Security Forces Craftsman Vol. 1

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1. Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?

Explanation

A bloody nose is not considered grievous bodily harm because it is a relatively minor injury compared to the other options. While it can be painful and cause discomfort, it typically does not cause long-term or life-threatening damage. On the other hand, deep cuts, fractured bones, and damaged internal organs can all result in serious physical harm and have the potential to cause significant health complications or even death.

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

The military is one of the shows of might of any country. It involves many hours of endless training, all which is necessary for the line of work.... see moreThe security forces craftsman vol. 1 tests more on the subject. see less

2. Supervisors must ensure their troops

Explanation

Supervisors must ensure that their troops possess the required qualifications and certifications. This is important to ensure that the troops have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively and safely. Having the required qualifications and certifications also demonstrates that the troops have met the necessary standards and requirements for their specific roles. This ensures that they are capable and competent in their assigned tasks, which is crucial for the overall success of the team or unit.

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3. Which Ssgt or Tsgt dust is available in certain locations?

Explanation

Flight Sergeant is the correct answer because it is a rank in the Royal Air Force (RAF) and certain locations may have Flight Sergeants available. Ssgt or Tsgt dust is not a recognizable term or acronym, and Supervisor, Response force leader, and NCOIC/Assistant NCOIC are not specific to certain locations. Therefore, Flight Sergeant is the most logical choice as the correct answer.

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4. What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?

Explanation

Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high by providing variety and new challenges for the team. By rotating individuals to different positions or tasks within the flight, it prevents monotony and allows team members to learn new skills. This can boost morale as it keeps the team engaged and motivated. Additionally, post rotations provide opportunities for personal growth and development, which can further contribute to a positive and high morale within the flight.

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5. What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

Explanation

Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it allows them to gather information and insights about their performance and make necessary adjustments. Feedback provides commanders with an understanding of how their decisions and actions are perceived by others, helps them identify areas of improvement, and enables them to make informed decisions based on the input received. By actively seeking and utilizing feedback, commanders can enhance their leadership skills, optimize their strategies, and ultimately achieve their objectives more effectively.

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6. Which of these is not a Senior Airman Duty?

Explanation

A squad leader is not a Senior Airman duty because a Senior Airman is typically an enlisted rank in the Air Force, and a squad leader is a leadership position within a squad or unit. Senior Airmen are usually responsible for performing technical duties and providing support to higher-ranking officers, whereas a squad leader is responsible for leading and managing a group of individuals within the unit.

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7. When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?

Explanation

If you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner when questioning a juvenile, seeking staff judge advocate advice is the appropriate action to take. The staff judge advocate is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on legal matters, including the proper procedures for questioning a juvenile. They can help ensure that the juvenile's rights are protected and that the questioning is conducted in a legally appropriate manner.

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8. What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?

Explanation

Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because these actions can potentially disturb or alter crucial evidence that could provide valuable information about the crime and the perpetrator. By tampering with the scene, important clues may be lost or misinterpreted, leading the investigator to make incorrect assumptions or judgments about what transpired.

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9. Post priority charts are used to

Explanation

Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that these charts are used to determine how many personnel are needed for each post or task. By using these charts, organizations can ensure that they have the right number of people in each position, based on the priority and importance of the tasks. This helps in optimizing the allocation of manpower resources and ensuring that all posts are adequately staffed. It also helps in identifying any gaps or imbalances in the distribution of manpower and allows for adjustments to be made accordingly.

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10. The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited security forces in

Explanation

The post priority chart is designed to optimize the allocation of limited security forces in both peacetime and wartime. This means that regardless of the security conditions, whether it is a higher force protection condition or during times of peace or war, the chart ensures that the available security forces are utilized efficiently. It provides a systematic approach to prioritize posts and allocate resources based on the level of threat or importance, allowing for effective security measures to be implemented in any situation.

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11. Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?

Explanation

Having a patrolman who is not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it allows for fresh eyes to examine the crime scene without any bias. Victims, witnesses, and suspects may inadvertently contaminate the scene or influence the investigation with their perspectives. By having someone who is not involved in the initial investigation search the scene, it increases the likelihood of discovering important evidence or details that may have been overlooked. This helps maintain the integrity of the investigation and ensures that all possible avenues are explored.

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12. What is the most rigorous stage of development? 

