People's Trainer School Exam

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 30

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School Quizzes & Trivia

In order to complete your People's Trainer School requirments you must receive atleast a 70 on this multiple choice exam. http://www. Revolutionaryfitness. Org


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherance

    • B. 

      Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design

    • C. 

      Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs

    • D. 

      Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Moving from a position with feet at shoulder width to a position with feet together

    • B. 

      Progressing double-leg balance exercises from a wood floor to a foam balance pad

    • C. 

      Switching from a forearm plank to a plank in a push-up position

    • D. 

      Putting one hand on a bench during a single-arm bent-over row exercise

  • 3. 
    A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if ______.
    • A. 

      The personal trainer has extensive knowledge about the benefits of massage

    • B. 

      The client gives his or her consent for the massage

    • C. 

      The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist

    • D. 

      The massage therapist is not available and the personal trainer has some training

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise

    • B. 

      Providing guidance, motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs

    • C. 

      Implementing post-rehabilitative exercise programs for clients following their physicians recommendations

    • D. 

      Conducting a VO2 max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Stored ATP

    • B. 

      Phosphagen

    • C. 

      Anaerobic glycolysis

    • D. 

      Aerobic glycolysis

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Trapezius and Rhomboids

    • B. 

      Deltoid and Latissimus Dorsi

    • C. 

      Teres Major and Serratus Anterior

    • D. 

      Pectoralis Major and Latissimus Dorsi

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices

    • B. 

      Providing clients with recipes and shopping lists for four weeks to get them on track with helpful eating

    • C. 

      Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micronutrient deficiencies

    • D. 

      Educating clients about resting metabolic rate (RMR) and the need to consume fewer calories that RMR to lose weight

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      It secretes glucagon to increase blood glucose levels and insulin to increase glucose uptake by the cells

    • B. 

      It releases glucocorticoids that aid in the utilization of glucose and metabolism of fatty acids

    • C. 

      It secretes insulin to increase blood glucose levels and stimulate uptake of the glucose by the cells

    • D. 

      It releases pancreatic enzymes into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of protein, carbohydrates and fat

  • 9. 
    The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to _____.
    • A. 

      Provide the professional with additional education to enhance his or her knowledge, skills and abilities

    • B. 

      Enhance a professional's resume for employment and/or higher compensation

    • C. 

      Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence

    • D. 

      Confirm a candidate's understanding of key concepts following the completion of a bachelor's degree

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Coronary arteries

    • B. 

      Pulmonary arteries

    • C. 

      Coronary veins

    • D. 

      Pulmonary veins

  • 11. 
    In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?
    • A. 

      Rapport Stage

    • B. 

      Planning Stage

    • C. 

      Investigation Stage

    • D. 

      Action Stage

  • 12. 
    Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) can affect a static stretch by causing _____.
    • A. 

      Relaxation of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition

    • B. 

      Contraction of the muscle(s) being stretched through autogenic inhibition

    • C. 

      Relaxation of the antagonist(s) through reciprocal inhibition

    • D. 

      Contraction of the antagonist(s) through reciprocal inhibition

  • 13. 
    A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10K and half-marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running, she has not been active since her children were born two years ago. Now that they are in daycare three days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, what stages of change has she gone through from pre-pregnancy to meeting with you today?
    • A. 

      Action --> Precontemplation --> Action

    • B. 

      Maintenance --> Contemplation --> Action

    • C. 

      Action --> Maintenance --> Preparation

    • D. 

      Maintenance --> Contemplation --> Preparation

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      American Committee on Exercise

    • B. 

      American Council on Exercise

    • C. 

      Athletic Council on Exercise

    • D. 

      American Committee of Exercise

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Gluteus medius

    • B. 

      Semitendinosus

    • C. 

      Gluteus maximus

    • D. 

      Semimembranosus

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Circuit training with 90-second work and 30-second recovery intervals

    • B. 

      Short-duration low-to-moderate intensity cardiorespiratory exercise

    • C. 

      High-intensity interval training with 15-second work and 60-second recovery intervals

    • D. 

