Security Forces Journeyman Volume One

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Where was the military police(MP)(aviation) training camp established in 1942?

    • Kelly Field, TX
    • Tinker Field, OK
    • Camp Ripley, MN
    • Camp Lajeune, NC
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About This Quiz


In the Security Forces Journeyman Volume One quiz below, we look at some of the facts and events across board in regard to the different security force agencies. How well versed are you? Find out below!

Security Forces Journeyman Volume One - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Air police Security(APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except

    • Riots

    • Air raids

    • Light tanks

    • Parachute attacks

    Correct Answer
    A. Light tanks
    Explanation
    APS battalions were specifically created to provide security and protection against various threats. They were trained and equipped to handle riots, air raids, and parachute attacks. However, they were not designed to protect against light tanks. This suggests that APS battalions may not have had the necessary firepower or capabilities to effectively counter armored vehicles like light tanks.

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  • 3. 

    On 1 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida

    • Air Police School

    • Air Leaders School

    • Corp Training Office

    • Base Defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Police School
    Explanation
    On 1 September 1950, the Air Police School was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This school was likely established to provide training and education to individuals who would be responsible for maintaining security and law enforcement on the airbase. The Air Police School would have likely taught students various skills and techniques related to base defense, security procedures, and law enforcement duties.

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  • 4. 

    In what year did the Air Force approve the first trial issue of the security police(SP) shield?

    • 1943

    • 1945

    • 1950

    • 1957

    Correct Answer
    A. 1957
    Explanation
    The Air Force approved the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield in 1957.

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  • 5. 

    The Security Forces(SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash

    • Identifies SF to foreign as security personnel

    • Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression

    • Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide

    • Is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam War

    Correct Answer
    A. Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide. This means that wearing this beret distinguishes SF members as a highly skilled and specialized force responsible for safeguarding the Air Force and its assets globally.

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  • 6. 

    In what year was the name of the career field changed from Air Police to Security Police?

    • 1985

    • 1971

    • 1966

    • 1950

    Correct Answer
    A. 1966
    Explanation
    In 1966, the name of the career field was changed from Air Police to Security Police.

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  • 7. 

    The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police(SP)?

    • The 1041st SPS(test)

    • The 4110th SPS(test)

    • The 1401st SPS

    • The 1140th SPS

    Correct Answer
    A. The 1041st SPS(test)
    Explanation
    The success of the 1041st SPS(test) in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police(SP).

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  • 8. 

    The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on

    • Weapons systems protective concept

    • Aircraft protection system concept

    • Air base defense protective

    • Whole - base protective system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Whole - base protective system.
    Explanation
    The Vietnam Conflict highlighted the necessity for a revised doctrine that would address the protection of the entire base. This implies that a comprehensive and integrated approach was required to safeguard the entire base from potential threats, rather than focusing solely on individual weapons systems or aircraft protection. Therefore, the correct answer is the "whole-base protective system."

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  • 9. 

    In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?

    • Police dog units and law enforcement specialties

    • Law enforcement and security specialties

    • Security and force protection elements

    • Security teams and security elements

    Correct Answer
    A. Law enforcement and security specialties
    Explanation
    In 1971, the Security Police underwent a division into two distinct functions. One function focused on law enforcement, which involves maintaining public order, preventing and detecting crimes, and enforcing laws. The other function dealt with security specialties, which encompassed tasks related to protecting individuals, properties, and assets. This division allowed for a more specialized and efficient approach to both law enforcement and security concerns.

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  • 10. 

    Which operation provided the US Military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?

    • Operation NORIEGA

    • Operation URGENT FURY

    • Operation FREE PANAMA

    • Operation JUST CAUSE

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation JUST CAUSE
    Explanation
    Operation JUST CAUSE provided the US Military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam. This military operation took place in Panama in 1989, with the aim of removing General Manuel Noriega from power. The operation involved urban combat and house-to-house fighting, giving the US Military valuable experience and lessons in urban warfare tactics and strategies.

