3d052 CDC Vol 1 UREs

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3d052 CDC Vol 1 UREs - Quiz

These are the 3D052 Volume 1 UREs. This quiz is to help you study for your CDC exams. This should not be used as the only means of studying. You should also read through your CDCs in preparation for your exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    A computer network requires at least two computers to be connected and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no network as there would be no other device to connect to. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is 2.

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  • 2. 

    (001) What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

    • A.

      Homogeneous network

    • B.

      Internetwork

    • C.

      Intranetwork

    • D.

      Local area network

    Correct Answer
    C. Intranetwork
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that is restricted to authorized personnel. It is a network that is internal to an organization and is used for communication and data sharing among employees or members of the organization. This network is not accessible to the public or unauthorized individuals, ensuring the security and privacy of the organization's data and resources.

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  • 3. 

    (001) What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • A.

      Internetwork

    • B.

      Intranetwork

    • C.

      Homogeneous network

    • D.

      Heterogeneous network

    Correct Answer
    C. Homogeneous network
    Explanation
    A homogeneous network is a type of network that is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and equipment in the network are from the same manufacturer or are compatible with each other, allowing for seamless integration and communication. This type of network is often easier to manage and troubleshoot as there is a standardized system in place.

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  • 4. 

    (001) What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • A.

      Internetwork

    • B.

      Intranetwork

    • C.

      Homogeneous network

    • D.

      Heterogeneous network

    Correct Answer
    D. Heterogeneous network
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. This means that the network is made up of diverse devices and software that may not be compatible with each other. This can present challenges in terms of communication and interoperability between the different systems.

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  • 5. 

    (001) What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Local area network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically used in homes, offices, or educational institutions. LANs provide high-speed connections and allow users to share resources such as printers and files. They are cost-effective and easy to set up and maintain. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) or global area networks (GANs), LANs have a limited coverage area and are designed for local use. Metropolitan area networks (MANs) cover a larger geographical area than LANs but smaller than WANs.

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  • 6. 

    (001) What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    D. Wide area network (WAN)
    Explanation
    A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region. Unlike local area networks (LANs) that are limited to a small area, WANs cover larger areas and can connect multiple LANs together. WANs are commonly used by businesses and organizations to connect their offices and branches across different cities or even countries. They provide a wide range of communication services, such as internet access, data sharing, and remote access. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is wide area network (WAN).

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  • 7. 

    (001) What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN)
    Explanation
    A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike other types of networks such as Local Area Networks (LANs), Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs), or Wide Area Networks (WANs) which have limitations in terms of geographical coverage, GANs have the ability to span across the globe. GANs are typically used by large organizations or multinational companies that have branches or offices in different countries or continents and need a network infrastructure to connect them all together.

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  • 8. 

    (001) How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10
    Explanation
    In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale connections between devices, where each device can act as both a client and a server. These networks are commonly used for file sharing, online gaming, and collaboration among a small group of users. With a limited number of users, the network can maintain efficient communication and resource sharing without becoming overwhelmed.

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  • 9. 

    (001) How many users are in a single-server network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    B. 10-50
    Explanation
    In a single-server network, the number of users can range from 10 to 50. This means that there can be a minimum of 10 users and a maximum of 50 users connected to the network. The range suggests that the network is relatively small and can be managed effectively by a single server.

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  • 10. 

    (001) How many users are in a multi-server network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    C. 50-250
    Explanation
    In a multi-server network, the number of users typically falls within the range of 50-250. This range indicates that the network is capable of accommodating a moderate number of users, making it suitable for small to medium-sized organizations. Having a larger number of users would require a more robust network infrastructure to ensure optimal performance and reliability. Conversely, a smaller number of users may not fully utilize the capabilities of a multi-server network. Therefore, the 50-250 range strikes a balance between scalability and efficiency.

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  • 11. 

    (001) How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    D. 250-1000
    Explanation
    A multi-server high-speed backbone network typically consists of multiple servers and is designed to handle a large amount of traffic. Therefore, it is reasonable to expect that the number of users in such a network would fall within the range of 250-1000. This range allows for a significant number of users to be connected to the network while still maintaining its high-speed and efficient performance.

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  • 12. 

    (001) What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

    • A.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • C.

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network

    • D.

      Enterprise network

    Correct Answer
    D. Enterprise network
    Explanation
    An enterprise network is the correct answer because it is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in different cities or even globally. This network is designed to support the communication needs of a large organization or enterprise, allowing employees to share resources, collaborate, and access centralized services and data regardless of their physical location. It provides a secure and reliable infrastructure for seamless connectivity and efficient communication across multiple locations.

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  • 13. 

    (002) What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • A.

      Media access control address

    • B.

      Network server name

    • C.