      Long-duration moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise

  • 17. 
    Your client would like to lose 20 pounds (9kg) over the next 15 weeks. What daily caloric deficit is needed to achieve this goal?
    • A. 

      525 kcal

    • B. 

      667 kcal

    • C. 

      750 kcal

    • D. 

      833 kcal

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Erector Spinae; eccentric contraction

    • B. 

      Rectus abdominis; eccentric contraction

    • C. 

      Internal oblique; concentric contraction

    • D. 

      Quadratus lumborum; concentric contraction

  • 19. 
    Kristin is a varsity crew athlete who is now beginning her pre-season training in preparation for the upcoming season. If she weighs 155 pounds (70.45 kg), how many grams of carbohydrates per hour will she need to maintain her blood glucose levels during her training sessions?
    • A. 

      10-30 g

    • B. 

      20-35 g

    • C. 

      30-60 g

    • D. 

      60-75 g

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Strong support from family and friends

    • B. 

      Convenience of exercise facility

    • C. 

      Readiness to change behavior related to exercise

    • D. 

      Connecting with a personal trainer

  • 21. 
    According to current dietary guidelines, a 30-year-old moderately active man who consumes 2,500 calories per day requires _____ of daily protein.
    • A. 

      45-150 g

    • B. 

      54-175 g

    • C. 

      63-218 g

    • D. 

      76-253 g

  • 22. 
    "Hitting the wall" during a marathon or other endurance event is PRIMARILY associated with _____.
    • A. 

      Severe amino acids depletion

    • B. 

      Depleted free fatty acid in the blood

    • C. 

      Severe glycogen depletion

    • D. 

      Depleted free fatty acids and dehydration

  • 23. 
    The postural deviation most commonly associated with weak abdominal and hip extensor muscles coupled with tight hip flexors and back extensors in _____.
    • A. 

      Scoliosis

    • B. 

      Lordosis

    • C. 

      Sway-back

    • D. 

      Kyphosis

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      The personal trainer should only recommend those supplements covered under his or her professional liability insurance

    • B. 

      Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements

    • C. 

      The personal trainer should become educated about the specific supplements before making any recommendations

    • D. 

      Due to potential complications from taking supplements with other medications, personal trainers should recommend only plant-based supplements

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Stomach

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Small Intestine

    • D. 

      Large Intestine

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Small-group personal training

    • B. 

      Vigorous-intensity exercise program

    • C. 

      Home-based personal training

    • D. 

      Moderate-intensity exercise program

  • 27. 
    Providing a more detailed description of the process by which resistance training helps to preserve bone density would be MOST effective with which personality style?
    • A. 

      Delibartor

    • B. 

      DIrector

    • C. 

      Collaborator

    • D. 

      Expressor

  • 28. 
    ACE-certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education every two years to maintain their certifications. The PRIMARY reason for this requirement is to help Personal Trainers to ________.
    • A. 

      Earn promotions so they can advance their careers

    • B. 

      Increase their earning potential by adding new speciality certificates to their resumes

    • C. 

      Enhance their resumes to attract more clients

    • D. 

      Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Increased pain in weightbearing joints

    • B. 

      Decreased step frequency (fewer steps to walk across an area)

    • C. 

      Increased stride length during walking

    • D. 

      Decreased anterior displacement of the center of gravity (COG)

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Left and right iliac crests are at same height

    • B. 

      The ASIS and pubic bone are in line vertically

    • C. 

      The cheek bone is forward of the collar bone

    • D. 

      Plumb line passes just anterior to the mastoid process

  • 31. 
    A new personal training client tells you that she has little experience with exercise, but has signed up for eight weeks of personal training because she is ready to get fit and lost weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to help her to become regularly active and work toward her goals?
    • A. 

      Design a challenging program so she can experience the positive benefits of exercise

    • B. 

      Inform her about different types of exercise and invite her to your group strength class

    • C. 

      Provide her with initial positive exercise experiences and help her focus on consistency

    • D. 