Explanation

The most rigorous stage of development is at the level of Amn and A1C. This is because at this stage, individuals are relatively new to the military and are still learning the basics. They are expected to undergo extensive training and development in order to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively. Additionally, they are often closely supervised and evaluated to ensure they meet the standards and requirements of the military.

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13. Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?

Explanation

The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that it is their duty to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and to report any issues or malfunctions. This responsibility is likely assigned to the flight member because they have direct access to and knowledge of the equipment they use on a regular basis. The flight supervisor and flight commander may also have some oversight and responsibility, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the individual flight member. The commissioned officer in charge of supply may have a role in managing the inventory and procurement of equipment, but they may not have direct responsibility for its maintenance.

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14. When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain

Explanation

Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified ensures that they gain experience and expertise in different areas, thereby enhancing their proficiency. By being exposed to different roles, individuals can develop a broader skill set and a deeper understanding of the organization's operations. This rotation also prevents employees from becoming complacent or stagnant in one position, promoting continuous learning and growth. Ultimately, maintaining proficiency among personnel contributes to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the organization.

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15. The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to

Explanation

The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This evaluation ensures that individuals have the necessary skills and abilities to effectively carry out their assigned duties. It helps in determining whether an individual is suitable for a particular position and provides a certification that validates their competency. By assessing qualifications, the evaluation process helps in ensuring that only qualified individuals are assigned to specific duty positions.

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16. What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?

Explanation

The attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute are determined by the responding patrol's attitude. This means that the way the patrol officer approaches and handles the situation can greatly influence the behavior and response of the individuals involved in the dispute. A positive and respectful attitude from the patrol officer can help de-escalate the situation and encourage cooperation, while a negative or aggressive attitude may exacerbate the conflict and hinder cooperation.

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17. Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the

Explanation

The correct answer is "Post priority listing." A post priority listing is a document that determines the order in which posts or patrols should be manned. It helps to prioritize the allocation of personnel to different posts based on their importance or urgency. This ensures that critical areas or tasks are adequately staffed and that resources are allocated efficiently. The duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may also be relevant for determining staffing levels, but they do not specifically address the prioritization of posts or patrols.

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18. Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?

Explanation

Rape is considered one of the most serious crimes that will be investigated, excluding homicide. It involves non-consensual sexual activity and is a violation of a person's autonomy, bodily integrity, and dignity. Rape cases are treated with utmost seriousness by law enforcement agencies and are subject to thorough investigation to ensure justice for the victim. The severity of the crime and its long-lasting physical, emotional, and psychological impact make it a top priority for investigation and prosecution.

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19. What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?

Explanation

Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because it ensures that no evidence is tampered with or contaminated, which is crucial for a thorough and accurate investigation. By preserving the scene, the investigator can carefully examine every detail, collect relevant evidence, and make informed conclusions about the crime.

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20. The primary purpose of the Military Working Dog is to 

Explanation

The primary purpose of the Military Working Dog is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the dogs are trained to discourage potential intruders from entering Air Force areas, identify any intruders that do enter, and physically restrain or apprehend them if necessary. The dogs play a crucial role in enhancing security and protecting Air Force resources by providing a highly trained and capable force to respond to potential threats.

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21. Which of the following is not an alarm response code?

Explanation

Code 4 is not an alarm response code because it is not listed as one of the options provided. The question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code, and since Code 4 is not mentioned in the options, it can be concluded that it is not an alarm response code.

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22. What is the time limit placed kn suspect interviews?

Explanation

The correct answer is "There is not time limit." This means that there is no specific time restriction placed on suspect interviews. The duration of the interview can vary depending on the circumstances and the progress made during the investigation. The absence of a time limit allows law enforcement officials to conduct thorough and comprehensive interviews, ensuring that they gather all necessary information and evidence.

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23. What should you do if your subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?

Explanation

When a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This step is crucial in order to understand the underlying reasons behind the employee's performance issues. By conducting an investigation, the supervisor can identify any potential obstacles or challenges that may be affecting the subordinate's performance. This will enable the supervisor to address the root cause of the problem and provide appropriate guidance or support to help the subordinate improve their performance.

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24. When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is 

Explanation

When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one of the concerns is that it may contain irrelevant information. Irrelevant information can distract the reader from the main points and make it difficult to understand and apply the technical content effectively. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the material is focused and only includes relevant information that is necessary for the intended audience.

