Security Forces Training Quiz & Questions

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1. Range cards are a record of

Explanation

Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide essential information about the firing process, such as the target's location, the type of ammunition used, and the adjustments needed for accurate shots. Range cards are crucial for military personnel and marksmen as they help in maintaining accuracy and consistency during shooting exercises or combat situations. By keeping a record of firing data on range cards, individuals can refer back to previous information and make necessary adjustments for future shots, ensuring improved performance and effectiveness.

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About This Quiz
Security Forces Training Quiz & Questions - Quiz

This Security Forces training quiz assesses knowledge on range cards, weapon systems, and tactical positioning. It covers key elements such as firing data, preparation of range cards for specific weapons, and understanding of tactical terms like TRP and FPL, essential for military personnel.

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2. How many range cards are prepared for each position?

Explanation

Each position has two range cards prepared.

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3. What does the acronym FPL stand for?

Explanation

The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and defense contexts to refer to a line of defense established as a last resort to protect a position or objective. The final protective line is typically a predetermined line where intense defensive fire is directed to repel enemy forces and prevent them from advancing further.

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4. Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

Explanation

The marginal data area on a range card is typically used to record additional information that may be useful for navigation or target identification. This can include magnetic north data, which is the direction of the Earth's magnetic field at a specific location. By sketching in magnetic north data in the marginal data area, it can be easily referenced when needed during navigation or target engagement.

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5. The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

Explanation

Dead space refers to the area that cannot be effectively targeted or engaged with grazing fire. It is a term commonly used in military tactics and refers to areas that are shielded or protected from direct fire due to natural or man-made obstacles. These obstacles can include terrain features, buildings, or other forms of cover that prevent a direct line of sight for the firing weapon. Dead space poses a challenge for military units as it reduces their ability to effectively engage enemy forces and can provide a tactical advantage to the opposing side.

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6. The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is

Explanation

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the objective is to have a clear line of sight and range of fire, allowing you to effectively monitor and engage any potential threats or targets within that area. It emphasizes the importance of being vigilant and ready to engage anyone who poses a threat within your designated field of fire.

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7. Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

Explanation

A stoppage refers to any interruption or halt in the cycle of operations. It can occur due to various reasons such as mechanical issues, technical problems, or human error. This term is commonly used in industries or processes that involve continuous operations, such as manufacturing or production lines. A stoppage can result in a temporary suspension of work, causing delays and potential loss of productivity. It is important to identify and address stoppages promptly to ensure smooth operations and minimize any negative impact on efficiency and output.

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8. The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

Explanation

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent the build-up of dirt, debris, and rust which can affect the performance and lifespan of the weapons. Proper lubrication also reduces friction and wear, allowing the weapons to operate smoothly and efficiently. By regularly cleaning and lubricating the weapons, they can be maintained in optimal condition and their functionality can be preserved.

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9. How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine? 

Explanation

There are 10 different types of ammunition available for the M4 carbine.

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10. What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

Explanation

The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. This means that the tracer round in the M856 cartridge will stay visible for a longer distance compared to the M196 cartridge. The M856 cartridge is used in the M4 carbine, providing enhanced visibility for the shooter and assisting in tracking the trajectory of the bullet.

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11. What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is designed to accurately hit a target at a maximum distance of 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol may significantly decrease.

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12. What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The M9 pistol has a maximum effective range of 50 meters, but it can potentially fire accurately up to a distance of 1,800 meters. However, at such long ranges, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol significantly decrease, making it impractical for engagements beyond the typical effective range.

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13. If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is the "Adjusted aiming point method." When firing the M9, shooters are required to use this method to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the aiming point based on factors such as distance, wind, and target size. It allows shooters to compensate for these variables and increase their accuracy when firing the M9.

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14. On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

Explanation

The dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator on the M9 pistol is to indicate if there is a round in the chamber and to reset the firing pin block. This means that it serves as a safety feature by showing if the chamber is loaded and ready to fire, and also ensures that the firing pin block is properly reset for the next round to be chambered.

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15. Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

Explanation

When faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, applying immediate actions to remedy the situation should be instinctive. This means that the response should come naturally and without conscious thought. It implies that individuals should be well-trained and familiar with the necessary actions to take in such situations, allowing them to react quickly and effectively.

