3d052 CDC Vol 1 & 2 UREs (Comprehensive)

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  • 1/200 Questions

    (009) Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you __________

    • Know
    • Have
    • Need
    • Read
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About This Quiz

This is a combination of 3D052 Volume 1 & 2 UREs. This quiz is to help you study for your CDC exams. This should not be used as the only means of studying. You should also read through your CDCs in preparation for your exams.

3d052 CDC Vol 1 & 2 UREs (Comprehensive) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (010) What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?

    • Degaussing

    • Overwriting

    • Formatting

    • Deleting

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media because it effectively erases all data by using a strong magnetic field to disrupt the magnetic particles on the media. This process ensures that the data cannot be recovered or reconstructed. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting methods may leave traces of data that can potentially be recovered, making them less secure methods of sanitization.

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  • 3. 

    (001) What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Homogeneous network

    • Heterogeneous network

    Correct Answer
    A. Homogeneous network
    Explanation
    A homogeneous network is a type of network that is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices in the network are designed to work seamlessly together, as they are specifically designed to be compatible with each other. This can make network management and troubleshooting easier, as there is a consistent and unified system in place.

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  • 4. 

    (009) What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?

    • Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans

    • Passwords, finger prints, or identification cards

    • Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards

    • Something you know, something you have, or something you are

    Correct Answer
    A. Something you know, something you have, or something you are
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This answer refers to the three primary ways of authentication. "Something you know" refers to a password or a PIN that only the individual should know. "Something you have" refers to a physical item like an identification card or a token. "Something you are" refers to biometric information like fingerprints or retinal scans, which are unique to each individual. These three factors provide a multi-layered approach to authentication, increasing security.

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  • 5. 

    (012) A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?

    • At the core

    • None are allowed

    • Outside the base network

    • De-militarized zone (DMZ)

    Correct Answer
    A. De-militarized zone (DMZ)
    Explanation
    A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a De-militarized zone (DMZ). This is because a DMZ is a separate network segment that is isolated from the internal network and provides a buffer zone between the internal network and the public internet. By placing the web-server in the DMZ, it ensures that any potential security threats or attacks from the public internet are contained within the DMZ and do not directly impact the internal network. This helps to protect the internal network and sensitive information from unauthorized access or compromise.

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  • 6. 

    (016) What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force?

    • Hardware token

    • Software token

    • Common access card

    • Identification (ID) key

    Correct Answer
    A. Common access card
    Explanation
    The common access card is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force. This card serves as a form of identification and provides secure access to various systems and resources. It contains a microchip that stores digital certificates and private keys, allowing individuals to authenticate themselves and securely communicate over a network. The common access card is widely used in the military and government sectors to ensure secure access to sensitive information and resources.

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  • 7. 

    (207) Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?

    • Check Disk

    • Disk Quotas

    • Disk Defragmenter

    • Task Scheduler

    Correct Answer
    A. Task Scheduler
    Explanation
    Task Scheduler is a program that can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule. It allows users to schedule tasks, such as running a program or script, at specific times or intervals. This feature is useful for automating routine tasks or ensuring that certain programs are executed at specific times without manual intervention. Disk Quotas, Check Disk, and Disk Defragmenter are not programs that are designed for scheduling tasks, making Task Scheduler the correct answer.

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  • 8. 

    (212) Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?

    • Command Line Interface

    • Graphical User Interface

    • Menu Driven Interface

    • Palo Alto Research Center User Interface

    Correct Answer
    A. Graphical User Interface
    Explanation
    A Graphical User Interface (GUI) is a type of interface that is friendlier for the average user to use. Unlike a Command Line Interface (CLI) which requires the user to input commands using text, a GUI allows users to interact with the computer using visual elements such as icons, menus, and buttons. This makes it easier for users to navigate and perform tasks without the need for memorizing complex commands. A Menu Driven Interface is similar to a GUI but typically offers a more limited set of options. Palo Alto Research Center User Interface is not a recognized type of interface.

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  • 9. 

    (212) Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?