      Subnet mask address

    • D.

      Node serial number

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address
    Explanation
    The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. This address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure that data is delivered to the correct destination. The MAC address is typically a 48-bit hexadecimal number and is hard-coded into the NIC by the manufacturer.

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  • 14. 

    (002) How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information that consists of 8 bits, and it is commonly used to represent IP addresses in the IPv4 format. IPv4 addresses are made up of four sets of numbers, each ranging from 0 to 255, separated by periods. Each set of numbers represents one octet, resulting in a total of 32 bits or 4 octets. This allows for a maximum of approximately 4.3 billion unique IP addresses in the IPv4 addressing scheme.

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  • 15. 

    (002) What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

    • A.

      01100000

    • B.

      01100110

    • C.

      00001100

    • D.

      10000001

    Correct Answer
    A. 01100000
    Explanation
    The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000.

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  • 16. 

    (002) What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • A.

      0.0.0.120

    • B.

      0.10.230.0

    • C.

      131.10.230.0

    • D.

      255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    C. 131.10.230.0
    Explanation
    The network ID of an IP address is the portion of the IP address that identifies the network. In this case, the given IP address is 131.10.230.120/24. The /24 indicates that the first 24 bits of the IP address are the network ID. So, the network ID would be 131.10.230.0.

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  • 17. 

    (002) What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • A.

      0.0.0.120

    • B.

      0.10.230.0

    • C.

      131.10.230.0

    • D.

      255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.0.0.120
    Explanation
    The host id of an IP address is the portion of the address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120/24. The "/24" indicates that the first 24 bits of the address represent the network portion, while the remaining 8 bits represent the host portion. The host id is therefore the last 8 bits of the address, which in this case is "0.0.0.120".

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  • 18. 

    (002) How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      48

    • C.

      64

    • D.

      128

    Correct Answer
    C. 64
    Explanation
    IPv6 uses a 128-bit address space, which means that the subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. This allows for a much larger number of unique IP addresses compared to IPv4, which uses a 32-bit address space. The larger address space in IPv6 also provides better support for features like auto-configuration and mobility.

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  • 19. 

    (003) What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      29

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      33

    Correct Answer
    D. 33
    Explanation
    Air Force Instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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  • 20. 

    (003) What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

    • A.

      AFPD 33-1

    • B.

      AFI 33-112

    • C.

      AFI 33-115v1

    • D.

      AFI 29-2603v2

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 33-115v1
    Explanation
    AFI 33-115v1 provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing the AF-GIG, which is the Air Force's worldwide network of information systems. It establishes the roles and responsibilities of personnel involved in the operation and maintenance of the AF-GIG and ensures the proper handling and protection of sensitive information. AFI 33-115v1 is essential for maintaining the integrity and security of the Air Force's information infrastructure.

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  • 21. 

    (003) According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1 in the Air Force network structure. This means that it is the highest level of network support and is responsible for managing and maintaining the overall network infrastructure. Tier 1 centers typically have the most advanced technology and resources, and they provide critical support for all lower tiers. They are responsible for monitoring network performance, troubleshooting issues, and coordinating with other network centers to ensure smooth operations.

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  • 22. 

    (003) What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

    • A.

      Network control center (NCC)

    • B.

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)

    • C.

      Network operations center (NOSC)

    • D.

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring its availability and security. The NCC is typically staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for troubleshooting network issues, managing network resources, and coordinating with other network entities to ensure smooth operations.

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  • 23. 

    (004) What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

    • A.

      Fault management server

    • B.

      Network management server

    • C.

      Performance management server

    • D.

      Security management server

    Correct Answer
    B. Network management server
    Explanation
    A network management server is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. This server is responsible for monitoring and controlling network devices, managing network resources, and troubleshooting network issues. It helps in optimizing network performance, ensuring smooth operations, and enhancing overall productivity by efficiently managing the network infrastructure.

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  • 24. 

    (004) Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

    • A.

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed

    • B.

      Centralized, hybrid, and distributed

    • C.

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid

    • D.

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed
    Explanation
    The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are handled by a central entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels or tiers, with each level responsible for specific tasks. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for more flexibility and scalability. These three architectures are commonly used in network management to suit different needs and requirements.

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  • 25. 

    (004) What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Distributed

    • C.

      Hierarchical

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized
    Explanation
    A centralized network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are handled by a single central system. This architecture offers simplicity and efficiency in managing the network, as all management tasks can be performed from one location.

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  • 26. 

    (004) What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Distributed

    • C.

      Hierarchical

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    C. Hierarchical
    Explanation
    Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server is responsible for overall network management and control, while the client systems perform specific tasks or functions assigned to them. This architecture provides a clear and organized structure, where the central server has control and authority over the client systems, allowing for efficient management and coordination of network resources.