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16. Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

Explanation

CLP or LSA is used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This is because steel is prone to rust when exposed to moisture or humidity. By applying a cleaner, lubricant, and preservative or a lubricating oil, a protective layer is formed on the steel surface, preventing moisture from coming into direct contact with the metal and thus reducing the risk of rust formation.

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17. How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4. This means that there are four types of 9 mm ammunition that are used with the M9 pistol.

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18. Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?

Explanation

The MK243 MOD 0 ammunition round is only issued to specific personnel such as security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties. This suggests that the MK243 MOD 0 round is specifically designed for these specialized roles and is not commonly issued to all personnel.

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19. In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

Explanation

The maximum defective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 350 meters. This means that the M203 can effectively engage and hit targets within a radius of 350 meters, making it a suitable weapon for engaging larger groups of enemies.

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20. Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

Explanation

The ogive of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicates the color of the smoke produced.

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21. Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Under no circumstances" because the MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not for the M203 grenade launcher. The M203 uses different types of ammunition that are not interchangeable with the MK19 ammunition. Therefore, it is incorrect to use MK19 ammunition in the M203 under any circumstances.

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22. What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?

Explanation

The M249 maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod is 600 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a single target at a distance of up to 600 meters when supported by a bipod.

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23. How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

Explanation

The M240B is fed ammunition through a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition carrying device that is worn over the shoulder or across the chest. The split-link belt refers to the type of belt used to hold the ammunition. In a split-link belt, the links are designed to open and close, allowing for easy insertion and removal of ammunition. This combination of a bandoleer and split-link belt allows for efficient and quick reloading of the M240B during combat situations.

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24. From what position is the M240B loaded?

Explanation

The M240B can be loaded from either the bolt open or bolt closed position. This means that the bolt can be either open or closed when inserting ammunition into the weapon.

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25. Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

Explanation

When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, igniting the propellant and creating a high-pressure gas that propels the bullet out of the barrel. Firing is a crucial step in the cycle of operations as it is responsible for the actual discharge of the weapon.

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26. Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

Explanation

The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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27. Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?

Explanation

The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19.

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28. Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?

Explanation

A final protective line (FPL) is a predetermined line on the ground that serves as a reference point for directing fire. It is fixed in direction and elevation, meaning that it does not change once established. This allows for accurate and consistent targeting of enemy forces or threats. The other options, such as a principal of direct fire (PDF), a final protective fire (FPF), and a directed prolonged fire (DPF), do not have the same fixed characteristics as an FPL.

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29. In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?

Explanation

The correct answer is 640. This means that the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round is 640 meters.

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30. The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

Explanation

The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in the close-quarters battle role. This is because shotguns are designed for short-range combat and excel in confined spaces where accuracy is less important than firepower. In close-quarters battles, shotguns can quickly neutralize multiple targets with their wide spread and high stopping power, making them a valuable asset in tight and intense combat situations.

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31. Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

Explanation

Sharpshooters will be well trained in the tactical use of terrain because it plays a crucial role in their ability to effectively engage targets. By understanding the terrain, sharpshooters can strategically position themselves to gain advantageous shooting positions, utilize natural cover and concealment, and take advantage of the topography to enhance their accuracy and range. Additionally, knowledge of the terrain allows sharpshooters to anticipate and adapt to environmental factors such as wind direction and elevation changes, further enhancing their shooting proficiency.

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32. Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior

Explanation

Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with precise measurements and specifications, resulting in consistent and predictable performance. This is crucial for snipers who rely on their ammunition to hit targets accurately over long distances. By producing ammunition to stringent tolerances, any variations or inconsistencies that could affect accuracy are minimized, leading to more precise and reliable shots.

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33. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

Explanation

The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed or seriously injured. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarters combat, and their small size allows for easy throwing and maneuverability in confined spaces. The 5-meter kill radius ensures that enemies in close proximity to the grenade are neutralized.

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34. The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an

Explanation

The claymore mine is designed to be used as a defensive weapon. It is a type of anti-personnel mine that is typically used to protect a specific area or position. When detonated, it releases a lethal blast of shrapnel in a specific direction, effectively targeting and neutralizing enemy forces that may be approaching or attempting to breach a defensive line. Its purpose is to deter or repel attackers and provide a defensive advantage to the user.

