3d052 CDC Vol 1 UREs

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1. (009) Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you __________

Explanation

Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they know. This means that the user needs to provide information that only they should know, such as a password, PIN, or answer to a security question. This method is commonly used in combination with other authentication factors, such as something the user has (e.g. a smart card) or something the user is (e.g. biometric data like fingerprints). By requiring the user to provide something they know, it adds an additional layer of security to verify their identity.

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3d052 CDC Vol 1 UREs - Quiz

These are the 3D052 Volume 1 UREs. This quiz is to help you study for your CDC exams. This should not be used as the only means of studying. You should also read through your CDCs in preparation for your exams.

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2. (001) What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

Explanation

A homogeneous network is a type of network that is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and equipment in the network are from the same manufacturer or are compatible with each other, allowing for seamless integration and communication. This type of network is often easier to manage and troubleshoot as there is a standardized system in place.

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3. (001) What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

Explanation

A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. This means that the network is made up of diverse devices and software that may not be compatible with each other. This can present challenges in terms of communication and interoperability between the different systems.

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4. (001) What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

Explanation

A computer network requires at least two computers to be connected and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no network as there would be no other device to connect to. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is 2.

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5. (010) What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?

Explanation

Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media because it uses a powerful magnetic field to completely erase all data on the media. This method ensures that the data cannot be recovered or reconstructed. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting methods may leave traces of data that can potentially be recovered, making them less secure than degaussing.

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6. (016) What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force?

Explanation

The correct answer is a Common Access Card (CAC). In the Air Force, a CAC is the primary unclassified PKI token used for individual PKI keys and certificates. It serves as an identification card and contains a microchip that securely stores digital credentials, allowing individuals to authenticate their identity and access various systems and resources. CACs are widely used in the military to ensure secure access to sensitive information and protect against unauthorized access.

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7. (001) How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

Explanation

In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale connections between devices, where each device can act as both a client and a server. These networks are commonly used for file sharing, online gaming, and collaboration among a small group of users. With a limited number of users, the network can maintain efficient communication and resource sharing without becoming overwhelmed.

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8. (005) What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

Explanation

The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are put in place to protect the network and its resources from unauthorized access, ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to sensitive information. This includes implementing firewalls, encryption, access control lists, and other security measures to prevent unauthorized access and protect the network from potential threats.

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9. (009) What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This answer refers to the three primary ways of authentication. "Something you know" refers to passwords or PINs that only the authorized user should know. "Something you have" refers to physical objects like identification cards or security tokens that the user possesses. "Something you are" refers to biometric characteristics like fingerprints, voiceprints, or retinal scans that are unique to an individual. These three factors provide a layered approach to authentication, increasing the security of the system.

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10. (011) What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Denial of authorization to operation (DATO). This documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG). It indicates that the system has been denied authorization to operate, meaning it does not meet the necessary security requirements or has not undergone the necessary testing and certification processes. This prevents the system from accessing or connecting to the GIG, ensuring the security and integrity of the network.

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11. (012) A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?

Explanation

A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a de-militarized zone (DMZ). This is because a DMZ is a separate network segment that is isolated from the internal network and is designed to provide a layer of security for publicly accessible services. By placing the web-server in a DMZ, it adds an additional layer of protection by separating it from the internal network, reducing the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive data and resources.

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12. (001) What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

Explanation

An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that is restricted to authorized personnel. It is a network that is internal to an organization and is used for communication and data sharing among employees or members of the organization. This network is not accessible to the public or unauthorized individuals, ensuring the security and privacy of the organization's data and resources.

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13. (001) What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

Explanation

A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike other types of networks such as Local Area Networks (LANs), Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs), or Wide Area Networks (WANs) which have limitations in terms of geographical coverage, GANs have the ability to span across the globe. GANs are typically used by large organizations or multinational companies that have branches or offices in different countries or continents and need a network infrastructure to connect them all together.

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14. (003) What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

Explanation

Air Force Instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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15. (003) What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

Explanation

The network control center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring its availability and security. The NCC is typically staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for troubleshooting network issues, managing network resources, and coordinating with other network entities to ensure smooth operations.