    • Automatic

    • Attended

    • Unattended

    • Remote

    Correct Answer
    A. Attended
    Explanation
    Loading a software patch onto a computer while sitting at it indicates that the user is actively involved in the process. This type of software patch is known as an "attended" patch, as it requires the user's presence and interaction.

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  • 10. 

    (001) What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Homogeneous network

    • Heterogeneous network

    Correct Answer
    A. Heterogeneous network
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software components from various manufacturers and developers. This can pose challenges in terms of compatibility and interoperability between different systems. However, it allows for greater flexibility and diversity in terms of technology choices and can support a wider range of applications and services.

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  • 11. 

    (005) What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • Configuration

    • Performance

    • Accounting

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Security
    Explanation
    The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are implemented to protect sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. This involves setting up firewalls, encryption protocols, access control lists, and other security mechanisms to ensure that only authorized users can access the information. By managing and controlling access points, organizations can prevent unauthorized individuals from gaining access to confidential information and maintain the integrity and confidentiality of their network.

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  • 12. 

    (215) What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?

    • Domain Name Service (DNS)

    • Internet Information Services (IIS)

    • Remote Installation Services (RIS)

    • Web

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote Installation Services (RIS)
    Explanation
    Remote Installation Services (RIS) is the correct answer because it allows network administrators to install upgrades on multiple client computers simultaneously from a centralized location. This saves time and effort as the upgrades can be deployed to all the client computers at once, rather than individually installing them on each computer. DNS, IIS, and Web are not related to the installation of upgrades on client computers.

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  • 13. 

    (001) What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 5

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A computer network requires a minimum of two computers to function. This is because a network is a collection of interconnected devices that can communicate and share resources with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, and therefore, no network. Having at least two computers allows for data exchange, file sharing, and collaboration between the devices, making it the minimum requirement for a computer network.

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  • 14. 

    (201) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?

    • Cache

    • Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic input/output system (BIOS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Basic input/output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system into memory, and providing basic input/output services for the computer. It is stored on a chip on the motherboard and is the first software that runs when the computer is powered on.

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  • 15. 

    (202) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

    • Cache

    • Buffer

    • Interface

    • Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    A. Interrupt
    Explanation
    An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event. It is a mechanism that allows hardware devices to communicate with the CPU and request immediate attention or interrupt the normal execution of the program. Interrupts are used to handle time-sensitive events, such as input/output operations or hardware errors, and ensure that they are promptly addressed by the CPU.

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  • 16. 

    (202) Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?

    • Disk request

    • Utility resource

    • Priority interrupt

    • Integrated resource

    Correct Answer
    A. Priority interrupt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is priority interrupt. The priority interrupt is a controller component that interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU). This component is responsible for interrupting the normal execution of a program and redirecting the CPU's attention to a higher priority task. It ensures that critical tasks are given priority over less important ones, improving the efficiency and responsiveness of the system.

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  • 17. 

    (001) How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10
    Explanation
    A peer-to-peer network is a decentralized network where all devices are equal and can act as both clients and servers. In this type of network, the number of users is typically small, ranging from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are commonly used for small-scale applications or personal use, where a limited number of users need to share resources and communicate directly with each other. Having a small number of users ensures efficient and effective communication within the network without overwhelming the system.

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  • 18. 

    (002) What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • Media access control address

    • Network server name

    • Subnet mask address

    • Node serial number

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address
    Explanation
    A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) in a device. It is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. The MAC address is a 48-bit hexadecimal number and is usually represented in six groups of two digits, separated by colons or hyphens. It is used in the data link layer of the OSI model to ensure that data is transmitted to the correct destination on a local network.

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  • 19. 

    (003) What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

    • 10

    • 29

    • 30

    • 33

    Correct Answer
    A. 33
    Explanation
    Air Force Instruction (AFI) series 33 covers communications and information. This series provides guidance and procedures for the Air Force's communication and information systems, including telecommunications, computer networks, and information management. It establishes policies and standards to ensure effective and secure communication within the Air Force. AFI series 33 is essential for maintaining efficient and reliable communication systems throughout the Air Force.

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  • 20. 

    (010) What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?

    • Degausser

    • Degaussing

    • Destroying

    • Sanitizing

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively removes any previously stored data from the media, making it unreadable. Degaussing is commonly used to sanitize or destroy sensitive information stored on magnetic tapes, hard drives, or other magnetic media.