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35. In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?

Explanation

The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are the other fixed weapons that require a range card in addition to the M4. A range card is a document that provides information on the distances and adjustments needed to accurately engage targets with a specific weapon. It includes factors such as elevation, windage, and target range. Having a range card for these weapons is crucial for ensuring accurate and effective fire.

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36. What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

Explanation

On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could potentially serve as targets. This information is important for planning and executing effective firing positions, as it allows you to identify and prioritize potential targets based on their prominence and strategic value. By including these features on the sketch, you can enhance situational awareness and make informed decisions during operations.

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37. When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

Explanation

When clearing fields of fire, it is recommended to start at least 100 meters away from your position and work forward. This distance ensures that you have a clear line of sight and can effectively engage targets without any obstructions or obstacles. Starting at a greater distance also allows for better situational awareness and the ability to react to any potential threats in a timely manner.

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38. What is the function of the forward assist?

Explanation

The forward assist is a feature on some firearms, typically rifles, that allows the user to manually push the bolt forward into battery. This can be useful in situations where the bolt does not fully close or if there is resistance in chambering a round. By locking the bolt forward during immediate action procedures, the forward assist ensures that the firearm is ready to fire without any malfunctions or issues.

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39. The acronym SPORTS stands for

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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40. What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?

Explanation

The waiting period before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203 is 30 seconds. This is likely to ensure that any potential hazards or residual pressure within the barrel assembly have dissipated, reducing the risk of injury or damage when unloading the weapon. Waiting for this period allows for a safer and more controlled unloading process.

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41. Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?

Explanation

Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting the target in dense foliage or confined spaces. The pellets spread out, providing a wider coverage area and increasing the likelihood of hitting multiple targets or causing collateral damage in close quarters. This makes buckshot a suitable choice for situations where a wider area needs to be covered or where there is a higher chance of encountering multiple targets.

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42. Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

Explanation

The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. It is responsible for housing and connecting various parts such as the barrel, bolt, trigger mechanism, and slide assembly. Without the receiver assembly, the other components would not be able to function properly or be securely attached to the firearm.

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43. An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of te weapon or faulty ammunition is called?

Explanation

A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations caused by either a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. This means that there is a failure or malfunction in the normal functioning of the weapon or ammunition, resulting in a temporary halt or pause in its operation. It could be due to a variety of reasons such as a jam, misfire, or failure to eject a spent cartridge.

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44. How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

Explanation

An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition belt or pouch that is used to carry and distribute ammunition for firearms. In the case of an M249, which is a light machine gun, the bandoleer is specifically designed to hold 200 rounds of ammunition. This allows the gunner to have a substantial amount of ammunition readily available for sustained fire during combat situations.

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45. What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?

Explanation

During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for these purposes, as it does not contain any explosive or live components. Instead, it is inert and serves to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition, allowing for safe and realistic training without the risk of accidental discharge or damage to the firearm.

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46. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

Explanation

The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with a tripod. This means that it is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a single target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod.

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47. What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

Explanation

The acronym BFA stands for Blank Firing Adapter. A blank firing adapter is a device that is attached to the muzzle of a firearm to allow it to fire blanks. Blanks are cartridges that do not contain a projectile but still produce a flash and noise when fired. The purpose of a blank firing adapter is to simulate the recoil and sound of live ammunition without actually firing a projectile. This is commonly used in military training exercises and theatrical performances.

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48. What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 2,000 yards. This means that the gun is capable of accurately hitting targets at a distance of up to 2,000 yards.

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49. Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target

Explanation

The use of abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data allows the gunner to quickly and accurately aim or adjust fire on the target. This means that the gunner can rapidly respond to changes in the target's position or other factors that may affect the accuracy of the fire. By doing so, the gunner can ensure that the fire is delivered with precision and effectiveness, increasing the chances of hitting the intended target.