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16. (011) What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system?

Explanation

To permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system, an authorization to operate (ATO) is required. This means that the organization or system has met all the necessary security requirements and has been granted permission to operate on the GIG. The ATO ensures that the system has undergone the necessary security assessments and has implemented the required safeguards to protect the information on the GIG. It signifies that the system is authorized to access and exchange information on the GIG network.

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17. (001) How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?

Explanation

A multi-server high-speed backbone network typically consists of multiple servers and is designed to handle a large amount of traffic. Therefore, it is reasonable to expect that the number of users in such a network would fall within the range of 250-1000. This range allows for a significant number of users to be connected to the network while still maintaining its high-speed and efficient performance.

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18. (002) What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

Explanation

The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. This address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure that data is delivered to the correct destination. The MAC address is typically a 48-bit hexadecimal number and is hard-coded into the NIC by the manufacturer.

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19. (010) What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?

Explanation

Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively removes all data from the magnetic media, making it impossible to recover any information. Degaussing is commonly used to securely erase sensitive data from hard drives, tapes, and other magnetic storage devices. It is a reliable method for ensuring that data cannot be accessed or recovered, making it an important step in the data sanitization process.

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20. (012) What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?

Explanation

A threat refers to a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack that is directed towards causing denial of service. It can be any potential danger or harm that could exploit vulnerabilities in a system or compromise its security. Threats can come from various sources such as malicious individuals, hackers, or even natural disasters. It is important to identify and assess threats in order to implement appropriate security measures and protect against potential attacks.

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21. (018) Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds __________

Explanation

Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than 30 days, there will be ongoing and continuous support for communication needs. This could include maintaining communication channels, ensuring connectivity, providing technical assistance, and addressing any communication-related issues that may arise during the deployment.

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22. (003) According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

Explanation

The Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1 in the Air Force network structure. This means that it is the highest level of network support and is responsible for managing and maintaining the overall network infrastructure. Tier 1 centers typically have the most advanced technology and resources, and they provide critical support for all lower tiers. They are responsible for monitoring network performance, troubleshooting issues, and coordinating with other network centers to ensure smooth operations.

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23. (010) What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

Explanation

Destroying refers to the process of physically damaging the media to make it unusable and rendering the data irretrievable. This can involve methods such as shredding, incineration, or crushing the media to a point where it cannot be reconstructed or accessed. Unlike degaussing, sanitizing, or overwriting, destroying ensures that the data on the media cannot be recovered through any known exploitation methods.

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24. (011) What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?

Explanation

An enclave refers to a collection of computing environments that are connected by one or more internal networks and are under the control of a single approval authority and security policy. This means that the computing environments within the enclave are interconnected and managed by a central authority, ensuring that they adhere to specific security measures and policies. The term "enclave" is commonly used in the context of secure and controlled computing environments, such as military or government networks.

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25. (013) What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

Explanation

Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers. PKI uses a combination of public and private keys to encrypt and decrypt data, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and authentication. It involves the use of digital certificates, which are issued by a trusted third party called a certificate authority (CA), to verify the identity of parties involved in the transaction. PKI is widely used in various applications such as secure email, e-commerce, and online banking to establish a secure and trusted communication channel.

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26. (014) Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?

Explanation

The correct answer is Certificate authority. A certificate authority is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a public key infrastructure (PKI). It is the trusted entity that issues digital certificates to individuals or organizations, verifying their identity and ensuring the integrity and confidentiality of their communications. The certificate authority plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and trustworthiness of a PKI system.

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27. (002) How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

Explanation

The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information that consists of 8 bits, and it is commonly used to represent IP addresses in the IPv4 format. IPv4 addresses are made up of four sets of numbers, each ranging from 0 to 255, separated by periods. Each set of numbers represents one octet, resulting in a total of 32 bits or 4 octets. This allows for a maximum of approximately 4.3 billion unique IP addresses in the IPv4 addressing scheme.

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28. (007) What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?

Explanation

Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events. This means that when there is an event or multiple events recorded in the log, they are highlighted in purple.

