Security Forces Craftsman Vol. 1

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  • 1/90 Questions

    Supervisors must ensure their troops

    • Have food and water
    • Possess required qualifications and certifications
    • Are supplied with weapons and required equipment
    • Are issued special security instructions and study material
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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The military is one of the shows of might of any country. It involves many hours of endless training, all which is necessary for the line of work. The security forces craftsman vol. 1 tests more on the subject.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?

    • Deep cuts

    • Bloody nose

    • Fractured bones

    • Damaged internal organs

    Correct Answer
    A. Bloody nose
    Explanation
    A bloody nose is not considered grievous bodily harm because it is a relatively minor injury compared to the other options. While it can be painful and cause discomfort, it typically does not cause long-term or life-threatening damage. On the other hand, deep cuts, fractured bones, and damaged internal organs can all result in serious physical harm and have the potential to cause significant health complications or even death.

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  • 3. 

    Which Ssgt or Tsgt dust is available in certain locations?

    • Supervisor

    • Flight Sergeant

    • Response force leader

    • NCOIC/ Assistant NCOIC

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Sergeant
    Explanation
    Flight Sergeant is the correct answer because it is a rank in the Royal Air Force (RAF) and certain locations may have Flight Sergeants available. Ssgt or Tsgt dust is not a recognizable term or acronym, and Supervisor, Response force leader, and NCOIC/Assistant NCOIC are not specific to certain locations. Therefore, Flight Sergeant is the most logical choice as the correct answer.

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  • 4. 

    What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?

    • Post rotations

    • Specialized courses

    • Recognition program

    • Providing time off

    Correct Answer
    A. Post rotations
    Explanation
    Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high by providing variety and new challenges for the team. By rotating individuals to different positions or tasks within the flight, it prevents monotony and allows team members to learn new skills. This can boost morale as it keeps the team engaged and motivated. Additionally, post rotations provide opportunities for personal growth and development, which can further contribute to a positive and high morale within the flight.

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  • 5. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • Analysis

    • Feedback

    • Evaluation

    • Cross-feed

    Correct Answer
    A. Feedback
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it allows them to gather information and insights about their performance and make necessary adjustments. Feedback provides commanders with an understanding of how their decisions and actions are perceived by others, helps them identify areas of improvement, and enables them to make informed decisions based on the input received. By actively seeking and utilizing feedback, commanders can enhance their leadership skills, optimize their strategies, and ultimately achieve their objectives more effectively.

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  • 6. 

    Which of these is not a Senior Airman Duty?

    • Patrol leader

    • Squad leader

    • BDOC

    • ISRT/ESRT

    Correct Answer
    A. Squad leader
    Explanation
    A squad leader is not a Senior Airman duty because a Senior Airman is typically an enlisted rank in the Air Force, and a squad leader is a leadership position within a squad or unit. Senior Airmen are usually responsible for performing technical duties and providing support to higher-ranking officers, whereas a squad leader is responsible for leading and managing a group of individuals within the unit.

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  • 7. 

    Post priority charts are used to

    • Allocate vehicles

    • Allocate manpower

    • Determine post rotations

    • Determine weapon configurations

    Correct Answer
    A. Allocate manpower
    Explanation
    Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that these charts are used to determine how many personnel are needed for each post or task. By using these charts, organizations can ensure that they have the right number of people in each position, based on the priority and importance of the tasks. This helps in optimizing the allocation of manpower resources and ensuring that all posts are adequately staffed. It also helps in identifying any gaps or imbalances in the distribution of manpower and allows for adjustments to be made accordingly.

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  • 8. 

    The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited security forces in

    • Higher force protection conditions

    • Peacetime and wartime

    • Peacetime

    • Wartime

    Correct Answer
    A. Peacetime and wartime
    Explanation
    The post priority chart is designed to optimize the allocation of limited security forces in both peacetime and wartime. This means that regardless of the security conditions, whether it is a higher force protection condition or during times of peace or war, the chart ensures that the available security forces are utilized efficiently. It provides a systematic approach to prioritize posts and allocate resources based on the level of threat or importance, allowing for effective security measures to be implemented in any situation.

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  • 9. 

    What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?

    • It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.

    • It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime

    • It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location

    • It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found.

    Correct Answer
    A. It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime
    Explanation
    Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because these actions can potentially disturb or alter crucial evidence that could provide valuable information about the crime and the perpetrator. By tampering with the scene, important clues may be lost or misinterpreted, leading the investigator to make incorrect assumptions or judgments about what transpired.