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  • 21. 

    (011) What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system?

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorization to operate (ATO)
    Explanation
    To permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system, an organization or entity needs to obtain an Authorization to Operate (ATO). This documentation is required to demonstrate that the system has undergone the necessary security assessments and meets the necessary security controls and requirements to operate on the GIG. The ATO indicates that the system has been approved for operation and can be connected to the GIG network. It signifies that the system has met the necessary security standards and can be trusted to handle and transmit sensitive information securely.

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  • 22. 

    (011) What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG)?

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Denial of authorization to operation (DATO). This documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG). A DATO is issued when a system fails to meet the necessary security requirements or is found to be non-compliant with the established standards. It is a formal declaration that the system does not have permission to operate on the GIG network.

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  • 23. 

    (226) How many primary groups can a user be a member of?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    A user can only be a member of one primary group. Primary groups are used to assign permissions and access rights to users within a system. Each user can only have one primary group, which determines their default permissions and access levels. This ensures that the user's access rights are consistent and easily manageable. Having multiple primary groups for a user could lead to confusion and potential conflicts in permissions. Therefore, the correct answer is one.

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  • 24. 

    (201) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

    • Read only memory (ROM)

    • Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Read only memory (ROM)
    Explanation
    Read only memory (ROM) is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains data even when the power is turned off. ROM is programmed during manufacturing and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. It is used to store firmware and software instructions that are essential for the computer to boot up and perform basic functions. Unlike random access memory (RAM), which is volatile and loses data when the power is turned off, ROM provides long-term storage of data that is necessary for the functioning of the computer system.

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  • 25. 

    (001) What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

    • Homogeneous network

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Local area network

    Correct Answer
    A. Intranetwork
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that is restricted to authorized personnel only. It is a network that is designed for internal use within an organization and allows for secure communication and data sharing among employees. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is limited to a single organization. It is also different from a local area network (LAN), which refers to a network that covers a small geographical area such as an office building or campus. Therefore, the correct answer is intranetwork.

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  • 26. 

    (001) What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

    • Global area network (GAN)

    • Local area network (LAN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN)
    Explanation
    A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. This means that it allows for communication between networks that are located in different parts of the world. GANs are typically used by large multinational organizations or government agencies that need to connect their networks across multiple countries or continents. Unlike Local Area Networks (LANs) or Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs), which have more limited geographical coverage, GANs provide a wide area network (WAN) infrastructure that enables global connectivity.

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  • 27. 

    (002) How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. Each octet consists of 8 bits, resulting in a total of 32 bits for the entire protocol. This division allows for the unique identification of IP addresses, which are represented as a series of four numbers separated by periods. Each number represents one octet, and the combination of all four octets forms the complete IP address.

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  • 28. 

    (011) What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?

    • Enclave

    • Bastion

    • Circuits

    • Base

    Correct Answer
    A. Enclave
    Explanation
    An enclave refers to a collection of computing environments that are connected by internal networks and are controlled by a single approval authority and security policy. This means that all the systems within the enclave are managed and governed by a central authority, ensuring consistent security measures and policies are in place. The term "enclave" emphasizes the isolation and controlled nature of these connected computing environments.

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  • 29. 

    (014) Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?

    • Certificate policy manager

    • Registration authority

    • Certificate authority

    • Certificate repository

    Correct Answer
    A. Certificate authority
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Certificate authority. A certificate authority (CA) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a public key infrastructure (PKI). The CA is a trusted entity that issues digital certificates to individuals, organizations, or devices after verifying their identity. The CA also manages the certificate lifecycle, including renewing or revoking certificates when necessary. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of the PKI system by validating the authenticity and trustworthiness of certificates.

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  • 30. 

    (207) Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?

    • Check Disk

    • Disk Quotas

    • Task Scheduler

    • Disk Defragmenter

    Correct Answer
    A. Check Disk
    Explanation
    Check Disk is an error-checking tool that allows you to monitor the file system for errors. It scans the file system for any issues such as bad sectors, lost clusters, and cross-linked files. By running Check Disk, you can identify and fix these errors, ensuring the integrity and stability of the file system. This tool is particularly useful for detecting and repairing issues that may lead to data loss or system crashes.