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29. (012) What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the attacker to bypass the firewall's security measures by hiding the malicious content within a legitimate message. By using tunneling, the attacker can successfully deliver the payload to the target system without being detected or blocked by the firewall.

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30. (012) What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

Explanation

Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations. These scanners are designed to scan networks, systems, or applications for any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in their security settings. By identifying these weaknesses, vulnerability scanners help organizations to proactively address and fix potential security issues before they can be exploited by attackers. This makes vulnerability scanners an essential tool in maintaining the security and integrity of network systems.

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31. (012) An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a __________

Explanation

An information system on a network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a vulnerability. This means that the system is exposed to potential risks and attacks as it does not have proper authentication measures in place. Without the requirement of a CAC or password, unauthorized individuals may be able to gain access to the system, compromising its security. Therefore, this lack of security measures represents a vulnerability in the network.

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32. (004) What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?

Explanation

A centralized network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are handled by a single central system. This architecture offers simplicity and efficiency in managing the network, as all management tasks can be performed from one location.

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33. (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?

Explanation

The operational SNMP message that asks for a specific instance of management information is "Get". The "Get" message is used to retrieve the value of a specific object or variable from a managed device. It allows the network management system to request specific information from the SNMP agent running on the device, such as the status of a particular interface or the amount of available memory.

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34. (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

Explanation

A Trap message is an unsolicited message sent from an agent to the manager in the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP). It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred in the network. Unlike other SNMP messages like Get, Set, and GetNext, which are initiated by the manager to retrieve or modify information, a Trap message is sent proactively by the agent without any prior request from the manager.

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35. (012) What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a variety of attacks without an information system owner's knowledge?

Explanation

A bot is a type of malicious logic that can form large networks, known as botnets, without the knowledge of the information system owner. These botnets can then be used to launch various attacks, such as Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks, spamming, or stealing sensitive information. Bots typically infect a system by exploiting vulnerabilities or tricking users into downloading them, and once installed, they can be controlled remotely by the attacker. This allows the attacker to use the compromised systems to carry out their malicious activities without the owner's knowledge.

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36. (001) What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically used in homes, offices, or educational institutions. LANs provide high-speed connections and allow users to share resources such as printers and files. They are cost-effective and easy to set up and maintain. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) or global area networks (GANs), LANs have a limited coverage area and are designed for local use. Metropolitan area networks (MANs) cover a larger geographical area than LANs but smaller than WANs.

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37. (002) What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

Explanation

The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000.

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38. (002) What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

Explanation

The network ID of an IP address is the portion of the IP address that identifies the network. In this case, the given IP address is 131.10.230.120/24. The /24 indicates that the first 24 bits of the IP address are the network ID. So, the network ID would be 131.10.230.0.

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39. (018) What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?

Explanation

The correct answer, Theater deployable communications (TDC), is a program that is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base. This program is specifically designed to be deployable and can be set up quickly in theater environments to ensure effective and efficient communication among all personnel and agencies involved.

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40. (001) How many users are in a multi-server network?

Explanation

In a multi-server network, the number of users typically falls within the range of 50-250. This range indicates that the network is capable of accommodating a moderate number of users, making it suitable for small to medium-sized organizations. Having a larger number of users would require a more robust network infrastructure to ensure optimal performance and reliability. Conversely, a smaller number of users may not fully utilize the capabilities of a multi-server network. Therefore, the 50-250 range strikes a balance between scalability and efficiency.

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41. (003) What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

Explanation

AFI 33-115v1 provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing the AF-GIG, which is the Air Force's worldwide network of information systems. It establishes the roles and responsibilities of personnel involved in the operation and maintenance of the AF-GIG and ensures the proper handling and protection of sensitive information. AFI 33-115v1 is essential for maintaining the integrity and security of the Air Force's information infrastructure.

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42. (007) What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Broker." In the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application, the broker component is responsible for maintaining knowledge of available domain managers. The broker acts as an intermediary between the clients and the domain managers, allowing clients to access and interact with the domain managers' resources. It helps in managing the communication and coordination between the different components of the SMARTS application, ensuring efficient and effective system management.

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43. (009) The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?