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25. Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?

Explanation

The Defense Forces commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This implies that the commander is responsible for making decisions regarding the allocation of resources and personnel within the Defense Forces. They have the power to decide whether certain posts can be left unmanned, potentially based on factors such as the current situation, available resources, and strategic priorities.

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26. Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm?

Explanation

The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. As the person in charge of a military unit or organization, the commander has the authority to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms. They have the power to suspend or revoke someone's right to bear arms if they deem it necessary for the safety and security of the unit or individual.

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27. When do you give the command "Close ranks, March!"?

Explanation

The command "Close ranks, March!" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This command is used to signal the guards to close their ranks and resume their positions after the inspection is complete. It ensures that the formation is ready to move on to the next phase of the ceremony or event.

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28. Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry using a shotgun?

Explanation

The center mass of the door is not considered a target point for entry using a shotgun. When using a shotgun to breach a door, the usual target points are the hinges, door knob, and locking mechanism. These areas are targeted because they are weak points that can be easily damaged or destroyed, allowing for entry. The center mass of the door is not typically targeted because it is a solid and sturdy area that is more difficult to penetrate.

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29. The primary function of reviewing is to ensure

Explanation

The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, using acceptable English with correct grammar, easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs, and proper punctuation. Additionally, the review process aims to ensure that the communication effectively conveys the intended point or message.

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30. Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case? 

Explanation

Arranging and reviewing original notes aids in recalling all the details of the case prior to the trial. By organizing and going through the original notes, one can refresh their memory about the evidence, testimonies, and important information related to the case. This process helps in ensuring that all the relevant details are fresh in the mind before presenting the case in court. It allows the person to have a comprehensive understanding of the case and be well-prepared for any questions or challenges that may arise during the trial.

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31. What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?

Explanation

The correct answer is SMSGT. In the military, SMSGT stands for Senior Master Sergeant, which is a rank that is typically associated with higher levels of leadership and responsibility. At this level, individuals are expected to have a strong understanding of operational and strategic concepts and be able to effectively lead and manage teams in complex and challenging situations.

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32. What is not considered an objective of the victim/witness assistance program (VWAP)?

Explanation

The victim/witness assistance program (VWAP) aims to provide support and assistance to victims and witnesses of crimes. It focuses on mitigating the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim, ensuring that victims are accorded certain rights, and fostering cooperation of victims and witnesses. However, prosecuting the accused is not considered an objective of the VWAP. The program's primary goal is to support and assist the victim, rather than focusing on the legal proceedings against the accused.

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33. A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous 

Explanation

A patrol dog team used in police services activities can act as a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a well-trained and intimidating police dog can create fear and uncertainty in the minds of potential criminals, making them think twice before engaging in illegal activities. The perception of being chased or apprehended by a police dog can be enough to discourage individuals from committing crimes, thus serving as a psychological deterrent.

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34. "All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked" means that they

Explanation

The statement "All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked" implies that these vehicles are required to have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This is because these features are essential for ensuring the visibility and audibility of the security forces vehicles while performing their duties. These tools help to alert and communicate with the public in emergency situations, enhancing the effectiveness and safety of the security forces.

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35. The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is

Explanation

After the flight falls in for inspection, the next command given would be "Report". This command is used to indicate that the individuals in the flight should provide their names or any necessary information to the person in charge of the inspection. It is a way to ensure accountability and organization within the flight during the inspection process.

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36. The basic pursue of the financial plan submission is to

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ensure an equitable distribution of the President's budget for the next fiscal year." This means that the purpose of the financial plan submission is to ensure that the budget allocated by the President for the next fiscal year is distributed fairly and evenly among different areas or departments within the Air Force. It is important to ensure that resources are allocated in a balanced manner to meet the needs of various operations and missions.

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37. After the command "open rank, March", which of the following action does the flight take?

Explanation

After the command "open rank, March", the flight takes the following action: The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress. This means that the last person in the formation remains in place while everyone else moves forward a certain number of paces before halting and performing the dress right dress action.

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38. Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming?

Explanation

The recovery phase is the most complex and time-consuming major accident response phase because it involves restoring the affected area to its pre-incident state. This phase includes activities such as cleaning up the site, repairing damaged infrastructure, and providing support to affected individuals and businesses. It requires careful planning, coordination, and resources to ensure a successful recovery process.