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50. Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avanue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

Explanation

The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team is responsible for directing their fire towards the area where the enemy is most likely to come from, ensuring that they have the best possible coverage and can effectively engage any approaching enemy forces. The primary sector of fire is a crucial aspect of defensive positioning and allows the gun team to maximize their effectiveness in defending their position.

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51. Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and

Explanation

The primary objective of the offense when concerning machine guns is to "hold the enemy position." This means that the offense aims to advance, occupy, and maintain control over the enemy's position using machine guns. By doing so, they can effectively neutralize the enemy's ability to counterattack or regain control, allowing the offense to maintain their position and continue their advance.

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52. The M107 sniper rifel operates by means of

Explanation

The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of the short recoil principle. This means that when a round is fired, the force generated pushes the barrel and bolt assembly rearward together for a short distance. As the barrel and bolt assembly move back, the bolt unlocks from the barrel and the spent casing is ejected. The barrel and bolt assembly then return forward under spring pressure, stripping a new round from the magazine and chambering it. The short recoil principle allows for efficient and reliable operation of the rifle, making it a suitable choice for sniper applications.

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53. The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precisse rifle fire from

Explanation

The correct answer is "concealed positions" because snipers are trained to remain hidden and undetected while delivering precise rifle fire. By operating from concealed positions, snipers can effectively engage targets without being easily spotted by the enemy. This allows them to provide support to combat operations while minimizing the risk of being detected and targeted themselves. Operating from concealed positions also provides snipers with the advantage of surprise, as they can observe and engage targets without being seen or anticipated.

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54. How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training enviroment?

Explanation

In the training environment, live fragmentation grenades should be thrown overhand. This throwing technique allows for maximum distance and accuracy when aiming at a target. Throwing the grenade overhand also ensures that it travels in a predictable trajectory, reducing the risk of it hitting an unintended target or bouncing back towards the thrower. This method is commonly taught and practiced in military and law enforcement training to ensure safe and effective grenade deployment.

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55. When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considereda

Explanation

The claymore is considered a mine or booby trap when employed in an uncontrolled role. This means that it is set up to explode when triggered by an unsuspecting target, causing harm or damage. In this context, the claymore is not being used as a precision engagement weapon or an active force multiplier, but rather as a covert and potentially lethal weapon.

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56. The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for

Explanation

The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for single or dual priming. This means that the claymore can be set up to be detonated by either one or two detonators. This provides flexibility in how the claymore is armed and allows for different scenarios and requirements to be met.

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57. Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?

Explanation

Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), it is important to check the backblast area. The backblast area is the zone behind the weapon where there is a blast of hot gases and debris expelled when the weapon is fired. Checking the backblast area ensures that there are no personnel or obstacles present that could be harmed or damaged by the blast. By checking the backblast area, the operator can ensure the safety of themselves and others before firing the LAW.

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58. A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

Explanation

The black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates that it is a High explosive (HE) antiarmor round. This color combination is used as a visual indicator to differentiate it from other types of launchers. The black and yellow band helps to quickly identify and distinguish the HE antiarmor round launcher in the field, ensuring that it is used correctly and effectively in combat situations.

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59. In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is 400. This means that the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 400 meters.

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60. What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?

Explanation

Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B. Sluggish operations refer to the weapon's failure to cycle properly, resulting in slow or incomplete firing. Uncontrolled fire refers to the weapon firing continuously without the shooter's control, which can be dangerous and lead to excessive ammunition waste. These malfunctions can significantly impact the effectiveness and safety of the M240B during combat operations.

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61. At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of

Explanation

The M240B should be cleaned after firing a basic load of 900 to 1,200 rounds. This is because after firing this number of rounds, the weapon is likely to have accumulated enough carbon and fouling that can affect its performance and reliability. Cleaning the weapon ensures that it functions properly and reduces the risk of malfunctions or stoppages during use.

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62. What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?

Explanation

The M61 ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets. This type of ammunition is specifically designed to penetrate and defeat lightly-armored vehicles or structures. It is commonly used in military operations where precision and effectiveness are required against such targets.

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63. What is the standard round for the MK19?

Explanation

The standard round for the MK19 is the M430.

