Security Forces Craftsman Vol. 1
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The military is one of the shows of might of any country. It involves many hours of endless training, all which is necessary for the line of work. The security forces craftsman vol. 1 tests more on the subject.
- 1.What is the most rigorous stage of development?
- A.
SrA
- B.
MSgt
- C.
Ssgt and Tsgt
- D.
Amn and A1C
- 2.Which of these is not a Senior Airman Duty?
- A.
Patrol leader
- B.
Squad leader
- C.
BDOC
- D.
ISRT/ESRT
- 3.Which Ssgt or Tsgt dust is available in certain locations?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Flight Sergeant
- C.
Response force leader
- D.
NCOIC/ Assistant NCOIC
- 4.What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?
- A.
MSgt
- B.
CMSGT
- C.
SMSGT
- D.
SSGT AND TSGT
- 5.What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?
- A.
Tactical control
- B.
Strategic control
- C.
Operational control
- D.
Administrative Control
- 6.Which commander exercises operational control?
- A.
Squadron commander
- B.
Installation commander
- C.
Joint Force Commander
- D.
Major command Commander
- 7.Supervisors must ensure their troops
- A.
Have food and water
- B.
Possess required qualifications and certifications
- C.
Are supplied with weapons and required equipment
- D.
Are issued special security instructions and study material
- 8.Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?
- A.
Wing commander
- B.
Squadron commander
- C.
Security forces manager
- D.
Unit deployment manager
- 9.Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
- A.
Duty roster
- B.
Post priority listing
- C.
Unit manning document
- D.
Unit personnel manning roster
- 10.All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties except the
- A.
Major command Commander
- B.
MAJCOM vice commander
- C.
Installation Commander
- D.
Combatant Commander
- 11.Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Commander
- C.
Servicing armory
- D.
Security forces manager
- 12.How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 13.What drives a post priority chart?
- A.
Vulnerability assessment
- B.
Inspector General assessment
- C.
Force protection Conditions
- D.
Integrated defense risk management assessment
- 14.Post priority charts are used to
- A.
Allocate vehicles
- B.
Allocate manpower
- C.
Determine post rotations
- D.
Determine weapon configurations
- 15.Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?
- A.
Group commander
- B.
Security forces manager
- C.
Defense Forces commandrr
- D.
Each individual flight chief
- 16.The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited security forces in
- A.
Higher force protection conditions
- B.
Peacetime and wartime
- C.
Peacetime
- D.
Wartime
- 17.When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain
- A.
Proficiency
- B.
Discipline
- C.
Fairness
- D.
Control
- 18.What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?
- A.
Post rotations
- B.
Specialized courses
- C.
Recognition program
- D.
Providing time off
- 19.As a supervisor what must you instill in your subordinates?
- A.
Standards
- B.
Discipline
- C.
Work ethic
- D.
Mentorship
- 20.What should you do if your subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?
- A.
Issue paperwork
- B.
Verbally counsel the subordinate
- C.
Investigate to determine the cause
- D.
Assign the subordinate a new supervisor
- 21.The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is
- A.
Report
- B.
Parade rest
- C.
Open ranks march
- D.
Prepare for inspection
- 22.After the command "open rank, March", which of the following action does the flight take?
- A.
The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal.interval. each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces forward, halts and automatically executes dress right dress
- B.
The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress
- C.
Not this long option
- D.
Nor this long option
- 23.After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 24.When does the second element leader give the command "Second elemen, Attention"
- A.
As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands "Second element, attention"
- B.
As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element
- C.
As the inspecting official gets withing two paces of the right flank of the formation
- D.
As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader
- 25.When do you give the command "Close ranks, March!"?
- A.
Upon departure of the inspecting offical
- B.
At the completion of the guard mount briefing
- C.
Immediately after the fourth rank has been inspected
- D.
When the remarks of the inspecting offical have been completed
- 26.Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?
- A.
AFI 36-2903
- B.
AFI 36-2905
- C.
AFMAN 36-2903
- D.
AFMAN 36-2905
- 27.Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
- A.
Flight member
- B.
Flight supervisor
- C.
Flight commander
- D.
On commissioned officer in charge of supply
- 28.A post check generally includes all of these items except
- A.
Area inspection
- B.
Facility inspection
- C.
Weapons inspection
- D.
Classified material inspection
- 29.What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else's writing?
- A.
AFI 33-337
- B.
AFH 33-336
- C.
AFI 32-337
- D.
AFH 33-337
- 30.When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
- A.
Lengthy
- B.
Made up
- C.
Irrelevant
- D.
Inappropriate
- 31.The primary function of reviewing is to ensure
- A.
The communication gets the point across
- B.
Ideas are being communicated understandably, ND the communication gets the point across.
- C.
Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect puncuation) and the communication gets the point across
- D.
Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across
- 32.Who's is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
- A.
Unit training section
- B.
Defense force commander
- C.
Air force security forces center
- D.
Senior security forces non-commissioned officers
- 33.Who's is reponsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?
- A.
Unit training secrion
- B.
Immediate supervisors
- C.
Air force security forces center
- D.
Senior security forces NCO'S
- 34.What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
- A.
Analysis
- B.
Feedback
- C.
Evaluation
- D.
Cross-feed
- 35.The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
- A.
Measure qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions
- B.
Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller
- C.
Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions
- D.
Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty
- 36.The primary purpose of the Military Working Dog is to
- A.
Aggressive against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
- B.
Track, detect, and aggressive against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
- C.
Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
- D.
Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
- 37.Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is
- A.
Apprehension or release
- B.
Pepper spray or gunfire
- C.
Resistance or restraint
- D.
Gunfire or escape
- 38.When using dogs on deception screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?
- A.
In low contact areas, so they don't give away your position to the enemy by barking
- B.
Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability
- C.
At Key vantage points and avenues of apoach to deny entry to unauthorized persons
- D.
Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy
- 39.A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous
- A.
Deterrent to potential violators
- B.
Physical deterrent to potential violators
- C.
Physiological deterrent to potential violators
- D.
Psychological deterrent to potential violators
- 40.During peaceful confrontations, the MWD team should be positioned
- A.
In reserve, out of sight of the crowd
- B.
Off to the side, out of direct vision of the crowd
- C.
Right out in front to ward off potential participants
- D.
Elsewhere and not used in peaceful confrontations
- 41.All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 37-117, arming and use of force by air force personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the
- A.
Threat working group
- B.
Integrated base defense council
- C.
Force protection commodity council
- D.
Equipment, weapons, and configuration board
- 42."All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked" means that they
- A.
All must have SF badges applied to both the front doors
- B.
Al must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios
- C.
Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system
- D.
All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD
- 43.Which radio type can talk over great distances?
- A.
Base station
- B.
Portable radio
- C.
Basic station remote
- D.
Mobile two-way radion
- 44.The basic pursue of the financial plan submission is to
- A.
Ensure the Air Force is a lower to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions
- B.
Ensure an equitable distribution of the President's budget for the next fiscal year
- C.
Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission
- D.
Provide congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session
- 45.Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year?
- A.
Numbered air forces
- B.
Headquarters Air Force
- C.
MAJCOMs
- D.
Air Force Security Forces Center
- 46.What is not a category for the status of funds?
- A.
Committed
- B.
Obligated
- C.
End of year
- D.
Uncommitted
- 47.Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM) functional
- B.
MAJCOM corporate structure
- C.
Financial management board
- D.
Financial working group
- 48.What provides standards to help commanders determine the an power requirements for their units?
- A.
Manpower standards program
- B.
Manpower standards platform
- C.
Management engineering program
- D.
Management and equipment program
- 49.When are manpower numbers reviewed
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Annually
- D.
Bi-annually
- 50.Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?
- A.
Work center
- B.
Position number
- C.
AFSC
- D.
Report no later than date
- 51.Where does the installations labor relations specialist work?
- A.
Civilian personnel office
- B.
Staff judge advocate office
- C.
Contract management office
- D.
Area defense council office
- 52.All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except
- A.
Supervisors
- B.
Management officials
- C.
Professional employees
- D.
Employees in non-dedicated positions
- 53.What statute protects an alleged violation of a right?
- A.
Federal Service bargaining and management statute (5 USC ch. 71)
- B.
Federal Service Bargaining and Management statute (5 USC ch. 70)
- C.
Federal Service Labor-management relation statute (5 USC ch. 70)
- D.
Federal Service Labor-management relations statute (5 USC ch. 71)
- 54.Who controls the depth, scope, and frequency of internal.inspections?
- A.
Commanders
- B.
Wing inspector general
- C.
Air Force Inspection Agency
- D.
MAJCOM
- 55.Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons inspection technical inspections?
- A.
Controlled nuclear surety inspection (CNSI)
- B.
Limited Nuclear Surety Inspection (LNSI)
- C.
Initial Nuclear Surety Inspection (INSI)
- D.
Joint Nuclear Surety Inspection (JNSI)
- 56.Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
- A.
Code 1
- B.
Code 2
- C.
Code 3
- D.
Code 4
- 57.Which is not designated a PL1 resource?
- A.
Nuclear weapons
- B.
Senior executive mission aircraft
- C.
Aircraft designated for the first lady of the United States
- D.
Command, Control, communicatikns, and computer (C4) systems
- 58.Which protection level is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security?
- A.
PL4
- B.
PL3
- C.
PL2
- D.
PL1
- 59.How many team configurations are there.for use in a tactical situation?
