Security Forces Training Quiz & Questions

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  • 1/75 Questions

    Range cards are a record of

    • Range data
    • Firing data
    • Call signs
    • Training
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About This Quiz

This Security Forces training quiz assesses knowledge on range cards, weapon systems, and tactical positioning. It covers key elements such as firing data, preparation of range cards for specific weapons, and understanding of tactical terms like TRP and FPL, essential for military personnel.

Security Forces Training Quiz & Questions - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    How many range cards are prepared for each position?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    Each position has two range cards prepared.

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  • 3. 

    What does the acronym FPL stand for?

    • Final protective line

    • Fire patrol liaison

    • First protective line

    • Fire profieciency line

    Correct Answer
    A. Final protective line
    Explanation
    The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and defense contexts to refer to a line of defense established as a last resort to protect a position or objective. The final protective line is typically a predetermined line where intense defensive fire is directed to repel enemy forces and prevent them from advancing further.

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  • 4. 

    Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

    • Where you can locate it quickly

    • Marginal data area

    • Upper right corner

    • Part one

    Correct Answer
    A. Marginal data area
    Explanation
    The marginal data area on a range card is typically used to record additional information that may be useful for navigation or target identification. This can include magnetic north data, which is the direction of the Earth's magnetic field at a specific location. By sketching in magnetic north data in the marginal data area, it can be easily referenced when needed during navigation or target engagement.

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  • 5. 

    The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

    • Dead zone

    • Dead area

    • Dead space

    • Dead spot

    Correct Answer
    A. Dead space
    Explanation
    Dead space refers to the area that cannot be effectively targeted or engaged with grazing fire. It is a term commonly used in military tactics and refers to areas that are shielded or protected from direct fire due to natural or man-made obstacles. These obstacles can include terrain features, buildings, or other forms of cover that prevent a direct line of sight for the firing weapon. Dead space poses a challenge for military units as it reduces their ability to effectively engage enemy forces and can provide a tactical advantage to the opposing side.

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  • 6. 

    The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is

    • Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

    • Engage only those persons determined to be hostile

    • Engage predetermined targets in the ara

    • Detect the enemy and notify the chief, Security Forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
    Explanation
    The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the objective is to have a clear line of sight and range of fire, allowing you to effectively monitor and engage any potential threats or targets within that area. It emphasizes the importance of being vigilant and ready to engage anyone who poses a threat within your designated field of fire.

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  • 7. 

    Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

    • A stoppage

    • A malfunction

    • A failure to fire

    • An operational failure

    Correct Answer
    A. A stoppage
    Explanation
    A stoppage refers to any interruption or halt in the cycle of operations. It can occur due to various reasons such as mechanical issues, technical problems, or human error. This term is commonly used in industries or processes that involve continuous operations, such as manufacturing or production lines. A stoppage can result in a temporary suspension of work, causing delays and potential loss of productivity. It is important to identify and address stoppages promptly to ensure smooth operations and minimize any negative impact on efficiency and output.

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  • 8. 

    The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

    • In brand new condition

    • Clean, dry and lubricated

    • Fully oiled and lubricated

    • Clean and properly lubricated

    Correct Answer
    A. Clean and properly lubricated
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent the build-up of dirt, debris, and rust which can affect the performance and lifespan of the weapons. Proper lubrication also reduces friction and wear, allowing the weapons to operate smoothly and efficiently. By regularly cleaning and lubricating the weapons, they can be maintained in optimal condition and their functionality can be preserved.

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  • 9. 

    How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine? 

    • 6

    • 8

    • 10

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    There are 10 different types of ammunition available for the M4 carbine.

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  • 10. 

    What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

    • M249

    • M199

    • M855

    • M856

    Correct Answer
    A. M856
    Explanation
    The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. This means that the tracer round in the M856 cartridge will stay visible for a longer distance compared to the M196 cartridge. The M856 cartridge is used in the M4 carbine, providing enhanced visibility for the shooter and assisting in tracking the trajectory of the bullet.

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  • 11. 

    What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

    • 50 meters

    • 60 meters

    • 70 meters

    • 80 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 meters
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is designed to accurately hit a target at a maximum distance of 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol may significantly decrease.

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  • 12. 

    What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

    • 600 meters

    • 800 meters

    • 1,100 meters

    • 1,800 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,800 meters
    Explanation
    The M9 pistol has a maximum effective range of 50 meters, but it can potentially fire accurately up to a distance of 1,800 meters. However, at such long ranges, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol significantly decrease, making it impractical for engagements beyond the typical effective range.