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64. Searching fire is the most often used on

Explanation

Searching fire is the most often used on level or evenly sloping ground because it provides a stable and balanced platform for the search team. Level ground allows for easier movement and navigation, ensuring that the search can be conducted efficiently. Evenly sloping ground also offers a similar advantage, as it minimizes the risk of uneven terrain causing accidents or hindering the search process. Therefore, level or evenly sloping ground is preferred for searching fire situations.

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65. The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?

Explanation

The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to 700 meters. This means that the fire can spread up to a distance of 700 meters from its starting point. It is important to understand the maximum extent of grazing fire in order to assess the potential danger and take appropriate measures to control and extinguish the fire.

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66. When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?

Explanation

Predetermined fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners when selecting crew-served weapons positions. This type of fire involves pre-planned target areas and firing points that are predetermined based on the analysis of the terrain and the expected enemy movements. It allows the gunners to have a strategic advantage by positioning themselves in locations that provide maximum coverage and effectiveness. By having predetermined firing positions, the gunners can quickly engage targets and maintain control over the battlefield.

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67. Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.

Explanation

Final protective fire is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas. It is a concentrated and intense volume of fire that is directed towards the enemy when they breach the defensive lines. The purpose of final protective fire is to disrupt and halt the enemy's advance, providing a last line of defense for the defensive position. It is a crucial element in defensive operations and is intended to inflict maximum damage on the enemy and prevent their further movement.

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68. Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include

Explanation

The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include a response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. This means that these teams should be able to effectively respond to threats, provide overwatch to protect friendly forces, conduct screening operations to gather information, and perform reconnaissance to gather intelligence on enemy positions and movements. These capabilities are essential for the success of CPE marksmen and sharpshooter teams in their mission.

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69. What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?

Explanation

Hand grenades commonly have a short employment range, meaning they can only be thrown a relatively short distance. They also have a small casualty radius, meaning the area in which they can cause damage is limited. Additionally, hand grenades typically have a delay element that allows the person throwing it to have enough time to move to a safe distance before it detonates. This delay element permits safe throwing by giving the thrower enough time to get away from the explosion.

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70. In what year was the M18A, a claymore mine standardized?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1960. This is because the question is asking for the year in which the M18A, a claymore mine, was standardized. Standardization refers to the process of establishing a uniform design and set of specifications for a particular item or product. Therefore, in 1960, the M18A claymore mine went through this process and became standardized.

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71. When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a

Explanation

The claymore is treated as a one-shot weapon when employed in a controlled role. This means that it is designed to be used only once before needing to be reloaded or replaced. It suggests that the claymore is not meant for sustained or continuous use, but rather for a specific purpose or situation where a single shot is sufficient.

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72. The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal

Explanation

The M136 AT4's warhead is known for its excellent ability to penetrate armor and cause lethal damage to targets. It is designed to have a significant impact even after it has penetrated the armor, resulting in devastating after-armor effects. These effects ensure that the target is effectively neutralized and unable to continue its operations.

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73. Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fir weapons?

Explanation

The target reference point (TRP) is primarily used to control direct-fire weapons, allowing them to accurately engage targets. However, it may also be used for indirect-fire weapons, although this is not its primary purpose. The TRP serves as a specific location on the battlefield that is used as a reference point for directing fire and coordinating attacks. It helps to ensure that the weapons are aimed at the intended target and increases the effectiveness of the engagement.

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74. What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?

Explanation

The standard cartridge used with the M9 is the M882.

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75. What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?

Explanation

The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters.

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Range cards are a record of
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
What does the acronym FPL stand for?
Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4...
What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except...
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the...
On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber...
Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage...
Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid,...
How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of...
In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when...
Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds...
Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point...
How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
From what position is the M240B loaded?
Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by...
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after...
Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for...
Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using...
The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the...
Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure...
How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed...
What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain...
When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you...
What is the function of the forward assist?
The acronym SPORTS stands for
What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure...
Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for...
Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of...
How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training,...
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a...
What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine...
Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the...
Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most...
Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the...
The M107 sniper rifel operates by means of
The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by...
How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training...
When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is...
The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type...
In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging...
What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?
At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
What is the standard round for the MK19?
Searching fire is the most often used on
The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire...
Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged...
Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE)...
What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
In what year was the M18A, a claymore mine standardized?
When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and...
Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire...
What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781...
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