report
- B.
Parade rest
- C.
Open ranks march
- D.
Prepare for inspection
- 22.After the command "open rank, March", which of the following action does the flight take?
- A.
The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal.interval. each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces forward, halts and automatically executes dress right dress
- B.
The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress
- C.
Not this long option
- D.
Nor this long option
- 23.After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 24.When does the second element leader give the command "Second elemen, Attention"
- A.
As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands "Second element, attention"
- B.
As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element
- C.
As the inspecting official gets withing two paces of the right flank of the formation
- D.
As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader
- 25.When do you give the command "Close ranks, March!"?
- A.
Upon departure of the inspecting offical
- B.
At the completion of the guard mount briefing
- C.
Immediately after the fourth rank has been inspected
- D.
When the remarks of the inspecting offical have been completed
- 26.Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?
- A.
AFI 36-2903
- B.
AFI 36-2905
- C.
AFMAN 36-2903
- D.
AFMAN 36-2905
- 27.Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
- A.
Flight member
- B.
Flight supervisor
- C.
Flight commander
- D.
On commissioned officer in charge of supply
- 28.A post check generally includes all of these items except
- A.
Area inspection
- B.
Facility inspection
- C.
Weapons inspection
- D.
Classified material inspection
- 29.What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else's writing?
- A.
AFI 33-337
- B.
AFH 33-336
- C.
AFI 32-337
- D.
AFH 33-337
- 30.When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
- A.
Lengthy
- B.
Made up
- C.
Irrelevant
- D.
Inappropriate
- 31.The primary function of reviewing is to ensure
- A.
The communication gets the point across
- B.
Ideas are being communicated understandably, ND the communication gets the point across.
- C.
Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect puncuation) and the communication gets the point across
- D.
Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across
- 32.Who's is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
- A.
Unit training section
- B.
Defense force commander
- C.
Air force security forces center
- D.
Senior security forces non-commissioned officers
- 33.Who's is reponsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?
- A.
Unit training secrion
- B.
Immediate supervisors
- C.
Air force security forces center
- D.
Senior security forces NCO'S
- 34.What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
- A.
Analysis
- B.
Feedback
- C.
Evaluation
- D.
Cross-feed
- 35.The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
- A.
Measure qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions
- B.
Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller
- C.
Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions
- D.
Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty
- 36.The primary purpose of the Military Working Dog is to
- A.
Aggressive against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
- B.
Track, detect, and aggressive against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
- C.
Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
- D.
Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
- 37.Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is
- A.
Apprehension or release
- B.
Pepper spray or gunfire
- C.
Resistance or restraint
- D.
Gunfire or escape
- 38.When using dogs on deception screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?
- A.
In low contact areas, so they don't give away your position to the enemy by barking
- B.
Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability
- C.
At Key vantage points and avenues of apoach to deny entry to unauthorized persons
- D.
Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy
- 39.A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous
- A.
Deterrent to potential violators
- B.
Physical deterrent to potential violators
- C.
Physiological deterrent to potential violators
- D.
Psychological deterrent to potential violators
- 40.During peaceful confrontations, the MWD team should be positioned
- A.
In reserve, out of sight of the crowd
- B.
Off to the side, out of direct vision of the crowd
- C.
Right out in front to ward off potential participants
- D.
Elsewhere and not used in peaceful confrontations
- 41.All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 37-117, arming and use of force by air force personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the
- A.
Threat working group
- B.
Integrated base defense council
- C.
Force protection commodity council
- D.
Equipment, weapons, and configuration board
- 42."All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked" means that they
- A.
All must have SF badges applied to both the front doors
- B.
Al must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios
- C.
Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system
- D.
All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD
- 43.Which radio type can talk over great distances?
- A.
Base station
- B.
Portable radio
- C.
Basic station remote
- D.
Mobile two-way radion
- 44.The basic pursue of the financial plan submission is to
- A.
Ensure the Air Force is a lower to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions
- B.
Ensure an equitable distribution of the President's budget for the next fiscal year
- C.
Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission
- D.
Provide congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session
- 45.Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year?
- A.
Numbered air forces
- B.
Headquarters Air Force
- C.
MAJCOMs
- D.
Air Force Security Forces Center
- 46.What is not a category for the status of funds?
- A.
Committed
- B.
Obligated
- C.
End of year
- D.
Uncommitted
- 47.Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM) functional
- B.
MAJCOM corporate structure
- C.
Financial management board
- D.
Financial working group
- 48.What provides standards to help commanders determine the an power requirements for their units?
- A.
Manpower standards program
- B.
Manpower standards platform
- C.
Management engineering program
- D.
Management and equipment program
- 49.When are manpower numbers reviewed
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Annually
- D.
Bi-annually
- 50.Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?
- A.
Work center
- B.
Position number
- C.
AFSC
- D.
Report no later than date
- 51.Where does the installations labor relations specialist work?
- A.
Civilian personnel office
- B.
Staff judge advocate office
- C.
Contract management office
- D.
Area defense council office
- 52.All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except
- A.
Supervisors
- B.
Management officials
- C.
Professional employees
- D.
Employees in non-dedicated positions
- 53.What statute protects an alleged violation of a right?
- A.
Federal Service bargaining and management statute (5 USC ch. 71)
- B.
Federal Service Bargaining and Management statute (5 USC ch. 70)
- C.
Federal Service Labor-management relation statute (5 USC ch. 70)
- D.
Federal Service Labor-management relations statute (5 USC ch. 71)
- 54.Who controls the depth, scope, and frequency of internal.inspections?
- A.
Commanders
- B.
Wing inspector general
- C.