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  • 27. 

    (004) What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Interactive

    • C.

      Proactive

    • D.

      Reactive

    Correct Answer
    B. Interactive
    Explanation
    When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are engaging in interactive network management activity. This level of activity involves actively monitoring and responding to network issues in real-time, ensuring that any problems are identified and resolved promptly. It requires a hands-on approach and continuous monitoring to maintain the network's performance and stability.

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  • 28. 

    (004) What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Reactive

    • C.

      Interactive

    • D.

      Proactive

    Correct Answer
    D. Proactive
    Explanation
    When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that you are working at the proactive level of network management activity. This level involves anticipating and preventing issues before they occur by using automated monitoring tools to identify and address potential problems.

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  • 29. 

    (005) Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

    • A.

      Monitoring and analyzing

    • B.

      Monitoring and replacing

    • C.

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D.

      Analyzing and tuning

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitoring and tuning
    Explanation
    Performance management involves monitoring the performance of a system or process and making adjustments or improvements to optimize its performance. Monitoring refers to the continuous observation and measurement of performance metrics, while tuning involves making adjustments or optimizations based on the analysis of the monitored data. Therefore, the correct answer is "Monitoring and tuning" as these two categories encompass the essential functions of performance management.

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  • 30. 

    (005) Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

    • A.

      Tuning

    • B.

      Analyzing

    • C.

      Gathering

    • D.

      Monitoring

    Correct Answer
    D. Monitoring
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and collecting historical data. Monitoring allows organizations to keep a close eye on their network performance, identify any issues or anomalies, and make informed decisions based on the data collected. By continuously monitoring the network, organizations can ensure that it is functioning optimally and take proactive measures to address any potential problems.

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  • 31. 

    (005) What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • A.

      Configuration

    • B.

      Performance

    • C.

      Accounting

    • D.

      Security

    Correct Answer
    D. Security
    Explanation
    The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are put in place to protect the network and its resources from unauthorized access, ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to sensitive information. This includes implementing firewalls, encryption, access control lists, and other security measures to prevent unauthorized access and protect the network from potential threats.

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  • 32. 

    (005) What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

    • A.

      Fault parameters

    • B.

      Tolerance parameters

    • C.

      Low-level software alarms

    • D.

      Low-level hardware alarms

    Correct Answer
    B. Tolerance parameters
    Explanation
    Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault. These parameters set the acceptable limits for errors, allowing for a certain level of variation before considering it as a fault. By defining tolerance parameters, it becomes easier to identify and differentiate between normal errors and errors caused by faults in a system or process.

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  • 33. 

    (006) Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?

    • A.

      Session

    • B.

      Transport

    • C.

      Presentation

    • D.

      Application

    Correct Answer
    A. Session
    Explanation
    Network management protocols are designed to reside above the session layer of the OSI model. The session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating connections between applications. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and control network devices and services. These protocols operate at a higher layer than the session layer, typically at the application layer. Therefore, the correct answer is session.

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  • 34. 

    (006) What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

    • A.

      Object identifier

    • B.

      Network device map

    • C.

      Network protocol list

    • D.

      Management information base

    Correct Answer
    D. Management information base
    Explanation
    A hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices is known as the management information base. It is a database that stores information about the devices on a network, including their configuration, performance, and status. This information can be accessed and managed by network management systems to monitor and control the network effectively.

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  • 35. 

    (006) What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

    • A.

      Management

    • B.

      Private

    • C.

      Directory

    • D.

      Experimental

    Correct Answer
    B. Private
    Explanation
    The area of the SNMP tree structure that is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment is the "Private" area. This area allows vendors to define their own unique labels and objects for their equipment, which are not standardized or defined by the SNMP protocol itself.

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  • 36. 

    (006) What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

    • A.

      Primary domain controller (PDC)

    • B.

      Backup domain controller

    • C.

      Manager

    • D.

      Agent

    Correct Answer
    D. Agent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Agent. In a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) system, the agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. The agent resides on the managed devices or nodes in the network and communicates with the management system, providing information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. The agent acts as an intermediary between the management system and the managed devices, ensuring that the management system has access to the necessary data for effective network management.

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  • 37. 

    (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. Get
    Explanation
    The operational SNMP message that asks for a specific instance of management information is "Get". The "Get" message is used to retrieve the value of a specific object or variable from a managed device. It allows the network management system to request specific information from the SNMP agent running on the device, such as the status of a particular interface or the amount of available memory.

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  • 38. 

    (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    D. GetNext
    Explanation
    The GetNext SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. This message allows the SNMP manager to retrieve the next available variable in a sequence, making it efficient for retrieving a series of data points without having to send multiple individual requests.