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39. What zone established at a weapons of mass destruction incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?

Explanation

The zone established at a weapons of mass destruction incident site that is also referred to as a restricted zone is the Hot zone. This is the area where the highest level of contamination and danger is present, and access is restricted to only trained personnel wearing appropriate protective gear.

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40. Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is

Explanation

Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that when faced with a situation where the use of firearms or the possibility of the suspect escaping is present, patrol dogs are seen as a safer and less harmful option. Patrol dogs can be used to apprehend suspects without resorting to the use of firearms, reducing the risk of injury or death to both the suspect and law enforcement personnel. Additionally, the use of patrol dogs can help prevent suspects from escaping, ensuring that they are brought to justice.

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41. After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?

Explanation

After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left facing movement.

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42. When making room entry your weapons should be oriented towards the

Explanation

When making room entry, it is important to keep your weapons oriented towards the "Unknown" direction. This means that you should be prepared to engage any potential threats that may be present in the room. By keeping your weapons oriented towards the "Unknown" direction, you are ready to react quickly and effectively to any potential danger that may arise. This approach ensures that you maintain a high level of situational awareness and are prepared for any scenario that may unfold.

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43. A post check generally includes all of these items except

Explanation

A post check is a process that involves inspecting various aspects of a facility or area. It typically includes area inspection, facility inspection, and classified material inspection to ensure everything is in order. However, weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check as it is more specific to security measures and may be conducted separately.

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44. An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a 

Explanation

A habitual offender is an individual who repeatedly commits crimes without feeling any sense of wrongdoing. They have developed a pattern of criminal behavior and often have a long history of criminal activities. Unlike first-time offenders who may feel remorse or guilt after committing a crime, habitual offenders do not experience these emotions and continue to engage in illegal activities without any sense of moral or ethical responsibility.

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45. What drives a post priority chart?

Explanation

The Integrated Defense Risk Management Assessment drives a post priority chart. This assessment helps in identifying and evaluating potential risks and threats to a military post or installation. It takes into consideration various factors such as vulnerability assessment, Inspector General assessment, and force protection conditions to determine the priority of different posts. By conducting this assessment, military authorities can allocate resources and prioritize their actions based on the level of risk and potential impact on the overall defense system.

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46. The air force form 3226 is used from apprehension 

Explanation

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47. Which is not designated a PL1 resource?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Aircraft designated for the first lady of the United States". PL1 resources refer to resources that are crucial for the functioning and security of an organization. Nuclear weapons, senior executive mission aircraft, and command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems are all examples of PL1 resources as they are essential for national defense and security. However, aircraft designated for the first lady of the United States is not typically considered a PL1 resource as it is not directly related to national defense or security.

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48. Which protection level is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security?

Explanation

PL4 is the correct answer because it represents the highest level of protection assigned for controlled areas where owner/users are primarily responsible for security. PL4 indicates that the security measures in place are extensive and stringent, ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to the area and that all necessary precautions are taken to prevent any unauthorized entry or breach. This level of protection is necessary when the owner/users have a significant responsibility for maintaining security and need to implement robust measures to safeguard the area effectively.

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49. Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?

Explanation

The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the scheduling of flights. They are in charge of ensuring that all flights are organized and planned effectively, taking into consideration factors such as pilot availability, aircraft maintenance, and mission requirements. The squadron commander's role is crucial in ensuring the smooth operation of the unit's flight schedule.

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50. All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties except the

Explanation

The Installation Commander is not authorized to authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties. This responsibility falls under the jurisdiction of the Major command Commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and Combatant Commander. The Installation Commander is responsible for the management and operation of a specific military installation and does not have the authority to make decisions regarding firearms authorization in foreign countries.

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51. When using dogs on deception screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?

Explanation

Dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This positioning allows the dogs to effectively monitor and control access to certain areas, preventing the entry of individuals who are not authorized. By being positioned strategically, the dogs can act as a deterrent and provide an extra layer of security.

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52. How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?

Explanation

There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.

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53. Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to.questioning?

Explanation

Income is of no value prior to questioning because it does not provide any relevant information about the suspect's involvement in a crime. Nationality, race, and age could potentially be relevant in certain cases as they may be linked to a motive or provide context for the investigation. However, income alone does not provide any direct insight into the suspect's actions or intentions.

