3d052 CDC Vol 1 & 2 UREs (Comprehensive)

200 Questions | Total Attempts: 2249

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3d052 CDC Vol 1 & 2 UREs (Comprehensive)

This is a combination of 3D052 Volume 1 & 2 UREs. This quiz is to help you study for your CDC exams. This should not be used as the only means of studying. You should also read through your CDCs in preparation for your exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 2. 
    (201) Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
    • A. 

      Read only memory (ROM)

    • B. 

      Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D. 

      Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 3. 
    (201) What is considered to be a computer’s main storage?
    • A. 

      Random access memory (RAM)

    • B. 

      Read only memory (ROM)

    • C. 

      Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • D. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

  • 4. 
    (201) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
    • A. 

      Read only memory (ROM)

    • B. 

      Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D. 

      Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 5. 
    (201) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?
    • A. 

      Cache

    • B. 

      Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D. 

      Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 6. 
    (202) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
    • A. 

      Cache

    • B. 

      Buffer

    • C. 

      Interface

    • D. 

      Interrupt

  • 7. 
    (202) Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?
    • A. 

      Disk request

    • B. 

      Utility resource

    • C. 

      Priority interrupt

    • D. 

      Integrated resource

  • 8. 
    (202) Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 9. 
    (202) Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?
    • A. 

      Driver

    • B. 

      Parity bit

    • C. 

      Data integrity

    • D. 

      Error correction

  • 10. 
    (202) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
    • A. 

      Fault

    • B. 

      Parity

    • C. 

      Interrupt

    • D. 

      Asynchronous

  • 11. 
    (202) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
    • A. 

      Interrupt

    • B. 

      Parity bit

    • C. 

      Asynchronous

    • D. 

      Data integrity

  • 12. 
    (203) What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?
    • A. 

      Network attached storage (NAS)

    • B. 

      Storage area network (SAN)

    • C. 

      Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

    • D. 

      Array storage

  • 13. 
    (203) What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?
    • A. 

      Ease of replacing the hard drive

    • B. 

      Ease of replacing network connectivity

    • C. 

      Ease of replacing server

    • D. 

      Multiple users can access the server at once

  • 14. 
    (203) What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?
    • A. 

      Fibre channel

    • B. 

      ATA over Ethernet (AoE)

    • C. 

      Small computer system interface (SCSI)

    • D. 

      Internet small computer system interface (iSCSI)

  • 15. 
    (203) Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?
    • A. 

      Storage area network (SAN)

    • B. 

      Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

    • C. 

      Network attached storage (NAS)

    • D. 

      RHD

  • 16. 
    (204) Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?
    • A. 

      Storage area network (SAN)

    • B. 

      Network attached storage (NAS)

    • C. 

      Small computer system interface (SCSI)

    • D. 

      Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

  • 17. 
    (204) The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as __________
    • A. 

      One single hard drive

    • B. 

      A collection of hard drives

    • C. 

      A single RAID array

    • D. 

      A remote storage device

  • 18. 
    (204) Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?
    • A. 

      Small computer system interface (SCSI)

    • B. 

      Serial attached (SAS) SCSI

    • C. 

      Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA)

    • D. 

      Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe)

  • 19. 
    (205) Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?
    • A. 

      They are nearly self-documenting

    • B. 

      They use English-like statements

    • C. 

      Source codes that are written closest to machine language

    • D. 

      Programs are transportable between computers with few changes

  • 20. 
    (205) What best describes programming machine code?
    • A. 

      Another term for firmware

    • B. 

      Statements that correspond to complex actions

    • C. 

      Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer

    • D. 

      Source code that, when compiled, is appropriate for the computer

  • 21. 
    (206) Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?
    • A. 

      Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)

    • B. 

      Extensible Markup Language (XML)

    • C. 

      HyperText Markup Language (HTML)

    • D. 

      Dynamic HTML (DHTML)

  • 22. 
    (001) What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
    • A. 

      Homogeneous network

    • B. 

      Internetwork

    • C. 

      Intranetwork

    • D. 

      Local area network

  • 23. 
    (001) What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
    • A. 