Explanation

The Air Force requires a network password to be at least 9 characters long. This ensures that the password is strong and secure, as longer passwords are generally more difficult to guess or crack. A longer password also provides a larger number of possible combinations, making it harder for unauthorized individuals to gain access to the network.

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44. (012) What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling and application-based attacks are examples of network attacks that can bypass the firewall. Tunneling involves encapsulating one protocol within another to bypass network security measures. This allows attackers to hide their malicious activities and gain unauthorized access to the network. Application-based attacks target vulnerabilities in specific applications or services, exploiting them to gain access to the network. By targeting the application layer, these attacks can bypass the firewall's protection and compromise the network's security.

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45. (012) A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a __________

Explanation

A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is referred to as a virus. Viruses are malicious software that can infect other programs or files, causing damage or spreading to other systems. They often attach themselves to legitimate programs, allowing them to spread unnoticed and carry out their malicious activities. Unlike Trojan horses, worms, and bots, viruses specifically replicate by attaching themselves to other programs.

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46. (014) What is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key?

Explanation

A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) certificate is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key. This certificate is issued by a trusted third-party called a Certificate Authority (CA) and is used to verify the authenticity of the user's public key. It ensures that the user's public key can be trusted and establishes a secure communication channel between the user and other parties.

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47. (015) Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?

Explanation

Diffie and Hellman is the correct answer because it is exclusively a key establishment protocol. Diffie and Hellman algorithm is used to securely exchange cryptographic keys over an insecure communication channel. It allows two parties to establish a shared secret key without having to share any information beforehand. This key can then be used for symmetric encryption or other cryptographic operations. RSA, ECDSA, and ECDH are also public key algorithms, but they have other purposes such as encryption, digital signatures, and key agreement.

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48. (018) Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?

Explanation

Sustained communications support teams are responsible for providing uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency. This means that they ensure that communication channels remain open and operational, allowing important information to be relayed effectively between different units. These teams are crucial for maintaining effective communication during contingency operations, ensuring that vital information is shared and received in a timely manner.

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49. (001) What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region. Unlike local area networks (LANs) that are limited to a small area, WANs cover larger areas and can connect multiple LANs together. WANs are commonly used by businesses and organizations to connect their offices and branches across different cities or even countries. They provide a wide range of communication services, such as internet access, data sharing, and remote access. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is wide area network (WAN).

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50. (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

Explanation

The GetNext SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. This message allows the SNMP manager to retrieve the next available variable in a sequence, making it efficient for retrieving a series of data points without having to send multiple individual requests.

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51. (010) Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?

Explanation

The information owner is responsible for declassifying storage media that has been sanitized. As the owner of the information, they have the authority and knowledge to determine when it is appropriate to declassify the media. This ensures that sensitive information is properly protected and only made accessible when necessary. The other options listed, such as the Information Assurance Officer (IAO), Designated Approval Authority (DAA), and Information System Security Officer, may have roles in the overall security and classification process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the information owner.

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52. (010) Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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53. (017) Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?

Explanation

Initial communications support teams provide a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities. These teams are responsible for establishing and maintaining communication systems and networks in the initial stages of a mission. They ensure that the forces on the ground have the necessary means to communicate effectively and coordinate their efforts. This is crucial for establishing a secure and efficient operational environment.

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54. (005) Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

Explanation

Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and collecting historical data. Monitoring allows organizations to keep a close eye on their network performance, identify any issues or anomalies, and make informed decisions based on the data collected. By continuously monitoring the network, organizations can ensure that it is functioning optimally and take proactive measures to address any potential problems.

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55. (006) What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Set". In SNMP, the Set message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the SNMP manager to change the configuration or settings of SNMP agents or devices on the network. The Set message is typically sent from the SNMP manager to the agent, instructing it to update specific variables or parameters.

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56. (012) What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?

Explanation

An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device that is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks. It is designed to detect and alert on any suspicious or malicious activities that may be occurring within a network or system. Unlike a firewall which primarily focuses on blocking and filtering incoming and outgoing network traffic, an IDS is specifically designed to identify and respond to potential security breaches. It analyzes network traffic, logs, and other data sources to identify patterns and behaviors that may indicate an attack or unauthorized access attempt.