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  • 13. 

    If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

    • Approximate aiming point method

    • Adjusted aiming point method

    • Advanced aiming point method

    • Altitude aiming point method

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjusted aiming point method
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the "Adjusted aiming point method." When firing the M9, shooters are required to use this method to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the aiming point based on factors such as distance, wind, and target size. It allows shooters to compensate for these variables and increase their accuracy when firing the M9.

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  • 14. 

    On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

    • Loaded chamber indicator

    • Reset the firing pin block

    • Chambering

    • Releasing slide

    Correct Answer
    A. Loaded chamber indicator
    Explanation
    The dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator on the M9 pistol is to indicate if there is a round in the chamber and to reset the firing pin block. This means that it serves as a safety feature by showing if the chamber is loaded and ready to fire, and also ensures that the firing pin block is properly reset for the next round to be chambered.

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  • 15. 

    Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

    • Aluminum

    • Rubber

    • Plastic

    • Steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Steel
    Explanation
    CLP or LSA is used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This is because steel is prone to rust when exposed to moisture or humidity. By applying a cleaner, lubricant, and preservative or a lubricating oil, a protective layer is formed on the steel surface, preventing moisture from coming into direct contact with the metal and thus reducing the risk of rust formation.

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  • 16. 

    How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4. This means that there are four types of 9 mm ammunition that are used with the M9 pistol.

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  • 17. 

    Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?

    • MK243 MOD 0

    • M917 dummy round

    • M882 ball, with cannelure

    • M882 ball, without cannelure

    Correct Answer
    A. MK243 MOD 0
    Explanation
    The MK243 MOD 0 ammunition round is only issued to specific personnel such as security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties. This suggests that the MK243 MOD 0 round is specifically designed for these specialized roles and is not commonly issued to all personnel.

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  • 18. 

    In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

    • 150

    • 250

    • 350

    • 400

    Correct Answer
    A. 350
    Explanation
    The maximum defective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 350 meters. This means that the M203 can effectively engage and hit targets within a radius of 350 meters, making it a suitable weapon for engaging larger groups of enemies.

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  • 19. 

    Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

    • Canopy

    • Flangee

    • Ogive

    • Fin

    Correct Answer
    A. Ogive
    Explanation
    The ogive of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicates the color of the smoke produced.

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  • 20. 

    Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

    • Under no circumstances

    • When directed

    • Emergancies

    • Last resort

    Correct Answer
    A. Under no circumstances
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Under no circumstances" because the MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not for the M203 grenade launcher. The M203 uses different types of ammunition that are not interchangeable with the MK19 ammunition. Therefore, it is incorrect to use MK19 ammunition in the M203 under any circumstances.

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  • 21. 

    What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?

    • 800

    • 600

    • 400

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 600
    Explanation
    The M249 maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod is 600 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a single target at a distance of up to 600 meters when supported by a bipod.

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  • 22. 

    How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

    • 50 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • 100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt

    • 50 round bandoleer, solid-link belt

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt
    Explanation
    The M240B is fed ammunition through a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition carrying device that is worn over the shoulder or across the chest. The split-link belt refers to the type of belt used to hold the ammunition. In a split-link belt, the links are designed to open and close, allowing for easy insertion and removal of ammunition. This combination of a bandoleer and split-link belt allows for efficient and quick reloading of the M240B during combat situations.

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  • 23. 

    From what position is the M240B loaded?

    • Bolt Open

    • Bolt CLOSED

    • Bolt OENED or CLOSED

    • Blide OPENED or CLOSED

    Correct Answer
    A. Bolt OENED or CLOSED
    Explanation
    The M240B can be loaded from either the bolt open or bolt closed position. This means that the bolt can be either open or closed when inserting ammunition into the weapon.

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  • 24. 

    Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

    • Ejecting

    • Extracting

    • Cocking

    • Firing

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing
    Explanation
    When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, igniting the propellant and creating a high-pressure gas that propels the bullet out of the barrel. Firing is a crucial step in the cycle of operations as it is responsible for the actual discharge of the weapon.

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  • 25. 

    Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

    • M240B

    • M249

    • M780

    • MK19

    Correct Answer
    A. MK19
    Explanation
    The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?

    • M1

    • M2

    • M3

    • M4

    Correct Answer
    A. M3
    Explanation
    The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?