      Internetwork

    • B. 

      Intranetwork

    • C. 

      Homogeneous network

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous network

  • 24. 
    (001) What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
    • A. 

      Internetwork

    • B. 

      Intranetwork

    • C. 

      Homogeneous network

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous network

  • 25. 
    (001) What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

  • 26. 
    (001) What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

  • 27. 
    (001) What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

  • 28. 
    (001) How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1000

  • 29. 
    (001) How many users are in a single-server network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1000

  • 30. 
    (001) How many users are in a multi-server network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1000

  • 31. 
    (001) How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1000

  • 32. 
    (001) What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • B. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • C. 

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network

    • D. 

      Enterprise network

  • 33. 
    (002) What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
    • A. 

      Media access control address

    • B. 

      Network server name

    • C. 

      Subnet mask address

    • D. 

      Node serial number

  • 34. 
    (002) How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 35. 
    (002) What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
    • A. 

      01100000

    • B. 

      01100110

    • C. 

      00001100

    • D. 

      10000001

  • 36. 
    (002) What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0

  • 37. 
    (002) What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0

  • 38. 
    (002) How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

  • 39. 
    (003) What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      29

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      33

  • 40. 
    (003) What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33-1

    • B. 

      AFI 33-112

    • C. 

      AFI 33-115v1

    • D. 

      AFI 29-2603v2

  • 41. 
    (003) According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 42. 
    (003) What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
    • A. 

      Network control center (NCC)

    • B. 

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)

    • C. 

      Network operations center (NOSC)

    • D. 

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)

  • 43. 
    (004) What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
    • A. 

      Fault management server

    • B. 

      Network management server

    • C. 

      Performance management server

    • D. 

      Security management server

  • 44. 
    (004) Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
    • A. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed

    • B. 

      Centralized, hybrid, and distributed

    • C. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid

    • D. 

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed

  • 45. 
    (004) What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
    • A. 

      Centralized

    • B. 

      Distributed

    • C. 

      Hierarchical

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 46. 
    (004) What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
    • A. 

      Centralized

    • B. 

      Distributed

    • C. 

      Hierarchical

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 47. 
    (004) What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
    • A. 

      Inactive

    • B. 

      Interactive

    • C. 

      Proactive

    • D. 

      Reactive

  • 48. 
    (004) What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
    • A. 

      Inactive

    • B. 

      Reactive

    • C. 

      Interactive

    • D. 

      Proactive

  • 49. 
    (005) Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
    • A. 

      Monitoring and analyzing

    • B. 

      Monitoring and replacing

    • C. 

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D. 

      Analyzing and tuning

  • 50. 
    (005) Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
    • A. 

      Tuning

    • B. 

      Analyzing

    • C. 

      Gathering

    • D. 

      Monitoring

  • 51. 
    (005) What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
    • A. 

      Configuration

    • B. 

      Performance

    • C. 

      Accounting

    • D. 

      Security

  • 52. 
    (005) What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
    • A. 

      Fault parameters

    • B. 

      Tolerance parameters

    • C. 

      Low-level software alarms

    • D. 

      Low-level hardware alarms

  • 53. 
    (006) Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?
    • A. 

      Session

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Presentation

    • D. 

      Application

  • 54. 
    (006) What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
    • A. 

      Object identifier

    • B. 

      Network device map

    • C. 

      Network protocol list

    • D. 

      Management information base

  • 55. 
    (006) What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
    • A. 

      Management

    • B. 

      Private

    • C. 

      Directory

    • D. 

      Experimental

  • 56. 
    (006) What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
    • A. 

      Primary domain controller (PDC)

    • B. 

      Backup domain controller

    • C. 

      Manager

    • D. 

      Agent

  • 57. 
    (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 58. 
    (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 59. 
    (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 60. 
    (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 61. 
    (007) What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
    • A. 

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe

    • B. 

      Neighbor probe

    • C. 

      Containment probe

    • D. 

      System information probe

  • 62. 
    (007) What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
    • A. 

      Broker

    • B. 