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54. Who's is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

Explanation

The Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This suggests that they have the authority and resources to develop and implement training programs for security forces personnel. They are likely to have specialized knowledge and expertise in security forces training, making them the most suitable entity to oversee the training program.

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55. As a supervisor what must you instill in your subordinates?

Explanation

As a supervisor, it is essential to instill a strong work ethic in your subordinates. This means promoting values such as dedication, responsibility, and professionalism in the workplace. By emphasizing the importance of a strong work ethic, supervisors can ensure that their subordinates are motivated, focused, and committed to achieving the goals of the organization. This will ultimately lead to increased productivity, efficiency, and overall success within the team.

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56. Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential when testifying?

Explanation

The personal attributes that are essential when testifying include skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence. Skill refers to the ability to effectively communicate and provide accurate information. Tact is important in maintaining diplomatic and respectful behavior during the testimony. Poise involves remaining composed and confident in the face of questioning or challenging situations. Self-confidence is necessary to express oneself clearly and assertively. These attributes are crucial for a witness to provide reliable and credible testimony in a legal setting.

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57. All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except

Explanation

Employees in non-dedicated positions are excluded from being in a bargaining unit. This means that these employees are not eligible to be represented by a labor union for collective bargaining purposes. The term "non-dedicated positions" refers to those employees who do not have a specific job classification or are not assigned to a particular role within the organization. These employees may have temporary or flexible assignments that do not fit into a defined category, and therefore they are not included in the bargaining unit.

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58. Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation?

Explanation

Public affairs is responsible for managing the information flow at a school violence situation. They are in charge of disseminating accurate and timely information to the public, media, and other stakeholders. Public affairs professionals are skilled in crisis communication and play a crucial role in ensuring that accurate information is shared while maintaining the safety and security of the school community. They work closely with school administrators, law enforcement, and other relevant parties to coordinate messaging and provide updates during such situations.

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59. All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 37-117, arming and use of force by air force personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the

Explanation

The correct answer is Integrated base defense council. The explanation for this answer is that all arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 37-117, which is a regulation that governs the arming and use of force by air force personnel. Additionally, the other options listed (Threat working group, Force protection commodity council, and Equipment, weapons, and configuration board) do not specifically pertain to arming rules and are therefore not the correct answer.

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60. Which radio type can talk over great distances?

Explanation

A mobile two-way radio is capable of transmitting and receiving signals over great distances. Unlike a base station or portable radio, a mobile two-way radio is designed to be used while in motion, allowing for communication over larger areas. It typically has a higher power output and a longer antenna, which enables it to reach farther distances compared to other radio types. Therefore, a mobile two-way radio is the correct answer for this question.

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61. Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?

Explanation

The report no later than date is not tracked on the unit manning document. The unit manning document typically includes information such as work center, position number, and AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) to track personnel and their assigned roles within the unit. However, the report no later than date is not a component of the unit manning document as it pertains to reporting deadlines or arrival times for individuals rather than their specific positions or roles.

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62. When does the second element leader give the command "Second elemen, Attention"

Explanation

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63. Where does the installations labor relations specialist work?

Explanation

The installations labor relations specialist works in the civilian personnel office. This office is responsible for managing the civilian workforce within the organization, including handling labor relations and employee relations matters. The labor relations specialist would be involved in negotiating and administering labor contracts, addressing grievances, and ensuring compliance with labor laws and regulations.

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64. When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls log security to the next bend or landing?

Explanation

In a closed stairwell, the person who pulls log security to the next bend or landing is person number 2.

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65. Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency requests help through the 

Explanation

Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) would request help from various government agencies. In this case, the correct answer is the United States Army. The Army plays a crucial role in providing support during disasters, such as search and rescue operations, transportation of supplies and equipment, and establishing temporary shelters. They have the necessary resources, manpower, and expertise to assist FEMA in managing and responding to the emergency situation effectively.

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66. The T-formation is best suited for what environment?

Explanation

The T-formation is best suited for wider hallways because it allows for better visibility and maneuverability. In wider hallways, there is more space for the formation to be effective, allowing individuals to easily see and communicate with each other. It also provides room for quick movement and response to any potential threats or emergencies. Narrow hallways would restrict the effectiveness of the T-formation as it would limit visibility and hinder movement. Similarly, intersecting hallways and stairwells may create obstacles and make it difficult to maintain the formation.