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57. (001) What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

Explanation

An enterprise network is the correct answer because it is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in different cities or even globally. This network is designed to support the communication needs of a large organization or enterprise, allowing employees to share resources, collaborate, and access centralized services and data regardless of their physical location. It provides a secure and reliable infrastructure for seamless connectivity and efficient communication across multiple locations.

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58. (002) How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?

Explanation

IPv6 uses a 128-bit address space, which means that the subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. This allows for a much larger number of unique IP addresses compared to IPv4, which uses a 32-bit address space. The larger address space in IPv6 also provides better support for features like auto-configuration and mobility.

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59. (006) What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Agent. In a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) system, the agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. The agent resides on the managed devices or nodes in the network and communicates with the management system, providing information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. The agent acts as an intermediary between the management system and the managed devices, ensuring that the management system has access to the necessary data for effective network management.

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60. (007) What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?

Explanation

A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is used to gather information about neighboring devices in a network, such as their IP addresses, MAC addresses, and other relevant details. This information helps in understanding the network topology and identifying potential connectivity issues or bottlenecks. By collecting and analyzing this data, network administrators can optimize network performance and troubleshoot any problems that may arise.

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61. (009) What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?

Explanation

Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a subject and confirming their eligibility to access certain information or resources. It involves the use of credentials, such as usernames and passwords, biometric data, or security tokens, to validate the subject's identity. By successfully authenticating, the subject proves that they are who they claim to be, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access the desired information.

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62. (010) Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered __________

Explanation

Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered sensitive because it is capable of retaining and preserving data even when there is no power supply. This type of storage media is often used for storing important and confidential information that needs to be protected and accessed even in the absence of power. Examples of sensitive storage media include hard disk drives, solid-state drives, and non-volatile memory.

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63. (012) What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?

Explanation

A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file. Unlike viruses, which typically attach themselves to files and require the file to be executed to activate, worms are standalone programs that can spread and execute themselves without any file attachment. They exploit vulnerabilities in computer networks and can self-replicate, allowing them to quickly spread and infect other systems.

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64. (014) What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?

Explanation

Public key encryption is a cryptographic method that uses two different keys - a public key and a private key. The public key is used to encrypt the message, while the private key is used to decrypt it. Only the recipient possesses the private key, ensuring that only they can decrypt the message. Therefore, using a public key to encrypt a message ensures that it can only be decrypted by the recipient.

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65. (004) Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

Explanation

The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are handled by a central entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels or tiers, with each level responsible for specific tasks. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for more flexibility and scalability. These three architectures are commonly used in network management to suit different needs and requirements.

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66. (011) What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)". This is the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system. These requirements include ensuring the system's security, its ability to work with other systems (interoperability), its ease of support and maintenance (supportability), its ability to continue functioning over time (sustainability), and its user-friendliness (usability).

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67. (014) What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?

Explanation

A private key is a file that is kept with you and allows you to decrypt files that have been encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code. It is a crucial component of asymmetric encryption, where a pair of keys (public and private) are used for encryption and decryption. The private key is kept secret and should only be accessible to the owner, ensuring that only authorized individuals can decrypt the encrypted files.

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68. (012) What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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69. (001) How many users are in a single-server network?

Explanation

In a single-server network, the number of users can range from 10 to 50. This means that there can be a minimum of 10 users and a maximum of 50 users connected to the network. The range suggests that the network is relatively small and can be managed effectively by a single server.

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70. (005) What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

Explanation

Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault. These parameters set the acceptable limits for errors, allowing for a certain level of variation before considering it as a fault. By defining tolerance parameters, it becomes easier to identify and differentiate between normal errors and errors caused by faults in a system or process.

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71. (006) Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?

Explanation

Network management protocols are designed to reside above the session layer of the OSI model. The session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating connections between applications. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and control network devices and services. These protocols operate at a higher layer than the session layer, typically at the application layer. Therefore, the correct answer is session.