- A.
5
- B.
4
- C.
3
- D.
2
- 60.Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front?
- A.
Three-person
- B.
Two-person
- C.
Four-person
- D.
Y-formation
- 61.The T-formation is best suited for what environment?
- A.
Intersecting hallways
- B.
Narrow hallways
- C.
Wider hallways
- D.
Stairwells
- 62.Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry using a shotgun?
- A.
Hinges
- B.
Door know
- C.
Locking mechanism
- D.
Center mass of the door
- 63.When making room entry your weapons should be oriented towards the
- A.
Threat
- B.
Fast wall
- C.
Unknown
- D.
Strong wall
- 64.When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls log security to the next bend or landing?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 65.When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not
- A.
Knock normally
- B.
Listen for 15 to 30 seconds
- C.
Stand directly in front of the door
- D.
Check to see if screened doors are locked
- 66.What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?
- A.
The nature of the dispute
- B.
The location of the dispute
- C.
The responding patrol's attitude
- D.
Whether or not children are present
- 67.Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?
- A.
Deep cuts
- B.
Bloody nose
- C.
Fractured bones
- D.
Damaged internal organs
- 68.Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?
- A.
Rape
- B.
Assault
- C.
Adultery
- D.
Child abuse
- 69.What is not considered an objective of the victim/witness assistance program (VWAP)?
- A.
Mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim
- B.
Ensure best efforts are made to accord the victims certain rights
- C.
Foster cooperation of victims and witnesses
- D.
Prosecute the accused
- 70.Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or died?
- A.
First sergeant
- B.
Defense Force Commander
- C.
Installation Staff Judge Advocate
- D.
AFOSI
- 71.What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?
- A.
It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.
- B.
It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime
- C.
It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location
- D.
It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found.
- 72.What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?
- A.
It allows photographs to be taken
- B.
It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene
- C.
It allows responding patrols to better piece together events
- D.
It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found
- 73.Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?
- A.
It allows for additional flight members to gain experience
- B.
It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training
- C.
It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects
- D.
It could possibly destroy your hard work, contaminate thenscene, and violate the chain of evidence requirements
- 74.Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to
- A.
Collect and preserve
- B.
Observe and record
- C.
Record and sketch
- D.
Photo and record
- 75.Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site
- A.
Installation commander
- B.
Disaster control group
- C.
Incident commander
- D.
Fire chief
- 76.During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported?
- A.
Recovery phase
- B.
Response phase
- C.
Notification phase
- D.
Withdrawal phase
- 77.Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming?
- A.
Recovery phase
- B.
Response phase
- C.
Notification phase
- D.
Withdrawal phase
- 78.What zone established at a weapons of mass destruction incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?
- A.
Control zone
- B.
Warm zone
- C.
Cold zone
- D.
Hot zone
- 79.Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency requests help through the
- A.
United States Army
- B.
Department of State
- C.
Department of Defense
- D.
FBI
- 80.During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation commander reassess the situation?
- A.
Sustained emergency phase
- B.
Initial emergency phase
- C.
Notification phase
- D.
Recovery phase
- 81.Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation?
- A.
Public affairs
- B.
School principle
- C.
Incident commander
- D.
Defense force commander
- 82.What is the time limit placed kn suspect interviews?
- A.
As long as it takes to get a confession
- B.
No more than 30 minutes
- C.
No more than 60 minutes
- D.
There is not time limit
- 83.When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?
- A.
Seek defense force commander advice
- B.
Seek area defense counsel advice
- C.
Seek staff judge advocate advice
- D.
Question the witness
- 84.Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to.questioning?
- A.
Nationality
- B.
Income
- C.
Race
- D.
Age
- 85.An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
- A.
Habitual offender
- B.
Psychotic offender
- C.
First time offender
- D.
Professional offender
- 86.During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up investigation, should a determination be made that the initial incident scene was a thoroughly processed?
- A.
Collecting physical evidence
- B.
Conducting additional interviews
- C.
Identifying and apprehending suspets
- D.
Review and analyze all previous reports
- 87.The air force form 3226 is used from apprehension
- A.
In a private dwelling
- B.
During the interview
- C.
Off the installation
- D.
In a work center
- 88.To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander must coordinate with the
- A.
MAJCOM SJA
- B.
Defense force commander
- C.
Installation SJA
- D.
Host nation
- 89.Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?
- A.
Speaking to the witnesses
- B.
Consulting with the defense counsel
- C.
Arranging and reviewing original notes
- D.
Returning to the crime scene to recall the events
- 90.Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential when testifying?
- A.
Skill, tact, and self assurance
- B.
Skill, tact, poise, and self confidence
- C.
Skill, reliance, poise and self confidence
- D.
Skill, cockiness, poise, and self confidence
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