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67. Who's is reponsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools? 

Explanation

Senior security forces NCO's are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They play a crucial role in overseeing the training and development of security forces personnel, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their duties effectively. This includes identifying training needs, coordinating training programs, evaluating performance, and providing guidance and mentorship to enlisted personnel.

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68. What is not a category for the status of funds?

Explanation

The status of funds can be categorized as committed, obligated, or uncommitted, but "end of year" is not a category for the status of funds. The end of year refers to a specific time period rather than a category for the status of funds.

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69. When are manpower numbers reviewed

Explanation

Manpower numbers are reviewed annually. This means that the evaluation and assessment of the number of employees or workers in an organization is conducted once every year. This review helps in determining the current workforce and making decisions related to recruitment, layoffs, promotions, and other workforce management strategies. By reviewing the manpower numbers annually, organizations can ensure that they have the right number of employees to meet their business needs and objectives.

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70. Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?

Explanation

The Major command (MAJCOM) functional reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that the installation submissions are accurate and meet the requirements of their functional area. They have the expertise and authority to assess the submissions and make informed decisions on their validity.

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71. When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not 

Explanation

When responding to a residence, standing directly in front of the door is the correct approach because it allows for better visibility and communication with the occupants inside. By standing in front of the door, you can easily be seen by anyone looking through a peephole or window, and it also positions you in a way that makes it easier to speak and hear clearly. This position also ensures that you are in a safe and secure location, ready to react quickly if necessary.

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72. During peaceful confrontations, the MWD team should be positioned

Explanation

During peaceful confrontations, it is important for the MWD team to be positioned in reserve, out of sight of the crowd. This allows them to be ready to intervene if necessary, without provoking or escalating the situation. Being out of sight also helps to maintain a peaceful atmosphere and prevent unnecessary tension or fear among the crowd. By staying in reserve, the MWD team can effectively monitor the situation and take appropriate action if needed, while still allowing the peaceful confrontation to proceed without interference.

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73. Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to

Explanation

During the preliminary investigation, it is important to observe and record relevant information. By observing the scene carefully, investigators can gather important details and evidence that can help in understanding the situation. Recording these observations in a systematic manner ensures that no crucial information is missed and can be used for further analysis. This step is crucial in building a strong foundation for the investigation and can guide the subsequent actions and decisions.

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74. Which commander exercises operational control?

Explanation

The Joint Force Commander exercises operational control because they are responsible for the overall planning and execution of military operations involving multiple services or agencies. They have the authority to direct and coordinate the actions of all forces assigned to the joint operation, ensuring unity of effort and achieving the mission objectives. The squadron commander, installation commander, and major command commander have more limited roles and responsibilities within their specific units or geographical areas.

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75. What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?

Explanation

Tactical control refers to the type of control that is present over assigned or attached forces or commands. It involves the authority to direct and coordinate military forces and assets in order to achieve specific objectives in a particular operational area. Tactical control focuses on the immediate and short-term actions and decisions made on the battlefield. It is typically exercised by lower-level commanders who are responsible for the execution of military operations and tactics.

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76. During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation commander reassess the situation?

Explanation

During the sustained emergency phase of a natural disaster, the installation commander should reassess the situation. This phase occurs after the initial emergency phase and involves the continuation of emergency response efforts to address ongoing challenges and mitigate further damage. Reassessing the situation during this phase is crucial as it allows the commander to evaluate the effectiveness of the response measures implemented so far, identify any new risks or issues that may have arisen, and make necessary adjustments to ensure the safety and well-being of personnel and resources.

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77. Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?

Explanation

AFI 36-2905 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides information about current fitness standards and assessments. AFI 36-2905 specifically covers the Air Force Fitness Program and outlines the requirements for physical fitness testing, as well as the standards that individuals must meet to maintain their fitness and readiness for duty. This instruction is a reliable source of information for anyone looking to understand the current fitness standards and assessments in the Air Force.

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78. Who controls the depth, scope, and frequency of internal.inspections?

Explanation

Commanders control the depth, scope, and frequency of internal inspections. They have the authority and responsibility to determine the level of scrutiny and evaluation within their units. As leaders, commanders are accountable for maintaining the readiness and effectiveness of their organizations, and conducting internal inspections is an essential part of this process. By controlling the depth, scope, and frequency of these inspections, commanders can ensure that their units are meeting the required standards and identify areas for improvement.