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  • 10. 

    Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?

    • It allows for additional flight members to gain experience

    • It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training

    • It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects

    • It could possibly destroy your hard work, contaminate thenscene, and violate the chain of evidence requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects
    Explanation
    Having a patrolman who is not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it allows for fresh eyes to examine the crime scene without any bias. Victims, witnesses, and suspects may inadvertently contaminate the scene or influence the investigation with their perspectives. By having someone who is not involved in the initial investigation search the scene, it increases the likelihood of discovering important evidence or details that may have been overlooked. This helps maintain the integrity of the investigation and ensures that all possible avenues are explored.

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  • 11. 

    When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?

    • Seek defense force commander advice

    • Seek area defense counsel advice

    • Seek staff judge advocate advice

    • Question the witness

    Correct Answer
    A. Seek staff judge advocate advice
    Explanation
    If you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner when questioning a juvenile, seeking staff judge advocate advice is the appropriate action to take. The staff judge advocate is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on legal matters, including the proper procedures for questioning a juvenile. They can help ensure that the juvenile's rights are protected and that the questioning is conducted in a legally appropriate manner.

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  • 12. 

    What is the most rigorous stage of development? 

    • SrA

    • MSgt

    • Ssgt and Tsgt

    • Amn and A1C

    Correct Answer
    A. Amn and A1C
    Explanation
    The most rigorous stage of development is at the level of Amn and A1C. This is because at this stage, individuals are relatively new to the military and are still learning the basics. They are expected to undergo extensive training and development in order to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively. Additionally, they are often closely supervised and evaluated to ensure they meet the standards and requirements of the military.

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  • 13. 

    When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain

    • Proficiency

    • Discipline

    • Fairness

    • Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Proficiency
    Explanation
    Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified ensures that they gain experience and expertise in different areas, thereby enhancing their proficiency. By being exposed to different roles, individuals can develop a broader skill set and a deeper understanding of the organization's operations. This rotation also prevents employees from becoming complacent or stagnant in one position, promoting continuous learning and growth. Ultimately, maintaining proficiency among personnel contributes to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the organization.

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  • 14. 

    Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?

    • Flight member

    • Flight supervisor

    • Flight commander

    • On commissioned officer in charge of supply

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight member
    Explanation
    The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that it is their duty to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and to report any issues or malfunctions. This responsibility is likely assigned to the flight member because they have direct access to and knowledge of the equipment they use on a regular basis. The flight supervisor and flight commander may also have some oversight and responsibility, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the individual flight member. The commissioned officer in charge of supply may have a role in managing the inventory and procurement of equipment, but they may not have direct responsibility for its maintenance.

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  • 15. 

    The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to

    • Measure qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions

    • Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller

    • Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions

    • Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions
    Explanation
    The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This evaluation ensures that individuals have the necessary skills and abilities to effectively carry out their assigned duties. It helps in determining whether an individual is suitable for a particular position and provides a certification that validates their competency. By assessing qualifications, the evaluation process helps in ensuring that only qualified individuals are assigned to specific duty positions.

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  • 16. 

    Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the

    • Duty roster

    • Post priority listing

    • Unit manning document

    • Unit personnel manning roster

    Correct Answer
    A. Post priority listing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Post priority listing." A post priority listing is a document that determines the order in which posts or patrols should be manned. It helps to prioritize the allocation of personnel to different posts based on their importance or urgency. This ensures that critical areas or tasks are adequately staffed and that resources are allocated efficiently. The duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may also be relevant for determining staffing levels, but they do not specifically address the prioritization of posts or patrols.

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  • 17. 

    The primary purpose of the Military Working Dog is to 

    • Aggressive against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources

    • Track, detect, and aggressive against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources

    • Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources

    • Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources

    Correct Answer
    A. Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the Military Working Dog is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the dogs are trained to discourage potential intruders from entering Air Force areas, identify any intruders that do enter, and physically restrain or apprehend them if necessary. The dogs play a crucial role in enhancing security and protecting Air Force resources by providing a highly trained and capable force to respond to potential threats.

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  • 18. 

    What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?

    • The nature of the dispute

    • The location of the dispute

    • The responding patrol's attitude

    • Whether or not children are present

    Correct Answer
    A. The responding patrol's attitude
    Explanation
    The attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute are determined by the responding patrol's attitude. This means that the way the patrol officer approaches and handles the situation can greatly influence the behavior and response of the individuals involved in the dispute. A positive and respectful attitude from the patrol officer can help de-escalate the situation and encourage cooperation, while a negative or aggressive attitude may exacerbate the conflict and hinder cooperation.