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72. (007) What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events. This is because SMARTS notifications can be categorized into these three types. Compound events refer to situations where multiple events occur simultaneously or in a specific sequence. Problems refer to issues or incidents that need attention or resolution. Symptomatic events are indicators of potential problems or anomalies in the system. Therefore, these three types of notifications cover a wide range of events and help in effective systems management.

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73. (011) What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR). This is the database that serves as the record for registering all systems and applications. It is a centralized repository where information about various IT systems and applications within an organization is stored. This database helps in maintaining a comprehensive and up-to-date inventory of all the systems and applications, which is essential for security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability purposes.

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74. (011) How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways does the Air Force possess?

Explanation

The Air Force possesses 16 non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways.

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75. (012) Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?

Explanation

The correct answer is Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). This agency is responsible for approving all information protection tools before they can be used. The Defense Information System Agency (DISA) is responsible for providing information technology and communications support to the Department of Defense, but they do not specifically approve information protection tools. The Air Force Communication Agency (AFCA) and the Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT) may be involved in information protection, but they do not have the authority to approve tools.

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76. (012) What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message's header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port?

Explanation

A packet filtering firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that determine whether to accept or reject a message based on information in the message's header, such as the source address, destination address, and port. This type of firewall analyzes individual packets of data and filters them based on the specified criteria. It does not examine the content of the message, but rather focuses on the packet-level information to make decisions about network traffic.

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77. (015) The two ways key establishment can occur are key __________

Explanation

Key establishment can occur through key transfer, which involves the exchange of pre-existing keys between parties, and key agreement, which involves the generation of a shared key through a cryptographic protocol. Both methods are essential for ensuring secure communication between parties by establishing a common key that can be used for encryption and decryption.

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78. (002) What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

Explanation

The host id of an IP address is the portion of the address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120/24. The "/24" indicates that the first 24 bits of the address represent the network portion, while the remaining 8 bits represent the host portion. The host id is therefore the last 8 bits of the address, which in this case is "0.0.0.120".

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79. (006) What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

Explanation

The area of the SNMP tree structure that is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment is the "Private" area. This area allows vendors to define their own unique labels and objects for their equipment, which are not standardized or defined by the SNMP protocol itself.

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80. (012) What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses?

Explanation

Packet filtering is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses. It involves examining the packets of data that are being transmitted across a network and filtering out any packets that are coming from or going to addresses that are deemed inappropriate or unauthorized. This can help prevent unauthorized access to a network and protect against malicious activity. Proxy servers and bastion hosts can also provide security, but they are more complex and expensive solutions compared to packet filtering. Intrusion detection systems are designed to detect and respond to unauthorized access attempts, but they do not directly stop inappropriate network addresses.

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81. (005) Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

Explanation

Performance management involves monitoring the performance of a system or process and making adjustments or improvements to optimize its performance. Monitoring refers to the continuous observation and measurement of performance metrics, while tuning involves making adjustments or optimizations based on the analysis of the monitored data. Therefore, the correct answer is "Monitoring and tuning" as these two categories encompass the essential functions of performance management.

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82. (008) What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

Explanation

Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This means that by analyzing protocol statistics, one can gather data on how efficiently the network is being utilized and identify any errors that may be occurring specifically within that protocol. This information is valuable for troubleshooting and optimizing network performance.

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83. (007) What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

Explanation

In a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application, the centerpiece is the domain manager. This component is responsible for managing and organizing the various domains within the system. It acts as a central hub that coordinates and oversees the activities of the other components, such as brokers, clients, and the map console. The domain manager ensures smooth communication and integration between these components, allowing for efficient tracking and reporting of system performance and events.

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84. (010) What regulation covers remanence security?

Explanation

AFSSI 8580 is the correct answer because it is the regulation that covers remanence security. Remanence security refers to the protection of residual data that remains on storage media even after it has been erased or overwritten. AFSSI 8580 provides guidelines and procedures for ensuring that remanence security is properly addressed and mitigated to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information. It outlines the requirements for secure data destruction and sanitization techniques to ensure that residual data cannot be recovered or exploited.