      Educate her about the risks of being inactive and commend her on her new commitment

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      Internal intercostals

    • B. 

      Diaphragm

    • C. 

      External intercostals

    • D. 

      Transverse abdominis

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Limited access to the exercise facility

    • B. 

      A lack of support

    • C. 

      Being too old to participate

    • D. 

      A lack of time

  • 34. 
    During the hurdle step screen, you observe a client exhibiting an anterior pelvic tilt and a forward torso lean as he steps forward. What is this compensation MOST indicative of?
    • A. 

      Weak gluteus medius and maximus

    • B. 

      Tight stance-leg hip flexors

    • C. 

      Weak stance-leg hip adductors

    • D. 

      Tight ankle plantarflexors

  • 35. 
    Using reinforcement to help a client progress from doing a quarter lunge to performing a full lunge and then eventually adding resistance is an example of which process?
    • A. 

      Shaping

    • B. 

      Operant conditioning

    • C. 

      Cognitions and behavior

    • D. 

      Observational learning

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Providing the client with regular feedback about exercise form

    • B. 

      Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal

    • C. 

      Implementing a reward system for client goal attainment

    • D. 

      Conducting fitness assessments every other week to measure progress

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Squatting, lunging, swinging, throwing and arching movements

    • B. 

      Jumping, hopping, pushing, pulling and arching movements

    • C. 

      Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling and rotational movements

    • D. 

      Lunging, Pulling, Squatting, Pushing and core movements

  • 38. 
    Contracting the hip flexors during a supine hamstring stretch is an example of which stretching principle?
    • A. 

      Reciprocal inhibition

    • B. 

      Active isolated stretching

    • C. 

      Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

    • D. 

      Autogenic inhibition

  • 39. 
    • A. 

      Looking away from the client frequency to prevent staring while sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean

    • B. 

      Speaking in a soft, friendly voice while leaning against the chair armrest with forearms crossed calmly

    • C. 

      Direct, friendly eye contact while always maintaining a smile and enthusiasm

    • D. 

      Speaking in a firm voice with confidence, using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hand while listening

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Men usually exercise more vigorously than women

    • B. 

      Women have less testosterone than men

    • C. 

      Men have greater endurance than women

    • D. 

      Women typically use machines for resistance training

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      72 kcal

    • B. 

      82 kcal

    • C. 

      92 kcal

    • D. 

      102 kcal

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Empathy

    • B. 

      Warmth

    • C. 

      Genuinesness

    • D. 

      Honesty

  • 43. 
    A regular group exercise participants with no competitive goals would be classified in which phase of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT Model?
    • A. 

      Phase 1: Aerobic-base training

    • B. 

      Phase 2: Aerobic-efficiency training

    • C. 

      Phase 3: Anaerobic-endurance training

    • D. 

      Phase 4: Anaerobic-power training

  • 44. 
    Personal trainers can use the talk test as an upper limit for exercise intensity to determine if a client is exercising below which of the following cardiorespiratory markers?
    • A. 

      VO2max

    • B. 

      The second ventilatory threshold (VT2)

    • C. 

      Anaerobic threshold

    • D. 

      The first ventilatory threshold (VT1)

  • 45. 
    During the bend and lift screen, which observations would indicate that the client has tight plantarflexors?
    • A. 

      Hamstrings touch the calves

    • B. 

      Squat initiated at knees

    • C. 

      Knees fall inward

    • D. 

      Heels raise off the floor

  • 46. 
    A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate regularly in an exercise program _____.
    • A. 

      Has good self-efficacy related to exercise

    • B. 

      Is in the contemplation stage of behavior change

    • C. 

      Has very strong self-esteem

    • D. 

      Is completely intrinsically motivated

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      Health improvment

    • B. 

      Functional fitness

    • C. 

      Developing rapport

    • D. 

      Cardiorespiratory fitness

  • 48. 
    Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen would MOST likely be due to ______.
    • A. 

      Weak core and low back

    • B. 

      Scapulothoracic joint instability

    • C. 