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  • 11. 

    What was the "first in" Security Forces(SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command(AMC) in 1997?

    • Rising SUN program

    • Noble Eagle Program

    • Flying Falcon Program

    • Phoenix Raven Program

    Correct Answer
    A. Phoenix Raven Program
    Explanation
    The Phoenix Raven Program was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997. This program was designed to enhance the security of AMC aircraft and personnel during deployments to high-threat areas. Raven teams consisted of specially trained Security Forces personnel who provided security and conducted counterterrorism operations on AMC aircraft. The program aimed to ensure the safety and protection of AMC assets and personnel in potentially dangerous environments.

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  • 12. 

    The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called

    • Operation ENDURING FREEDOM

    • Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM

    • Operation IRAQI FREEDOM

    • Operation NOBLE EAGLE

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation ENDURING FREEDOM
    Explanation
    Operation ENDURING FREEDOM was the military operation launched against the Taliban in December 2001. It aimed to dismantle the Taliban regime in Afghanistan and destroy Al-Qaeda terrorist networks. The operation involved a coalition of countries led by the United States and was a response to the September 11 attacks. The name "ENDURING FREEDOM" reflects the objective of ensuring the long-lasting freedom and security of Afghanistan and its people.

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  • 13. 

    During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces(SF) task of convoy

    • Commander duty

    • Response duty

    • Escort duty

    • Driver duty

    Correct Answer
    A. Escort duty
    Explanation
    During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services required Security Forces (SF) personnel to take on new and nontraditional tasks. One such task was the duty of serving as an escort for convoys. This duty involved providing protection and security to the convoy, ensuring its safe passage through potentially dangerous areas. The SF personnel would work closely with the convoy commander to coordinate and implement security measures, such as establishing a secure perimeter, conducting route reconnaissance, and responding to any threats or attacks. This duty was crucial in safeguarding the personnel and equipment being transported and maintaining operational effectiveness during military operations.

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  • 14. 

    What security forces (SF) unit conducted the career field`s first combat parachute assault?

    • 343 SFS

    • 786 SFS

    • 1041 SPS

    • 1140 SPS

    Correct Answer
    A. 786 SFS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 786 SFS. This unit conducted the career field's first combat parachute assault.

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  • 15. 

    The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to

    • Be mission ready, resilient, and air minded.

    • Be knowledgeable in basic police and ground combat skills.

    • Be good followers, great leaders and the most rigorously trained defenders.

    • Protect, defend and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect, defend and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "protect, defend and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success." This answer accurately reflects the mission of all Security Forces (SF). SF personnel are responsible for ensuring the protection and defense of the Air Force (AF), as well as supporting joint and coalition missions. Their role is to engage in combat if necessary and to contribute to the overall success of missions undertaken by the AF, Joint, and Coalition forces.

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  • 16. 

    Which description correctly describes our Security Forces symbol?

    • Falcon over crossed runways.

    • Eagle over crossed runways

    • Falcon over crossed swords

    • Eagle over crossed swords

    Correct Answer
    A. Falcon over crossed runways.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Falcon over crossed runways. This symbol accurately represents our Security Forces as it combines the image of a falcon, which symbolizes speed, agility, and keen vision, with crossed runways, which symbolize the military nature of the force and their role in protecting and securing airfields. The falcon represents the qualities and characteristics that are essential for effective security forces, making this description the correct one.

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  • 17. 

    In the security forces unit S- function structure, which "S" branch is typically the largest?

    • S1

    • S2

    • S3

    • S4

    Correct Answer
    A. S3
    Explanation
    In the security forces unit S- function structure, the "S3" branch is typically the largest.

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  • 18. 

    In the Security Forces(SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS)?

    • S1

    • S2

    • S4

    • S5

    Correct Answer
    A. S5
    Explanation
    In the Security Forces (SF) unit S-function structure, the "S5" branch is responsible for maintaining the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS). The SFMIS is a system that helps manage and track information related to security forces activities, such as personnel, training, operations, and resources. The S5 branch is likely to have personnel with expertise in information technology and data management to ensure the proper functioning and security of the SFMIS.