      Clients

    • C. 

      Map console

    • D. 

      Domain manager

  • 63. 
    (007) What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
    • A. 

      Broker

    • B. 

      Clients

    • C. 

      Probes

    • D. 

      Consoles

  • 64. 
    (007) What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?
    • A. 

      Compound events, alarm, and trend

    • B. 

      Compound events, problems, and network

    • C. 

      Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events

    • D. 

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events

  • 65. 
    (007) What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?
    • A. 

      Blue

    • B. 

      Orange

    • C. 

      Purple

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 66. 
    (008) How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      19

    • D. 

      21

  • 67. 
    (008) What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?
    • A. 

      Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)

    • B. 

      Protocol analyzer

    • C. 

      Network root router

    • D. 

      Windows advanced server

  • 68. 
    (008) What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 69. 
    (008) What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 70. 
    (008) What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 71. 
    (008) What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 72. 
    (009) What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?
    • A. 

      Authentication

    • B. 

      Recertification

    • C. 

      Accreditation

    • D. 

      Identification

  • 73. 
    (009) What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?
    • A. 

      Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans

    • B. 

      Passwords, finger prints, or identification cards

    • C. 

      Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards

    • D. 

      Something you know, something you have, or something you are

  • 74. 
    (009) Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you __________
    • A. 

      Know

    • B. 

      Have

    • C. 

      Need

    • D. 

      Read

  • 75. 
    (009) The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      9

  • 76. 
    (010) What regulation covers remanence security?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33-2

    • B. 

      AFSSI 8580

    • C. 

      AFSSI 5020

    • D. 

      AFI 33-115v1

  • 77. 
    (010) Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered __________
    • A. 

      Classified

    • B. 

      Volatile

    • C. 

      Sensitive

    • D. 

      Sanitized

  • 78. 
    (010) Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      Information assurance officer (IAO)

    • B. 

      Designated approval authority (DAA)

    • C. 

      Information system security officer

    • D. 

      Information owner

  • 79. 
    (010) What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
    • A. 

      Destroying

    • B. 

      Degaussing

    • C. 

      Sanitizing

    • D. 

      Overwriting

  • 80. 
    (010) Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      700

    • B. 

      701

    • C. 

      711

    • D. 

      712

  • 81. 
    (010) What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?
    • A. 

      Degausser

    • B. 

      Degaussing

    • C. 

      Destroying

    • D. 

      Sanitizing

  • 82. 
    (010) What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?
    • A. 

      Degaussing

    • B. 

      Overwriting

    • C. 

      Formatting

    • D. 

      Deleting

  • 83. 
    (011) What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS) to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

    • B. 

      Plan of action & milestones (POA&M)

    • C. 

      Accreditation

    • D. 

      Certification

  • 84. 
    (011) What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

    • B. 

      Plan of action & milestones (POA&M)

    • C. 

      Accreditation

    • D. 

      Certification

  • 85. 
    (011) What is the Department of Defense process for certifying and accrediting information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG)?
    • A. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)

    • B. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP)

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

  • 86. 
    (011) What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system?
    • A. 

      Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • B. 

      Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • C. 

      Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • D. 

      Interim authorization to test (IATT)

  • 87. 
    (011) What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG)?
    • A. 

      Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • B. 

      Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • C. 

      Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • D. 

      Interim authorization to test (IATT)

  • 88. 
    (011) What process, along with AFI 33–210, Air Force Certification and Accreditation (C&A) Program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification & accreditation (C&A)?
    • A. 

      Information technology (IT) lean reengineering

    • B. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)

    • C. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

  • 89. 
    (011) What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?
    • A. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)

    • B. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

  • 90. 
    (011) What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?
    • A. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)

    • B. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR)

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP

  • 91. 
    (011) How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways does the Air Force possess?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      36

  • 92. 
    (011) What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?
    • A. 

      Enclave

    • B. 

      Bastion

    • C. 

      Circuits

    • D. 

      Base

  • 93. 
    (012) Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?
    • A. 

      Defense Information System Agency (DISA)

    • B. 