      Curved thoracic spine

    • D. 

      Strong serratus anterior

  • 49. 
    A personal trainer could design an exercise program without requiring a physician's release prior to participation for which of the following?
    • A. 

      42-year old female client who has lumbar lordosis

    • B. 

      54-year old male client who has an abdominal hernia

    • C. 

      61-year old female client who takes a calcium channel blocker

    • D. 

      35-year old male client who has asthma

  • 50. 
    Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under which functional movement and resistance training phase of the ACE IFT Model?
    • A. 

      Phase 1: Stability and Mobility training

    • B. 

      Phase 2: Movement training

    • C. 

      Phase 3: Load training

    • D. 

      Phase 4: Performance training

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      Hip flexors and erector spinae

    • B. 

      Hamstrings and erector spinae

    • C. 

      Hip flexors and rectus abdominis

    • D. 

      Hamstrings and rectus abdominis

  • 52. 
    You are working with a client who weighs 180 lbs with  a body-fat percentage of 20%. What will his approximate weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body-fat, assuming that his lean body mass remains constant. 
    • A. 

      144 lbs

    • B. 

      149 lbs

    • C. 

      169 lbs

    • D. 

      175 lbs

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations

    • B. 

      Teaching correct squat, lunge, push, pull and rotational movement patterns

    • C. 

      To prepare the body for sports conditioning and performance training

    • D. 

      Rehabilitative exercise to restore function following injury or surgery

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Agreement and release of liability waiver

    • B. 

      Medical release

    • C. 

      Exercise history and attitude questionnaire

    • D. 

      Informed consent

  • 55. 
    In what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis, limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders and performs resistance-training workouts four days per week?
    • A. 

      Phase 1: Stability and mobility training

    • B. 

      Phase 2: Movement training

    • C. 

      Phase 3: Load training

    • D. 

      Phase 4: Performance training

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      Skinfolds

    • B. 

      Bioelectrical impedance analysis

    • C. 

      Hydrostatic weighing

    • D. 

      Dual energy x-ray absorbtiometry

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      "I will improve my cholesterol and blood pressure through better eating and exercise"

    • B. 

      "I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months."

    • C. 

      "I will lose 20 lb (9 kg) for my trip to Hawaii in 2 months by exercising seven days a week to maximize results."

    • D. 

      "I will try a new group exercise class each week to avoid boredom."

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Raised leg achieves 70 degrees of movement

    • B. 

      Pelvis rotates posteriorly after the raised leg passes 70 degrees of movement

    • C. 

      Raised leg stops just short of 90 degrees of movement

    • D. 

      Opposite leg lifts off the mat as the raised leg approaches 80 degrees of movement

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Having clients journal their thoughts, experiences, and emotions related to the program

    • B. 

      Giving clients the information needed to determine the outcome of their programs

    • C. 

      Helping clients to reinforce their own behaviors through internal encouragement

    • D. 

      Providing clients with increasing amounts of external feedback as the program progresses

  • 60. 
    Your new client is a 57-year old woman who plays golf, tennis, and squash avidly. Her health-risk appraisal reveals only one positive risk factor (age) and that she has a heart murmur. According to the ACSM risk stratifications, what is the client's level of risk?
    • A. 

      Low risk

    • B. 

      Moderate risk

    • C. 

      High risk

    • D. 

      Very high risk

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Endurance of the core and postural muscles acting on the low back

    • B. 

      Range of motion of spinal flexion and extension

    • C. 

      Strength of the core and postural muscles acting on the low back

    • D. 

      Range of motion of the spinal rotators

  • 62. 
    Which plyometric drill would provide the MOST appropriate progression for a client who can successfully perform a predetermined number of vertical jumps and single linear jumps?
    • A. 

      Depth jumps

    • B. 

      Multidirectional jumps

    • C. 

      Hops and bounds

    • D. 

      Multiple linear jumps

  • 63. 
    Once a client can perform two sets of 10 repetitions of glute bridges, which exercise would provide the MOST appropriate progression? 
    • A. 