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  • 31. 

    (208) Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?

    • Least Significant Digit (LSD)

    • Most Significant Digit (MSD)

    • Exponent

    • Radix

    Correct Answer
    A. Most Significant Digit (MSD)
    Explanation
    The leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value represents the most significant digit (MSD). The MSD carries the most weight and contributes the most to the value of the number. It determines the overall magnitude of the number and its position in the numbering system. The MSD is important for understanding and manipulating numeric values in various mathematical operations.

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  • 32. 

    (220) Which type of lists uses pointers to connect each element together?

    • Derived

    • Linked

    • Ordered

    • Sequential

    Correct Answer
    A. Linked
    Explanation
    Linked lists use pointers to connect each element together. Unlike sequential lists, which store elements in contiguous memory locations, linked lists store elements in separate nodes and use pointers to link these nodes together. This allows for efficient insertion and deletion of elements in the list. Derived and ordered lists do not specifically use pointers to connect elements together, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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  • 33. 

    (224) Which UNIX command deletes files from within a directory?

    • Lm

    • Rm

    • Pr

    • Ps

    Correct Answer
    A. Rm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "rm". The "rm" command in UNIX is used to delete files from within a directory. It stands for "remove" and is commonly used to remove individual files or multiple files at once. It does not delete directories, only files.

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  • 34. 

    (204) The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as __________

    • One single hard drive

    • A collection of hard drives

    • A single RAID array

    • A remote storage device

    Correct Answer
    A. One single hard drive
    Explanation
    In a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array, the hard drives are presented to the server as one single hard drive. This means that the server sees the multiple physical hard drives as a single logical drive. This allows for improved performance and data redundancy, as the RAID controller manages the data across the multiple drives, distributing it evenly and providing backup in case of drive failure. The server is not aware of the individual drives, but rather interacts with them as if they were a single unit.

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  • 35. 

    (206) Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?

    • Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)

    • Extensible Markup Language (XML)

    • HyperText Markup Language (HTML)

    • Dynamic HTML (DHTML)

    Correct Answer
    A. HyperText Markup Language (HTML)
    Explanation
    HTML is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page. It is the standard markup language for creating web pages and is used to structure content on the internet. HTML uses tags to define elements such as headings, paragraphs, links, images, and more, allowing web browsers to interpret and display the content correctly. It is widely supported by all web browsers, making it the most commonly used markup language for creating web pages.

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  • 36. 

    (003) According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is considered to be in Tier 1 of the Air Force network structure.

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  • 37. 

    (010) What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

    • Destroying

    • Degaussing

    • Sanitizing

    • Overwriting

    Correct Answer
    A. Destroying
    Explanation
    Destroying is the correct answer because it refers to the process of physically damaging the media to the extent that it becomes unusable in a computer and the data on it becomes irretrievable by any known exploitation methods. This can involve methods such as shredding, incineration, or crushing the media to ensure complete destruction and prevent any possibility of data recovery.

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  • 38. 

    (012) What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

    • Network management software

    • Intrusion detection devices

    • Vulnerability scanners

    • Firewalls

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability scanners
    Explanation
    Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations. These scanners are designed to scan and analyze networks, systems, and applications for any vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. By identifying these vulnerabilities, organizations can take proactive measures to patch or fix them, enhancing the overall security of their network.

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  • 39. 

    (012) An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a __________

    • Threat

    • Vulnerability

    • Compromise

    • Risk

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability
    Explanation
    An information system on a network that does not require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password is considered a vulnerability. This means that there is a weakness or flaw in the system's security measures, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to sensitive information or carry out malicious activities. Without proper authentication protocols in place, the system becomes more susceptible to potential threats and compromises.

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  • 40. 