    • A final protective line (FPL)

    • A principal of direct fire (PDF)

    • A final protective fire (FPF)

    • A directed prolonged fire (DPF)

    Correct Answer
    A. A final protective line (FPL)
    Explanation
    A final protective line (FPL) is a predetermined line on the ground that serves as a reference point for directing fire. It is fixed in direction and elevation, meaning that it does not change once established. This allows for accurate and consistent targeting of enemy forces or threats. The other options, such as a principal of direct fire (PDF), a final protective fire (FPF), and a directed prolonged fire (DPF), do not have the same fixed characteristics as an FPL.

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  • 28. 

    In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?

    • 250

    • 345

    • 557

    • 640

    Correct Answer
    A. 640
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 640. This means that the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round is 640 meters.

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  • 29. 

    The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

    • The open-quarters battle role

    • The close-quaters battle role

    • High-density, low-visibility role

    • Long-range fighting, heavy-combatant role

    Correct Answer
    A. The close-quaters battle role
    Explanation
    The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in the close-quarters battle role. This is because shotguns are designed for short-range combat and excel in confined spaces where accuracy is less important than firepower. In close-quarters battles, shotguns can quickly neutralize multiple targets with their wide spread and high stopping power, making them a valuable asset in tight and intense combat situations.

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  • 30. 

    Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

    • Ammunition

    • Vehicles

    • Terrain

    • Time

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrain
    Explanation
    Sharpshooters will be well trained in the tactical use of terrain because it plays a crucial role in their ability to effectively engage targets. By understanding the terrain, sharpshooters can strategically position themselves to gain advantageous shooting positions, utilize natural cover and concealment, and take advantage of the topography to enhance their accuracy and range. Additionally, knowledge of the terrain allows sharpshooters to anticipate and adapt to environmental factors such as wind direction and elevation changes, further enhancing their shooting proficiency.

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  • 31. 

    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior

    • Quality

    • Accuracy

    • Killing ratio

    • Stopping power

    Correct Answer
    A. Accuracy
    Explanation
    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with precise measurements and specifications, resulting in consistent and predictable performance. This is crucial for snipers who rely on their ammunition to hit targets accurately over long distances. By producing ammunition to stringent tolerances, any variations or inconsistencies that could affect accuracy are minimized, leading to more precise and reliable shots.

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  • 32. 

    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed or seriously injured. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarters combat, and their small size allows for easy throwing and maneuverability in confined spaces. The 5-meter kill radius ensures that enemies in close proximity to the grenade are neutralized.

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  • 33. 

    The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an

    • Offensive weapon

    • Defensive weapon

    • Passive defense weapon

    • Active defense weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. Defensive weapon
    Explanation
    The claymore mine is designed to be used as a defensive weapon. It is a type of anti-personnel mine that is typically used to protect a specific area or position. When detonated, it releases a lethal blast of shrapnel in a specific direction, effectively targeting and neutralizing enemy forces that may be approaching or attempting to breach a defensive line. Its purpose is to deter or repel attackers and provide a defensive advantage to the user.

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  • 34. 

    Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

    • Impossible

    • Incredible

    • Ineffective

    • Instinctive

    Correct Answer
    A. Instinctive
    Explanation
    When faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, applying immediate actions to remedy the situation should be instinctive. This means that the response should come naturally and without conscious thought. It implies that individuals should be well-trained and familiar with the necessary actions to take in such situations, allowing them to react quickly and effectively.

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  • 35. 

    In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?

    • M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.

    • M248, .50 cal, and MK 19

    • M9, M203, and MK19

    • MK19, .50 cal, and M17

    Correct Answer
    A. M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.
    Explanation
    The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are the other fixed weapons that require a range card in addition to the M4. A range card is a document that provides information on the distances and adjustments needed to accurately engage targets with a specific weapon. It includes factors such as elevation, windage, and target range. Having a range card for these weapons is crucial for ensuring accurate and effective fire.

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  • 36. 

    What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

    • Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets

    • Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target

    • Prominent man-made featurs that will be a definite target

    • Natural synthetic features only that could be a target

    Correct Answer
    A. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
    Explanation
    On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could potentially serve as targets. This information is important for planning and executing effective firing positions, as it allows you to identify and prioritize potential targets based on their prominence and strategic value. By including these features on the sketch, you can enhance situational awareness and make informed decisions during operations.

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  • 37. 

    When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 100
    Explanation
    When clearing fields of fire, it is recommended to start at least 100 meters away from your position and work forward. This distance ensures that you have a clear line of sight and can effectively engage targets without any obstructions or obstacles. Starting at a greater distance also allows for better situational awareness and the ability to react to any potential threats in a timely manner.