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  • 19. 

    What course must a trainee attend for awarding of the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071?

    • Security Forces(SF) leader`s course

    • Supply manager`s course

    • SF craftsman resident course.

    • Security superintendent non-resident course

    Correct Answer
    A. SF craftsman resident course.
    Explanation
    The trainee must attend the SF craftsman resident course in order to be awarded the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071.

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  • 20. 

    As a Security Force(SF) member, adhering to what system(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

    • Code of Conduct only

    • SF General Orders only.

    • Performance Fitness Examination

    • Code of Conduct and General Orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Code of Conduct and General Orders
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Code of Conduct and General Orders. As a Security Force member, adhering to both the Code of Conduct and General Orders ensures mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides guidelines for ethical behavior and the responsibilities of SF members, while the General Orders outline specific instructions and procedures to be followed during missions. By following both systems of guidance, SF members can effectively carry out their duties and contribute to the successful completion of missions.

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  • 21. 

    Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?

    • Fulfilling the mission

    • Personal appearance.

    • Off-duty conduct

    • Attention to duty

    Correct Answer
    A. Fulfilling the mission
    Explanation
    Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner is an important aspect of fulfilling the mission. It shows a commitment to upholding the values and goals of the organization while treating offenders with respect and fairness. By treating offenders with dignity, it helps to maintain a positive and professional image for the organization and promotes a sense of fairness and justice in the criminal justice system.

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  • 22. 

    You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator`s race?

    • Seeking favors

    • Exercising authority

    • Assistance to others

    • Personal attitudes

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal attitudes
    Explanation
    Issuing a traffic ticket based on the violator's race is a clear violation of general conduct guidelines. This action demonstrates personal attitudes, which should not influence the decisions made by law enforcement officers. Personal attitudes should never be a factor in determining whether or not to issue a traffic ticket. It is essential to treat all individuals fairly and impartially, regardless of their race or any other personal characteristic.

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  • 23. 

    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to

    • AFI 31-301

    • AFI 31-205

    • AFI 31-206

    • AFI 31-117

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 31-117
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 31-117. This Air Force Instruction provides guidance on the conduct of apprehending suspects. It outlines the procedures and protocols that should be followed when apprehending individuals who are suspected of committing a crime. By following the guidelines outlined in AFI 31-117, Air Force personnel can ensure that suspects are apprehended in a lawful and professional manner, while also protecting the rights and safety of all individuals involved.

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  • 24. 

    At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations(AO)?

    • 1 to 2

    • 3 to 5

    • 6 to 8

    • 9 to 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 to 5
    Explanation
    Significant heat acclimatization requires a minimum of 3 to 5 days to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO). This period allows the body to gradually adjust to the heat and humidity, allowing it to better regulate body temperature and reduce the risk of heat-related illnesses. Acclimatization involves physiological adaptations such as increased sweat production, improved blood flow to the skin, and better fluid balance. It is important to give the body enough time to adapt to the environmental conditions to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals operating in hot climates.

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  • 25. 

    Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead?

    • Bioenvironmental engineering section.

    • Base Hazardous Waste Section

    • Bioenvironmental waste Section

    • Bioenvironmental Health Section

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental engineering section.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Bioenvironmental engineering section. This section is responsible for routinely testing firing ranges for amounts of lead. They are specifically trained to assess and manage environmental health hazards, including lead contamination. This section plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals using firing ranges by monitoring and mitigating potential lead exposure risks.

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  • 26. 

    What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?

    • Sweat

    • Blood

    • Syringes

    • Foreign Fluids

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood
    Explanation
    Blood is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace because it can carry various bloodborne pathogens, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. These viruses can be transmitted through contact with infected blood, either through direct contact with an open wound or through contact with contaminated objects or surfaces. Therefore, it is crucial to handle blood and blood-containing materials with caution, follow proper infection control protocols, and use personal protective equipment to prevent the spread of these viruses in the workplace.