    (013) What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

    • Public key cryptography

    • Public key infrastructure (PKI)

    • Key distribution center

    • Asymmetric key infrastructure

    Correct Answer
    A. Public key infrastructure (PKI)
    Explanation
    Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers. It uses a pair of keys, a public key and a private key, to encrypt and decrypt data. The public key is widely distributed and used to encrypt data, while the private key is kept secret and used to decrypt the data. PKI also includes a certificate authority that verifies the identity of individuals or organizations and issues digital certificates, which are used to authenticate and validate the public key.

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  • 41. 

    (018) Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds __________

    • 15 days

    • 30 days

    • 45 days

    • 90 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days
    Explanation
    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than 30 days, there will be a need for continuous and ongoing communications support. This could include maintaining communication channels, ensuring connectivity, and providing technical assistance for the duration of the deployment. It is important to have sustained communications support to ensure effective communication and coordination throughout the entire deployment period.

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  • 42. 

    (212) Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?

    • Automatic

    • Local

    • Manual

    • Unattended

    Correct Answer
    A. Unattended
    Explanation
    Unattended patches are patches that can be installed without any user intervention. They can be deployed remotely using tools like Remote Installation Services (RIS). RIS allows for the automated deployment of operating systems and software over a network, making it an ideal choice for deploying unattended patches. Therefore, the correct answer is "Unattended."

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  • 43. 

    (217) What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?

    • Domain Name Service (DNS)

    • Internet Information Services (IIS)

    • Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

    • Remote Installation Services (RIS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Microsoft Management Console (MMC)
    Explanation
    The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a component of Windows that unifies and simplifies day-to-day system management tasks. It provides a centralized interface for managing various aspects of the system, such as services, event logs, device drivers, and user accounts. With the MMC, administrators can easily access and control different management tools and snap-ins, making it more efficient and convenient to perform system management tasks.

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  • 44. 

    (223) UNIX™ disks are divided into logical sections called

    • Sectors

    • Sections

    • Reams

    • Partitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Partitions
    Explanation
    UNIX disks are divided into logical sections called partitions. A partition is a separate section of a disk that functions as an independent unit. It allows the disk to be divided into multiple sections, each with its own file system and operating system. This division helps in organizing and managing data efficiently on the disk. Each partition can be formatted and used for different purposes, such as storing different types of files or running different operating systems on the same disk.

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  • 45. 

    (202) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

    • Fault

    • Parity

    • Interrupt

    • Asynchronous

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity
    Explanation
    Parity is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity. It involves adding an extra bit to a group of bits to make the total number of ones either even or odd. By comparing the parity bit with the received data, errors can be detected. If the number of ones in the received data does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission. Therefore, parity is commonly used as a simple and effective method for detecting errors in data.

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  • 46. 

    (003) What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

    • Network control center (NCC)

    • Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)

    • Network operations center (NOSC)

    • Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and controlling network operations, ensuring the availability and performance of the network, and implementing security measures to protect the network and its users. The NCC is typically staffed with network technicians and administrators who are trained to handle network issues and provide support to base level customers.

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  • 47. 

    (007) What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?

    • Blue

    • Orange

    • Purple

    • Yellow

    Correct Answer
    A. Purple
    Explanation
    Purple is the color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log that indicates one or more events. This means that when there are events or issues detected by the system, they are highlighted in purple on the alarm log. This color coding helps users easily identify and prioritize the events that require attention or further investigation.

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  • 48. 

    (012) What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

    • Tunneling

    • Identification spoofing

    • Application-based attacks

    • Second message encryption

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling
    Explanation
    Tunneling is the practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the sender to bypass the firewall's security measures by disguising the rejected message within an acceptable one. By using tunneling, the sender can successfully transmit the rejected message without raising suspicion or triggering any security alarms.

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  • 49. 

    (015) Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?

    • Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

    • Diffie and Hellman

    • Elliptic curve digital signature algorithm (ECDSA)

    • Elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH)

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffie and Hellman
    Explanation
    Diffie and Hellman is exclusively a key establishment protocol. Unlike RSA, ECDSA, and ECDH which have multiple uses including encryption and digital signatures, Diffie and Hellman is specifically designed for secure key exchange between two parties over an insecure channel. It allows the two parties to establish a shared secret key without having to transmit it directly, thus providing a secure method for establishing a shared secret that can be used for encryption or other purposes.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 06, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Henckel

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