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79. Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front?

Explanation

A three-person team movement allows for more coverage to the front because it has one person in the front and two people on the sides, providing a wider field of view and more opportunities to spot potential threats. This formation allows for better coordination and communication between team members, making it easier to cover a larger area and respond quickly to any situation.

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80. What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else's writing?

Explanation

AFH 33-337 is the correct answer because it is a publication that provides guidance for effective communication and offers tools for reviewing and assessing someone else's writing. This publication is likely to contain valuable information and resources that can assist individuals in improving their communication skills and evaluating the quality of written content.

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81. What statute protects an alleged violation of a right?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Federal Service Labor-management relations statute (5 USC ch. 71)." This statute protects an alleged violation of a right within the federal service labor-management relations. It establishes the framework for collective bargaining and the rights and obligations of federal employees and their representatives.

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82. Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site

Explanation

The correct answer is "Disaster control group." During a major accident, the disaster control group assumes overall command and control at the accident site. This group is responsible for coordinating and managing the response efforts, ensuring effective communication among different agencies and personnel involved, and making critical decisions to mitigate the incident's impact. The disaster control group is typically composed of individuals with expertise in emergency management, such as representatives from various response agencies and organizations.

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83. During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported?

Explanation

During the notification phase of a major accident response, the estimated number of casualties is reported. This phase involves notifying the appropriate authorities and emergency response teams about the accident and its potential impact. Gathering information about the number of casualties is crucial during this phase as it helps in determining the resources needed for the response and recovery efforts.

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84. Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year?

Explanation

The correct answer is MAJCOMs. MAJCOMs stands for Major Commands and they are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping the various units within the United States Air Force. They provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year, indicating that they allocate and distribute security forces to the different units based on their needs and requirements. Numbered air forces, Headquarters Air Force, and Air Force Security Forces Center may have roles related to security forces, but they do not specifically provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year.

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85. Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or died?

Explanation

The Defense Force Commander is responsible for notifying the victim in case the accused has escaped, been released, or died. This role involves ensuring that the victim is aware of any changes in the status of the accused and providing them with the necessary information. The Defense Force Commander plays a crucial role in maintaining communication and transparency between the victim and the accused's status.

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86. Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons inspection technical inspections? 

Explanation

The question asks for a type of nuclear weapons inspection that is not a technical inspection. The correct answer is "Controlled nuclear surety inspection (CNSI)." This implies that the other three options (Limited Nuclear Surety Inspection, Initial Nuclear Surety Inspection, and Joint Nuclear Surety Inspection) are all types of technical inspections for nuclear weapons.

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87. To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander must coordinate with the 

Explanation

The installation commander needs to coordinate with the MAJCOM SJA (Major Command Staff Judge Advocate) in order to authorize the use of off base patrols overseas. The MAJCOM SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the installation commander on matters related to off base patrols and ensuring compliance with legal requirements. They have the expertise and authority to assess the legal implications and risks associated with off base patrols and can provide the necessary authorization for their use.

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88. How many team configurations are there.for use in a tactical situation?

Explanation

There are three team configurations available for use in a tactical situation.

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89. What provides standards to help commanders determine the an power requirements for their units?

Explanation

The management engineering program provides standards to help commanders determine the power requirements for their units. This program focuses on optimizing the management and utilization of resources, including manpower and equipment. By using established standards and methodologies, commanders can accurately assess the power needs of their units and make informed decisions regarding resource allocation and planning.

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90. During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up investigation, should a determination be made that the initial incident scene was a thoroughly processed?

Explanation

During the step of collecting physical evidence, it is important to determine if the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed. This is because collecting physical evidence is one of the primary tasks in a follow-up investigation, and it is crucial to ensure that all relevant evidence from the scene has been collected and documented properly. By determining if the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed, investigators can assess if any potential evidence was missed or overlooked, and take necessary steps to rectify the situation if needed.

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Which commander exercises operational control?
What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or...
During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation...
Where can you find information about current fitness standards and...
Who controls the depth, scope, and frequency of internal.inspections?
Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front?
What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and...
What statute protects an alleged violation of a right?
Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site
During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of...
Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for...
Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or...
Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons inspection technical...
To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation...
How many team configurations are there.for use in a tactical...
What provides standards to help commanders determine the an power...
During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up...
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