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  • 39. 

    (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    B. Set
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set". In SNMP, the Set message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the SNMP manager to change the configuration or settings of SNMP agents or devices on the network. The Set message is typically sent from the SNMP manager to the agent, instructing it to update specific variables or parameters.

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  • 40. 

    (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    C. Trap
    Explanation
    A Trap message is an unsolicited message sent from an agent to the manager in the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP). It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred in the network. Unlike other SNMP messages like Get, Set, and GetNext, which are initiated by the manager to retrieve or modify information, a Trap message is sent proactively by the agent without any prior request from the manager.

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  • 41. 

    (007) What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?

    • A.

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe

    • B.

      Neighbor probe

    • C.

      Containment probe

    • D.

      System information probe

    Correct Answer
    B. Neighbor probe
    Explanation
    A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is used to gather information about neighboring devices in a network, such as their IP addresses, MAC addresses, and other relevant details. This information helps in understanding the network topology and identifying potential connectivity issues or bottlenecks. By collecting and analyzing this data, network administrators can optimize network performance and troubleshoot any problems that may arise.

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  • 42. 

    (007) What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

    • A.

      Broker

    • B.

      Clients

    • C.

      Map console

    • D.

      Domain manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Domain manager
    Explanation
    In a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application, the centerpiece is the domain manager. This component is responsible for managing and organizing the various domains within the system. It acts as a central hub that coordinates and oversees the activities of the other components, such as brokers, clients, and the map console. The domain manager ensures smooth communication and integration between these components, allowing for efficient tracking and reporting of system performance and events.

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  • 43. 

    (007) What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

    • A.

      Broker

    • B.

      Clients

    • C.

      Probes

    • D.

      Consoles

    Correct Answer
    A. Broker
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Broker." In the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application, the broker component is responsible for maintaining knowledge of available domain managers. The broker acts as an intermediary between the clients and the domain managers, allowing clients to access and interact with the domain managers' resources. It helps in managing the communication and coordination between the different components of the SMARTS application, ensuring efficient and effective system management.

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  • 44. 

    (007) What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?

    • A.

      Compound events, alarm, and trend

    • B.

      Compound events, problems, and network

    • C.

      Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events

    • D.

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events

    Correct Answer
    D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events. This is because SMARTS notifications can be categorized into these three types. Compound events refer to situations where multiple events occur simultaneously or in a specific sequence. Problems refer to issues or incidents that need attention or resolution. Symptomatic events are indicators of potential problems or anomalies in the system. Therefore, these three types of notifications cover a wide range of events and help in effective systems management.

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  • 45. 

    (007) What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?

    • A.

      Blue

    • B.

      Orange

    • C.

      Purple

    • D.

      Yellow

    Correct Answer
    C. Purple
    Explanation
    Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events. This means that when there is an event or multiple events recorded in the log, they are highlighted in purple.

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  • 46. 

    (008) How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      14

    • C.

      19

    • D.

      21

    Correct Answer
    D. 21
    Explanation
    The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that it offers a wide range of data and metrics to help you monitor and analyze the performance of your network. With these various categories, you can gain insights into different aspects of your network's performance, such as throughput, latency, errors, and more. This comprehensive set of information allows you to effectively monitor and troubleshoot any issues that may arise in your network.

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  • 47. 

    (008) What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?

    • A.

      Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)

    • B.

      Protocol analyzer

    • C.

      Network root router

    • D.

      Windows advanced server

    Correct Answer
    B. Protocol analyzer
    Explanation
    A protocol analyzer is a device that provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software. It is used to capture, analyze, and decode network traffic to troubleshoot network issues, monitor network performance, and develop network applications. It allows users to examine the protocols and data packets flowing through a network, helping them understand how the network is functioning and identify any problems or inefficiencies. This makes it an essential tool for network administrators and developers working with digital networks.

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  • 48. 

    (008) What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    C. Protocol statistics
    Explanation
    Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This means that by analyzing protocol statistics, one can gather data on how efficiently the network is being utilized and identify any errors that may be occurring specifically within that protocol. This information is valuable for troubleshooting and optimizing network performance.

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  • 49. 

    (008) What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics
    Explanation
    Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. The MAC layer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium and ensuring the integrity of transmitted frames. By monitoring MAC node statistics, errors occurring at the physical layer can be identified and addressed, allowing for efficient troubleshooting and maintenance of the network.

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  • 50. 

    (008) What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    D. Node discovery
    Explanation
    When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is the process of identifying and mapping all the nodes or devices present in a network. It helps in detecting and listing all the devices connected to the network, including their IP addresses and MAC addresses. This information is crucial for analyzing and troubleshooting network issues.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 29, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Henckel
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