      Single-leg glute bridge with a riser under the thoracic spine

    • B. 

      Stability ball single-leg glute bridge with opposite knee to chest

    • C. 

      Single-leg glute bridge with opposite knee to chest

    • D. 

      Stability ball single-leg glute bridge with opposite leg straight

  • 64. 
    Strength gains during the first several weeks of a resistance-training program are primarily due to ______.
    • A. 

      Muscle hypertrophy

    • B. 

      Improved neuromuscular function

    • C. 

      Enhanced mitochondrial density

    • D. 

      Increased myofibrils

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      The trainer often receives benefits such as medical insurance, paid vacation days and contributions towards retirement

    • B. 

      The employer covers all marketing costs and efforts

    • C. 

      The trainer can earn a competitive per-session wage, but generally less than independent contractor per-session wages

    • D. 

      The employer pays for equipment purchases and maintenance

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Teaching several group exercise classes each week

    • B. 

      Offering complimentary monthly talks on timely fitness topics

    • C. 

      Posting a trainer profile filled with personal athletic achievements

    • D. 

      Leading a free group-training session for a local running event

  • 67. 
    A lack of hip-joint mobility is MOST likely to lead to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Hypermobility in the scapulothoracic joints and thoracic spine

    • B. 

      Compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine

    • C. 

      Hypermobility in the knee, ankle and foot joints

    • D. 

      Compromised mobility in the knees and lumbar spine

  • 68. 
    You are working with a client who has hypertension and has been cleared by her physician for exercise. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for her initial resistance-training program?
    • A. 

      Mostly bodyweight exercises with isometric contradictions held initially for 10-15 seconds, working up to 30 seconds

    • B. 

      Two sets of 8-12 repetitions on 8-10 exercises addressing all major muscle groups using mostly cables and dumbbells at an intensity of 70-80% 1RM

    • C. 

      One set of 6-8 repetitions performed on 8-10 selectorized machines to address all major muscle groups at an intensity of 80-85% 1RM

    • D. 

      Circuit training consisting of 8-10 exercises using mostly tubing and bodyweight performed one time for 12-16 repetitions at 6-70% 1RM

  • 69. 
    You are working with a client who wants to train for a specific athletic competition. Before progressing this client to performance training (phase 4), what criteria should he meet to allow for a safe and effective transition to this type of training?
    • A. 

      Successful completion of stability and mobility training followed by 12 weeks of load training

    • B. 

      Good postural stability, proper movement patterns, and relatively high levels of strength

    • C. 

      Successful completion of stability and mobility training and movement training

    • D. 

      Regular participation in resistance training for at least three consecutive years

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      Increased glucose tolerance and insulin sensitivity

    • B. 

      Decreased stress hormones

    • C. 

      Increased maximum oxygen consumption

    • D. 

      Decreased resting oxygen consumption

  • 71. 
    You are working with a new client who wants to begin resistance training in preparation for a one-month backpacking trip he will be taking through the Rocky Mountains. Which of the following training sets and repetition ranges would be BEST for helping him prepare for the rigors of this multi-day trip?
    • A. 

      1-2 sets of 8-10 repetitions

    • B. 

      2-4 sets of 4-6 repetitions

    • C. 

      2-3 sets of 12-16 repetitions

    • D. 

      3-5 sets of 6-12 repetitions

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Creating positive experiences and early success through achievable zone 1 exercise of increasing duration

    • B. 

      Progressively increasing zone 2 intervals to intensities just below VT2

    • C. 

      Building a strong endurance base as part of a periodization plan for performance in long-distance events

    • D. 

      Transitioning from training for improved health to training for improved fitness

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      Bodyweight squat test

    • B. 

      10-RM leg press test

    • C. 

      Standing long jump test

    • D. 

      1-RM squat test

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Two sets of 4-8 repetitions for each major muscle group or movement pattern, utilizing a split routine that allows 72-96 hours of recovery time before working the same muscle group again.

    • B. 