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  • 38. 

    What is the function of the forward assist?

    • Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures

    • Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure

    • Unlock the bolt and secure the charing handle

    • Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure
    Explanation
    The forward assist is a feature on some firearms, typically rifles, that allows the user to manually push the bolt forward into battery. This can be useful in situations where the bolt does not fully close or if there is resistance in chambering a round. By locking the bolt forward during immediate action procedures, the forward assist ensures that the firearm is ready to fire without any malfunctions or issues.

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  • 39. 

    The acronym SPORTS stands for

    • Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot

    • Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot

    • Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot

    • Slap, push, observe, release, tap, and shoot

    Correct Answer
    A. Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
  • 40. 

    What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The waiting period before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203 is 30 seconds. This is likely to ensure that any potential hazards or residual pressure within the barrel assembly have dissipated, reducing the risk of injury or damage when unloading the weapon. Waiting for this period allows for a safer and more controlled unloading process.

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  • 41. 

    Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?

    • White star cluster

    • Ground marker

    • Star parachute

    • Buckshot

    Correct Answer
    A. Buckshot
    Explanation
    Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting the target in dense foliage or confined spaces. The pellets spread out, providing a wider coverage area and increasing the likelihood of hitting multiple targets or causing collateral damage in close quarters. This makes buckshot a suitable choice for situations where a wider area needs to be covered or where there is a higher chance of encountering multiple targets.

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  • 42. 

    Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

    • Slide assembly

    • Receiver assembly

    • Triger mechanism assembly

    • Return rod and transfer assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver assembly
    Explanation
    The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. It is responsible for housing and connecting various parts such as the barrel, bolt, trigger mechanism, and slide assembly. Without the receiver assembly, the other components would not be able to function properly or be securely attached to the firearm.

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  • 43. 

    An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of te weapon or faulty ammunition is called?

    • A stoppage

    • A malfunction

    • A remedial action

    • An operator error

    Correct Answer
    A. A stoppage
    Explanation
    A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations caused by either a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. This means that there is a failure or malfunction in the normal functioning of the weapon or ammunition, resulting in a temporary halt or pause in its operation. It could be due to a variety of reasons such as a jam, misfire, or failure to eject a spent cartridge.

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  • 44. 

    How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

    • 50

    • 100

    • 150

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 200
    Explanation
    An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition belt or pouch that is used to carry and distribute ammunition for firearms. In the case of an M249, which is a light machine gun, the bandoleer is specifically designed to hold 200 rounds of ammunition. This allows the gunner to have a substantial amount of ammunition readily available for sustained fire during combat situations.

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  • 45. 

    What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?

    • M199 Dummy

    • M200 Blank

    • M856 Tracer

    • M866 Ball

    Correct Answer
    A. M199 Dummy
    Explanation
    During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for these purposes, as it does not contain any explosive or live components. Instead, it is inert and serves to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition, allowing for safe and realistic training without the risk of accidental discharge or damage to the firearm.

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  • 46. 

    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

    • 200

    • 400

    • 600

    • 800

    Correct Answer
    A. 800
    Explanation
    The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with a tripod. This means that it is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a single target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod.

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  • 47. 

    What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?

    • 2,000 yards

    • 2,200 yards

    • 2,500 yards

    • 2,750 yards

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,000 yards
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 2,000 yards. This means that the gun is capable of accurately hitting targets at a distance of up to 2,000 yards.

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  • 48. 

    Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target

    • Rapidly and effectively

    • Quickly and accurately

    • Accurately and timely

    • Swiftly and deadly

    Correct Answer
    A. Quickly and accurately
    Explanation
    The use of abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data allows the gunner to quickly and accurately aim or adjust fire on the target. This means that the gunner can rapidly respond to changes in the target's position or other factors that may affect the accuracy of the fire. By doing so, the gunner can ensure that the fire is delivered with precision and effectiveness, increasing the chances of hitting the intended target.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avanue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

    • Dead space protective line

    • Final protective line

    • Primary sector of fire

    • Secondary sector of fire

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary sector of fire
    Explanation
    The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team is responsible for directing their fire towards the area where the enemy is most likely to come from, ensuring that they have the best possible coverage and can effectively engage any approaching enemy forces. The primary sector of fire is a crucial aspect of defensive positioning and allows the gun team to maximize their effectiveness in defending their position.

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 04, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 25, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Romeopapa

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