      Air Force Communication Agency (AFCA)

    • C. 

      Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT)

    • D. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

  • 94. 
    (012) What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?
    • A. 

      Intrusion detection system (IDS)

    • B. 

      De-militarized zone (DMZ)

    • C. 

      Vulnerability scanner

    • D. 

      Firewall

  • 95. 
    (012) What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?
    • A. 

      Identification spoofing and tunneling

    • B. 

      Tunneling and application-based attacks

    • C. 

      Second message encryption and identification

    • D. 

      Application-based attacks and second message encryption

  • 96. 
    (012) What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
    • A. 

      Tunneling

    • B. 

      Identification spoofing

    • C. 

      Application-based attacks

    • D. 

      Second message encryption

  • 97. 
    (012) A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?
    • A. 

      At the core

    • B. 

      None are allowed

    • C. 

      Outside the base network

    • D. 

      De-militarized zone (DMZ)

  • 98. 
    (012) What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses?
    • A. 

      Proxy

    • B. 

      Bastion host

    • C. 

      Packet filtering

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection

  • 99. 
    (012) What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message’s header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port?
    • A. 

      Proxy

    • B. 

      Bastion host

    • C. 

      Packet filtering

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection

  • 100. 
    (012) What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
    • A. 

      Proxy

    • B. 

      Bastion host

    • C. 

      Packet filtering

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection

  • 101. 
    (012) What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?
    • A. 

      Intrusion detection

    • B. 

      Packet filtering

    • C. 

      Bastion host

    • D. 

      Proxy

  • 102. 
    (012) What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?
    • A. 

      Network management software

    • B. 

      Intrusion detection devices

    • C. 

      Vulnerability scanners

    • D. 

      Firewalls

  • 103. 
    (012) What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?
    • A. 

      Vulnerability

    • B. 

      Threat

    • C. 

      Compromise

    • D. 

      Tunneling

  • 104. 
    (012) An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a __________
    • A. 

      Threat

    • B. 

      Vulnerability

    • C. 

      Compromise

    • D. 

      Risk

  • 105. 
    (012) A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a __________
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Trojan horse

    • C. 

      Worm

    • D. 

      Bot

  • 106. 
    (012) What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a variety of attacks without an information system owner’s knowledge?
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Trojan horse

    • C. 

      Worm

    • D. 

      Bot

  • 107. 
    (012) What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Trojan horse

    • C. 

      Worm

    • D. 

      Bot

  • 108. 
    (013) What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?
    • A. 

      Public key cryptography

    • B. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI)

    • C. 

      Key distribution center

    • D. 

      Asymmetric key infrastructure

  • 109. 
    (014) What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Public key

    • C. 

      Private key

    • D. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate

  • 110. 
    (014) What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Public key

    • C. 

      Private key

    • D. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate

  • 111. 
    (014) What is an electronic document that officially links together a user’s identity with his public key?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Public key

    • C. 

      Private key

    • D. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate

  • 112. 
    (014) Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?
    • A. 

      Certificate policy manager

    • B. 

      Registration authority

    • C. 

      Certificate authority

    • D. 

      Certificate repository

  • 113. 
    (015) The two ways key establishment can occur are key __________
    • A. 

      Transfer and agreement

    • B. 

      Transfer and interchange

    • C. 

      Generation and agreement

    • D. 

      Generation and interchange

  • 114. 
    (015) Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?
    • A. 

      Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

    • B. 

      Diffie and Hellman

    • C. 

      Elliptic curve digital signature algorithm (ECDSA)

    • D. 

      Elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH)

  • 115. 
    (016) What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Hardware token

    • B. 

      Software token

    • C. 

      Common access card

    • D. 

      Identification (ID) key

  • 116. 
    (017) Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?
    • A. 

      Open system standards teams

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams

    • C. 

      Initial communications support teams

    • D. 

      Sustained communications support teams

  • 117. 
    (018) Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds __________
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      45 days

    • D. 

      90 days

  • 118. 
    (018) Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?
    • A. 

      Open system standards teams

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams

    • C. 