      Two sets of 8-12 repetitions for each major movement pattern, utilizing a three-day undulating periodization model for full-body training with 48 hours of recovery time between workouts

    • C. 

      Three sets of 8-10 repetitions for each major muscle group or movement pattern, utilizing a split routine that allows 48-72 hours of recovery time before working the same muscle group again

    • D. 

      Three sets of 3-5 repetitions on explosive, full-body exercises performed 3 days per week with 48-72 hours of recovery time between workouts

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      Talk test threshold

    • B. 

      Onset of blood lactate accumulation (OBLA)

    • C. 

      Aerobic capacity

    • D. 

      The dividing point between zone 1 and zone 2

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      To prevent delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

    • B. 

      To perform static stretching for enhanced flexibility

    • C. 

      To enhance venous return to prevent blood pooling in the extremities

    • D. 

      To maintain increased caloric expenditure to enhance weight loss

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      Anterior tibialis and posterior tibialis

    • B. 

      Soleus and tibialis anterior

    • C. 

      Extensor digitorum longus and posterior tibialis

    • D. 

      Gastrocnemius and peroneus brevis

  • 78. 
    You are designing an exercise program for a new client who has type 2 diabetes and a physician's release for exercise as tolerated to lose weight and improve blood glucose regulation. During the initial session, you learn that she has been sedentary for the past few years. What initial cardiorespiratory program would be most appropriate for her?
    • A. 

      Walking 5-6 days per week for 40 minutes at an RPE of 11-13, working up to 60 minutes

    • B. 

      Cycling 3-4 days per week for 40 minutes at an RPE of 13-15, working up to 60 minutes

    • C. 

      Walking 5-6 days per week for 10-20 minutes at an RPE of 11-13, working up to 40-60 minutes

    • D. 

      Cycling 3-4 days per week for 10-20 minutes at an RPE of 13-15, working up to 40-60 minutes

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      Gastronemius, soleus and plantar fascia

    • B. 

      Plantar fascia, peroneus longus and peroneus brevis

    • C. 

      Gastronemius, tibialis posterior and tibialis anterior

    • D. 

      Plantar fascia, tibialis anterior and flexor digitorum longus

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      Increasing the intensity of zone 3 intervals by 10% from one week to the next

    • B. 

      Decreasing the number of recovery days per week to accommodate additional interval work

    • C. 

      Increasing the duration of zone 1 training by 20% over the course of three weeks

    • D. 

      Decreasing the total time spent doing zone 2 interval work when increasing the intensity

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      Strengths

    • B. 

      Weaknesses

    • C. 

      Opportunities

    • D. 

      Threats

  • 82. 
    Your client would like to lose 25 pounds (11.3 kg) over the next 20 weeks. IF he agrees to increase his physical-activity levels by 300 kcal daily, how many calories would he need to reduce from his daily intake to reach this goal?
    • A. 

      225 kcal

    • B. 

      275 kcal

    • C. 

      300 kcal

    • D. 

      325 kcal

  • 83. 
    After three months of performing cardiorespiratory exercise on most days of the week, which of the following changes would be LEAST expected?
    • A. 

      Increased blood glucose

    • B. 

      Decreased stroke volume

    • C. 

      Increased blood lipid control

    • D. 

      Decreased resting heart rate

  • 84. 
    • A. 

      Including some Iyengar poses and yogic-breathing during the cool-down

    • B. 

      Enhancing power training though slow, controlled yogic breathing

    • C. 

      Adding yogic breathing to high-intensity intervals to facilitate greater minute ventilation (Ve)

    • D. 

      Incorporating inverted poses as part of a comprehensive warm-up

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      Educating the client about using P.R.I.C.E. as an early intervention strategy

    • B. 

      Modifying the workout focusing on the non-injured points of the body

    • C. 

      Stretching the hamstrings for up to 60 seconds per stretch

    • D. 

      Recommending that the client see a physician if pain persists

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      Developing low-back strength is more important for long-term back health than developing low-back endurance

    • B. 

      Low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed on a daily basis

    • C. 