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  • 19. 

    Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?

    • Rape

    • Assault

    • Adultery

    • Child abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Rape
    Explanation
    Rape is considered one of the most serious crimes that will be investigated, excluding homicide. It involves non-consensual sexual activity and is a violation of a person's autonomy, bodily integrity, and dignity. Rape cases are treated with utmost seriousness by law enforcement agencies and are subject to thorough investigation to ensure justice for the victim. The severity of the crime and its long-lasting physical, emotional, and psychological impact make it a top priority for investigation and prosecution.

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  • 20. 

    What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?

    • It allows photographs to be taken

    • It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene

    • It allows responding patrols to better piece together events

    • It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found

    Correct Answer
    A. It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found
    Explanation
    Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because it ensures that no evidence is tampered with or contaminated, which is crucial for a thorough and accurate investigation. By preserving the scene, the investigator can carefully examine every detail, collect relevant evidence, and make informed conclusions about the crime.

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  • 21. 

    What should you do if your subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?

    • Issue paperwork

    • Verbally counsel the subordinate

    • Investigate to determine the cause

    • Assign the subordinate a new supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Investigate to determine the cause
    Explanation
    When a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This step is crucial in order to understand the underlying reasons behind the employee's performance issues. By conducting an investigation, the supervisor can identify any potential obstacles or challenges that may be affecting the subordinate's performance. This will enable the supervisor to address the root cause of the problem and provide appropriate guidance or support to help the subordinate improve their performance.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not an alarm response code?

    • Code 1

    • Code 2

    • Code 3

    • Code 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Code 4
    Explanation
    Code 4 is not an alarm response code because it is not listed as one of the options provided. The question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code, and since Code 4 is not mentioned in the options, it can be concluded that it is not an alarm response code.

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  • 23. 

    What is the time limit placed kn suspect interviews?

    • As long as it takes to get a confession

    • No more than 30 minutes

    • No more than 60 minutes

    • There is not time limit

    Correct Answer
    A. There is not time limit
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "There is not time limit." This means that there is no specific time restriction placed on suspect interviews. The duration of the interview can vary depending on the circumstances and the progress made during the investigation. The absence of a time limit allows law enforcement officials to conduct thorough and comprehensive interviews, ensuring that they gather all necessary information and evidence.

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  • 24. 

    Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?

    • Group commander

    • Security forces manager

    • Defense Forces commandrr

    • Each individual flight chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Forces commandrr
    Explanation
    The Defense Forces commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This implies that the commander is responsible for making decisions regarding the allocation of resources and personnel within the Defense Forces. They have the power to decide whether certain posts can be left unmanned, potentially based on factors such as the current situation, available resources, and strategic priorities.

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  • 25. 

    When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is 

    • Lengthy

    • Made up

    • Irrelevant

    • Inappropriate

    Correct Answer
    A. Irrelevant
    Explanation
    When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one of the concerns is that it may contain irrelevant information. Irrelevant information can distract the reader from the main points and make it difficult to understand and apply the technical content effectively. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the material is focused and only includes relevant information that is necessary for the intended audience.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm?

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • Servicing armory

    • Security forces manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. As the person in charge of a military unit or organization, the commander has the authority to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms. They have the power to suspend or revoke someone's right to bear arms if they deem it necessary for the safety and security of the unit or individual.

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  • 27. 

    When do you give the command "Close ranks, March!"?

    • Upon departure of the inspecting offical

    • At the completion of the guard mount briefing

    • Immediately after the fourth rank has been inspected

    • When the remarks of the inspecting offical have been completed

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon departure of the inspecting offical
    Explanation
    The command "Close ranks, March!" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This command is used to signal the guards to close their ranks and resume their positions after the inspection is complete. It ensures that the formation is ready to move on to the next phase of the ceremony or event.

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  • 28. 

    The primary function of reviewing is to ensure

    • The communication gets the point across

    • Ideas are being communicated understandably, ND the communication gets the point across.

    • Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect puncuation) and the communication gets the point across

    • Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across

    Correct Answer
    A. Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across
    Explanation
    The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, using acceptable English with correct grammar, easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs, and proper punctuation. Additionally, the review process aims to ensure that the communication effectively conveys the intended point or message.

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  • 29. 

    Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry using a shotgun?