      Initial communications support teams

    • D. 

      Sustained communications support teams

  • 119. 
    (018) What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?
    • A. 

      Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS)

    • B. 

      Combat integrated systems

    • C. 

      Theater deployable communications (TDC)

    • D. 

      Integrated communications access package (ICAP)

  • 120. 
    (012) What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?
    • A. 

      Personnel that continue to misuse the network by surfing the web

    • B. 

      Access to the network through backdoors left by system administrators

    • C. 

      Network-connected desktop systems with modems that make calls to the public-switched network

    • D. 

      Network-connected computer systems with modems that makes calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network

  • 121. 
    (206) Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?
    • A. 

      Dynamic HTML (DHTML)

    • B. 

      Extensible Markup Language (XML)

    • C. 

      Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)

    • D. 

      Extensible HTML (XHTML)

  • 122. 
    (206) A standard Web application used to pass a Web user’s request to a server’s application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a
    • A. 

      Transport Layer Security (TLS)

    • B. 

      Common Gateway Inferface (CGI)

    • C. 

      Data Encryption Standard (DES)

    • D. 

      Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

  • 123. 
    (211) What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?
    • A. 

      Active Directory

    • B. 

      Domains Manager

    • C. 

      Domain Name Service (DNS)

    • D. 

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

  • 124. 
    (206) Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet?
    • A. 

      Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

    • B. 

      Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

    • C. 

      Data Encryption Standard (DES)

    • D. 

      Transport Layer Security (TLS)

  • 125. 
    (207) Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?
    • A. 

      Check Disk

    • B. 

      Disk Quotas

    • C. 

      Disk Defragmenter

    • D. 

      Task Scheduler

  • 126. 
    (207) Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?
    • A. 

      Check Disk

    • B. 

      Disk Quotas

    • C. 

      Task Scheduler

    • D. 

      Disk Defragmenter

  • 127. 
    (208) Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?
    • A. 

      Least Significant Digit (LSD)

    • B. 

      Most Significant Digit (MSD)

    • C. 

      Exponent

    • D. 

      Radix

  • 128. 
    (209) What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?
    • A. 

      Preventive Controls

    • B. 

      List of critical devices

    • C. 

      Recovery Strategies

    • D. 

      Emergency Action Plans

  • 129. 
    (210) Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?
    • A. 

      Incremental

    • B. 

      Differential

    • C. 

      Daily

    • D. 

      Normal

  • 130. 
    (210) Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Normal

    • C. 

      Incremental

    • D. 

      Differential

  • 131. 
    (211) What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?
    • A. 

      Domain

    • B. 

      Forest

    • C. 

      Schema

    • D. 

      Tree

  • 132. 
    (211) Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?
    • A. 

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) servers

    • B. 

      Domain name service (DNS) servers

    • C. 

      Domain controllers

    • D. 

      Global catalog servers

  • 133. 
    (211) What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?
    • A. 

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)

    • B. 

      Domain controller

    • C. 

      Global catalog

    • D. 

      Member

  • 134. 
    (211) What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?
    • A. 

      Access control lists

    • B. 

      Access policy objects

    • C. 

      Group policy objects

    • D. 

      Group rules sets

  • 135. 
    (212) Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?
    • A. 

      Command Line Interface

    • B. 

      Graphical User Interface

    • C. 

      Menu Driven Interface

    • D. 

      Palo Alto Research Center User Interface

  • 136. 
    (212) Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?
    • A. 

      Windows

    • B. 

      Icons

    • C. 

      Menus

    • D. 

      Programs

  • 137. 
    (212) Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?
    • A. 

      Automatic

    • B. 

      Attended

    • C. 

      Unattended

    • D. 

      Remote

  • 138. 
    (212) Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?
    • A. 

      Automatic

    • B. 

      Local

    • C. 

      Manual

    • D. 

      Unattended

  • 139. 
    (213) Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?
    • A. 

      Name Servers

    • B. 

      Resolvers

    • C. 

      Resource Records

    • D. 

      Forward Lookup Zone

  • 140. 
    (213) Which query is made by one name server to another name server?
    • A. 