      Full-ROM spinal movements with an external load are best performed shortly after rising from bed

    • D. 

      Supine double-leg raises should be avoided, but prone double-leg raises are beneficial for clients who have low-back pain

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      Drink no more than 12 ounces of fluids 2 hours prior to exercise

    • B. 

      Drink a minimum of 17 ounces of fluids 2-3 hours prior to exercise

    • C. 

      Drink 8 ounces of fluid 1--2 hours prior to exercise

    • D. 

      Drink 24 ounces of fluid 4 hours prior to exercise

  • 88. 
    • A. 

      Hip flexors

    • B. 

      Hip extensors

    • C. 

      Hip adductors

    • D. 

      Hip Abductors

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Median nerve

    • B. 

      Ulnar nerve

    • C. 

      Radial nerve

    • D. 

      Musculocutaneous nerve

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      Another participant in the group who requires constant individual attention from the trainer

    • B. 

      Social support and encouragement received by others in the group

    • C. 

      Dissociation from the unpleasant sensations of vigorous exercise due to interaction with others

    • D. 

      Personal commitment to adhere to the exercise sessions due to group dynamics

  • 91. 
    During dynamic and static stretching, which of the following soft tissues contributes LEAST to the total resistance encountered by the joint during movement through its range of motion?
    • A. 

      Muscle Fascia

    • B. 

      Tendons

    • C. 

      Skin

    • D. 

      Joint capsule

  • 92. 
    • A. 

      McArdle step test

    • B. 

      Rockport fitness walking test

    • C. 

      VT2 threshold test

    • D. 

      Astrand-Ryhming cycler ergometer test

  • 93. 
    • A. 

      4 sessions x 25 minutes at an RPE of 5

    • B. 

      2 sessions x 30 minutes at an RPE of 5 and 2 sessions x 20 minutes at an RPE of 3

    • C. 

      3 sessions x 30 minutes at an RPE of 5

    • D. 

      2 sessions x 30 minutes at an RPE of 4 and 3 sessions 20 minutes at an RPE of 4.5

  • 94. 
    Strength gains during the first several weeks of resistance-training program are primarily due to _____.
    • A. 

      Muscle hypertrophy

    • B. 

      Improved nueromuscular function

    • C. 

      Enhanced mitochondrial density

    • D. 

      Increased myofibrils

  • 95. 
    During exercise, which hormone causes increases in production and release of liver glycogen and the availability of free fatty acids in the blood?
    • A. 

      Glucagon

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Insulin

    • D. 

      Epinephrine

  • 96. 
    In addition to marketing personal training services to clients, what other skill must a personal trainer develop to become successful at selling training sessions?
    • A. 

      Designing good exercise programs

    • B. 

      Being able to ask for the sale

    • C. 

      Dressing professionally

    • D. 

      Maintaining a high level of fitness

  • 97. 
    • A. 

      Eccentric strengthening for the calf complex through controlled plantarflexion against gravity and stretching the calf muscles

    • B. 

      High-intensity strength training for the calf complex and stretching of the flexor hallucis longus and tibialis psterior

    • C. 

      Eccentric strengthening for the calf complex through controlled dorsiflexion against gravity and stretching the calf muscles

    • D. 

      Comprehensive stretching and isometric strength-training program for the muscles of the lower limb

  • 98. 
    • A. 

      They increase client motivation because they generally guarantee success

    • B. 

      They help weed out clients who are unlikely to commit to a long-term training program

    • C. 

      They allow personal trainers to put multiple clients on the same program to save time and effort

    • D. 

      They foster program adherence, as clients begin the program with a specific goal in mind

  • 99. 
    The forward-backward movements of the arms and legs during walking occur in which plane of movement?
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Sagittal

    • C. 

      Longitudinal

    • D. 

      Transverse

  • 100. 
    Tightness in which of the following structures can be a cause of patellofemoral pain syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella?
    • A. 

      IT band complex

    • B. 

      Hamstrings

    • C. 

      Peroneus longus

    • D. 

      Bicep femoris