    • Hinges

    • Door know

    • Locking mechanism

    • Center mass of the door

    Correct Answer
    A. Center mass of the door
    Explanation
    The center mass of the door is not considered a target point for entry using a shotgun. When using a shotgun to breach a door, the usual target points are the hinges, door knob, and locking mechanism. These areas are targeted because they are weak points that can be easily damaged or destroyed, allowing for entry. The center mass of the door is not typically targeted because it is a solid and sturdy area that is more difficult to penetrate.

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  • 30. 

    Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case? 

    • Speaking to the witnesses

    • Consulting with the defense counsel

    • Arranging and reviewing original notes

    • Returning to the crime scene to recall the events

    Correct Answer
    A. Arranging and reviewing original notes
    Explanation
    Arranging and reviewing original notes aids in recalling all the details of the case prior to the trial. By organizing and going through the original notes, one can refresh their memory about the evidence, testimonies, and important information related to the case. This process helps in ensuring that all the relevant details are fresh in the mind before presenting the case in court. It allows the person to have a comprehensive understanding of the case and be well-prepared for any questions or challenges that may arise during the trial.

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  • 31. 

    What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?

    • MSgt

    • CMSGT

    • SMSGT

    • SSGT AND TSGT

    Correct Answer
    A. SMSGT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SMSGT. In the military, SMSGT stands for Senior Master Sergeant, which is a rank that is typically associated with higher levels of leadership and responsibility. At this level, individuals are expected to have a strong understanding of operational and strategic concepts and be able to effectively lead and manage teams in complex and challenging situations.

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  • 32. 

    The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is

    • Report

    • Parade rest

    • Open ranks march

    • Prepare for inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Report
    Explanation
    After the flight falls in for inspection, the next command given would be "Report". This command is used to indicate that the individuals in the flight should provide their names or any necessary information to the person in charge of the inspection. It is a way to ensure accountability and organization within the flight during the inspection process.

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  • 33. 

    After the command "open rank, March", which of the following action does the flight take?

    • The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal.interval. each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces forward, halts and automatically executes dress right dress

    • The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress

    • Not this long option

    • Nor this long option

    Correct Answer
    A. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress
    Explanation
    After the command "open rank, March", the flight takes the following action: The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress. This means that the last person in the formation remains in place while everyone else moves forward a certain number of paces before halting and performing the dress right dress action.

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  • 34. 

    A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous 

    • Deterrent to potential violators

    • Physical deterrent to potential violators

    • Physiological deterrent to potential violators

    • Psychological deterrent to potential violators

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent to potential violators
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team used in police services activities can act as a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a well-trained and intimidating police dog can create fear and uncertainty in the minds of potential criminals, making them think twice before engaging in illegal activities. The perception of being chased or apprehended by a police dog can be enough to discourage individuals from committing crimes, thus serving as a psychological deterrent.

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  • 35. 

    "All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked" means that they

    • All must have SF badges applied to both the front doors

    • Al must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios

    • Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system

    • All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD

    Correct Answer
    A. Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system
    Explanation
    The statement "All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked" implies that these vehicles are required to have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This is because these features are essential for ensuring the visibility and audibility of the security forces vehicles while performing their duties. These tools help to alert and communicate with the public in emergency situations, enhancing the effectiveness and safety of the security forces.

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  • 36. 

    The basic pursue of the financial plan submission is to

    • Ensure the Air Force is a lower to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions

    • Ensure an equitable distribution of the President's budget for the next fiscal year

    • Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission

    • Provide congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure an equitable distribution of the President's budget for the next fiscal year
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ensure an equitable distribution of the President's budget for the next fiscal year." This means that the purpose of the financial plan submission is to ensure that the budget allocated by the President for the next fiscal year is distributed fairly and evenly among different areas or departments within the Air Force. It is important to ensure that resources are allocated in a balanced manner to meet the needs of various operations and missions.

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  • 37. 

    What is not considered an objective of the victim/witness assistance program (VWAP)?

    • Mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim

    • Ensure best efforts are made to accord the victims certain rights

    • Foster cooperation of victims and witnesses

    • Prosecute the accused

    Correct Answer
    A. Prosecute the accused
    Explanation
    The victim/witness assistance program (VWAP) aims to provide support and assistance to victims and witnesses of crimes. It focuses on mitigating the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim, ensuring that victims are accorded certain rights, and fostering cooperation of victims and witnesses. However, prosecuting the accused is not considered an objective of the VWAP. The program's primary goal is to support and assist the victim, rather than focusing on the legal proceedings against the accused.

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  • 38. 

    Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming?