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) query

    • B. 

      Domain Name Service (DNS) query

    • C. 

      Recursive query

    • D. 

      Non-recursive query

  • 141. 
    (214) Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?
    • A. 

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

    • B. 

      Domain Name Service (DNS)

    • C. 

      Active Directory (AD)

    • D. 

      DHCP Server

  • 142. 
    (214) The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a
    • A. 

      Pool

    • B. 

      Range

    • C. 

      Scope

    • D. 

      Zone

  • 143. 
    (214) What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Five

  • 144. 
    (214) According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      45 days

    • D. 

      60 days

  • 145. 
    (215) What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?
    • A. 

      Domain Name Service (DNS)

    • B. 

      Internet Information Services (IIS)

    • C. 

      Remote Installation Services (RIS)

    • D. 

      Web

  • 146. 
    (216) Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?
    • A. 

      FTP Server

    • B. 

      Internet Services Manager

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

    • D. 

      Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

  • 147. 
    (217) What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?
    • A. 

      Domain Name Service (DNS)

    • B. 

      Internet Information Services (IIS)

    • C. 

      Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

    • D. 

      Remote Installation Services (RIS)

  • 148. 
    (217) Which type of group manages user’s rights assignments and access permissions?
    • A. 

      Universal

    • B. 

      Distribution

    • C. 

      Security

    • D. 

      Access

  • 149. 
    (217) Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?
    • A. 

      Anonymous Logon

    • B. 

      Everyone

    • C. 

      Network

    • D. 

      Interactive

  • 150. 
    (218) What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
    • A. 

      Rights

    • B. 

      Permissions

    • C. 

      Access Control Lists

    • D. 

      Hardware Configuration

  • 151. 
    (218) A feature of networking that enables individuals to designate resources they want other users to be able to access through the network is called
    • A. 

      Rights

    • B. 

      Sharing

    • C. 

      Permissions

    • D. 

      Access Control Lists

  • 152. 
    (218) What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?
    • A. 

      Full Control

    • B. 

      No Access

    • C. 

      Change

    • D. 

      Write

  • 153. 
    (218) When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system (NTFS) partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?
    • A. 

      Global Group Permissions

    • B. 

      Everyone Group Permissions

    • C. 

      No permissions are automatically assigned

    • D. 

      Inherited permissions of the folder it's contained in

  • 154. 
    (219) Which exchange service is the first service launched when Microsoft Exchange starts and the last to stop when it is shut down?
    • A. 

      Mailbox Service

    • B. 

      System Attendant

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

    • D. 

      Post Office Protocol Version 3 (POP3) service

  • 155. 
    (219) In Exchange System Manager, which container holds configuration objects such as Queues, Mailbox stores and Public Folder stores and protocols information?
    • A. 

      Global Settings

    • B. 

      System Policies

    • C. 

      Tools

    • D. 

      Servers

  • 156. 
    (220) Which type of lists uses pointers to connect each element together?
    • A. 

      Derived

    • B. 

      Linked

    • C. 

      Ordered

    • D. 

      Sequential

  • 157. 
    (220) A set of data elements (values) organized using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns whose data is calculated in response to a query is called a
    • A. 

      List

    • B. 

      Schema

    • C. 

      Table

    • D. 

      View

  • 158. 
    (220) What is the most common type of operation in sequential query language (SQL)?
    • A. 

      Clauses

    • B. 

      Expressions

    • C. 

      Queries

    • D. 

      Statements

  • 159. 
    (220) What type of sequential query language (SQL) statement would you use to make the changes you were working on permanent?
    • A. 

      Data

    • B. 

      Query

    • C. 

      Schema

    • D. 

      Transaction

  • 160. 
    (220) Which is the most commonly used sequential query language (SQL) data statement?
    • A. 

      Commit

    • B. 

      Select

    • C. 

      Where

    • D. 

      Update

  • 161. 
    (220) Which sequential query language (SQL) server feature tracks changes and is used to ensure data integrity?
    • A. 