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85. (008) What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

Explanation

Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. The MAC layer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium and ensuring the integrity of transmitted frames. By monitoring MAC node statistics, errors occurring at the physical layer can be identified and addressed, allowing for efficient troubleshooting and maintenance of the network.

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86. (008) What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?

Explanation

Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. This data helps in analyzing the network's performance, identifying any bottlenecks or congestion, and optimizing resource allocation. By monitoring the number of connections and their utilization, network administrators can make informed decisions regarding capacity planning and troubleshooting. Protocol statistics may provide information about the overall network traffic, but connection statistics specifically focus on individual connections and their associated nodes. Node discovery is unrelated to bandwidth utilization and connection information.

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87. (008) How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

Explanation

The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that it offers a wide range of data and metrics to help you monitor and analyze the performance of your network. With these various categories, you can gain insights into different aspects of your network's performance, such as throughput, latency, errors, and more. This comprehensive set of information allows you to effectively monitor and troubleshoot any issues that may arise in your network.

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88. (004) What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

Explanation

A network management server is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. This server is responsible for monitoring and controlling network devices, managing network resources, and troubleshooting network issues. It helps in optimizing network performance, ensuring smooth operations, and enhancing overall productivity by efficiently managing the network infrastructure.

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89. (004) What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

Explanation

When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are engaging in interactive network management activity. This level of activity involves actively monitoring and responding to network issues in real-time, ensuring that any problems are identified and resolved promptly. It requires a hands-on approach and continuous monitoring to maintain the network's performance and stability.

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90. (011) What is the Department of Defense process for certifying and accrediting information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP). This process is used by the Department of Defense to certify and accredit information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG). DIACAP ensures that these systems meet the necessary security requirements and are able to effectively support and sustain operations on the GIG. It encompasses various factors such as security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability to ensure the overall effectiveness and reliability of the systems.

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91. (004) What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

Explanation

Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server is responsible for overall network management and control, while the client systems perform specific tasks or functions assigned to them. This architecture provides a clear and organized structure, where the central server has control and authority over the client systems, allowing for efficient management and coordination of network resources.

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92. (006) What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

Explanation

A hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices is known as the management information base. It is a database that stores information about the devices on a network, including their configuration, performance, and status. This information can be accessed and managed by network management systems to monitor and control the network effectively.

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93. (008) What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

Explanation

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is the process of identifying and mapping all the nodes or devices present in a network. It helps in detecting and listing all the devices connected to the network, including their IP addresses and MAC addresses. This information is crucial for analyzing and troubleshooting network issues.

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94. (012) What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas. It acts as a gateway between the secure and less secure areas, controlling access and protecting the secure network from unauthorized access. It is specifically designed to withstand attacks and is hardened to prevent unauthorized access.

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95. (012) What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes. It acts as a fortified gateway between an internal network and an external network, providing an additional layer of security. The audit trails generated by a bastion host can be used to track and analyze network activity, identify potential security breaches, and detect any unauthorized access attempts.

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96. (004) What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?

Explanation

When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that you are working at the proactive level of network management activity. This level involves anticipating and preventing issues before they occur by using automated monitoring tools to identify and address potential problems.

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97. (011) What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?

Explanation

Accreditation is the correct answer because it refers to the formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk. This process involves evaluating the system's security controls, assessing risks, and determining if the system meets the necessary requirements to operate securely. Accreditation is an important step in ensuring the security and reliability of an information system.

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98. (008) What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a device that provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software. It is used to capture, analyze, and decode network traffic to troubleshoot network issues, monitor network performance, and develop network applications. It allows users to examine the protocols and data packets flowing through a network, helping them understand how the network is functioning and identify any problems or inefficiencies. This makes it an essential tool for network administrators and developers working with digital networks.

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99. (011) What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS) to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures?

Explanation

Certification refers to the comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system to determine the extent to which it complies with assigned information assurance controls. It involves conducting standardized procedures to assess the system's compliance and ensure its security and effectiveness. Certification is a crucial step in the overall process of information assurance and helps establish the system's credibility and reliability.

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100. (011) What process, along with AFI 33–210, Air Force Certification and Accreditation (C&A) Program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification & accreditation (C&A)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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