    • Recovery phase

    • Response phase

    • Notification phase

    • Withdrawal phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery phase
    Explanation
    The recovery phase is the most complex and time-consuming major accident response phase because it involves restoring the affected area to its pre-incident state. This phase includes activities such as cleaning up the site, repairing damaged infrastructure, and providing support to affected individuals and businesses. It requires careful planning, coordination, and resources to ensure a successful recovery process.

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  • 39. 

    What zone established at a weapons of mass destruction incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?

    • Control zone

    • Warm zone

    • Cold zone

    • Hot zone

    Correct Answer
    A. Hot zone
    Explanation
    The zone established at a weapons of mass destruction incident site that is also referred to as a restricted zone is the Hot zone. This is the area where the highest level of contamination and danger is present, and access is restricted to only trained personnel wearing appropriate protective gear.

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  • 40. 

    What drives a post priority chart?

    • Vulnerability assessment

    • Inspector General assessment

    • Force protection Conditions

    • Integrated defense risk management assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated defense risk management assessment
    Explanation
    The Integrated Defense Risk Management Assessment drives a post priority chart. This assessment helps in identifying and evaluating potential risks and threats to a military post or installation. It takes into consideration various factors such as vulnerability assessment, Inspector General assessment, and force protection conditions to determine the priority of different posts. By conducting this assessment, military authorities can allocate resources and prioritize their actions based on the level of risk and potential impact on the overall defense system.

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  • 41. 

    After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left facing movement.

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  • 42. 

    A post check generally includes all of these items except

    • Area inspection

    • Facility inspection

    • Weapons inspection

    • Classified material inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons inspection
    Explanation
    A post check is a process that involves inspecting various aspects of a facility or area. It typically includes area inspection, facility inspection, and classified material inspection to ensure everything is in order. However, weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check as it is more specific to security measures and may be conducted separately.

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  • 43. 

    Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is

    • Apprehension or release

    • Pepper spray or gunfire

    • Resistance or restraint

    • Gunfire or escape

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunfire or escape
    Explanation
    Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that when faced with a situation where the use of firearms or the possibility of the suspect escaping is present, patrol dogs are seen as a safer and less harmful option. Patrol dogs can be used to apprehend suspects without resorting to the use of firearms, reducing the risk of injury or death to both the suspect and law enforcement personnel. Additionally, the use of patrol dogs can help prevent suspects from escaping, ensuring that they are brought to justice.

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  • 44. 

    When making room entry your weapons should be oriented towards the

    • Threat

    • Fast wall

    • Unknown

    • Strong wall

    Correct Answer
    A. Unknown
    Explanation
    When making room entry, it is important to keep your weapons oriented towards the "Unknown" direction. This means that you should be prepared to engage any potential threats that may be present in the room. By keeping your weapons oriented towards the "Unknown" direction, you are ready to react quickly and effectively to any potential danger that may arise. This approach ensures that you maintain a high level of situational awareness and are prepared for any scenario that may unfold.

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  • 45. 

    An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a 

    • Habitual offender

    • Psychotic offender

    • First time offender

    • Professional offender

    Correct Answer
    A. Habitual offender
    Explanation
    A habitual offender is an individual who repeatedly commits crimes without feeling any sense of wrongdoing. They have developed a pattern of criminal behavior and often have a long history of criminal activities. Unlike first-time offenders who may feel remorse or guilt after committing a crime, habitual offenders do not experience these emotions and continue to engage in illegal activities without any sense of moral or ethical responsibility.

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  • 46. 

    The air force form 3226 is used from apprehension 

    • In a private dwelling

    • During the interview

    • Off the installation

    • In a work center

    Correct Answer
    A. In a private dwelling
  • 47. 

    Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?

    • Wing commander

    • Squadron commander

    • Security forces manager

    • Unit deployment manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the scheduling of flights. They are in charge of ensuring that all flights are organized and planned effectively, taking into consideration factors such as pilot availability, aircraft maintenance, and mission requirements. The squadron commander's role is crucial in ensuring the smooth operation of the unit's flight schedule.

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  • 48. 

    All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties except the

    • Major command Commander

    • MAJCOM vice commander

    • Installation Commander

    • Combatant Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation Commander
    Explanation
    The Installation Commander is not authorized to authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties. This responsibility falls under the jurisdiction of the Major command Commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and Combatant Commander. The Installation Commander is responsible for the management and operation of a specific military installation and does not have the authority to make decisions regarding firearms authorization in foreign countries.

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  • 49. 

    How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 28, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    JOEBAWDEN

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