Air Force Inspection Agency
- D.
MAJCOM
- 55.Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons inspection technical inspections?
- A.
Controlled nuclear surety inspection (CNSI)
- B.
Limited Nuclear Surety Inspection (LNSI)
- C.
Initial Nuclear Surety Inspection (INSI)
- D.
Joint Nuclear Surety Inspection (JNSI)
- 56.Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
- A.
Code 1
- B.
Code 2
- C.
Code 3
- D.
Code 4
- 57.Which is not designated a PL1 resource?
- A.
Nuclear weapons
- B.
Senior executive mission aircraft
- C.
Aircraft designated for the first lady of the United States
- D.
Command, Control, communicatikns, and computer (C4) systems
- 58.Which protection level is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security?
- A.
PL4
- B.
PL3
- C.
PL2
- D.
PL1
- 59.How many team configurations are there.for use in a tactical situation?
- A.
5
- B.
4
- C.
3
- D.
2
- 60.Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front?
- A.
Three-person
- B.
Two-person
- C.
Four-person
- D.
Y-formation
- 61.The T-formation is best suited for what environment?
- A.
Intersecting hallways
- B.
Narrow hallways
- C.
Wider hallways
- D.
Stairwells
- 62.Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry using a shotgun?
- A.
Hinges
- B.
Door know
- C.
Locking mechanism
- D.
Center mass of the door
- 63.When making room entry your weapons should be oriented towards the
- A.
Threat
- B.
Fast wall
- C.
Unknown
- D.
Strong wall
- 64.When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls log security to the next bend or landing?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 65.When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not
- A.
Knock normally
- B.
Listen for 15 to 30 seconds
- C.
Stand directly in front of the door
- D.
Check to see if screened doors are locked
- 66.What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?
- A.
The nature of the dispute
- B.
The location of the dispute
- C.
The responding patrol's attitude
- D.
Whether or not children are present
- 67.Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?
- A.
Deep cuts
- B.
Bloody nose
- C.
Fractured bones
- D.
Damaged internal organs
- 68.Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?
- A.
Rape
- B.
Assault
- C.
Adultery
- D.
Child abuse
- 69.What is not considered an objective of the victim/witness assistance program (VWAP)?
- A.
Mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim
- B.
Ensure best efforts are made to accord the victims certain rights
- C.
Foster cooperation of victims and witnesses
- D.
Prosecute the accused
- 70.Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or died?
- A.
First sergeant
- B.
Defense Force Commander
- C.
Installation Staff Judge Advocate
- D.
AFOSI
- 71.What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?
- A.
It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.
- B.
It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime
- C.
It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location
- D.
It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found.
- 72.What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?
- A.
It allows photographs to be taken
- B.
It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene
- C.
It allows responding patrols to better piece together events
- D.
It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found
- 73.Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?
- A.
It allows for additional flight members to gain experience
- B.
It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training
- C.
It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects
- D.
It could possibly destroy your hard work, contaminate thenscene, and violate the chain of evidence requirements
- 74.Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to
- A.
Collect and preserve
- B.
Observe and record
- C.
Record and sketch
- D.
Photo and record
- 75.Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site
- A.
Installation commander
- B.
Disaster control group
- C.
Incident commander
- D.
Fire chief
- 76.During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported?
- A.
Recovery phase
- B.
Response phase
- C.
Notification phase
- D.
Withdrawal phase
- 77.Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming?
- A.
Recovery phase
- B.
Response phase
- C.
Notification phase
- D.
Withdrawal phase
- 78.What zone established at a weapons of mass destruction incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?
- A.
Control zone
- B.
Warm zone
- C.
Cold zone
- D.
Hot zone
- 79.Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency requests help through the
- A.
United States Army
- B.
Department of State
- C.
Department of Defense
- D.
FBI
- 80.During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation commander reassess the situation?
- A.
Sustained emergency phase
- B.
Initial emergency phase
- C.
Notification phase
- D.
Recovery phase
- 81.Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation?
- A.
Public affairs
- B.
School principle
- C.
Incident commander
- D.
Defense force commander
- 82.What is the time limit placed kn suspect interviews?
- A.
As long as it takes to get a confession
- B.
No more than 30 minutes
- C.
No more than 60 minutes
- D.
There is not time limit
- 83.When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?
- A.
Seek defense force commander advice
- B.
Seek area defense counsel advice
- C.
Seek staff judge advocate advice
- D.
Question the witness
- 84.Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to.questioning?
- A.
Nationality
- B.
Income
- C.
Race
- D.
Age
- 85.An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
- A.
Habitual offender
- B.
Psychotic offender
- C.
First time offender
- D.
Professional offender
- 86.During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up investigation, should a determination be made that the initial incident scene was a thoroughly processed?
- A.
Collecting physical evidence
- B.
Conducting additional interviews
- C.
Identifying and apprehending suspets
- D.
Review and analyze all previous reports
- 87.The air force form 3226 is used from apprehension
- A.
In a private dwelling
- B.
During the interview
- C.
Off the installation
- D.
In a work center
- 88.To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander must coordinate with the
- A.
MAJCOM SJA
- B.
Defense force commander
- C.
Installation SJA
- D.
Host nation
- 89.Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?
- A.
Speaking to the witnesses
- B.
Consulting with the defense counsel
- C.
Arranging and reviewing original notes
- D.
Returning to the crime scene to recall the events
- 90.Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential when testifying?
- A.
Skill, tact, and self assurance
- B.
Skill, tact, poise, and self confidence
- C.
Skill, reliance, poise and self confidence
- D.
Skill, cockiness, poise, and self confidence
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