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  • 27. 

    Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens is

    • Engineering controls

    • Employee work practices.

    • Personal protective equipment usage

    • Housekeeping guidelines

    Correct Answer
    A. Employee work practices.
    Explanation
    Employee work practices refer to the specific procedures that employees must follow on the job to reduce their risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. This includes practices such as proper hand hygiene, using appropriate techniques for handling sharps, and following proper protocols for cleaning and disinfecting contaminated surfaces. By adhering to these practices, employees can minimize their risk of coming into contact with bloodborne pathogens and prevent the spread of infections in the workplace.

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  • 28. 

    When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?

    • Search for weapons first

    • Always, begin your search at the front pocket

    • Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching.

    • Start searching for needles with an electromagnetic spectrometer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching.
    Explanation
    To protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids when conducting individual searches, it is essential to always conduct a precautionary check prior to searching. This step ensures that you can identify any potential hazards or risks before proceeding with the search, allowing you to take necessary precautions such as wearing protective gloves or using other safety measures. By conducting a precautionary check, you can minimize the chances of coming into contact with blood or body fluids and reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens or other harmful substances.

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  • 29. 

    Defender`s Edge training was developed by:

    • Defenders for defenders

    • Medical professionals for defenders

    • Base services for all AF personnel.

    • Base operations for all AF personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Defenders for defenders
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "defenders for defenders." This means that the Defender's Edge training program was created by individuals who are defenders themselves. They have firsthand experience and knowledge about the challenges and specific needs of defenders, making them the most suitable to develop training that is tailored to their requirements.

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  • 30. 

    The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the

    • Digestive and intestinal systems

    • Immune and psychological systems

    • Psychological and emotional systems

    • Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
    Explanation
    The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems are part of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions. The sympathetic system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, activating the body during times of stress or danger. The parasympathetic system, on the other hand, promotes relaxation and helps restore the body to a calm state after the stressor is removed. Together, these systems regulate the body's response to stress, with the sympathetic system preparing the body for action and the parasympathetic system promoting recovery and relaxation.

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  • 31. 

    As a Security Force(SF) members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?

    • Chaplains

    • Team members

    • Family members

    • Medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Team members
    Explanation
    As a Security Force (SF) member dealing with stress, our closest allies to strengthen our resilience are our team members. Team members provide support, understanding, and camaraderie during challenging times. They can relate to the unique stresses and pressures of the job, making them valuable allies in building resilience. Through collaboration, teamwork, and mutual support, team members can help each other navigate and overcome stress, ultimately strengthening the overall resilience of the SF unit.

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  • 32. 

    What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva conventions?

    • LOAC

    • Manual of Courts-Martial(MCM) title 10 statutes

    • Rules of Engagement(ROE)

    • Rules of War

    Correct Answer
    A. LOAC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is LOAC. LOAC stands for Law of Armed Conflict, which is a set of rules and regulations that govern the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts. The Hague and Geneva Conventions are international treaties that established the framework for LOAC. These conventions provide guidelines on the treatment of prisoners of war, protection of civilians, and the use of certain weapons. LOAC aims to minimize the suffering of individuals affected by armed conflicts and maintain a level of humanity during warfare.

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  • 33. 

    Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?

    • UCMJ

    • US Constitution

    • Federal Statutes

    • International law

    Correct Answer
    A. UCMJ
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UCMJ. The UCMJ, or the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is a legal document that contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces. It outlines the rules and regulations that govern the conduct of military personnel, including offenses such as desertion, insubordination, and misconduct. The UCMJ ensures discipline and accountability within the military and is an essential component of maintaining order and justice within the armed forces.

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  • 34. 