      Buffers

    • B. 

      Concurrency

    • C. 

      Locking

    • D. 

      Logging

  • 162. 
    (221) Which UNIX capability can execute numerous programs at the same time?
    • A. 

      Multi-user

    • B. 

      Multiprocessing

    • C. 

      Time Sharing

    • D. 

      Multitasking

  • 163. 
    (221) Which UNIX ability can run on different types of hardware with few relatively minor changes?
    • A. 

      Flexibility

    • B. 

      Simplicity

    • C. 

      Base Line Programming

    • D. 

      Portability

  • 164. 
    (221) Which UNIX operating system component interacts directly with the system hardware?
    • A. 

      File System

    • B. 

      VI Editor

    • C. 

      Kernel

    • D. 

      Shell

  • 165. 
    (221) Which UNIX component provides a logical way to organize, store, retrieve, manipulate, and manage data?
    • A. 

      File System

    • B. 

      VI Editor

    • C. 

      Kernel

    • D. 

      Shell

  • 166. 
    (221) Which UNIX shell is the most compact and is often used for writing shell scripts?
    • A. 

      C Shell

    • B. 

      Bourne Shell

    • C. 

      Korn Shell

    • D. 

      D Shell

  • 167. 
    (221) Normally, when you create a file with a text editor, the file is set up with
    • A. 

      Read and write permission for you and read-only permission for others.

    • B. 

      Write permission for you and read-only permission for others

    • C. 

      Read, write, and execute for you and read, write for others

    • D. 

      Read and write permissions for you and read, write for others

  • 168. 
    (221) To change permissions on a shell script, you use the UNIX command
    • A. 

      Chown

    • B. 

      Chgrp

    • C. 

      Chmod

    • D. 

      Chper

  • 169. 
    (221) The simplest place to put your function definitions is in your
    • A. 

      Function

    • B. 

      Dev

    • C. 

      Definition

    • D. 

      Profile

  • 170. 
    (222) What do you type to quit a UNIX shell?
    • A. 

      Exit

    • B. 

      Quit

    • C. 

      X

    • D. 

      Xit

  • 171. 
    (223) How many characters do most UNIX system administrators and users tend to use for filenames?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      14

    • D. 

      16

  • 172. 
    (223) UNIX™ disks are divided into logical sections called
    • A. 

      Sectors

    • B. 

      Sections

    • C. 

      Reams

    • D. 

      Partitions

  • 173. 
    (223) The /dev/dsk and /dev/rdsk directories are subdirectories of which directory?
    • A. 

      Root

    • B. 

      System

    • C. 

      Device

    • D. 

      Home

  • 174. 
    (223) What does the 0 following the c in the device name c0t6d0s7 represent?
    • A. 

      Controller

    • B. 

      Partition

    • C. 

      Drive Number

    • D. 

      Bus Target Number

  • 175. 
    (223) What does the 7 in the device name c0t6d0s7 represent?
    • A. 

      Bus Target Number

    • B. 

      Drive Number

    • C. 

      Controller

    • D. 

      Partition

  • 176. 
    (223) What is the basic unit for storing and manipulating a collection of logically related information known as data?
    • A. 

      Directories

    • B. 

      Partitions

    • C. 

      Slices

    • D. 

      Files

  • 177. 
    (223) Hard links are created using which UNIX command?
    • A. 

      Cd

    • B. 

      Hd

    • C. 

      Lm

    • D. 

      Ln

  • 178. 
    (223) Which UNIX mechanism enables programs to communicate with one another through the file system?
    • A. 

      Named Pipes

    • B. 

      Character Devices

    • C. 

      Block Devices

    • D. 

      Sockets

  • 179. 
    (223) Which UNIX mechanism provides for communication with system device drivers through the file system one character at a time?
    • A. 

      Named Pipes

    • B. 

      Character Devices

    • C. 

      Block Devices

    • D. 

      Sockets

  • 180. 
    (224) Which UNIX command displays the current working directory?
    • A. 

      Ls

    • B. 

      Ls -s

    • C. 