    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice`s(UCMJ) article states WHO is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

    • Article 77

    • Article 5

    • Article 2

    • Article 1

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 2
    Explanation
    Article 2 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article defines the term "member of the armed forces" and includes individuals such as active duty members, reserve members, and National Guard members. It also includes individuals who have been discharged but are still subject to military law due to offenses committed while in the service. Therefore, Article 2 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the subject of military jurisdiction.

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  • 35. 

    If person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person

    • Must be tried overseas

    • Is not subject to the UCMJ

    • Can be tried overseas or stateside

    • May choose to be court-martialed by civilian authority

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be tried overseas or stateside
    Explanation
    If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, they can be tried either overseas or stateside. This means that they are not limited to being tried only in the location where the offense took place. The military has jurisdiction over its members regardless of their location, so they have the option to be tried in a military court either overseas or back in their home country.

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  • 36. 

    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

    • Concurrent, current, proprietary

    • Exclusive, bilateral, concurrent

    • Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary

    • Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and reciprocal

    Correct Answer
    A. Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and reciprocal
    Explanation
    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal. Exclusive jurisdiction means that only the federal government has authority over certain matters on the installation. Concurrent jurisdiction means that both the federal government and the state government have authority over certain matters. Proprietary jurisdiction refers to the control and authority that the federal government has over the land and property of the installation. Reciprocal jurisdiction allows for the sharing of jurisdiction between the federal government and the state government, typically through agreements or treaties.

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  • 37. 

    The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations

    • When the government has exclusive jurisdiction

    • When partial jurisdiction exists

    • Under proprietary jurisdiction

    • Located in overseas areas

    Correct Answer
    A. When the government has exclusive jurisdiction
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when the government has exclusive jurisdiction. This means that the federal government has complete control and authority over enforcing laws on installations. In this scenario, no other entity or jurisdiction has any power or authority over the enforcement of laws on these installations.

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  • 38. 

    Under concurrent jurisdiction

    • State laws are not enforced

    • The state has property rights only

    • The federal government has no authority

    • Both the state and federal government have authority

    Correct Answer
    A. Both the state and federal government have authority
    Explanation
    Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal government have authority. This means that certain matters or cases can be addressed by either the state or federal government, or both, depending on the specific circumstances. It allows for shared power and allows both levels of government to have the ability to enforce laws and regulations within their jurisdictions. This is important in situations where the subject matter falls under both state and federal jurisdiction, ensuring that both governments can take action and exercise their authority.

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  • 39. 

    When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as a

    • Proprietary of government

    • Military government

    • Nationalist regime

    • Military state

    Correct Answer
    A. Military government
    Explanation
    When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a military government. In this scenario, the occupying power takes control of all aspects of governance and administration in the occupied territory, including security, law enforcement, and public services. The military government is responsible for maintaining order and stability in the occupied territory until a civilian government can be established.

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  • 40. 

    Which US service  has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

    • USAF

    • Coast Guard

    • ARMY

    • NAVY

    Correct Answer
    A. ARMY
    Explanation
    The US Army has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government. As the largest branch of the US military, the Army is responsible for maintaining land-based operations and providing support during times of conflict or military occupation. This includes overseeing the day-to-day administration of occupied territories and ensuring the safety and security of the population. The Army's expertise in land-based operations and its extensive resources make it the most suitable branch for this responsibility.

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  • 41. 

    What are the two types of martial law?

    • Qualified and absolute

    • Absolute and unqualified

    • Qualified and concurrent

    • Exclusive and absolute

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified and absolute
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "qualified and absolute." Qualified martial law refers to a situation where the military's authority is limited and subject to certain conditions or restrictions imposed by civilian authorities. On the other hand, absolute martial law grants unrestricted power to the military, allowing them to govern without any limitations or oversight from civilian authorities. These two types represent different degrees of military control and the extent of civilian involvement in decision-making during a period of martial law.

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  • 42. 

    Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?