      Pwf

    • D. 

      Pwd

  • 181. 
    (224) Which UNIX command allows you to move to different directories within a file system using absolute or relative pathnames?
    • A. 

      Ls

    • B. 

      Cd

    • C. 

      Pwf

    • D. 

      Pwd

  • 182. 
    (224) Which UNIX command takes any characters from standard input and then echoes them to standard output?
    • A. 

      Cat

    • B. 

      Mkdir

    • C. 

      Pwd

    • D. 

      Pwf

  • 183. 
    (224) Which UNIX command deletes files from within a directory?
    • A. 

      Lm

    • B. 

      Rm

    • C. 

      Pr

    • D. 

      Ps

  • 184. 
    (225) Which UNIX command looks at an individual file and finds a specified pattern (string)?
    • A. 

      Grep

    • B. 

      Find

    • C. 

      Crypt

    • D. 

      Group

  • 185. 
    (225) Which UNIX command changes the group ownership of one or more files?
    • A. 

      Chgrp

    • B. 

      Chown

    • C. 

      Whodo

    • D. 

      Finger

  • 186. 
    (225) Which UNIX command changes the ownership of one or more files to a new owner?
    • A. 

      Chgrp

    • B. 

      Chown

    • C. 

      Whodo

    • D. 

      Finger

  • 187. 
    (225) Which UNIX command sets access and modification times for each file to the current time?
    • A. 

      Chgrp

    • B. 

      Chown

    • C. 

      Touch

    • D. 

      Finger

  • 188. 
    (226) How many primary groups can a user be a member of?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 189. 
    (227) Which UNIX vi mode allows users to execute set commands?
    • A. 

      Edit

    • B. 

      Text input

    • C. 

      Command

    • D. 

      Append

  • 190. 
    (227) Which UNIX vi character represents the end of the file?
    • A. 

      *

    • B. 

      &

    • C. 

      ?

    • D. 

      $

  • 191. 
    (227) While using UNIX vi to edit a file, what would you enter to save the buffer contents and stay in same file?
    • A. 

      W

    • B. 

      W!

    • C. 

      Wq

    • D. 

      !

  • 192. 
    (228) In UNIX, which package of programs lets a terminal handle many sessions at once?
    • A. 

      UNIX windows system

    • B. 

      Multi-user manager

    • C. 

      Multi-session manager

    • D. 

      Unix session manager

  • 193. 
    (228) What is the most common UNIX windows system?
    • A. 

      U windows

    • B. 

      X windows

    • C. 

      UX windows

    • D. 

      UZ windows

  • 194. 
    (228) Which UNIX default command starts the X windows system?
    • A. 

      Xwnds

    • B. 

      Xstart

    • C. 

      Xinit

    • D. 

      X

  • 195. 
    (228) The act of choosing the window you type is called setting the
    • A. 

      Active window

    • B. 

      Input focus

    • C. 

      X window

    • D. 

      Window manager

  • 196. 
    (229) What action puts unneeded windows out of the way without quitting the program inside them?
    • A. 

      Iconifying

    • B. 

      Previewing

    • C. 

      Paging

    • D. 

      Desktop management

  • 197. 
    (229) Which UNIX command from the menu bar moves a window to the bottom of the stack of windows?
    • A. 

      Resize

    • B. 

      Move

    • C. 

      Lower

    • D. 

      Restore

  • 198. 
    (229) The key to shutting down an xterm window is to know which of your programs is the
    • A. 

      Controlling program

    • B. 

      Exiting program

    • C. 

      Executing program

    • D. 

      Hard link file

  • 199. 
    (229) The first step in quitting an xterm session is to
    • A. 

      Quit all non-controlling programs

    • B. 

      Quit all controlling programs

    • C. 

      Type quit and press enter

    • D. 

      Type exit and press enter

  • 200. 
    (230) Which UNIX command does the system administrator need to use to create the manual database prior to users being able to access the man –k command?
    • A. 

      Catman

    • B. 

      Manbld

    • C. 

      Mancat

    • D. 

      Man -b