    • Military law

    • Exclusive

    • Qualified

    • Absolute

    Correct Answer
    A. Absolute
    Explanation
    Absolute martial law exists when military authority completely replaces civil authority. This means that the military has complete control over all aspects of governance and law enforcement, with no involvement or influence from civilian institutions or authorities. In this type of martial law, the military has the power to make and enforce laws, maintain order, and suppress any form of dissent or opposition. It is the most extreme form of martial law, where the military's authority is unrestricted and unquestioned.

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  • 43. 

    What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the armed forces through the Uniform code of military justice (UCMJ)?

    • Military

    • Martial

    • Executive

    • Concurrent

    Correct Answer
    A. Military
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "military" because the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is a law that establishes the standards of behavior for members of the armed forces. It is a unique legal system that applies specifically to the military and governs their conduct, discipline, and legal rights. The UCMJ ensures that military personnel adhere to a code of conduct that is essential for maintaining discipline and order within the armed forces.

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  • 44. 

    Which uniform code of military justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces(SF) member?

    • Article 2

    • Article 5

    • Article 92

    • Article 134

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 92
    Explanation
    Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) gives Security Forces (SF) members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article specifically addresses the offense of failure to obey orders or regulations. It states that any person subject to the UCMJ who, without justification or excuse, fails to obey a lawful order or regulation, shall be punished as a court-martial may direct. Therefore, Article 92 is the correct answer as it directly relates to the authority to issue lawful orders.

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  • 45. 

    Who may request civil proceeding under the federal tort law?

    • Federal government

    • State government

    • Civilian companies

    • Private citizens

    Correct Answer
    A. Private citizens
    Explanation
    Private citizens may request civil proceedings under the federal tort law. This means that individuals who are not affiliated with the federal or state government or civilian companies have the right to initiate legal action under this law. The federal tort law allows private citizens to seek compensation for damages caused by the negligence or wrongdoing of federal agencies or employees. This ensures that individuals have the opportunity to hold the government accountable for any harm they may have suffered.

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  • 46. 

    In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on

    • Circumstances and facts

    • Witnesses and statements

    • Hearsay and rumors

    • Opinion and belief

    Correct Answer
    A. Opinion and belief
    Explanation
    When determining whether an individual is a suspect, it is important not to base this decision on opinion and belief. This is because opinions and beliefs are subjective and can be influenced by personal biases or prejudices. Instead, a decision should be based on objective factors such as circumstances and facts, witnesses and statements, and evidence. Relying on opinions and beliefs can lead to unfair and unjust outcomes, as they may not be supported by reliable evidence or factual information.

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  • 47. 

    Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?

    • The legal office

    • The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) office

    • The base commander

    • A Security Forces investigator

    Correct Answer
    A. The legal office
    Explanation
    Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, you should consult the legal office. The legal office is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to personnel, ensuring that their rights are protected and advising them on legal matters. They have the expertise and knowledge to address any concerns or questions regarding rights advisement, making them the appropriate office to consult in such situations.

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  • 48. 

    The fifth amendment of the constitution protects against

    • Self-inspection

    • Self-infliction

    • Self-incrimination

    • Self-determination

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-incrimination
    Explanation
    The fifth amendment of the constitution protects against self-incrimination. This means that individuals cannot be forced to testify against themselves in a criminal case. It grants them the right to remain silent and not provide any information that could be used to incriminate them. This protection ensures that individuals are not coerced or pressured into providing evidence that could be used against them in a court of law.

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  • 49. 

    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

    • Psychological deterrent

    • Mobile flight-line force multiplier

    • Base defense detection capability

    • Replacement for base sensor systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent
    Explanation
    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide a psychological deterrent. This means that the presence of these dog teams can effectively deter potential threats or criminals due to the fear or intimidation they may instill. The dogs' training, skills, and physical presence can create a sense of unease or apprehension among individuals who may be considering engaging in illegal activities. This psychological deterrent can help maintain security and prevent crimes from occurring in law enforcement operations.

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  • Current Version
  • Feb 27, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 14, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Arthurrocha123

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